SSC Stenographer

2024
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 Table of Contents

Exam Shift-10/12/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 2

Exam Shift-10/12/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 29

Exam Shift-10/12/2024,||4:30 PM - 6:30 PM||Click Here 55

Exam Shift-11/12/2024,||9:00 AM - 11:00 AM||Click Here 81

Exam Shift-11/12/2024,||12:30 PM - 2:30 PM||Click Here 108

Exam Shift-11/12/2024,||4:30 PM - 6:30 PM||Click Here 133

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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 10/12/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 If L means ÷, N means ×, P means + and J means −, which of the following interchanges should be done to hold the given
equation 19 L 95 N 5 J 35 P 7 = 333 true?
Ans A). (P and L) B). (J and N) C). (P and N) D). (N and L)
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Five houses (A, B, C, D, and E) are located equidistant from each other in such a way that B is to the East of A, D is to the
South of B, C is to the West of D, and E is to the South of C. In which direction is A to E?
Ans A). North-East B). North C). West D). South-West
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 A is the mother of C who is not the son. C has a daughter E. A is married to F. F has a son B who has a son D. What is the
relation of D and E?
Ans A). Mother B). Sister C). Cousin
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Correct Answer: C
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Q.4 A, B, C, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). X sits to the
immediate left of A. Only one person sits between X and Z. C sits second to the right of B. Y is not an immediate neighbour
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of A. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Z?

Ans A). Y B). B C). C D). A
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5
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Ans A). 7 B). 9 C). 10 D). 8

Correct Answer: D
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Q.6 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
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they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some teachers are dancers.
All dancers are beautiful.
All teachers are honest.
Conclusions:
I. Some teachers are beautiful.
II. Some dancers are honest.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.

Correct Answer: B

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 Q.7

Ans A). B B). D C). C D). A

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Six friends are playing a bottle-spinning game around a circular table, facing the centre. Rohini is sitting third to the left of
Rashmi. Rahul is sitting in between Rashmi and Ramesh. Ravi is sitting in between Rohini and Raju. Ravi is sitting second
to the right of Rashmi. Who among the following is sitting to the immediate left of Raju?
Ans A). Rahul B). Rohini C). Ramesh D). Rashmi
Correct Answer: D

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Q.9 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). SHQP B). FUHC C). WDYT ap D). JQLG
Correct Answer: A
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Q.10 In a certain code language, 'BOOK' is coded as 172 and 'PAGES' is coded as 240. How will 'LIBRARY' be coded in the same
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language?
Ans A). 680 B). 595 C). 469 D). 510
Correct Answer: B
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Q.11 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?
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Ans
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Correct Answer: A
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A). B). C). D).

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 Q.12

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)..
Ans A). SUQ B). DFA C). IKF D). PRM
Correct Answer: A

Q.14

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Ans A). 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 B). 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 C). 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 D). 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
Correct Answer: A
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Q.15 Select the option that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed).
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Ans A).
B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.16 If × means ÷, ÷ means −, − means +, and + means ×, what will be the value of the given expression?
7 + 5 ÷ 3 − 12 × 4
Ans A). 30 B). 6 C). 35 D). 28
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
5 + 3 × 2 ÷ 10 − 5 = ?
Ans A). 13 B). 12 C). 10 D). 15
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.18 Among seven people F, G, H, K, L, M and N, each has a different age. Only two people are older than M. Only two people are
younger than K. The age of K is a multiple of 10. The youngest is 12 years old. F is the eldest. N is older than L, but younger
than H. L is not the youngest. The sum of the ages of the youngest and second oldest person is 42 years. What can be the
possible age of L?
Ans A). 15 years B). 12 years C). 10 years D). 21 years
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 If X is the sister of Y, Z is the father of A and Y is the son of A, then how is Z related to X?
Ans A). Father B). Grandfather C). Great grandfather D). Granddaughter
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: A

B).
A). D).
C).

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Q.21 Given below is a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Study the statement carefully and decide which
Conclusion/s is/are definitely true.
Statement:
M > N ≥ O ≤ P ≤ W; X ≥ O > Y
Conclusion I : M > X
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Conclusion II : Y < W
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Ans A). Neither Conclusion I nor II is true. B). Both Conclusions I and II are true. C). Only Conclusion II is true. D). Only Conclusion I is true.

Correct Answer: C
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Q.22 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.
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Ans
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Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).
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Q.23 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
12, 16, 25, 50, 99, ?, 389
Ans A). 220 B). 180 C). 200 D). 240
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
23, 54, 81, 117, 137, 182, 191, ?
Ans A). 245 B). 294 C). 254 D). 249
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.25 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and
the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
16 : 85 :: 23 : ? :: 28 : 145

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 105 B). 150 C). 120 D). 135
Correct Answer: C

Q.26 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?
Ans A). 1490 B). 1049 C). 1940 D). 1094
Correct Answer: D

Q.27 Which two signs and which two numbers(not digits) should be interchanged to yield the value ‘zero’ for the following
expression?
2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18
Ans A). – and ÷; 2 and 4 B). × and – ; 4 and 11 C). + and ÷; 11 and 18 D). + and ÷; 2 and 18
Correct Answer: D

Q.28 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
122, 135, 161, 200, 252, ?
Ans A). 217 B). 317 C). 417 D). 517
Correct Answer: B

Q.29 What will be the day of the week on 14 September 3041?

