SAMPLE PAPER CHEMISTRY THEORY_CLASS_XII

(Lesson: - Solution)
MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions: Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries 1
mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIOS
1 The value of Henry’s constant KH is:
(a) greater for gases with higher solubility
(b) greater for gases with lower solubility.
(c) constant for all gases.
(d) not related to the solubility of gases.
2 Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause:
(a) decrease in molality
(b) decrease in molarity
(c) decrease in mole fraction
(d) decrease in % (w/w)
3 Colligative properties depend on:
(a) the nature of the solute
(b) the number of solute particles in solution
(c) the physical properties of solute
(d) the nature of the solvent
4 The unit of ebullioscopic constant is:
(a) K kg mol-1
(b) K-1 kg mol
(c) K kg-1 mol-1
(d) K kg-1 mol
5 The most suitable colligative property to determine molecular weight of biomolecules is:
(a) Lowering of vapour pressure
(b) Osmotic pressure
(c) Elevation of boiling point
(d) Depression of freezing point
6 The number of moles of NaCl in 3 litres of 3M solution is:
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 7
7 Which has highest freezing point:
(a) 1 M Glucose
(b) 1 M NaCl
(c) 1 M CaCl2
(d) 1 M AlF3
8 Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?
 (a) ΔHmixing = 0
(b) ΔVmixing = 0
(c) Raoult’s Law is obeyed
(d) Formation of an azeotropic mixture
9 Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the
following mixtures will show a negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Methanol and acetone.
(b) Chloroform and acetone.
(c) Phenol and aniline.
(d) Cyclohexane and ethanol
1 The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and
0 ethanol. The mixture shows:
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(d) that the solution is unsaturated.
1 If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, its molarity will be
1 (a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 5
(d) 10
1 The atmospheric pollution is generally measured in the units of
2 (a) mass percentage
(b) volume percentage
(c) volume fraction
(d) ppm
1 A 5% solution of cane-sugar (molecular weight = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of substance
3 A. The molecular weight of X is
(a) 342
(b) 171.2
(c) 68.4
(d) 136.8
1 234.2 gm of sugar syrup contains 34.2 gm of sugar. What is the molal concentration of the
4 solution.
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 5.5
(d) 55
1 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
5 Assertion (A): When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing
point.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
1 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
6 Assertion (A): Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they may have
boiling points either greater than both the components or less than both the components.
Reason (R): The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an
azeotropic mixture.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
1 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
7 Assertion (A): Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason (R): The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
1 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
8 Assertion (A): Molecular mass of benzoic acid when determined by colligative properties is
found high.
Reason (R): Dimerization of benzoic acid.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
1 Equimolal solutions of NaCl and BaCl2 are prepared in water. Freezing point of NaCl is found to
9 be – 20C, What freezing point do you expect for BaCl2 solution?
2 Write down four important points of differences between an ideal and a non-ideal solution.
0
OR
Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in a solution containing 30% by mass
of it in CCl4.
2 What do you mean by Raoult’slaw ? What are the limitations of Raoult’s law ?
1
OR
How many types of azeotropes are there? Define them along with one example of each.
2 Plot a graph between vapour pressure and mole fraction of a solution obeying Raoult’s Law at
2 constant temperature?
2 A mixture of chlorobenzene and bromobenzene is a nearly an ideal solution but a mixture of
3 chloroform and acetone is not Explain?
2 What is the molality of 1.0 M solution of sodium nitrate (NaNO3) if its density is 1.25 g cm-3?
4
2 The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 kPa at 300K; calculate the
5 vapour pressure of 1 molar solution of a solute in it.

SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
2 Miscible liquid pairs often show positive and negative deviation from Raoult’s law. Explain the
6 reason for such deviation? Give one example of each of liquid pairs.
2 A solution containing 18 g of non-volatile solute in 200g of water freezes at 272.07 K. calculate
7 the molecular mass of solute (given Kf = 1.86 K/m)
OR
0
Calculate the osmotic pressure at 27 C of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of two
solutions, one containing 0.05 mole of glucose in 250 ml of solution and the other containing
3.42 g of C12H22O11 in 250 ml of solution. [R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1]
2 An aqueous solution freezes at 272.4 K while pure water freezes at 273 K. Determine (i)
8 Molality of solution. (ii) Boiling point of solution (iii) Lowering of vapour pressure of water at
298 K.
2
The element A and B formed purely covalent compounds having molecular formula AB 2 and
9
AB4. When dissolved in 20 gram of benzene 1 gram of AB 2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K
and of AB4 by 1.3 K. Calculate atomic mass of A and B. The molar depression constant for
freezing is 5.1 KKg mol-1
3
An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar at the normal
0
boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the solute? (Vapour pressure of pure
water at the boiling point (P0) = 1 atm = 1.013 bar)
OR
Explain the following colligative properties in brief under the following head: (Definition,
Graphical representation and related mathematical expression)

SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and
carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
31. Osmotic pressure results from a reduction in the chemical potential of a solvent in the
presence of a solute. The tendency of a system to have equal cemical potentials over its entire
volume and to reach a state of lowest free energy gives rise to the osmotic diffusion of matter. In
ideal and dilute solutions, the osmotic pressure is independent of the nature of the solvent and
solutes. At constant temperature it is determined only by the number of kinetically active particles—
ions, molecules, associated species, and colloidal particles in a unit volume of the solution.
For very dilute solutions of nondissociating compounds, osmotic pressure is described with
sufficient accuracy by the equation πV = nRT, where n is the number of moles of solute, V is the
volume of the solution, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the absolute temperature.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer
(i) Name and define the process/method which is used for purification of water?
(ii) Which colligative property is most suitable to measure molecular mass of proteins and why?
(iii) 200 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of
such a solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.
OR
A solution contains 0.8960g of K2SO4 in 500ml solution. Its osmotic pressure is found to be 0.690atm at
270C. Calculate the value of Van’t Hoff factor. (K=39.0, S=32, O=16, R=0.082atm mol -1K-1)
 32. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What type of liquids form the ideal solution?

(ii) Give one example of an ideal solution.
(iii) (a) Write two characteristics of a non-ideal solution.
(b) Which type of deviation will be shown by the solution if yAB < yAA.
OR
Plot a graph between vapour pressure and mole fraction of a non-ideal solution showing positive and
negative deviations from an ideal solution.
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.
33. (i) Two liquids A and B on mixing form an ideal solution. At 30 0C vapour pressure of solution containing
3 mol of A and 1 mol of B is 550 mmHg. But when 4 mol of A and 1 mol of B are mixed. The vapour
pressure of solution thus formed is 560 mm Hg. What would be the V.P of pure A and B?
(ii) Explain the fact that Raoult’s Law is a special case of Henry’s Law.
(iii) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure of a volatile component in a given solution is given
by pi = xi pi0.
OR
(a) 0.6 mL of acetic acid (CH3COOH), having density 1.06 g mL–1, is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The
depression in freezing point observed for this strength of acid was 0.0205°C. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor
and the dissociation constant of acid.
(b) Define Van’t Hoff factor. Give the value of Van’t Hoff factor in case of the following: Association,
Dissociation and neither association nor dissociation of solute when dissolved in a solvent.
34. (a) What is meant by abnormal molar mass of solute? Discuss the factors which bring abnormality in
the experimentally determined molecular masses of solutes using colligative properties.
(b) If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N2 gas would dissolve in 1 litre of
water. Assume that N2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. Given that Henry’s law constant for N 2 at 293
K is 76.48 kbar.
l Molar Mass/ van’t Hoff factor = 120/4 = 30 g/mol
35. (a) Why is glycol and water mixture used in car radiators in cold countries?
(b) Give reason When 30 ml of ethyl alcohol and 30ml of water are mixed, the volume of resulting
solution is more than 60ml.
(c) Define cryoscopic constant?
(d) State (i) Azeotropes and (ii) Henry’s Law constant.

