RPSC PROGRAMMER TOPIC WISE TEST – 2024

test NUMBER -03

Time: 02.00 Hours Questions: 100 Negative:0.33

Q.1. Which of the following is not a principle of object-oriented programming?

(A) Encapsulation (B) Inheritance
(C) Concurrency (D) Polymorphism
Q.2. In Java, which keyword is used to indicate that a class cannot be sub classed?
(A) final (B) static
(C) abstract (D) private
Q.3. Which concept in Java allows a class to have multiple methods with the same name but different
parameters?
(A) Inheritance (B) Encapsulation
(C) Polymorphism (D) Abstraction
Q.4. Which of the following is not a type of inheritance in Java?
(A) Single inheritance (B) Multiple inheritance
(C) Hierarchical inheritance (D) Multilevel inheritance
Q.5. Which access modifier in Java allows a member to be accessed only within its own package?
(A) public (B) private
(C) protected (D) default
Q.6. In Java, a class that cannot be instantiated directly but can be subclassed is known as:
(A) final class (B) abstract class
(C) static class (D) private class
Q.7. Which keyword is used to access the superclass method in Java?
(A) super (B) this
(C) extends (D) implements

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Q.8. Which of the following best describes polymorphism in Java?

(A) Ability of a method to do different things based on the object it is acting upon
(B) Ability of a class to have multiple constructors
(C) Ability of a class to hide its implementation details
(D) Ability to define methods with the same name in different classes
Q.9. In Java, a constructor:
(A) returns a value (B) is inherited from the superclass
(C) has the same name as the class (D) can be declared final
Q.10. Which keyword is used to prevent method overriding in Java?
(A) final (B) static
(C) private (D) abstract
Q.11. What is the purpose of the instanceof operator in Java?
(A) To check if an object is of a particular class type
(B) To create a new instance of a class
(C) To compare two objects for equality
(D) To access the superclass of an object
Q.12. Which of the following statements about interfaces in Java is false?
(A) An interface can extend another interface
(B) An interface can implement another interface
(C) An interface can contain method implementations
(D) An interface can contain constants
Q.13. What is the correct way to implement encapsulation in Java?
(A) Make all methods public
(B) Make all instance variables public

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(C) Provide public getter and setter methods for private instance variables
(D) Use only static methods and variables
Q.14. Which of the following statements about constructors in Java is true?
(A) A constructor can have a return type (B) A constructor cannot be overloaded
(C) A constructor can call methods (D) A constructor can be inherited
Q.15. What does the keyword this refer to in Java?
(A) Current class instance (B) Superclass instance
(C) Subclass instance (D) Previous class instance
Q.16. Which of the following is not a valid method of Object class in Java?
(A) equals() (B) hashCode()
(C) toString() (D) copy()
Q.17. What does the static keyword indicate in Java?
(A) The method can be called without creating an instance of the class
(B) The method can only be called from within the same class
(C) The method cannot be overridden
(D) The method is synchronized
Q.18. Which of the following is true about method overloading in Java?
(A) Method overloading allows methods to have the same name but different return types
(B) Method overloading allows methods to have different names but the same parameters
(C) Method overloading allows methods to have the same name and parameters but different return types
(D) Method overloading is not allowed in Java
Q.19. In Java, what is the default value of an instance variable?
(A) 0 (B) null (C) false (D) undefined
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Q.20. Which of the following statements about abstract classes in Java is true?
(A) An abstract class can be instantiated
(B) An abstract class cannot have any abstract methods
(C) An abstract class can extend multiple classes
(D) An abstract class can contain both abstract and non-abstract methods
Q.21. Which type of class cannot be instantiated and is used as a blueprint for other classes?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class
Q.22. Which type of class allows for the creation of multiple objects and contains a complete
implementation?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class
Q.23. Which type of class can have only static members and cannot be instantiated?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class
Q.24. Which type of class serves as a template for other classes and may contain one or more abstract
methods?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class
Q.25. Which type of class can have both abstract and non-abstract methods?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class