Ans A). Friday B). Monday C). Sunday D). Tuesday
Correct Answer: D

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Q.30 Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home

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after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house. See the below text
message sent to Suresh by his parents and answer the following question accordingly.
“When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north. Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction.
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Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the round-about and drive
1 km. Take a right and drive 3 km. Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.”
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How many kilometres did Suresh drive after taking the second-left from the roundabout to reach his home by following the
directions given by his parents?
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Ans A). 12 B). 8 C). 5 D). 6

Correct Answer: D
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Q.31 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(2, 7, 11)
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(13,17,29)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Ans A). (27, 31, 33) B). (3, 9, 11) C). (37, 41, 49) D). (13, 17, 23)
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.32 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
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WGDE, ZEGC, ?, FAMY, IYPW

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Ans A). DCIB B). DBJC C). CCJA D). ZCIB

Correct Answer: C
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Q.33 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
505 – 604 – 217
Ans A). 432 – 513 – 711 B). 161 – 512 – 710 C). 125 – 223 – 342 D). 244 – 226 – 262
Correct Answer: D

Q.34 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some fathers are females.
All fathers are males.
Some fathers are mothers.
Conclusions:
I. Some males are not females.
II. Some mothers are females.
III. Some males are mothers.
Ans A). Both conclusion II and III follow. B). Both conclusion I and III follow. C). All conclusions follow. D). Only conclusion III follows.

Correct Answer: D
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 Q.35 In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements
to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All pants are shirts.
All shirts are jackets.
Some jackets are sweaters.
Conclusions:
I. Some jackets are pants.
II. Some sweaters are shirts.
III. No pant is a sweater.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Both conclusions II and III follow. C). None of conclusions I, II or III follows.
D). Only conclusion I follows.
Correct Answer: D

Q.36 What should come in place of the question (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
IGK, LJN, OMQ, RPT, ?
Ans A). USW B). VRW C). URW D). VSW
Correct Answer: A

Q.37 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
108 × 2 − 14 ÷ 6 + 27 = ?
Ans A). 212 B). 111 C). 114 D). 101
Correct Answer: B

Q.38 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
14 : 200
5 : 29
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into

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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 15 : 230 B). 11 : 120 C). 7 : 50 D). 16 : 260
Correct Answer: D

Q.39
ap
4 is related to 125 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 729. Which of the following numbers is
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related to 1728 using the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 11 B). 10 C). 12 D). 9

Correct Answer: A
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Q.40 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
12:168
11:145
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

B

Ans A). 16:232 B). 8:88 C). 5:61 D). 14:172

Correct Answer: B
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Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘PRICE’ is coded as EGRTK and ‘STAGE’ is coded as IGUVC. How will ‘RIGHT’ be coded in the
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same language?
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Ans A). GRVJG B). JVTKI C). GRVKG D). JVTKH

Correct Answer: B

Q.42 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the same sequence and make
the series logically complete.
17, 18, 22, 31, ?, 72, ?, 157
Ans A). 47, 105 B). 45, 107 C). 49, 106 D). 47, 108
Correct Answer: D

Q.43 Which of the following equations is correct when the numbers 3 and 9 are interchanged and the signs - and × are
interchanged?
Ans A). 9 ÷ 2 × 1 - 3 + 5 = 15 B). 12 ÷ 9 - 2 × 7 + 3 = 10 C). 1 - 9 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 32 D). 9 ÷ 4 × 3 + 1 - 6 = 18
Correct Answer: B

Q.44 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set.
(9, 83, 164)
(4, 18, 34)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (11, 122, 242) B). (6, 38, 74) C). (13, 167, 334) D). (5, 27, 56)
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.45 AZ 1 is related to CX 3 in a certain way based on the English alpha-numerical order. In the same way, EV 5 is related to GT 7.
To which of the following is IR 9 related, following the same logic?
Ans A). KP 11 B). PK 11 C). KQ 11 D). MN 13
Correct Answer: A

Q.46 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
GDA, OLI, WTQ, EBY, ?
Ans A). NQP B). MJG C). KMN D). LRS
Correct Answer: B

Q.47 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some flowers are buds.
Some flowers are trees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are buds.
II. No tree is a bud.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. B). Only conclusion I follows. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Both conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: A

Q.48 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Red Cross : Hospital :: Wheel : ?
Ans A). Danger B). Family planning C). Tardiness D). Progress
Correct Answer: D

Q.49 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EGMA’ using each letter exactly only once in each

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word?

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Ans A). 1 B). 2 C). 4 D). 3
Correct Answer: D

Q.50 ap
Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.
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Ans
Correct Answer: C
B

A). B). C). D).

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Mrs Funny Bones’?
Ans A). Tisca Chopra B). Divya Dutta C). Twinkle Khanna D). Soha Ali Khan
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 What happens to the motion of the particles as temperature rises?

Ans A). The particles move faster B). The particles move in the same direction C). The particles stay stationery D). The particles slow down

Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Which of the following Buddhist sages had initiated the Indo-Greek king Menander into Buddhism?
Ans A). Sariputra B). Nagasena C). Asvaghosa D). Vasubandhu
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 What was the estimated growth target of the Second Five-Year Plan in India?
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

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 Q.5 The team of which state has won the Women's U-18 Hockey in Khelo India Youth Games 2022?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Jharkhand C). Haryana D). Odisha
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Banabhatta was a court poet of Harshavardhana, who wrote a book called:
Ans A). Arthashastra B). Harshacharita C). Mudrarakshasa D). Nitisara
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 Which of the cell organelles includes RNA?