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

 CHEMISTRY THEORY (043)
Chapter: ELECTROCHEMISTRY
M.M:70 Time:3 Hours
General instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
A) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
B) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
C) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
D) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
E) SECTION D consists of 2 case – based questions carrying 4 marks each.
F) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
G) All questions are compulsory.
H) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carry 1
mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. The function of the salt bridge is to
(a) Allow ions to move from anode to cathode
(b) Allow solutions from one half cell to the other half cell
(c) Allow the current to flow through the cell and keep the solutions electrically neutral
(d) Keep the level of solution same.
2. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because
(a) Eoxi of zinc is less than Eoxi of iron
(b) Ered of zinc is less than Ered of iron
(c) Zinc is cheaper than iron
(d) Zinc is abundantly available
3. The charge required for reduction of 1 mol of Cr2O72- ions to Cr3+ is-
(a) 96500 C
(b) 2 x 96500 C
(c) 6 x 96500 C
(d) 4 x 96500 C
4. Other things being equal , the life of a Daniel cell may be increased by
(a) Keeping low temperature
(b) Using large copper electrodes
(c) Decreasing concentration of copper ions
(d) Using large zinc electrodes
5. The ionic conductivity of the cations and anion of the univalent salt is 140 and 80
respectively. The molar conductivity of the salt is
(a) 160 Ω-1 cm2 mol-1
(b) 280 Ω-1 cm2 mol-1
(c) 60 moles
(d) 220 Ω-1 cm2 mol-1
6. Farday’s laws of electrolysis are related to
(a) Atomic number of the cation
(b) Atomic number of the anion
(c) Equivalent mass of the electrolytes
(d) Speed of the cation
7. The molar conductivity of an electrolyte increases as
(a) Dilution increases
(b) Temperature decreases
(c) Dilution decreases
(d) None of the above
8. When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed the product obtained at the cathode is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Sodium metal
(c) Oxygen
(d) Chlorine
9. A dilute aqueous solution of Na2SO4 is electrolyzed using Pt electrodes. The products at
the anode and cathode are
(a) O2, H2
(b) S2O82-, Na
(c) O2, Na6
(d) S2O82-,H2
10. The ionic conductance of Ba2+ and Cl- ions are respectively 127 and 76 Ω-1 cm2 at
infinite dilution.
The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution is
(a) 203 Ω-1 cm2
(b) 279 Ω-1 cm2
(c) 101.5 Ω-1 cm2
(d) 139.5 Ω-1 cm2
11. The best way to prevent rusting of iron is by
(a) Putting it in to saline water
(b) Cathodic protection
(c) Coating tin on it
(d) Putting it in tap water
12. A lead storage battery is recharged
(a) Lead dioxide dissolves
(b) Sulphuric acid is regenerated
(c) Lead electrodes become coated with lead sulphide
(d) The concentration of sulphuric acid decreases
13. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt bridge because
(a) Velocity of K+ ion is greater than that of NO3-
(b) Velocity of K+ ion is lesser than that of NO3-
(c) Velocity of K+ and NO3- ions are equal
(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water
14. For the redox reaction Zn + Cu2+(0.1M) ------ Zn2+(1M) +Cu taking place in a cell E°Cell
=1.10 V. Ecell for the galvanic cell will be
(a) 2.14 V
(b) 1.80 V
(c) 1.07 V
(d) 0.82 V
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) – The reduction potential of the electrode can be increased by increasing the concentration
of metal cations.
Reason (R ) – E is directly proportional to [Mn+]
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) – Zinc protect the iron better than tin even after cracks.
Reason (R ) – Oxidation potential of Zn > Fe but oxidation potential of Sn < Fe
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) – Identification of anode and cathode is done by use of thermometer.
Reason (R ) – Higher the value of reduction potential greater would be its oxidizing power.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) – E° is an intensive property.
Reason (R ) – E° is constant for a particular electrode at a given temperature
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are very
short answer type and carry 2 marks of each.
19. The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm-1. Calculate its molar
conductivity.
20. How much charge is required for the following reduction of
(i) 1 mol of Al3+ to Al
(ii) 1 mol of MnO4- to Mn2+
OR
How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce?
(i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2
(ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al2O3
21. What are Fuel cells? Write cell reaction.
OR
What advantages do fuel cell have over conventional methods of generating electrical energy?
22. State Kohlrausch’s law and mention it’s applications.
23. What is corrosion? Give the mechanism of rusting on the basis of electrochemical
theory.
24. Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.
25. Give chemical reaction taking place during discharging of lead storage battery.
SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are short
answer type and carry 3 marks.
26. Calculate the maximum work done that can be obtained from the Daniell cell
Zn/Zn2+//Cu2+/Cu. Given that E°Zn2+/Zn and E°Cu2+/Cu are -0.76 and +0.34 V respectively.
27. Define molar conductivity. How conductivity and molar conductivity does varies with
dilution for both weak and strong electrolyte?
28. Given the following cell Al/Al3+(0.01M)//Fe2+(0.02M)/Fe. Calculate the value of Ecell at
298K. Given E°Al3+/Al and E°Fe2+/Fe are -1.66 V and -0.44 V respectively. [ log 2=0.3010]
29. A current of 1.50A was passed through an electrolytic cell containing AgNO3 solution
with inert electrodes .The weight of silver deposited was 1.50 g. How long did the current flow ?
( Ag=108 u , F=96500 C/mol)
OR
The conductivity of a 0.01M solution of acetic acid at 298K is 1.65 x 10-4 Scm-1 . Calculate its molar
conductivity.
30. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place. The value of E° for the
cell is 1.260V. What is the value of Ecell? 2Al +3Cd2+(0.1M) ---- 3Cd + 2Al3+(0.01M)
OR
Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C. Al/Al3+(0.001M)//Ni2+(0.1M)/Ni
Given E°Al3+/Al and E°Ni2+/Ni are -1.66 V and -0.25 V respectively. [log2=0.3010,log3=0.4771]
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries 4
(1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
31. Molar conductivity for weak electrolytes can be obtained from molar conductivities of
strong electrolytes at infinite dilution by doing algebraic addition. For example ,molar conductivity of weak
electrolyte like CH3COOH can be obtained from molar conductivities at infinite dilution of strong
electrolytes like CH3COONa , HCl and NaCl according to Kohlrauch’s law
Λ°m CH3COOH = [Λ°mCH3COO- + Λ°mNa+]+[ Λ°mH++ Λ°mCl-]-[ Λ°m Na+ + Λ°mCl-]
(i) What is the expression of Λ°m for an electrolyte AmBn ?
(ii) Define limiting molar conductivity.
(iii) Calculate Λ°m for AgCl if Λ°m (AgNO3) = 133.4, Λ°m(KCl)=149.9, Λ°m(KNO3)=144.9
Scm2mol-1
OR
Calculate Λ°m for HAc if Λ°m (HCl) = 425.9, Λ°m(NaCl)=126.4, Λ°m(NaAc)=91.0 Scm2mol-1
32. The standard electrode potentials are very important and we can extract a lot of useful
information from them. If the standard electrode potential of an electrode is greater than Zero then it’s
reduced form is more stable compared to hydrogen gas. Similarly, if the standard electrode potential is
negative than hydrogen gas is more stable than the reduced form of the species. It can be seen that the
standard electrode potential for Fluorine is the highest indicating that F2 gas has the maximum tendency
to get reduced to Fluoride ion F- and therefore Fluorine gas is the strongest oxidizing agent and Fluoride
ion is the weakest reducing agent.
(i) Which element can act as the strongest reducing agent?
(ii) How cell potential can be measured?
(iii) Which electrode can work as anode in galvanic cell?
(iv) Find out E°Cell for Zn/Zn2+(0.1M//Cu2+(0.10M)/Cu
[given E°Zn2+/Zn and E°Cu2+/Cu are -0.76 V and +0.34 V respectively]
OR
Write cell reaction for the above galvanic cell and mention cathode and anode.
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.
33. a. Why does the cell voltage of a mercury cell remain constant during its life time ?
b. Write the reaction occurring at anode and cathode and the products of
electrolysis of aq KCl.
c. What is the pH of HCl solution when the hydrogen gas electrode shows a potential of -0.59 V at
standard temperature and pressure?
OR
a. Molar conductivity of substance “A” is 5.9×103 S/m and “B” is 1 x 10-16 S/m. Which of the two is most
likely to be copper metal and why?
b. What is the quantity of electricity in Coulombs required to produce 4.8 g of Mg from molten MgCl2?
How much Ca will be produced if the same amount of electricity was passed through molten CaCl2?
(Atomic mass of Mg = 24 u, atomic mass of Ca = 40 u).
c. What is the standard free energy change for the following reaction at room temperature? Is the reaction
spontaneous?
Sn(s) + 2Cu2+ (aq) ---- Sn2+ (aq) + 2Cu+ (s)
Given E°Sn2+/Sn and E°Cu2+/Cu are -0.14 V and +0.34 V respectively
34. (i) State Faraday’s Laws of electrolysis?
(ii)Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing solutions of ZnSO4 , AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively
are connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver
deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What mass of copper and zinc were
deposited?
35. The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L-1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2mol- . Calculate its
degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given = 349.6 S cm2mol-1 and
OR
(a) Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction takes place.
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) →Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag Further show:
(i) Which of the electrode is negatively charged?
(ii) The carriers of the current in the cell.
(iii) Individual reaction at each electrode.
(b) A solution of Ni (NO3)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5
amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode?

SAMPLE PAPER
CHEMISTRY THEORY
 CHAPTER: CHEMICAL KINETICS (043)
MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
Section A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries 1
mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. What kind of order of reaction decomposition of Ammonia on platinum surface is:
(a) Zero order reaction
(b) First order reaction
(c) Second order reaction
(d) Fractional order reaction
2.The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about
(a) the reactants taking part in the reaction
(b) the products formed in the reaction
(c) how slow or fast the reaction is taking place
(d) none of the above
3.In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is equal to:
(a) .specific rate constant
(b) average rate constant
(c) instantaneous rate constant
(d) None of the above
4.The rate constant of zero-order reactions has the unit
(a) s-1
(b) mol L-1 s-1
(c) L2 mol-2 s-1
(d) L mol-1 s-1
5.In the reaction 2A + B → A2B, if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of
the reaction will
(a) increase 2 times
(b) increase 4 times
(c) decrease 2 times
(d) remain the same
6.In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia the following catalyst is used
(a) Platinized asbestos
(b) Iron with molybdenum as a promoter
(c) Copper oxide
(d) Alumina
7.A catalyst alters, which of the following in a chemical reaction?
(a) Entropy
(b) Enthalpy
(c) Internal energy

8.In chemical equation H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g) the equilibrium constant Kp depends on
(d) Activation energy

(a) total pressure

(b) catalyst used
(c) amount of H2 and I2
(d) temperature
9.If the rate of a reaction is expressed by, rate = A [A]² [B], the order of reaction will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0
10. Which of the following, is an example of a fractional order reaction?
(a) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
(b) NO + O3 → NO2 + O2
(c) 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr
(d) CH3CHO → CH4 + CO
11. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
(a) temperature of the reaction
(b) extent of the reaction
(c) initial concentration of the reactants
(d) the time of completion of reaction
12.The order of reaction is decided by
(a) temperature
(b) mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants
(c) molecularity
(d) pressure
13. In pseudo unimolecular reactions
(a) both the reactants are present in low concentration
(b) both the reactants are present in same concentration
(c) one of the reactant is present in excess
(d) one of the reactant is non-reactive
14.Radioactive disintegration is an example of
(a) zero order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) third order reaction
15.Read the statements given as assertion & reason both and choose the correct option as per the
following instructions.
(A) if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) if the assertion is the correct statement & the reason is an incorrect statement.
(D) if the assertion is incorrect statement and reason is the correct statement.