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Q.26. Which type of class can contain only static methods and variables?
(A) Final class (B) Abstract class
(C) Concrete class (D) Static class
Q.27. In Java, what is the purpose of a final class?
(A) To prevent method overriding (B) To prevent class inheritance
(C) To prevent method overloading (D) To prevent object creation
Q.28. Database table by name Loan_Records is given below.
Borrower Bank_Manager Loan_Amount
Ramesh Sunderajan 10000.00
Suresh Ramgopal 5000.00
Mahesh Sunderajan 7000.00
What is the output of the following SQL query?
SELECT Count(*)
FROM ( ( SELECT Borrower, Bank_Manager
FROM Loan_Records) AS S
NATURAL JOIN ( SELECT Bank_Manager, Loan_Amount
FROM Loan_Records) AS T );
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 5 (D) 6
Q.29. Consider the following relational schema:
Suppliers(sid:integer, sname:string, city:string, street:string)
Parts(pid:integer, pname:string, color:string)
Catalog(sid:integer, pid:integer, cost:real)
Consider the following relational query on the above database:
SELECT S.sname
FROM Suppliers S
WHERE S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C.sid
FROM Catalog C
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WHERE C.pid NOT IN (SELECT P.pid

FROM Parts P
WHERE P.color<> 'blue'))
Assume that relations corresponding to the above schema are not empty. Which one of the following is the
correct interpretation of the above query?
(A) Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied a non-blue part.
(B) Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied a non-blue part.
(C) Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied only blue parts.
(D) Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied only blue parts.
Q.30. Given the following statements:
S1: A foreign key declaration can always
be replaced by an equivalent check
assertion in SQL.

S2: Given the table R(a,b,c) where a and

b together form the primary key, the
following is a valid table definition.
CREATE TABLE S (
a INTEGER,
d INTEGER,
e INTEGER,
PRIMARY KEY (d),
FOREIGN KEY (a) references R)

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE. (B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE.

(C) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE. (D)Both S1 and S2 are FALSE.

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Q.31. Consider the following relational schema:

employee(empId, empName, empDept)
customer(custId, custName, salesRepId, rating)
salesRepId is a foreign key referring to empId of the employee relation. Assume that each employee makes a
sale to at least one customer. What does the following query return?
SELECT empName
FROM employee E
WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT custId
FROM customer C
WHERE C.salesRepId = E.empId
AND C.rating <> `GOOD`);
(A) Names of all the employees with at least one of their customers having a ‘GOOD’ rating.
(B) Names of all the employees with at most one of their customers having a ‘GOOD’ rating.
(C) Names of all the employees with none of their customers having a ‘GOOD’ rating.
(D) Names of all the employees with all their customers having a ‘GOOD’ rating
Q.32. The statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of the modification of the
database is
(A) backup (B) assertion
(C) recovery (D) Trigger
Q.33 Which of the following command is used to delete a table in SQL?
(A) Delete (B) truncate
(C) remove (D) drop
Q.34 The employee information in a company is stored in the relation
Employee (name, sex, salary, deptName)
Consider the following SQL query
select deptName
from Employee
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where sex = 'M'

group by deptName
having avg (salary) > (select avg (salary) from Employee)
It returns the names of the department in which
(A) the average salary is more than the average salary in the company
(B) the average salary of male employees is more than the average salary of all male employees in the
company
(C) the average salary of male employees is more than the average salary of employees in the same
department
(D) the average salary of male employees is more than the average salary in the company
Q.35 Select operation in SQL is equivalent to
(A) the selection operation in relational algebra
(B) the selection operation in relational algebra, except that select in SQL retains duplicates
(C) the projection operation in relational algebra
(D) the projection operation in relational algebra, except that select in SQL retains duplicates
Q.36 Consider the following tables :

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What will be the output of following SQL query ?

SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE E
WHERE 2 = (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT E1.SALARY)
FROM EMPLOYEE E1
WHERE E1.SALARY>E.SALARY)
(A) Second highest salary (B) Two distinct salary of employees
(C) Third highest salary (D) Employee with second highest salary
Q.37. Which is not aggregate function in SQL?
(A) COUNT (B) AVERAGE
(C) MIN (D) MAX
Q.38 Which one of the following is used to sort rows in SQL?
(A) SORT BY (B) ALIGN BY
(C) ORDER BY (D) Group By
Q.39 What result set is returned from the following SQL query?
A. Select customer_name, telephone
From customers Where city in ('Jaipur', Delhi', 'Agra');
(A) The customer_name and telephone of all customers.
(B) The customer_name and telephone of all customers Living in Jaipur, Delhi and Agra.
(C) The customer_name and telephone of all customers Living in either Jaipur Delhi or Agra.
(D) The customer_name and telephone of all customers who are not living in Jaipur, Delhi or Agra.
Q.40 Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query?
P: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause
Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause
R: All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause
S: Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
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(A) P and R (B) P and Q