Ans A). Cell base B). Cell wall C). Ribosome D). Cytoplasm
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 With which of the following relief sculptures were the walls of the great Stupa of Amaravati in the Lower Godavari region
adorned?
Ans A). Alto-relievo B). Freestanding C). Bas relief D). Sunken relief
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held in ________.

Ans A). Kerala B). Maharashtra C). Andhra Pradesh D). Goa
Correct Answer: A

Q.10 Tanjore Balasaraswati was a dancer of which of the following dance forms?
Ans A). Mohiniyattam B). Kuchipudi C). Kathak D). Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which of the following states comes under the area of low rainfall?
Ans A). Tripura B). Bihar C). Meghalaya D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, a Hindustani classical vocalist, belonged to which of the following Gharanas?

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Ans A). Gwalior B). Agra C). Kirana D). Patiala
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Tropical cyclones originate over which of the following regions? ap

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Ans A). Mediterranean Sea, Pacific Ocean and the Indian Ocean B). Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean
C). Mediterranean Sea, Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean D). Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
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Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?

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Ans A). Election Commission of India B). National Commission for Backward Classes C). Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
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D). Reserve bank of India

Correct Answer: D
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Q.15 Rubber is NOT a major cultivation of which of the following states of India?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Kerala C). Meghalaya D). Punjab
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Correct Answer: D
B

Q.16 Who among the following politicians had written the autobiography ‘My Country My Life’?
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Ans A). I K Gujral B). L K Advani C). Kapil Sibal D). Natwar Singh
Correct Answer: B
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Q.17 In which of the following years was the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Bill passed?
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Ans A). 2007 B). 2014 C). 2017 D). 2002

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Which of the following Government of India Acts of British India proposed the All India Federation (Federation of India)?
Ans A). 1935 B). 1919 C). 1853 D). 1858
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 The ‘Aravalli’ is the name of a _________ in India.

Ans A). plateau B). mountain range C). lake D). valley
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Which of the following are satellite ports?

Ans A). Paradwip and Vishakhapatnam B). Nhava Sheva and Haldia C). Mormugao and New Mangalore port D). Chennai and Mumbai

Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT a good conductor of electricity?

Ans A). Gold B). Aluminium C). Sulphur D). Silver
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.22 The Rashtrakuta king who conquered the Cholas was:
Ans A). Krishna I B). Krishna III C). Rajendra D). Rajaraja I
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Who among the following is a Carnatic music vocalist?

Ans A). Ravi Shankar B). L Subramaniam C). Alla Rakha D). M Balamuralikrishna
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 The birth anniversary of Lord Jhulelal of the Sindhi community is also known as _________.
Ans A). Cheti Chand B). Jamshedi Navroj C). Chaliho Sahib D). Ulambana
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 In December 2022, who was sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans A). Pratibha Singh B). Jai Ram Thakur C). Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu D). Mukesh Agnihotri
Correct Answer: C

Q.26 Who used a home-made microscope to discover the invisible world of microbes, for which he is called the founding father
of microbiology?
Ans A). Antoni van Leeuwenhoek B). Matthias Schleiden C). Rudolf Virchow D). Robert Brown
Correct Answer: A

Q.27 Which of the following processes occurs during decomposition in soil?

Ans A). Defragmentation B). Humification C). Oxidation D). Crystallisation
Correct Answer: B

Q.28

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Ans A). A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II B). A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I C). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III D). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: C
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Q.29 Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating gross primary deficit?
Ans A). Gross fiscal deficit − Borrowings from abroad B). Gross fiscal deficit − Borrowing from RBI
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C). Gross fiscal deficit + Net interest liabilities D). Gross fiscal deficit − Net interest liabilities
Correct Answer: D
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Q.30 Which of the following options represents the best choice for the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme?
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Ans A). Clothing support B). Home Support C). Travel support D). Nutrition support
Correct Answer: D
B
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Q.31 Padma Shri awardee Darshana Jhaveri is a famous ________ dancer.

Ans A). Manipuri B). Sattriya C). Odissi D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: A
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Q.32

Ans A). a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii B). a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii C). a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii D). a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.33 Identify the element with an electronic configuration 2,8,1 from among the following options.
Ans A). Magnesium B). Chlorine C). Hydrogen D). Sodium
Correct Answer: D

Q.34 Who among the following had written the novel ‘Untouchable’?
Ans A). Mulk Raj Anand B). Raja Roy C). R K Narayan D). Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Correct Answer: A

Q.35 Which of the below is a psychological disorder of refusal to eat food, caused by under-nutrition?
Ans A). Bulimia Nervosa B). Anorexia Nervosa C). Marasmus D). Kwashiorkor
Correct Answer: B

Q.36 What is the trade-strategy, which India adopted in the first-seven Five-Year Plans?
Ans A). Inward-looking trade strategy B). Partially outward-looking trade strategy C). Partially inward-looking trade strategy
D). Outward-looking trade strategy
Correct Answer: A

Q.37 For which discovery in 1932 was James Chadwick best known?
Ans A). Thermal ionization B). Electron C). Wave theory of light D). Neutron
Correct Answer: D

Q.38 In which year did India host the Asian Games for the second time?
Ans A). 1990 B). 1978 C). 1986 D). 1982
Correct Answer: D

Q.39 Pitt’s India Act was passed in which of the following years?
Ans A). 1781 B). 1784 C). 1780 D). 1782
Correct Answer: B

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Q.40 Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for horticulture

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crops.
Ans A). 5% B). 4% C). 6% D). 3%
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Q.41 Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana was implemented through which organisation?
Ans A). India Post Payments Bank B). Life Insurance Corporation C). HDFC Bank D). Employees Provident Fund Organisation
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Correct Answer: D
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Q.42 Select the correct alternative on the given statements based on Ashoka’s Lion capital and India’s State Emblem.
Statement I: In the original Ashoka’s Lion Capital, there are four lions mounted back-to-back on a circular abacus that itself
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rests on a bell-shaped lotus.