Assertion: The order of reaction can be zero or fractional.

Reason: The order of a reaction cannot be determined from a balanced chemical reaction.
16. Assertion: The order and molecularity of a reaction are always the same.
Reason: Order is determined experimentally whereas molecularity by a balanced elementary reaction.
17. Assertion: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction has the same unit as the rate of a reaction.
Reason: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction does not depend upon the concentration of the reactant.
18. Assertion: In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also
doubled.
Reason: The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first-
order reaction.
Section B
Answer the following questions:
19. Derive an expression to calculate the time required for completion of a zero order reaction.
20. Why does the rate of a reaction increase with a rise in temperature?
Or
The order of a reaction if the units of its rate constant are : (i) L-1 mol s-1 (ii) L mol-1 s-1
What do you understand by the rate law and rate constant of a reaction? Identify.
21. Differentiate between rate of reaction and rate constant of reaction.
22. Identify the reaction order for each of the following rate constant.
K=3.1 x 10^-4 sec^-1
K=4.2x10^-5 L mol^-1 sec^-1
23. Define half life of a reaction. Show that for a 1st order reaction half life is independent of initial
concentration.
24.Explain the pseudo order reaction with example.
25. Define order of reaction with example.
Section C
26. Define the following :
(i) Order of a reaction
(ii) Activation energy of a reaction
27. The thermal decomposition of HCO2H is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10 -3 s-1 at a
certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three-fourths of initial quantity of HCO 2 H to
decompose. (log 0.25 = -0.6021) .
28. A first order gas phase reaction: A2B2(g) → 2A(g) + 2B(g) at the temperature 400°C has the rate constant
k = 2.0 × 10-4 sec-1. What percentage of A2B2 is decomposed on heating for 900 seconds? (Antilog 0.0781 =
1.197)
29. Derive integrated rate equation for rate constant of a first order reaction.
Or
A first order reaction takes 10 minutes for 25% decomposition. Calculate t 1/2 for the reaction. (Given:
log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021).
30. (a) With the help of a labelled diagram explain the role of activated complex in a reaction.
(b) A first order reaction is 15% completed in 20 minutes. How long will it take to complete 60% of the
reaction?
Section-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question carries 1 marks each. Read the passage
carefully and answer the questions that follow
31. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The half-life of a reaction is the time required for the concentration of reactant to decrease by half, i.e.,
[A]t = [A]/2
For first order reaction,
t1/2 = 0.693/k
this means t1/2 is independent of initial concentration. Figure shows that typical variation of concentration
of reactant exhibiting first order kinetics. It may be noted that though the major portion of the first order
kinetics may be over in a finite time, but the reaction will never cease as the concentration of reactant will
be zero only at infinite time.
(i) A first order reaction has a rate constant k=3.01 x 10 -3 /s. How long it will take to decompose half of
the reactant?
(ii) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7.0 x 10 -4 s-1. If initial concentration of reactant is 0.080
M, what is the half-life of reaction?
(iii) The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol L -1 s-1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L -1 s-1 at 20 minutes
after initiation. The half life of the reaction?
(iv)The plot of t1/2 vs initial concentration [A]0 for a first order reaction .
32. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
A first-order reaction can be defined as a chemical reaction for which the reaction rate is entirely
dependent on the concentration of only one reactant. In such reactions, if the concentration of the first-
order reactant is doubled, then the reaction rate is also doubled.
The following reaction, A(g)⟶ΔP(g)+Q(g)+R(g)A(g)⟶ΔP(g)+Q(g)+R(g) follows first order kinetics. The
half-life period of this reaction is 69.3 s at 500°C. The gas A is enclosed in a container at 500°C and at a
pressure of 0.4 atm.
Answer the following question: -
(i) The rate constant for the reaction.
(ii) The total pressure of the system after 230 s will be.
(iii) Give an example of first order reaction.
(iv) The plot of ln[A] vs t graph is.
Section-E
33. (a) The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10 K in absolute temperature
from 298 K. Calculate .
(b) Explain collision frequency.
Or
During nuclear explosion, one of the products is with half-life of 28.1 years. If of was
absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years
and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically.
34. The activation energy for the reaction is at 581K.
Calculate the fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or
greater than activation energy?
Or

In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction was measured for different initial
concentrations of A and B as given below:

What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B?

35. The decomposition of on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of
production of and if ?
Or
The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction:
Experiment Initial rate of formation of
I 0.1 0.1
II 0.3 0.2
III 0.3 0.4
IV 0.4 0.1
Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.

SAMPLE PAPER
CHEMISTRY THEORY (d and f Block elements)
 MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
Q1 Which one of the following is diamagnetic ion?
(a) Co2+
(b) Ni2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Zn2+
Q2. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of Mn 3+, Cl3+ and
V3+ respectively are and the most stable species is
(a) 4, 3 and 2; V3+
(b) 3, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(c) 4, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(d) 3, 3 and 3; Mn3+
Q3. Fe3+ ion is more stable than Fe2+ ion because
(a) more the charge on the atom, more is its stability
(b) configuration of Fe2+ is 3d6 while Fe3+ is 3d5
(c) Fe2+ has a larger size than Fe3+
(d) Fe3+ ions are coloured hence more stable
Q4. Colour of transition metal ions are due to absorption of some wavelength. This
results in
(a) p-p transition
(b) f-f transition
(c) s-p transition
(d) d-d transition
Q5. What happens when potassium iodide reacts with acidic solution of potassium
dichromate?
(a) It liberates iodine
(b) Potassium sulphate is formed
(c) Chromium sulphate is formed
(d) All the above products are formed
Q6. The melting point of copper is higher than that of zinc because
(a) copper has a bcc structure
(b) the atomic volume of copper is higher
(c) the electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
(d) the ‘s’ as well as ‘d’ electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
Q7 .Which of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration?
(a) Cu2+, Cr2+
(b) Fe3+, Mn2+
(c) Co3+, Ni3+
(d) Sc3+, Cr3+
Q .8Which of the following element is used in treatment of cancer?
(a) Th (b) U (c) Pu (d) Np
Q 9 Among the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is
more stable than other, in
(a) Tl+,Tl3+
(b) Cu+,Cu2+
(c) Cr2+,Cr3+
(d) V2+, VO2+
Q10 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(b) La is actually an element of transition series rather than Lanthanoids
(c) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf is same
(d) In Lanthanoid series, the ionic radius of Lu 3+ is smallest
Q11 Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following
is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(a) [Xe] 4f 75d16s2
(b) [Xe] 4f 65d26s2
(c) [Xe] 4f 86d2
(d) [Xe] 4f 95s1
Q12. Among the following actinoide pairs, the maximum oxidation states is shown by
(a) U and Np
b) Np and Pu
c)Pu and Th
(d)U and Pa
Q13 Cerium (Z=58) is an important member of lanthanoids. Which of the following
statements about cerium is incorrect
(a) The common oxidation state of cerium are +3 and +4.
(b)The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than +4 oxidation state.
(c)The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions.
(d) Cerium(IV) acts as an oxidizing agent.
Q14. Although Zirconium belongs to 4 d transition series and Hafnium to 5 d transition
series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties because .
(a) both belong to d-block.
(b) both have same number of electrons
( c) both have similar atomic radius.
(d) both belong to the same group of the periodic table.
Q15Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the
crystal lattice of metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of
interstitial compounds?
(a)They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.
(b)They are very hard
(c)They retain metallic conductivity.
(d)They are chemically very reactive
Q16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R)
Assertion ( A) : Reactivity of transition elements decreases almost regularly from Sc
to Cu.
Reason (B) : There is regular increase in I. E. across the series.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Q17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic, basic or neutral medium.
Reason(R) : It oxidises ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Q18 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
4. Assertion(A) : Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution.
Reason(R) : Large value of I.E. of Cu is compensated by much more negative
hydration energy of Cu2+ ( aq).
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a. Both A
and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION B

This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. Explain the following:
(a) The enthalpies of atomization of transition metals are quite high.
(b) The transition metals and many of their compounds act as good catalysts
20. How would you account for the following?
(i) The highest oxidation state of a transition metal is usually exhibited in its oxide.
(ii) The oxidising power of the following three oxoions in the series follows the order:
VO+2<Cr2O7−2< MnO−4
OR
Describe the general trends in the following properties of the first series (3d) of the
transition elements:
(i) Number of oxidation states exhibited
(ii) Formation of oxometal ions

21.Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic
equations for its reaction with (i) iodine (ii) H 2S.
OR
What is Mischmetal and write its composition. Also write its uses.
22. Explain the following observations:
(a) Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d 10) in its ground state, yet it is
regarded as a transition element.
(b) E0value for Mn3+ /Mn2+ couple is much more positive than Cr3+/Cr2+.