(C) Q and R (D) Q and S
Q.41. Consider the following two tables and four queries in SQL.
Book (isbn, bname), Stock (isbn, copies)
Query 1: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies
FROM Book B INNER JOIN Stock S
ON B.isbn = S.isbn;
Query 2: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies
FROM Book B LEFT OUTER JOIN Stock S
ON B.isbn = S.isbn;
Query 3: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies
FROM Book B RIGHT OUTER JOIN Stock S
ON B.isbn = S.isbn;
Query 4: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies
FROM Book B FULL OUTER JOIN Stock S
ON B.isbn = S.isbn;
Which one of the queries above is certain to have an output that is a superset of the outputs
of the other three queries?
(A) Query 1 (B) Query 2
(C) Query 3 (D) Query 4
Q.42. Consider a Relation R(a,b)
Query1: Select * from R
Query2: Select * from R intersect Select * from R
Query3: Select distinct * from R
Which query set produce same result.
(A) Query1 & Query2 (B) Query1 & Query3
(C) Query2 & Query3 (D) None of above
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Q.43. In SQL, what is the difference between CHAR and VARCHAR data types?
(A) CHAR is fixed length, VARCHAR is variable length
(B) CHAR is variable length, VARCHAR is fixed length
(C) No difference
(D) VARCHAR is used only for numeric data
Q.44. Identify the error in
"ALTER TABLE Students DROP COLUMN DateOfBirth date;"
(A) ALTER TABLE (B) DROP COLUMN
(C) Date Of Birth (D) date
Q.45. In "ALTER TABLE Students ADD COLUMN Email varchar(50),
what is missing for this statement to be correct?
(A) ADD COLUMN (B) Email
(C) varchar(50) (D) All Correct
Q.46. In "UPDATE Employees SET Age = Age + 1 WHERE Department IN ('Sales', 'HR') AND Age >=
30;",
identify the error.
(A) The IN operator (B) The AND operator
(C) No error (D) The SET keyword
Q.47. How does the DEFAULT constraint function in SQL?
(A) It provides a default value for a column when no value is specified
(B) It sets default permissions for users
(C) It creates default tables
(D) It sets default sorting for data
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Q.48. Correct the error in

"CREATE TABLE Products (ProductID int, Price decimal CHECK Price > 0);"
(A) CREATE TABLE (B) Price decimal
(C) CHECK constraint usage (D) ProductID int
Q.49. What does the comparison operator '<>' do in SQL?
(A) Checks for equality (B) Checks for inequality
(C) Checks if less than (D) Checks if greater than
Q.50. What is the main difference between WHERE and HAVING clauses in SQL?
(A) WHERE filters rows before grouping, HAVING filters rows after grouping
(B) HAVING filters rows before grouping, WHERE filters rows after grouping
(C) No difference
(D) WHERE is used with aggregate functions, HAVING is not
Q.51. How does the ORDER BY clause treat NULL values by default?
(A) It places them at the beginning of the result set
(B) It places them at the end of the result set
(C) It ignores them
(D) It causes an error
Q.52. What happens if you use a column in the SELECT statement that is not in the GROUP BY clause?
(A) The query fails
(B) The query succeeds, and the column shows arbitrary values
(C) The query is automatically corrected
(D) The column is ignored

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Q.53. What is wrong in

"SELECT Department, COUNT(*) AS TotalEmployees FROM Employees GROUP BY Department
HAVING TotalEmployees > 5 ORDER BY TotalEmployees;"?
(A) SELECT Department (B) COUNT(*) AS TotalEmployees
(C) HAVING clause misuse (D) ORDER BY TotalEmployees
Q.54. What is a correlated subquery in SQL?
(A) A subquery that can be executed independently of the outer query
(B) A subqu ery that uses values from the outer query
(C) A subquery that returns multiple columns
(D) A subquery used in the FROM clause
Q.55.Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?/ चिह्न * वाले िेहरे के चवपरीत फलक
पर कौन सा चिह्न होगा?

(A) @ (B) $
(C) 8 (D) +
Q.56.Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the face
containing 5 points?/ पासे की दो चथिचतयााँ नीिे चदखाई गई हैं। 5 च िंदओ
ु िं वाले फलक के चवपरीत चकतने च िंदु चदखाई देंग?े

(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

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Q.57. How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which contains 2 points?/ चिस फलक पर 2 च दिं ु
हैं उसके चवपरीत फलक पर चकतने च िंदु होंगे?

(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 6
Q.58. Which number is on the face opposite to 6?/ 6 के चवपरीत फलक पर कौन सी सिंख्या है?