Statement II: The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath in which the bell-shaped lotus was
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omitted.
Ans A). Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true. B). Both Statement I and Statement II are true. C). Only Statement I is true.
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D). Only Statement II is true.

B

Correct Answer: B
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Q.43 According to the census of India 2011, among the following which state has the highest sex ratio?
Ans A). Andhra Pradesh B). Rajasthan C). Bihar D). Uttar Pradesh
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Correct Answer: A
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Q.44 The most important and widely celebrated festival of Kerela is _________.
Ans A). Gudi Padwa B). Ugadi C). Nuakhai D). Onam
Correct Answer: D

Q.45 Under which Act did the individual members of the Executive Council have their own portfolio?
Ans A). The Indian Councils Act of 1861 B). The Indian Councils Act of 1892 C). The Indian Councils Act of 1909
D). The Indian Councils Act of 1858
Correct Answer: A

Q.46 In the context of a consumption function for an economy, if MPC = 0.6, then what is the likely value of MPS?
Ans A). 0.16 B). 0.36 C). –0.6 D). 0.4
Correct Answer: D

Q.47 Six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended on the grounds of:
1. War
2. External aggression
3. Armed rebellion
4. Internal disturbance
Ans A). 2 and 3 both B). 1 and 2 both C). 4 only D). 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.48 India won which of the following medals in the 2022 Asia Cup hockey tournament?
Ans A). Silver B). None C). Bronze D). Gold
Correct Answer: C

Q.49 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The House of Blue Mangoes’?
Ans A). David Davidar B). Sekhar Bandyopadhyay C). Durjoy Data D). Arvind Adiga
Correct Answer: A

Q.50 When and where was the first Wimbledon tournament held?
Ans A). 1887, Church Road site, Wimbledon B). 1877, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon C). 1887, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon
D). 1888, Church Road site, Wimbledon
Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
It became a known fact that they most played techno music at every party.
Ans A). at B). that C). most D). every
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “I have finished my homework.”

Ans A). He said that he would finish his homework. B). He said that he had finished his homework.
C). He said that he had to finish his homework. D). He said that he has finished his homework.
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

r
They could not reach the railway station before the train _______.

Si
Ans A). left B). has been leaving C). has leave D). leave
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. ap

at
To get wind of
Ans A). To get into difficulty B). To hear a piece of information that someone was trying to keep secret C). To recover from something
Pr

D). To escape so that you don't have to pay

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
She said that she could bake cookies.
ag

Ans A). She said, “I may bake cookies.” B). She had said, “I can bake cookies.” C). She said, “I can bake cookies.”
G

D). She says, “I can bake cookies.”

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

B

Online shopping refers to purchasing goods available on the world wide web. You have different websites which have a
hs

huge __________ of products that you can choose from.

Ans A). appraisal B). assessment C). assortment D). assignment
at

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.7 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
P. Applied arts require an object to be functional, as well as beautiful.
Q. They recognised that their work belonged to the higher social classes who had the wealth to purchase art and the leisure
time to enjoy it.
R. Fine art is categorised as something which only has an aesthetic or conceptual function.
S. There are a number of different categories of objects and processes under the umbrella term of art which need to be
explored.
T. In the twentieth century, artists began to challenge the established notion of art.
U. Art is typically divided into two areas: fine art (such as painting, sculpture, music and poetry), and the applied arts (such
as pottery, weaving, metal working, furniture making and calligraphy).
Ans A). SUPQRT B). SRPUTQ C). RPSTUQ D). SURPTQ
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hind
Ans A). Fore B). Rear C). Anterior D). Ventral
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
She said she was seeing her brother the following day.
Ans A). She said, "I should see my brother tomorrow.” B). She said, “ I am seeing my brother tomorrow.”
C). She said, “I was seeing my brother tomorrow.” D). She says, “I will see my brother tomorrow.”
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Parts of sentences are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.
The first part 'R.' is fixed.
R. Men usually make more decisions
A. and certainly the most important ones
B. earning a livelihood in most parts of the world
C. since men play a bigger role in
D. they have a major say in economic matters
Ans A). BADC B). DCAB C). ACDB D). ACBD
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Rukhsana was left alone in the house again, but fear was now her constant companion.
Ans A). boring B). friendly C). steady D). changing
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

Some students are known to grow wise early.