23. a) Which metal in the first transition series (3d series) exhibits +1 oxidation state
most frequency and why?
(b) Which of the following cations are coloured in aqueous solutions and why? SC 3+,
V3+, Ti4+, Mn2+.
(At. nos. Sc = 21, V = 23, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)

24. Write one similarity and one difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and
that of actinoids.

25. What is meant by ‘disproportionation’? Give an example of a disproportionation

reaction in aqueous solution
SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one questions. The
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26. How would you account for the following?
(i) Many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds.
(ii) The metallic radii of the third (5d) series of transition metals are virtually the same
as those of the corresponding group members of the second (4d) series.
(iii) Lanthanoids form primarily +3 ions, while the actinoids usually have higher
oxidation states in their compounds, +4 or even +6 being typical.

27. How would you account for the following?

(i) With the same d-orbital configuration (d4) Cr2+ is a reducing agent while Mn3+ is an
oxidizing agent.
(ii) The actinoids exhibit a larger number of oxidation states than the corresponding
members in the lanthanoid series.
(iii) Most of the transition metal ions exhibit characteristic in colours in aqueous
solutions.
28. What is meant by the term lanthanoid contraction? What is it due to and what
consequences.

29. Give reasons for the following:

(i) Transition metals exhibit a wide range of oxidation states.
(ii) Cobalt(II) is very stable in aqueous solutions but gets easily oxidised in the
presence of strong ligands.
(iii) Actinoids exhibit a greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids

30. In the 3d series (Sc = 21 to Zn = 30) :

(i) Which element shows maximum number of oxidation states?
(ii) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
(iii) Which element has the lowest enthalpy of atomization
OR
a) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Compounds of transition elements are generally coloured.
(ii) MnO is basic while Mn2O7 is acidic.
(iii) Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous medium if its atomic
number is 26.

SECTION D Case Study/Passage Based Questions

Q31. The transition elements have incompletely filled d-subshells in their ground
state or in any of their oxidation states. The transition elements occupy positions in-
between s- and p-blocks in groups 3-12 of the Periodic table. Starting from the
fourth period, transition elements consist of four complete series: Sc to Zn, Y to Cd
and La, Hf to Hg and Ac, Rf to Cn. In general, the electronic configuration of outer
orbitals of these elements is (n – 1)d 1–10 ns0–2. The electronic configurations of outer
orbitals of Zn, Cd, Hg, and Cn are represented by the general formula (n – 1)d 10 ns2.
All the transition elements have typical metallic properties such as high tensile
strength, ductility, malleability. Except for mercury, which is liquid at room
temperature, other transition elements have typical metallic structures. The
transition metals and their compounds also exhibit catalytic property and
paramagnetic behavior. Transition metal also forms alloys. An alloy is a blend of
metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys may be homogeneous solid
solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among the
atoms of the other.
i)Which of the following characteristics of transition metals is associated
with higher catalytic activity?
(a) High enthalpy of atomization
(b) Variable oxidation states
(c) Paramagnetic behavior
(d) Colour of hydrated ions

ii) Transition elements form alloys easily because they have

(a) same atomic number
(b) same electronic configuration
(c) nearly same atomic size
(d) same oxidation
iii)The electronic configuration of tantalum (Ta) is
(a) [Xe]4f 05d16s2
(b) [Xe]4f 14 5d2 6s2
(c) [Xe]4f14 5d36s2
(d) [Xe]4f14 5d4 6s2
iv)Which one of the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the
largest number of oxidation states?
(a) 3d54s1
(b) 3d54s2
(c) 3d24s2
(d) 3d34s2
OR
iv) The correct statement(s) among the following is/are
(i) all d- and f-block elements are metals
(ii) all d- and f-block elements form coloured ions
(iii) all d- and f-block elements are paramagnetic.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q32 Transition metal oxides are compounds formed by the reaction of metals with
oxygen at high temperatures. The highest oxidation number in the oxides coincides

V2O3 to less basic V2O4 and to amphoteric V2O5⋅ V2O4 dissolves in acids to give VO 2+
with the group number. In vanadium, there is a gradual change from the basic

salts. Transition metal oxides are commonly utilized for their catalytic activity and
semiconductive properties. Transition metal oxides are also frequently used as
pigments in paints and plastic. Most notably titanium dioxide. One of the earliest
applications of transition metal oxides to the chemical industry involved the use of
vanadium oxide for catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide to sulphuric acid. Since then,
many other applications have emerged, which include benzene oxidation to maleic
anhydride on vandium oxides; cyclohexane oxidation to adipic acid on cobalt
oxides. An important property of the catalyst material used in these processes is the
ability of transition metals to change their oxidation state under a given chemical
potential of reductants and oxidants.
i) Which oxide of vanadium is most likely to be basic and ionic?
(a) VO
(b) V2O3
(c) VO2
(d) V

ii) Vanadium ion is

(a) VO2+
(b) VO2+
(c) V2O+

d) V
iii) Which of the following statements is false?
(a) With fluorine vanadium can form VF 5.
(b) With chlorine vanadium can form VCl 5.
(c) Vanadium exhibits the highest oxidation state in oxohalides VOCl 3, VOBr3 and
fluoride VF5.
(d) With iodine vanadium cannot form VI 5 due to oxidising power of V 5+ and
reducing nature of I
iv) The oxidation state of vanadium in V 2O5 is
(a) +5/2
(b) +7
(c) +5
(d) +6
OR
iv) Identify the oxidizing agent in the following reaction.
(a) V2O5
(b) Ca
(c) V
(d) None of thes

SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
33. The elements of 3d transition series are given as:
Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu, Zn
Answer the following:
(i) Write the element which shows maximum number of oxidation states. Give reason.
(ii) Which element has the highest m.p.?
(iii) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
(iv) Which element is a strong oxidizing agent in +3 oxidation state and why?
OR
i) Name the element of 3d transition series which shows maximum number of
oxidation states. Why does it show so?
(ii) Which transition metal of 3d series has positive E 0(M2+/M) value and why?
(iii) Out of Cr3+ and Mn3+, which is a stronger oxidizing agent and why?
(iv) Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +2
oxidation state.
(v) Complete the following equation: MnO4–+ 8H++ 5e–

34. (a) Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromite ore. What is
the effect of change of pH on dichromate ion?
(b) How is the variability in oxidation states of transition elements different from that
of non-transition elements? Illustrate with examples.
OR
(a Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate
(b)Complete the following reactions
(i) MnO4 (aq) + S2O32-(aq) + H2O (l) →

ii) MnO4 – + SO32– + 6H+→ 2Mn2+ + 5SO42– + 3H2O

Q35. a) Complete the following chemical reaction equations:

i) Cr2O72- (aq) + I– (aq) + H+ (aq) →
ii) Fe2+ (aq) + MnO4- (aq) + H+ (aq) →

(b) Explain the following observations:

(i) In general, the atomic radii of transition elements decrease with atomic number in
a given series.
(ii) The E°M2+/M, for copper is positive (+ 0.34 V). It is the only metal in the first
series of transition elements showing this type of behaviour.
(iii) The E° value for Mn3+ | Mn2+ couple is much more positive than for Cr3+ | Cr2+ or
Fe3+ | Fe2+ couple.
OR
Assign reasons for the following:
a) The enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are high.
b) The transition metals and many of their good catalysts. Compounds act as
c) E°M2+/M values are not regular for first-row transition metals (3d series).
d) Although ‘F’ is more electronegative than ‘O’, the highest Mn fluoride is MnF4,
whereas the highest oxide is Mn207
e) Sc3+ is colorless in an aqueous solution whereas Ti 3+ is colored.