(A) 4 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
Q.59. From the four positions of a dice given below, find the color which is opposite to yellow ?/ नीिे चदए गए
पासे की िार चथिचतयों में से वह रिंग ज्ञात कीचिए िो पीले रिंग के चवपरीत है?

(A) Violet (B) Red

(C) Rose (D) Blue
Q.60.Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is
Suresh related to that boy?/ सरु े श ने एक लड़के की तथवीर की ओर ाशारा करते हए कहा, "वह मेरी मााँ के ाकलौते ेटे का ेटा
है।" सरु े श उस लड़के से चकस प्रकार सिं िंचित है?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Cousin (D) Father

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Q.61. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of
B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?/ यचद
A + B का अिथ है A, B की मााँ है; A - B का अिथ है A, B का भाई है; A % B का अिथ है चक A, B का चपता है और A x B का
अिथ है चक A, B की हन है, चनम्नचलचखत में से कौन सा दशाथता है चक P, Q का मामा है?
(A) Q - N + M x P (B) P + S x N - Q
(C) P - M + N x Q (D) Q - S % P
Q.62. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?/ यचद A, B
का भाई है; B, C की हन है; और C, D का चपता है, D, A से चकस प्रकार सिं िंचित है?
(A) Brother (B) Sister
(C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined
Q.63. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father
of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?/ यचद A + B का अिथ है A, B का भाई है; A - B का अिथ
है चक A, B की हन है और A x B का अिथ है चक A, B का चपता है। चनम्नचलचखत में से चकसका अिथ है चक C, M का पत्रु है?
(A) M - N x C + F (B) F - C + N x M
(C) N + M - F x C (D) M x N - C + F
Q.64. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy
related to the girl?/ लड़की ने एक लड़के का पररिय देते हए कहा, "यह मेरे िािा के चपता की ेटी का ेटा है।" लड़का लड़की से
चकस प्रकार सिं िंचित है?
(A) Brother (B) Nephew
(C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law
Q.65. 1857 के चवद्रोह के समय आउआ के ठाकुर कुशालचसिंह को मेवाड़ के चकस थिान के सामन्त ने अपने यहािं शरण दी
(A) कोठाररया (B) सलम्ू र
(C) आसोप (D) आसींद
Q.66. 1857 के चवद्रोह के दौरान, मेिर टथन और उसके दो पत्रु कहािं पर मारे गए िे
(A) नसीरा ाद (B) नीमि
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(C) ब्यावर (D) कोटा

Q.67. 1857 में कोटा के चवद्रोह का नेता कौन िा-
(A) कुशाल चसिंह (B) राम चसिंह
(C) ियदयाल (D) ख़्त चसिंह
Q.68. 1857 के चवद्रोह के दौरान चनम्न में से चकस चठकानेदार ने तात्या टोपे की सहायता की िी
(A) आउवा के कुशाल चसिंह ििंपावत (B) ागोर के चशवदान चसिंह
(C) सलिंू र के के सरी चसिंह (D) आसींद की दल्ु हे चसिंह
Q.69. 1857 की क्ािंचत में अिंग्रेि एविं िोिपरु राज्य की सिंयक्त
ु सेना को चकसने हराया िा-
(A) ठाकुर कुशाल चसिंह ने (B) तात्या टोपे ने
(C) राव िोि चसिंह ने (D) महारािा अनपू चसिंह ने
Q.70. चनम्न में से कौनसा थिान 1857 की क्ाचन्त का के न्द्र नहीं िा-
(A) अिमेर (B) नीमि
(C) आउवा (D) ियपरु
Q.71. कौनसा िोड़ा सही नहीं है?
ररयासत -- पोचलचटकल एिेन्ट
(A) ियपरु - कनथल ईडन (B) मेवाड़ - मैिर शॉवसथ
(C) कोटा - मैिर टथन (D) िोिपरु - पैचिक लॉरे स
Q.72 िन-कल्याणकारी योिनाओ िं की िानकारी आमिन तक पहिाने के चलए हाल ही में ट्चवटर पर ‘काम री ातािं िौपाल पर’
कायथक्म चकस कायथक्म के तहत आयोचित चकया गया -
(A) रािीव गािंिी यवु ा चमत्र कायथक्म (B) कौशल चवकास कायथक्म
(C) रािीव गािंिी यवु ा सिंिार कायथक्म (D) यवु ा िन सिंवाद कायथक्म
Q.73 हाल ही में सामचू हक चववाह योिना के अतिं गथत प्रचत िोड़ा अनदु ान राचश को 18 हिार से ढ़ाकर ...... कर चदया गया है -
(A) 20 हिार रू (B) 22 हिार रू