Ans A). Some students have been knowing that they grow wise early. B). We all know that students grew wise early.
C). People know that some students grow wise early. D). Few of us know that students grow early.
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank.

r
Si
Extreme inflation in the country has led to a hike in the price of day-to-day commodity. It has made it difficult to __________.
Ans A). costs an arm and a leg B). a blessing in disguise C). keep body and soul together D). break a leg
ap Correct Answer: C
at
Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Ignoramus
Pr

Ans A). Playful B). Cautious C). Stupid D). Deceitful

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The cake was baked by the chef in the kitchen.
ag

Ans A). The kitchen was baking the cake by the chef. B). The cake is being baked by the chef in the kitchen.
C). The cake was being baked by the chef in the kitchen. D). The chef baked the cake in the kitchen.
G

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.16 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
B

Raju said to Reghu, “Stay back.”

hs

Ans A). Raju had ordered Reghu to stay back. B). Raju has ordered Reghu to stay back. C). Raju ordered Reghu to stay back.
D). Raju orders Reghu to stay back.
at

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
You have said that, / as he took money from you many times, / he owes you / five thousand rupees all together.
Ans A). as he took money from you many times, B). he owes you C). five thousand rupees all together D). You have said that,

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The amateur proved them all wrong.
Ans A). Prefect B). Assistant C). Professional D). Chef
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The FIFA cup 2022 will be won by France.
Ans A). France will win the FIFA cup 2022. B). France will be winning the FIFA cup 2022. C). France wins the FIFA cup 2022.
D). France would win the FIFA cup 2022.
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.20 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form.
Who took Bruno for a walk?
Ans A). By whom has Bruno been taken for a walk? B). By whom will Bruno be taken for a walk? C). With whom Bruno is taken for a walk?
D). By whom was Bruno taken for a walk?
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.

(P) showcasing objects of historic, scientific and cultural interest

(Q) by taking us back in time
(R) museums are always
(S) treasure troves of information
Ans A). Q, S, P, R B). R, S, P, Q C). S, P, R, Q D). P, Q, S, R
Correct Answer: B

Q.22 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
That accident happened [A] /a long time ago, but [B] / I have shivered at [C] / the thought of it ever for [D].
Ans A). D B). A C). B D). C
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Admonish
Ans A). Abide B). Applaud C). Accede D). Abetment
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vanquish
Ans A). Verify B). Describe C). Quantify D). Conquer
Correct Answer: D

r
Si
Q.25 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of extremely high level.

ap
Ans A). My idea can be an key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
B). My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of a extremely high level.
at
C). My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
Pr

D). My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.26 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
He will has been helping me with tending to my plants.
ag

Ans A). to my plants B). with tending C). helping me D). He will has been
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.27 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
B y

(P) the south pole of the Moon

(Q) and where no man has ever been before
hs

(R) the Artemis mission will explore

(S) where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters
at

Ans A). P, R, Q, S B). R, P, S, Q C). S, R, Q, P D). Q, P, S, R

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.28 Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.
Ans A). PIEZO2 plays critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.
B). PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.
C). PIEZO2 plays the critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.
D). PIEZO2 plays a critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate an important physiological process for the brain to understand.

Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
He was the most cleverest man I ever knew.
Ans A). cleverer B). cleverest C). most cleverer D). more clever
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.30 Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.
The patient absconded from the hospital at dawn.
Ans A). Collected acknowledgement of the payment B). Learned to communicate with others C). Faced lack of cooperation from the nurse
D). Fled away hurriedly and secretly
Correct Answer: D

Q.31 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The wounded woman was being helped by some youngsters.
Ans A). Some youngsters were helping the wounded woman. B). Some youngsters have helped the wounded woman.
C). Some youngsters helped the wounded woman. D). The woman found help by some youngsters.
Correct Answer: A

Q.32 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

It is time to have tea.

Ans A). Time must be taken to prepare tea. B). It is time for tea to be had. C). Tea is to be had. D). Tea is to be taken by it.

Correct Answer: B

Q.33 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Reliable
Ans A). Unknown B). Untrustworthy C). Unfamiliar D). Uncommon
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Elegance and intelligence had the two most important traits of young ladies.
Ans A). has been the B). am being the C). been the D). are the
Correct Answer: D

r
Q.35 Identify the meaning of the idiom used in the following sentence.

Si
I am feeling a bit under the weather.
Ans A). feeling angry B). feeling slightly ill C). feeling energetic
ap
D). feeling lazy and bored
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.36 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Pr

My friend said to me, “Do you know the recipe of mango ice-cream?”
Ans A). My friend asked me if I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream. B). My friend asked me that I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.
an

C). My friend asked me that I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream. D). My friend asked me if I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.37 Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.
G

Even amidst the all-pervasive silence, the noise inside her head seemed incessant.
Ans A). To continue without any interruption B). To follow an unknown course C). To impact in a strikingly negative way
B y

D). To occur at irregular intervals or occasionally

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.38 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech.
They said that they had been waiting for the bus for over an hour.
at

Ans A). “We had waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said. B). “We are waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
M

C). “We waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said. D). “We have been waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
Correct Answer: D

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Technology has made it possible for us to reach out to more students, and it has also made it possible for us to deliver the
same lessons in a much more __________ manner.
Ans A). incompetent B). lumbering C). encumbering D). resourceful
Correct Answer: D

Q.40 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said to me, “I shall come to meet you tomorrow.”
Ans A). She told me that she will come to meet me tomorrow. B). She asked me that could she come to meet me the next day.
C). She tells me that she could come to meet me tomorrow. D). She told me that she would come to meet me the next day.
Correct Answer: D

Q.41 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in the bracket to fill in the blank.
The development of the region also depended on the ________ (rapaciousness) of the corporate contribution via a social
responsibility scheme.
Ans A). greed B). generosity C). violence D). voracity
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.42 Identify the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the given options.
The earth has a exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
Ans A). An earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
B). An earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
C). The earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
D). A earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
Correct Answer: C

Q.43 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
"I am playing the keyboard," she explained.
Ans A). She explained that she is playing the keyboard. B). She said that she had been playing the keyboard.
C). She said that she is playing the keyboard. D). She explained that she was playing the keyboard.
Correct Answer: D

Q.44 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the options given.
Ans A). The troll, the boy shared on social media created a big laughter. B). A troll, a boy shared in on social media created an big laughter.
C). An troll, the boy shared on the social media created the big laughter. D). The troll, a boy shared on an social media created a big laughter.