.
 SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS: XII
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER: COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

TIME: 3 HOURS MM:70

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark
each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks
each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks
each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed
SECTION A ( MCQs)
1. Which of the following compounds has tetrahedral geometry? 1
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2-
(b) [Pd(CN)4]2-
(c [PdCl4]2-
(d) [NiCl4]2-
2. K2[Fe(CN)6] is a/an 1
(a) double salt
(b) complex salt
(c) acid
(d) base
3. The number of possible isomers for the complex 1
|Co(C2O4)2 (NH3)2|
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
4. According to Werner’s theory of coordination compounds 1
(a) Primary valency is ionisable
(b) Secondary valency is ionisable
(c) Primary and secondary valencies are lonisable
(d) Neither primary nor secondary valency is ionisable
5. The ligand N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is 1
(a) bidentate
(b) tridentate
(c) tetradentate
 (d) pentadentate
6. Among the following which are ambidentate ligands? 1
(i) SCN–
(ii) NO−3
(iii) NO−2
(iv) C2O2−4
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
7. Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism ? 1
(a)[Cr(H2O)6] 3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+
(c) [Cu(H2O)6] 2+
(d) [Zn(H2O)6] 2+
8. The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central metal atom is 1
(a) [MnO4]–
(b) [Co(NH3)6]3-
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
9. The correct IUPAC name of the coordination compound K3|Fe(CN)5NO| is 1
(a) Potassium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
(b) Potassium pentacyanonitroferrate (II)
(c) Potassium nitritopentacyanoferrate (IV)
(d) Potassium nitritepentacynanoiron (II)
10. Correct formulae of tetraaminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate can be written 1
as
(a) [Pt(NH3)4 (ONO) Cl]SO4
(b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2NO2]2
(c) [Pt(NH3)4 (NO2) Cl]SO4
(d) [PtCl(ONO)NH3(SO4)]
11. |Pt(NH3)4| |CuCl4| and |Cu(NH3)4||PtCl4| are known as 1
(a) hybridization isomers.
(b) coordination isomers
(c) linkage isomers
(d) polymerization isomers
12. The name of the linkage isomer of |C0(NH3)5NO2|Cl2 will be 1
(a) pentaammonotrocobalt (II) chloride
(b) pentaaminenitrochloridecobaltate (III)
(c) pentaamminenitritocobalt (III) chloride
(d) pentanitrosoamminechlorocobaltate(III)
13. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical 1
isomerism?
(a) [Co(en) (NH3)2Cl2]+
(b) [Co(en)3]3+
(c)[Co(en)2Cl2]
(d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
14. EDTA is used for the estimation of 1
(a) Na+ and K+ ions
(b) Cl– and Br– ions
(c) Cu2+ and Cs+ ions
(d) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions
 (A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation 1
for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(D) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
15 Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless. 1
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3 as it has no unpaired electron.
16 Assertion : [Fe(CN)6]3– is weakly paramagnetic while [Fe(CN)6]4– is diamagnetic. 1
Reason : [Fe(CN)6]3– has +3 oxidation state while [Fe(CN)6]4– has +2 oxidation state.
17 Assertion: Chelates are less stable than ordinary coordination compounds. 1
Reason: Chelates can be formed by bidentate ligands.

181. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing 1

ambidentate ligand.
Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms donating simultaneously.

SECTION : B
19 On the basis of crystal field theory,write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δo 2
>P.Explain
20 When a coordination compound CrCl3.6H2O is mixed with AgNO3 ,2 moles of AgCl are 2
precipitated per mole of the compound. Write structural formula & IUPAC name of
the complex.
OR
Discuss the nature of Bonding in metal carbonyls.
21 What is meant by stability of a coordination compound in solution? State the factors 2
which govern stability of complexes.
Or
Giving a suitable example for each, explain the following : 1+1
(i) Linkage isomerism
(ii) Ambidentate ligand

22. The formula Co(NH3) 5CO3Cl could represent a carbonate or chloride. Write structures 2
and names of possible isomers.
23. [Co (NH3)6] +3 is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6] +2 is an outer 2
complex.
24. What is crystal field splitting energy? What are the various factors affecting CFSE. 2
25. What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand 2
and a strong field ligand.
SECTION :C
26 a.Which complex ion is formed when undecomposed AgBr is washed with hypo 1+2
solution in photography?Give reaction.
b. Why only transition metals are known to form pi complexes?

27 A complex is prepared by mixing CoCl2 and NH3 In the molar ratio of 1:4, 0.1M 3
solution of this complex was found to freeze at -0.372°c. what is the formula of the
complex ? Given that molal depression constant of water (kf)=1.86c/m
28. a.Calculate the over all complex dissociation equilibrium constant for 2+1
the[ cu(NH3)4]2+ ion , given that β for this complex is 2.1 x(10)13?
b. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN) 4] 2- ion.
29. a. CuSO4.5H2O is blue in colour while CuSO4 is colouress. Why ? 2+1
b. Magnetic moment of [MnCl4] 2- is 5.92BM. Explain giving reason .

30 a.Explain Coordination isomerism with example. 1+2

b. Write down the applications of coordination compound
Or 1.5+1.5
a) Describe the shape and magnetic behaviour of following complexes :
(i) [CO(NH3)6]3+
(ii) [Ni(CN)4]2- (At. No. Co = 27, Ni = 28)

SECTION :D
31 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follows. Negative ion or 1+1+2
Neutral molecule which bound to the metal ion by secondary valency is called as
ligand. In complex , metal ion acts as Lewis acid and ligand act as Lewis base. Ligands
are classified according to number of electron pair in them. The ligand which can
donates one e pair to the metal atom is called Unidentate ligand . The ligand which
can donate two electron pair to the Metal ion is called didentate ligand. The ligand in
which two or more coordination sites are there is called polydentate ligand. 75
Polydentate ligand forms cyclic structure with metal ion and form Chelate.
i) Give an example of unidentate neutral ligand.
ii) What are lewis acids and lewis bases.
iii) How didentate and Ambidentate ligands are different ? Give
example.

32 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: 1+1+1+
1
Coordination compounds are formulated and named according to the IUPAC system.
Few rules for naming coordination compounds are:
(I) In ionic complex, the cation is named first and then the anion.
(II) In the coordination entity, the ligands are named first and then the central metal
ion.
(III) When more than one type of ligands are present, they are named in alphabetical
order of preference with any consideration of charge.

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: -

(i) The IUPAC name of [Ni(CO)4] is

(ii) The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is
(iii) As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is
(iv) Which of the following represents correct formula of dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-
diamine)cobalt(III) ion?

SECTION :E
33 (a) Account for the different magnetic behavior of hexacyanoferrate (III) and 2+3
hexafluoroferrate (III).
(b) (i) What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Cr (H2O)6]Cl3 ?
(ii) On the basis of CFT , write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δ0 > P .
(iii) Write the hybridization and shape of [CoF6] 3- .
Or 2+3
 a.(i) Write down the IUPAC name of the following complex :
[Cr(NH3)2CI3(en)]Cl (en = ethylenediamine)
(ii) Write the formula for the following complex : Pentaamminenitrito-o-Cobalt (III)
b.Define the following terms;
(a) Homoleptic complex
( b) Hetroleptic complex
( c) Coordination sphere

34 a. Which of the following is more stable complex and why? 1+2+2

[Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(en)3]3+
b. Why are low spin tetrahedral complexes not formed?
c. Give evidence that [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl are ionization isomers?
OR
a. Compare the following complexes with respect to their shape, magnetic behaviour 1.5+2+
and the hybrid orbitals involved : 1.5
(i) [CoF4]2-
(ii) [Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]–
(iii) [Ni(CO)4] (Atomic number : Co = 27, Cr = 24, Ni = 28)

35 For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], Cl, (en = ethylene diamine), identify ½+1+
(i) the oxidation number of iron, 1/2+1+
(ii) the hybrid orbitals and the shape of the complex, 1+1
(iii) the magnetic behaviour of the complex,
(iv) the number of geometrical isomers,
(v) whether there is an optical isomer also, show and
(vi) name of the complex. (At. no. of Fe = 26) 3+2

OR

a. With proper diagram explain crystal field splitting for octahedral complexes.
b. What are t2g and eg orbitals ? Explain.
 CLASS XII CHEMISTRY CHAPTER WISE QUESTION PAPER
UNIT : HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

MAX MARKS:70 TIME:03

hours
General Instructions:
(a) There are 35 questions in this question paper.
(b)SECTION A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 07 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d)SECTION C consists of 05 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 02 Case based question carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 03 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g)All questions are compulsory.
(h)Use of log tables and calculators not allowed.

Section A

Q In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with asterisk (*) is 1
asymmetric?
.
1

(A) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(B) (a), (b), (c)
(C) (b), (c), (d)
(D) (a), (c), (d)
Q Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of 1
. AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction ?
(A) Cl–
2
(B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4]–
Q Identify following 1
reaction:
. A) Wurtz Reaction
B) Etard Reaction
3
C) Reimer Tiemann
Reaction
D) Kolbe Reaction

Q The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in the absence of 1
. light yields ____________.
4 A) Benzyl chloride
B) o-Chlorobenzene
C) p-Choloro benzene
D) Mixture of B and C
Q What is Q in the following reaction?
.
5

Q Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity? 1

A) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
. B) R3CX > R2CHX >RCH2X
C) R2CHX >R3CX > RCH2X
6
D) RCH2X >R3CX >R2CHX

Q Which of the following is correct for the reaction 1

.
7

a) A is major product and B is minor product

b) B is major product and A is minor product
c) Only A will be obtained as a product
d) Only B will be obtained as a product
Q Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN 2 mechanism 1
because of
8 (A) steric hindrance
(B) inductive effect
(C) instability
(D) insolubility

Q Match the reactions given in Column I with the names given in Column II. 1
.
9

A) i-a, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-d

B) i-b, ii-a , iii-d, iv-c
C) i-d, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-a
D) i-c, ii-a ,iii-b, iv-d
Q Alkyl fluorides are synthesised by heating an alkyl chloride/bromide in presence of_ 1
. (A) Ca F2
(B) PF3
1
 0 (C) Hg2F2
(D) NaF

Q Haloalkanes contain halogen atom (s) attached to the sp 3 hybridised carbon atom of 1
. an alkyl group. Identify haloalkane from the following compounds.
1 (A) 2-Bromopentane
(B) Vinyl chloride (chloroethene)
1 (C) 2-chloroacetophenone
(D) chlorobenzene
Q Alkyl halides are prepared from alcohols by treating with______ 1
. (A) HCl + ZnCl2
(B) Red P + Br
2
1 (C) PCl
5

2 (D) All the above

Q Match the structures given in Column I with the names in Column II. 1
.
1
3

A) i-a, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-d

B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

C) i-d, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-a

D) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b

Q Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds? 1
. 1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane
1 (A) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Iodobutane
(B) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane < Butane
4 (C) Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane
(D) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane
Given Given below question no 15-18 consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type 1
questions. Use the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
A.If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B.If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C.If (A) is true but (R) is false.
D.If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the
Q reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason : Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron
. density over the benzene ring.
1
5
Q Assertion : It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in chlorobenzene in comparison 1
to that in chloroethane.
. Reason : Chlorine-carbon (C—Cl) bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
character due to resonance.
1
6
Q Assertion: Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzene towards the electrophilic
. substitution reaction.
Reason: Resonance destabilises the carbo cation.
1
7

Q Assertion:The C–Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH 3–Cl.