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(C) 25 हिार रू (D) 30 हिार रू

Q.74 रािथिान चमलेट्स काॅन््लेव-2023 का आयोिन चकस शहर में चकया गया –
(A) ियपरु (B) िोिपरु
(C) ीकानेर (D) िैसलमेर
Q.75 Which of the following is a debugging approach?
(a) Brute force (b) Backtracking
(c) Breakpoint (d) Divide and Conquer
Q.76 Mutation testing is a
(a) Model-based testing (b) Code-based testing
(c) Graph-based testing (d) Fault-based testing
Q.77 Test stubs and test drivers are
(A) Test driver (b) Dummy modules
(C) Test module (d) Main module
Q.78 What is a test script, which is performed on a system under test to verify that the system function as
expected?
(a) Test document (b) Test program
(c) Test procedure (d) Test report
Q.79 Which of the following is not an attribute of a test plan?
(a) Test schedule (b) SRS
(c) Test environment (d) Test release/Closure
Q.80 Which of the following is the testing tool?
(a) LoadRunner (b) Marathon
(c) Tessy,ZAP (d) All of the above
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Q.81 Which of the following is not a characteristic for testability?

(a) Usability (B) Simplicity
(C) Reliability (d) Robustness
Q.82 The deviation of the observed behaviour from the specified behaviour of the system is known as
(a) Failure (b) Fault
(c) Error (d) Risk
Q.83 The roles of pigs and chickens are the terminologies of
(a) Extreme programming (b) Scrum
(c) FDD (d) DSDM
Q.84 What is the purpose of writing user stories?
(a) Requirement elicitation and specification (b) Designing
(c) Deployment (d) Testing
Q.85 A retrospective meeting is conducted by development team at the
(a) Beginning of the project (b) End of the project
(c) Middle of the project (d) Delivery time
Q.86 Which of the following is a characteristic of agile-based development?
(a) Lightweight documentation (b) Working towards demand order
(c) Requirements are frozen at the beginning (d) Larger team size
Q.87 Which of the following is correct about agile manifesto?
I. Individuals and interactionsover processes and tools
II. Working software over comprehensive documentation
III. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
IV. Responding to change over following a plan
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(a) I and II (b) III and IV

(c) I, II, and III (d) I, II, III, and IV
Q.88 If a Direct approach or In-direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in
a) LOC b) FP
c) LOC and FP d) None of the mentioned
Q.89 Which of the following metrics is based on operators and operands?
(a) Lines of code (b) Function point
(c) Object point (d) Token count
Q.90 Which of the following is not responsible for the failure of a software development
(a) Inadequate user involvement
(b) Size of the company
(c) Continuation of project that should have been cancelled
(d) Failure to integrate components
Q.91 Phase-wise effort and time distribution can be obtained through
(a) Basic COCOMO (b) Intermediate COCOMO
(c) COCOMO-II (d) Detailed COCOMO
Q.92 The function point metric depends on
(a) Number of functions needed
(b) Number of external inputs and outputs
(c) Number of users
(d) Time required to transform input into output

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Q.93 The correct precedence order of project planning activities is

(a) Size estimation > Effort estimation > Cost estimation
(b) Size estimation > Cost estimation > Effort estimation
(c) Cost estimation > Size estimation > Effort estimation
(d) Effort estimation > Size estimation > Cost estimation
Q.94 The development of a data processing program in which team members are inexperienced &
experience in developing a similar product can be classified as project.
(a) Organic (b) Semidetached
(c) Embedded (d) Multiplicative
Q.95 Which of the following are direct measures?
(i) Size (ii) Effort (iii) Schedule (iv) Quality
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iv)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
Q.96 Software is defined as ___________
(a) set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
(b) set of programs
(c) documentation and configuration of data
(d) None of the mentioned
Q.97 Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
(a) 100-200 (b) 200-400
(c) above 1000 (d) We Can't say depands on lanaguge

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Q.98 Model selection is based on __________.

(a) Requirements (b) Development team & users
(c) Project type & associated risk (d) All of the above
Q.99 Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
(a) Deployment (b) Planning
(c) Modeling (d) Construction
Q.100 CASE stands for
(a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering
(b) Control Aided Science and Engineering
(c) Cost Aided System Experiments
(d) None of the mentioned

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