Correct Answer: A

Q.45 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The patient couldn’t survive the injuries and succumbed with death.
Ans A). succumbed by death B). succumbed in death C). succumbed to death D). succumbed into death
Correct Answer: C

Q.46 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

r
Devotional songs are sung superbly by Sastri.

Si
Ans A). Sastri sings devotional songs superbly. B). Sastri is singing devotional songs superbly. C). Sastri has superbly sung devotional songs.
D). Sastri has been singing devotional songs superbly.
ap Correct Answer: A
at
Q.47 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Amplify
Pr

Ans A). Dislike B). Lessen C). Enrich D). Exaggerate

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.48 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in unprejudiced way.
ag

Ans A). I have known her for many years. This time, she took a unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
G

B). I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
C). I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in a unprejudiced way.
y

D). I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
Correct Answer: D
B

Q.49 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

hs

Our neighbour told my brother to keep an eye on their pet dog in their absence.
at

Ans A). To ignore something or someone B). To look after something or someone C). To wait for something that is disturbing
D). To accomplish something too ambitious
M

Correct Answer: B

Q.50 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
I am not forced to study hard by my parents.
Ans A). My parents did not force me to study hard. B). My parents are not forcing me to study hard.
C). My parents do not force me to study hard. D). My parents will not force me to study hard.
Correct Answer: C

Q.51 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

Parents should be respected by their children.

Ans A). Children should be respecting their parents. B). Children are to respect their parents. C). Children should respect their parents.
D). Children shall be respecting their parents.
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.52 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

She said, “I have finished my work.”

Ans A). She said that she has finished her work. B). She said that she had finished her work. C). She said that she would finish her work.
D). She said that she will finish her work.
Correct Answer: B

Q.53 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
He will / come when / he will be / ready.
Ans A). he will be B). He will C). ready. D). come when
Correct Answer: A

Q.54 Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence.

The solicitor said, “Let us solve the dispute over the land.”
Ans A). The solicitor ordered that we should solve the dispute over the land.
B). The solicitor suggested that they might solve the dispute over the land.
C). The solicitor wished that they should solve the dispute over the land.
D). The solicitor suggested that they should solve the dispute over the land.
Correct Answer: D

Q.55 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

Over and _________ being hardworking, he is thoroughly honest.
Ans A). again B). over C). ever D). above
Correct Answer: D

Q.56 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. However, the most consumed tea in the world is Indian tea.

r
B. Tea was originated in China by its ruler, Shennong.

Si
C. India also has the credit of being the world’s largest producer.
D. This is because of the tropical and sub-tropical climate present here.
Ans A). CBAD B). BACD C). ABCD
ap D). DCAB
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.57 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Pr

I am _________ busy.
Ans A). quiet B). quite C). tidily D). few
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.58 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

ag

It is terrible that education systems all over the world are being held in captivity due to poverty, both at the governmental
and family levels, despite the fact that education is claimed to be so important for human progress and the _________ of
G

global economies.
Ans A). abrogation B). devastation C). dismantling D). revitalisation
y

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.59 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
hs

He goes hard with one and all.

Ans A). To remain neutral B). To be difficult C). To be unreliable D). To be busy over trifles
at

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.60 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
She is doing the homework.
Ans A). The homework is being done by her. B). The homework was being done by her. C). The homework was done by her.
D). The homework has been done by her.
Correct Answer: A

Q.61 Select the option that expresses the given in indirect speech .

The customer asked the tailor, “Will you have the dress ready by Tuesday?”
Ans A). The customer asked the tailor if he would like to have the dress ready by Tuesday.
B). The customer asked the tailor if he would have the dress ready by Tuesday.
C). The customer asked the tailor if he will have the dress ready by Tuesday.
D). The customer asked the tailor if he should have the dress ready by Tuesday.
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.62 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A: lost all his teeth
B: cannot eat hard food
C: he has
D: consequently, he
Ans A). ADBC B). DACB C). BDAC D). CADB
Correct Answer: D

Q.63 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Malathi loves Reena.

Ans A). Reena is being loved by Malathi. B). Reena was loved by Malathi. C). Reena was being loved by Malathi.
D). Reena is loved by Malathi.
Correct Answer: D

Q.64 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Vishnu and his friends / were listening to / the radio all morning.
Ans A). were listening to B). the radio all morning C). No error D). Vishnu and his friends
Correct Answer: C

Q.65 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Concur’ from the given sentence.
Every time they met, he found it difficult to resist her odd magic.
Ans A). met B). found C). difficult D). resist
Correct Answer: D

Q.66 Which of the following sentence is in the past continuous tense?

Ans A). They shall be watching TV all evening. B). They watched TV all evening. C). They would have watched TV all evening.

r
D). They were watching TV all evening.