. Reason: In haloarenes Cl is attached to sp2 hyridised carbon which is more
3
1 electronegative than sp hybridised carbon.
8
Section B

Q Hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane forms optically inactive 2

butan-2-ol. Why?
.
1
9
Q a)Which one out of CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl is more easily hydrolysed 2
by KOH(aq).
. b) Arrange the following compounds according to reactivity towards nucleophillic
2 substitution reaction with CH3ONa
4- nitro chloro benzene, 2,4 di nitro chloro bemzene, 2,4,6, trinitrochlorobenzene
0
Q Vinyl chloride is less reactive than allyl chloride. Why? 2
.
2
1
Q How is chlorobenzene prepared by (a) direct 2
chlorination (b) diazotization method?
.
2
2
Q Why do haloalkenes under go nucleophillic 2
substitution whereas haloarenes under go
.
2 electophillic substitution ?
3
Q What happens when 2
. a) Thionyl chloride acts upon propan-1-ol.
b) Ethanol reacts with PBr3 .
2
4
Q What are the IUPAC names of the insecticide DDT and 2
benzenehexachloride? Why is their use banned in
. India and other countries?
2
5
Section C
Q Compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C 4H9Br is 3
treated with aq. KOH solution. The rate of this
. reaction depends upon the concentration of the
compound ‘A’ only. When another isomer ‘B’ of this
2 compound was treated with aq. KOH solution, the rate
of reaction was found to be dependent on
6 concentration of compound and KOH both. (i) Write
down the structural formula of both compounds ‘A’
and ‘B’. (ii) Out of these two compounds, which one
will be optically active?
Q What is the difference between enantiomers and diastereomers. Illustrate with 3
one example.
.
2
7
Q Some alkylhalides undergo substitution whereas some 3
undergo elimination reaction on treatment with bases.
. Discuss the structural features of alkyl halides with
2 the help of examples which are responsible for this
difference?
8
Q Give the IUPAC names of the following:- 3
(a) o-Br-C6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3
. (b) CH3C(Cl)(C2H5)CH2CH3
2 (c) Cl-CH2 C ≡ C-CH2-Br
9
Q Complete the following reactions : 3
i) CH3CH=C(CH3)2 + HBr -------
. ii) CH3CH2CH2OH + SOCl2 -----------
3 iii) CH3CH2Br + Mg ---------

0
Section D
Chloroflouro carbon (CFC) compounds of methane and ethane are collectively
Q known as freons. They are non-inflammable , extremely stable, non-toxic, non- 4
corrosive and low boiling liquids. CFC and gas emitted from the exhaust system of
. supersonics aeroplanes might be slowly depleting the concentration of the ozone
3 layer in the upper atmosphere. Answer the following questions on the basis oy your
knowledge .in this topic
1 1. Write the formula of freon.
2. Give two uses of chloroflourocarbons.
3. How does freon-12 deplete ozone layer?
4. Do you think the use of CFCs should be banned? Give reason.
Q Methyl chloride, methyl bromide, ethyl chloride and some chlorofluoromethanes are 4
gases at room temperature. Higher members are liquids or solids. As we have
. already learnt, molecules of organic halogen compounds are generally polar. Due to
greater polarity as well as higher molecular mass as compared to the parent
3 hydrocarbon, the intermolecular forces of attraction (dipole-dipole and van der
2 Waals) are stronger in the halogen derivatives. That is why the boiling points of
chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably higher than those of the
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular mass. The attractions get stronger as the
molecules get bigger in size and have more electrons.

i)Draw all the possible isomers structure of bromobutane and arrange them in
increasing order of boiling points. (2 marks)
ii)Even though haloalkanes are polar compounds these compounds are least
soluble in water. Why?(1 mark)
iii) How will you distinguish between chloroethane and bromoethane?(1 mark)

Q i)Identify A, B , C, D and E in the following:- 5

. +SOCl2 AlcKOH HBr/Peroxide AgCN
CH3CH2CH2OH ──────→ A ──────→ B ───────→ C ───────→ D
3
KCN
3

Section E

Q i) Arrange in increasing order of boiling points.

(a) Bromomethane, Bromoform, chloromethane, Dibromo-methane
. 5
(b)1-chloropropane, Isopropyle chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
3 (c) 1-chloropropane, , 1-bromopropane, 1-iodopropane

4 ii) Which compound will react faster in SN 2 reaction with OH---?

(a) CH3Br and CH3I (SN2)
(b) (CH3)3C-Cl or CH3Cl (SN2)

Q How the following conversions can be carried out? 5

. i) But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
ii) 2-Chloropropane to 1-propanol
3 iii) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform (iv)
5 iv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
v) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
 SAMPLE PAPER
CHEMISTRY THEORY
(043)
CHAPTER-Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.

a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. An aqueous NaOH solution is added to a mixture of benzaldehyde and
formaldehyde to produce:

a. benzyl alcohol + sodium formate

b. sodium benzoate + methanol
c. benzyl alcohol + methanol
d. sodium benzoate + sodium formate
2. Formic acid and acetic acid are distinguished by

a. NaHCO3
b. FeCl3
c. Victor Mayer test
d. Tollen's reagent
3. Which of the following compounds do not react with NaHSO3 ?

a. HCHO
b. C6H5COCH3
c. CH3COCH3
d. CH3CHO

4. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with a

dilute solution of caustic soda?

a. Sodium acetate
b. Resinous mass
c. Aldol
d. Ethyl acetate
5. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?

a. hexane-2,4-dione
b. hexane-2,3-dione
c. hexane-2,5-dione
d. hexane-3-one

6. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

a. electrophilic addition
b. nucleophilic addition
c. nucleophilic substitution
d. electrophilic substitution

7. Which of the reactions below can result in ketones?

a. Oxidation of primary alcohols
b. Oxidation of secondary alcohols
c. Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols
d. Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
8. Which of the following compounds is formed when benzyl alcohol is oxidised with
KMnO4?
a. CO2 and H2O
b. Benzoic acid
c. Benzaldehyde
d. Benzophenone
9. At 287K, which of the following is a gas?
a. Propanal
b. Acetaldehyde
c. Formaldehyde
d. Acetone
10. The IUPAC name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO is:
a. But-2-enal
b. Ethane
c. But-2-en
d. Buten-2-al
11. Propanone can be prepared from ethyne by
a. passing a mixture of ethyne and steam over a catalyst, magnesium at 420°C
b. passing a mixture of ethyne and ethanol over a catalyst zinc chromite
c. boiling ethyne with water in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4
d. treating ethyne with iodine and NaOH
12. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are
a. ethanol only
b. ethanal and methanal
c. propanal and methanol
 d. methanal only

13. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?

a. CH3CHO
b. CH3COCH3
c. C6H5CHO
d. C6H5CH2CHO
14. Aldehydes that do not undergo aldol condensation are
1. Propanal
2. Trichloroethanal
3. 2-phenylethanal
4. Ethanal
5. Benzaldehyde

a. 3 and 4 only
b. 2 and 5 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 5 only

15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than
hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason(R) : There is a relatively stronger molecular association in aldehydes and
ketones.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : Compounds containing –CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding
carboxylic acids.
Reason(R) : Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Reason(R) : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : The α-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is more acidic then phenol.
Reason (R): The anion formed after the loss of α-hydrogen atom is resonance
stabilised.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
 a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

19. Floroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.

20. Aldehydes are more reactive than Ketones towards

nucleophilic additions.

OR
Carboxylic acids has higher boiling points than alcohols of same no. of carbon atoms.

21. What happens when:

(a) Propanone is treated with methyl magnesium iodide and then hydrolysed, and
(b) Benzene is treated with CH3COCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3?
OR
What happens when:
(a) Butanone is treated with methylmagnesium bromide and then hydrolysed, and
(b) Sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime?
22. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their
property as indicated :
(i) F – CH2COOH, O2N – CH2COOH, CH3COOH, HCOOH — acid character
(ii) Acetone, Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, Acetophenone — reactivity towards
addition of HCN
23. Write structures of compounds A and B in each of the following
reactions :

24. Give reasons :

(i) Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
(ii) Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal.
25. Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and
propanone.

SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following

questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

26. Write the main product formed when propanal reacts with the
following reagents:
(i) 2 moles of CH3OH in presence of dry HCl
(ii) Dilute NaOH
 (iii) H2N – NH2 followed by heating with KOH in ethylene glycol.

27. Perform the following conversions in not more than two steps :
(i) Benzoic acid to benzaldehyde
(ii) Ethyl benzene to Benzoic acid
(iii) Prapanone to Propene
28. (a) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved in
Cannizzaro reaction.

(c) Why pKa of 𝑭 − 𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯 is lower than that of 𝑪𝒍−𝑪𝑯𝟐 −𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯?
(b) Draw the structure of the semicarbazone of ethanal.

29. Give any three answer from given a, b, c, d and e.

(a) Write the chemical reaction involved in Wolf-Kishner reduction.

addition reaction: 𝐂𝟔𝐇𝟓𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑, 𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐂𝐇𝐎, 𝐂𝐇𝟑𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑

(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic

(c) Why carboxylic acid does not give reactions of carbonyl group.
(d) Write the product in the following reaction

(e) A and B are two functional isomers of compound C6H6O. On heating with NaOH and
I2, isomer B forms yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas isomer A does not form
any precipitate. Write the formulae of A and B.
30. Write the products of the following reactions:

OR
Give simple tests to distinguish between the following pairs of organic compounds
(i) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(ii) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice
and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.

31. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
When an aldehyde with no a-hydrogen reacts with concentrated aqueous NaOH,
half the aldehyde is converted to carboxylic acid salt and other half is converted to
an alcohol. In other words, half of the reactant is oxidized and other half is reduced.
This reaction is known as Cannizzaro reaction
 The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer :
(i) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH
solution gives
(a) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate (b) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol

(c) sodium benzoate and sodium formate (d) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol.
(ii) Which compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
(iii) Trichloroacetaldehyde is subjected to Cannizzaro's reaction by using NaOH. The
mixture of the products contains sodium trichloroacetate ion and another
compound. What will be the other compound?
OR
will Cannizzaro reaction result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds? explain

32. The addition reaction of enol or enolate to the carbonyl functional group of aldehyde
or ketone is known as aldol addition. The β-hydroxyaldehyde or β-hydroxyketone so
obtained undergo dehydration in the second step to produce a conjugated enone.
The first part of the reaction is an addition reaction and the second part is an
elimination reaction. The Carbonyl compound having α-hydrogen undergoes an aldol
condensation reaction.
 (i)The condensation reaction is the reverse of which of the following reaction?
(a) Lock and key hypothesis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Glycogen formation
(ii) Which compounds would be the main product of an aldol condensation of
acetaldehyde and acetone?
(iii) Which combination of carbonyl compounds gives phenyl vinyl ketone by an aldol
condensation?

OR
Write the condition for chemical reaction will undergo aldol condensation?

SECTION E

The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
33. (a) An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C 5H10O
gives negative Tollens’
test, forms n-pentane on Clemmensen reduction but doesn’t give iodoform test.
Identify ‘A’ and give all the reactions involved.
(b) Carry out the following conversions :
(i) Propanoic acid to 2-Bromopropanoic acid
(ii) Benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde
(c) How will you distinguish between benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde ?
OR
(a) Convert benzaldehyde to Cinnamaldehyde?
(b ) What is IUPAC name of-
 (c) Write the structural formula of Isoamyl acetate.
34. What happens when 2 moles of acetone are condensed in presence of Ba(OH)2? Write
chemical equation
(b)What happens when acetic acid is heated with P2O5?
(c) Why is alpha () hydrogen of carbonyl compounds acidic in nature ?
(d) What happens when salicylic acid is heated with zinc dust?
(e) Why is p-hydroxy benzoic acid more acidic than p-methoxy benzoic acid?

OR
(a) Complete the following reactions:

(b) Account for the following :

(i) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(ii) pKa value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid is lower than that of benzoic acid.
35. Carry out the following conversions :
(i) P-nitrotoluene to 2-bromobenzoic acid
(ii) Propanoic acid to acetic acid
(b) An alkene with molecular formula C5H10 on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two
compounds, B and C. Compound B gives positive Fehling test and also reacts with
iodine and NaOH solution. Compound C does not give Fehling solution test but forms
iodoform.
Identify the compounds A, B and C.
OR
(a) Carry out the following conversions :
(i) Benzoic acid to aniline
(ii) Ethanal to but-2-enal

(b) An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and rest oxygen.
The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollen’s reagent but
forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogen sulphite and gives positive
iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acids. Derive the
structure of the compound.
 SAMPLE PAPER
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY THEORY (043)
CHAPTER- AMINES
MM: 70 TIME : 3 HOURS
General instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) Section A consist of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) Section B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) Section C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) Section D consists of 2 case based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) Section E consist of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
Section- A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer each question carries one
mark there is no internal choice in this section.

1. When a haloalkane is heated with KCN in aqueous ethanoic solution, the product formed is-
a) Alkyl nitrite
b) nitro alkane
c) alkane nitrile
d) carbylamine
2. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is-
a) Aniline
b) benzyl amine
c) tertiary-butylamine
d) isobutylamine
3. Which of the following amine has highest boiling point?
a) Pentaamine
b) 2-methylbutanamine
c) 2,2-dimethylpropamine
d) 3-methylbutamine
4. The amine that reacts with NaNO2 and HCl to give yellow oily liquid is-
a) Ethylamine.
b) Diethylamine
c) Isopropyl amine
d) Secondary butylamine
5. Sandmeyer reaction of diazonium salt is a replacement of N2 by-
a) Halogen Cl or Br
b) Hydroxyl group
 c) Coupling
d) Hydrogen
6. One of the following amines will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction-
a) CH3CONHCH3
b) CH3CH2CONH2
c) CH3CONH2
d) C6H5CONH2
7. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is
a) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
b) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
c) (CH3)3N >CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
d) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
8. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamine is
a) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
b) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen atom in aryalamines is
sp- hybridised
c) arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone- pair electrons are
delocalised by intraction with the aromatic ring π- electron system
d) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen loan-pair electrons are
not delocalised by interaction with the aromatic ring π-electron system.
9. What reagent is used in Hinsberg test of amines?
a) (CH3CO)2O and pyridine
b) C6H5SO2Cl followed by aq. NaOH
c) NaNO2 in aq. H2SO4
d) CH3I(excess) followed by AgOH
10. Aniline reacts with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 273 -278 K to give:
a) Benzene
b) Benzene diazonium chloride
c) Chlorobenzene
d) o-chloroaniline
11. Propane amide on reaction with bromine in aqueous NaOH gives:
a) Propanamine
b) ethanamine
c) N-Methyl ethanamine
d) Propanenitrile
12. The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with nitrous acid is:
a) NH3
b) N2
c) H2
d) C2H6
13. Which of the following is not correct regarding aniline?
a) It is less basic than ethyl amine
b) It can be steam distillated
c) It reacts with sodium to give hydrogen
d) It is soluble in water

14. Acetamide and ethylamine can be distinguished by reacting with:

 a) Aq. HCl and heat
b) Aq. NaOH and heat
c) Acidified KMnO4
d) Bromine water
15. Given below are two statements labelled assertion (A) and reason(R).
Assertion(A)- Hinsberg's reagent can be used to distinguish primary amines from secondary amines.
Reason(R)- Benzenesulphonyl chloride is called Hinsberg's reagent.
Select the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled assertion (A) and reason(R).
Assertion(A)- Solubility of amines in water decreases with increase in molar mass.
Reason(R)- Intermolecular H bonds formed by the higher amines are weaker.
Select the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
17. Given below are two statements labelled assertion (A) and reason(R).
Assertion(A)- Amines behave as a Lewis base.
Reason(R)- Amines have an unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen atom.
Select the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
18. Given below are two statements labelled assertion (A) and reason(R).
Assertion(A)- Acylation of amines gives a mono substituted product whereas alkylation of amines gives
poly substituted product.
Reason(R)- Acyl group sterically hinders the approach of further acyl groups.
Select the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
 Section - B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are very
short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

19. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
i) Aniline and ethanamine.
ii) Aniline and N-methylaniline
20. Give reasons:
i) Aniline does not undergo friedal Craft reaction.
ii) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.
OR
i) Although -NH2 group is o/p directing in electrophilic substitution reactions, yet aniline, on nitration
gives good yield of m-nitroaniline.
ii) pKb of methylamine is less than that of aniline.
21. Write chemical equations for the following conversion:
i) nitrobenzene to benzenoic acid
ii) aniline to benzyl alcohol
OR
i) Write the reaction involved in the following: Diazotisation
ii) Give reason:
Aromatic diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salts.
22. Illustrate the following with an example of reaction in each case-
i) Sandmeyer reaction
ii) coupling reaction
23. Complete the following reactions:
i) CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3+alc.KOH------->
ii) CH3NH2+ C6H5COCl---------->
24. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines. Explain.
25. State and illustrate the following:
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Section- C
Section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions the following questions are sort answer
type and carry 3 marks each.
26. a) Write the chemical reaction of methylamine with benzyl chloride and write the
 IUPAC name of the product obtained.
b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pkb values:
C6H5NH2 , NH3 , C2H5NH2 ,(C2H5)2 NH
27. Write the structures of main products when aniline reacts with the following reagents:
i) Br2 water.
ii) HCl
iii) (CH3CO)2O/Pyridine

28. Write the structures of A, B and C in the following:

Br2/aq. KOH NaNO2+ConcHCl/0-5 0C KI/∆
i) C6H5CONH2 ---------- ---------A ------ --------------- B ------ ---- C
KCN LiAlH4 CHCl3+alcKOH

II) CH3Cl ---- ---------- A ---- ----------- B -------------------- --- C

29. Give reasons for any three of the following observations:

a. Aniline is acetylated before nitration reaction.
b. pKb of aniline is smaller than the m-nitro aniline.
c. Primary amine on treatment with benzene sulfonyl chloride forms a product which is soluble in
NaOH, however secondary amine gives product which is insoluble in NaOH.
d. Aniline does not react with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 catalyst.
30. Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with
the following reagents.
a) CuCN
b) CH3CH2OH
c) KI
Section- D
The following questions are case based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries
4(1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

31. Benzene ring in aniline is highly activated. This is due to the sharing of lone pair of nitrogen with the
ring which results in increase in the electron density on the ring and hence facilitates the electrophilic
attack. The substitution mainly takes place at Ortho and para positions because electron density is more at
Ortho and para positions. On reaction with aqueous bromine all the ortho and para position get
substituted resulting in the formation of 2,4,6- tribromoaniline. To get a monobromo compound, the
amino group is acetylated before bromination. After bromination, the bromoacetanilide is acid hydrolysed
to give the desired halogenated amine.
a) Why does -NH2 group facilitates electrophilic attack in aniline?
b) Explain why: in aniline, the substitution mainly takes place at Ortho and Para positions.
c) Show the conversion of benzene into aniline.
32. In amines the N atoms of the amino group are SP3 hybridised. Amines readily lose its electron pair and
act as a base. In aliphatic amines ,the alkyl group tends to increase the electron density on the nitrogen
atom due to the +I effect. In aromatic amines, the basic strengths are influenced by the presence of an
electron withdrawing group at the O-, m- and p- position in the ring.
a) Lower member of aliphatic amines are soluble in water . Why?
b) Out of (CH3)3N and and (CH3)2NH which one is more basic in aqueous solution?
c) Which isomer of C3H9N which does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent.

Section- E
The following questions are long answer type and carry five marks each two questions have internal
choice.

33. An organic compound A with molecular formula C7 H7NO reacts with Br2/aq. KOH to give compound 'B',
which upon reaction with NaNO2 and HCl at 00 Celsius gives 'C'. Compound 'C'
on heating with CH3CH2OH gives hydrocarbon 'D'. compound 'B' on further reaction with Br 2 water gives
white precipitate of compound 'E'. Identify the compound A,B,C,D and 'E'.
Also justify your answer by giving relevant chemical equations.
OR
An aromatic compound 'A' on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound 'B' which
on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound 'C' of molecular formula C6H7N. write the structure and
IUPAC names of the compound A, B and C . Justify your answer by giving relevant chemical equations.
34. i) Write the structure of main products when benzenediazonium chloride (C 6H5N2+Cl-) reacts with the
following reagents:
a) KI b) C2H5OH
ii) write the structures of A B and C in the following reactions:
LiAlH4 HNO2 /Low temp

CH3Cl+ KCN (alc)----------------->A-- --------------------->B------------------------>C

OR
i) Write the reactions involved in the following:
a) Hoffmann’s Bromamide degradation reaction
b) Carbylamine reaction
35. i) Convert the following:
a) Phenol to N-phenylethanamide
b) Chloroethane to methanamine
c) Propanenitrile to ethanal.
ii) What happens when-
a) N-ethylethaneamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
b) Aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide.

********************************
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 hrs. Class: 12 Marks: 70
Subject: CHEMISTRY (BIOMOLECULE)
_________________________________________________________________________

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a. There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b. SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c. SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d. SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.

SECTION-A
1 Which of the following carbohydrates does not satisfy the formula Cx(H2O)y? 1
a) Fructose
b) Glucose
c) Deoxyribose
d) Lactose
2 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide? 1
a) Cellulose
b) Stachyose
c) Starch
d) Glycogen
3 Sucrose consists of which of the following monosaccharide units? 1
a) Fructose, galactose
b) Fructose, glucose
c) Galactose, glucose
d) Glucose, glucose
4 Nucleotides are joined together by 1
a) peptide linkage b) disulphide linkage c) glycosidic linkage d) phosphodiester linkage
5 Which of the following statement is not true for glucose? 1
a) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime
b) Glucose gives Schiff's test for aldehyde
c) Glucose exists in two crystalline α and β forms
d) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime
6 Two monosaccharides are joined through a ______ bond to form a disaccharide. 1
a) ionic
b) peptide
c) glycosidic
d) phosphodiester
7 Which of the following is incorrect regarding maltose? 1
a) It consists of two glucopyranose units
b) It is a non-reducing sugar
c) Glycosidic bond between C1 of one unit and C4 of the other unit
 d) It is a disaccharide
8 Proteins are polymers of ______ 1
a) α-amino acids
b) β-amino acids
c) γ-amino acids
d) δ-amino acids
9 Which of the following amino acids is optically inactive? 1
a) Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Lysine
d) Valine
10 Enzymes are regarded as ______ 1
a) biocatalysts
b) messengers
c) inhibitors
d) antibodies
11 Which of the following vitamin is soluble in water? 1
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) E
12 The following compound is a component of which of the following? 1

a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Adenine
d) Guanine
13 In nucleic acids, the sequence is: 1
a) Base - sugar - phosphate
b) Base - phosphate - sugar
c) Phosphate - sugar - base
d) Sugar - base – phosphate
14 Identify the saccharide from the Haworth projection shown below. 1

a) Lactose
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) Trehalose

15 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
 Assertion :- Uracil is present in DNA
Reason :- DNA undergoes replication
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
16 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion :- Insulin is globular protein.
Reason :- Globular Proteins are water soluble.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
17 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion :- D (+) – Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason :- D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
18 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion :- In presence of enzyme, substrate molecule can be attacked by the reagent
effectively
Reason :- Active sites of enzymes hold the substrate molecule in a suitable position.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
SECTION-B
19 What happens when D-glucose is treated with. the following reagents? 2
(i)HI (ii) Bromine water
20 What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give one examples of each type? 2
21 How are vitamins classified? Give example of each type? 2
OR
Name the disease caused due to deficiency of Vitamin E and Ascorbic acid?
22 What are the hydrolysis products of (i) Maltose and (ii)lactose 2
OR
What is Zwitter ion? How is it formed?
23 What is glycogen? How is it different from starch? 2
24 Write the important two structural differences between DNA and RNA? 2
25 Differentiate between α- helical and β- pleated sheet structure of secondary protein? 2
SECTION-C
26 Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure? 3
27 (a)What is the biological effect of denaturation of proteins? 3
(b) What are enzymes?
28 Differentiate between following 3
(i) Globular protein and Fibrous protein
(ii) Nucleotide and Nucleoside
29 What information do we get when D-glucose reacts with following reagent, write the 3
reaction also
(a)Hydroxylamine (iii)acetic anhydride (iii) nitric acid

30 (a)What are reducing and non-reducing sugar? Give example of each? 3

(b)What are anomers?
OR
(a)Explain the formation of peptide linkage in protein?
(b)What are the two types of protein on the basis of molecular shape?
SECTION-D
31 Read the text carefully and answer the questions: 4
When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical changes like change in temperature
or chemical changes like change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this,
globules unfold and helix gets uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity. This is called
the denaturation of protein. The denaturation causes change in secondary and tertiary
structures but primary structures remain intact. Examples of denaturation of protein are
coagulation of egg white on boiling, curdling of milk, formation of cheese when an acid is
added to milk.

(a) Phospholipids form a thin layer on the surface of an aqueous medium. Give reason.
(b) Which structure of proteins remains intact during the denaturation process?
(c ) What type of structure is α -helix and β-pleated structures of proteins?
OR
Why do amino acids have high molar masses comparable to ionic solids?
32 Read the text carefully and answer the questions: 4
The activity of an enzyme can be affected by a change in the conditions which can alter the
tertiary structure of the protein. These include temperature, pH, and change in substrate
concentration or binding of specific chemicals that regulate its activity.Enzymes generally
function in a narrow range of temperature and pH. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at
a particular temperature and pH called the optimum temperature and optimum pH. Activity
declines both below and above the optimum value. Low temperature preserves the enzyme
in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because
proteins are denatured by heat. Concentration of Substrate With the increase in substrate
concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The reaction ultimately
reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration
of the substrate. This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate
molecules and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to
bind with the additional substrate molecules.
(a) Name a chemical compound or molecule which is responsible for decrease or stop
the enzyme activity by binding to an enzyme?
(b) Give reason – why most of the enzymes get destroyed above optimum temperature?
(c) Explain the relation between substrate concentration and enzymatic activity?
OR
What are co-enzyme and co-factor ?
SECTION E
33 (a)Write the name and molecular formula of nitrogenous bases present in DNA and RNA? 5
(b) What are different types of RNA found in the cell?
(c ) write two important functions of nucleic acid?
34 (a) Write functional difference between DNA and RNA? 5
(b) What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
OR
 (a) Which form of glucose is obtained by crystallization from hot and saturated aqueous
solution at 371K?
(b) What is chemical formula of glyceraldehyde?
( c) What are oligosaccharides?
(d) The molecular formula of a compound is C2(H2O)2? Is it a carbohydrate, explain your
answer?
35 (a) Name the various sugars present in RNA & DNA? 5
(b)Explain Cyclic structure of Fructose?
OR
(a)Explain the cyclic structure of Glucose?
(b)How Nucleotides are joined together in DNA molecule?