Si
Correct Answer: D

Q.67 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

B). up against the wall C). a mare's nest

ap
Unless sales improve next month, the company will be in a critical position in which failure seems imminent.
Ans A). a damp squib D). hitting the sack
at
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.68 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
She asked me why I was not eating.
an

Ans A). She said, “Why don’t you eat?” B). She said, “Why are you not eating?” C). She said, “Why am I not eating?”
D). She said, “Why is he not eating?”
Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.69 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

G

Admiration
Ans A). Accomplish B). Cognisance C). Diminish D). Contempt
y

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.70 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
hs

A selected group of activists had been invited by the minister before the announcement of the strike.
at

Ans A). The minister had been inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
M

B). The minister was inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
C). The minister invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
D). The minister had invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result
of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain
(2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic
activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor.
Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing
(4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can
also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals'
livelihoods and physical assets.

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). unnatural B). artificial C). unrealistic D). natural
Correct Answer: D
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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result
of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain
(2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic
activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor.
Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing
(4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can
also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals'
livelihoods and physical assets.

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). mineral B). light C). energy D). metal
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result
of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain
(2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic
activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor.
Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing
(4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can
also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals'
livelihoods and physical assets.

SubQuestion No : 73

r
Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Si
Ans A). opened B). epicentre C). middleman D). paradoxical
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result
of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain
(2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic
activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor.
an

Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing
(4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can
ag

also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals'
livelihoods and physical assets.
G

SubQuestion No : 74
Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
B y

Ans A). minimal B). extensive C). limited D). small

Correct Answer: B
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result
of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain
(2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic
activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor.
Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing
(4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can
also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals'
livelihoods and physical assets.

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). consequence B). direction C). name D). classification
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that
propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with
landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain
poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most
lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people.
The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and
felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken,
these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people
use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or
poison dart frogs.

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). susceptible B). incline C). dispose D). capable
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that
propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with
landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain
poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most
lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people.
The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and
felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken,
these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people
use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or

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poison dart frogs.

Si
SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). backing B). excuse C). assistance
ap
D). encouragement
at
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
an

Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that
propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with
ag

landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain
poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most
G

lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people.
The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and
felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken,
y

these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people
B

use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or
poison dart frogs.
hs

SubQuestion No : 78
at

Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

M

Ans A). spells B). glows C). radiates D). squeaks

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that
propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with
landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain
poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most
lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people.
The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and
felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken,
these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people
use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or
poison dart frogs.

SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). disturbs B). sequels C). alters D). consequences
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that
propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with
landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain
poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most
lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people.
The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and
felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken,
these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people
use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or
poison dart frogs.

SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). malice B). bane C). hate D). poison
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on
railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside
restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class
urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children
are denied schooling.

SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

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Ans A). gatherings B). mobility C). exclusion D). harmony

Si
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at
For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on
Pr

railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside
restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class
urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children
are denied schooling.
an

SubQuestion No : 82
ag

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

G

Ans A). vehicles B). parliaments C). airports D). beggars

Correct Answer: D
y

Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
hs

For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on
railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside
at

restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class
urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children
M

are denied schooling.

SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). labouring B). excelling C). revolting D). cheating
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on
railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside
restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class
urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children
are denied schooling.

SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). envious B). composed C). surprised D). afraid
Correct Answer: C
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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on
railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside
restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class
urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children
are denied schooling.

SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). force B). strike C). slap D). touch
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention
was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on
hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by
keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the
primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household
cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose
transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical
home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). no little B). a little C). the little D). little
Correct Answer: D

r
Si
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ap
Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention
was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on
at
hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by
Pr

keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the
primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household
cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose
transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical
an

home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

ag

SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
G

Ans A). rare B). growing C). declining D). decreasing

Correct Answer: B
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.
Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention
at

was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on
hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by
M

keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the
primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household
cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose
transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical
home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). clean B). close C). cluttered D). clear
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention
was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on
hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by
keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the
primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household
cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose
transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical
home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). of B). at C). for D). about
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention
was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on
hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by
keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the
primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household
cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose
transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical
home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 90

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Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

Si
Ans A). ineffective B). required C). impossible D). risky
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
ap
at
Pr

Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting,
investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong
foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation.
Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and
an

understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic
financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost.
ag

With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial
literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products
G

responsibly.
Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and
financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling
y

life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial
B

frauds.
Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than
hs

income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences.
Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial
at

literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation.
Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it
M

helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy
provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success.
Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 Which of the following is NOT a result of financial illiteracy?
Ans A). Higher expense than income B). Financial discipline C). Accumulation of debts D). Budget mismatch
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting,
investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong
foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation.
Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and
understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic
financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost.
With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial
literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products
responsibly.
Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and
financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling
life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial
frauds.
Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than
income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences.
Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial
literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation.
Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it
helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy
provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success.
Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans A). Critical B). Satirical C). Informative D). Subjective
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:

r
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Si
Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting,

ap
investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong
foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation.
Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and
at
understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic
financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost.
Pr

With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial
literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products
responsibly.
an

Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and
financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling
ag

life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial
frauds.
Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than
G

income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences.
Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial
y

literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation.
B

Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it
helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy
hs

provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success.
Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.
at

SubQuestion No : 93
M

Q.93 Which of the following statement would the author of the above passage agree to?
Ans A). Financial literacy cannot help in budgeting and paying off the debts.
B). Financial literacy is important only for those who are materialistic.
C). Important life goals and ambitions are not typically related to financial skills.
D). Effective money management skills enable early retirement.
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting,
investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong
foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation.
Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and
understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic
financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost.
With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial
literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products
responsibly.
Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and
financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling
life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial
frauds.
Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than
income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences.
Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial
literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation.
Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it
helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy
provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success.
Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word with reference to its usage in the passage.
Stability
Ans A). Steadiness B). Inefficacy C). Ambiguity D). Volatility
Correct Answer: D

r
Comprehension:

Si
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

ap
Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting,
investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong
foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation.
at
Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and
understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic
Pr

financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost.
With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial
literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products
an

responsibly.
Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and
ag

financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling
life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial
frauds.
G

Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than
income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences.
y

Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial
B

literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation.
Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it
hs

helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy
provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success.
at

Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

SubQuestion No : 95
M

Q.95 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.

Ans A). Making Financial Decisions B). Tips for Financial Growth C). Why is Financial Illiteracy Important
D). The Importance of Financial Literacy
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I
don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American
historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society,
the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture
Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s
release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code,
which caused the censors to change their minds.
A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of
American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these
issues have advanced significantly.
What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems,
conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something
should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and
disputed social topics.
Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches
information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its
subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be
suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also
spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In
India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for
the purpose before it can be released for public screening.
Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment
through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and
integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt,
violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 Identify the structure of the passage.

r
Ans A). Descriptive B). Sequential C). Classification D). Compare and contrast

Si
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. ap
Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I
at
don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American
historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society,
Pr

the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture
Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s
release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code,
an

which caused the censors to change their minds.

A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of
ag

American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these
issues have advanced significantly.
What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems,
G

conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something
should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and
y

disputed social topics.

B

Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches
information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its
hs

subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be
suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also
at

spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In
India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for
M

the purpose before it can be released for public screening.

Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment
through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and
integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt,
violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

SubQuestion No : 97
Q.97 Why/how did the word, which had originally been offensive, become unoffensive suddenly?
Ans A). Because of the control by the Censor Board B). Because of the conventions C). Because of people’s age and norms
D). Because of changed sensitivity of American culture
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I
don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American
historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society,
the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture
Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s
release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code,
which caused the censors to change their minds.
A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of
American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these
issues have advanced significantly.
What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems,
conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something
should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and
disputed social topics.
Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches
information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its
subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be
suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also
spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In
India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for
the purpose before it can be released for public screening.
Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment
through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and
integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt,
violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Why does CBFC have to certify and control the content shown in a movie?

r
Ans A). To not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity B). To cause public disorder or crime C). To violate social norms

Si
D). To jeopardise India’s security
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension: ap
at
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I
Pr

don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American
historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society,
the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture
an

Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s
release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code,
which caused the censors to change their minds.
ag

A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of
American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these
G

issues have advanced significantly.

What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems,
conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something
y

should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and
B

disputed social topics.

Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches
hs

information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its
subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be
at

suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also
spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In
M

India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for
the purpose before it can be released for public screening.
Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment
through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and
integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt,
violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99 What is the passage based upon?
Ans A). Impact of cinema on people's sensibilities B). Action epic film C). Motion picture production code D). Trending movies

Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I
don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American
historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society,
the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture
Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s
release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code,
which caused the censors to change their minds.
A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of
American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these
issues have advanced significantly.
What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems,
conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something
should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and
disputed social topics.
Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches
information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its
subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be
suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also
spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In
India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for
the purpose before it can be released for public screening.
Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment
through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and
integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt,
violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100 Which of the following words was interpreted as offensive in American Society in the 1930s?

r
Ans A). Disputed B). Code C). Damn D). Meaningless

Si
Correct Answer: C

ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 10/12/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
10 : 999
2:7

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 6 : 215 B). 8 : 315 C). 4 : 65 D). 5 : 128
Correct Answer: A

r
Q.2 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

Si
13, 29, 61, 125, 253, 509, ?
Ans A). 1029 B). 1099 C). 1089 D). 1021
ap Correct Answer: D
at
Q.3 Kamlesh got an opportunity to work in a multinational company. Tomorrow is his first day of office and he asked his fellow
employee to give him directions to his new office. Kamlesh lives in Town A (in the North) and his office is in Town F. His
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fellow employee gave him the directions over a phone and he noted it in a piece of paper. Below is the written transcript.
Read the transcript carefully and answer the question that follows.
‘Take left from Town A and drive 2 km and you will be at Town B. Take left from Town B and drive 3 km to reach Town C. Take
an

right from Town C and drive 4 km to reach Town D. Take right from Town D and drive 4 km to reach Town E. Take left from
Town E and drive 5 km to reach Town F. The office is in Town F.’
Upon reaching Town D, how many kilometres would Kamlesh have covered tomorrow?
ag

Ans A). 9 B). 13 C). 5 D). 18

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.4 If every letter in the word IMAGINATION is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order and the letters of the
y

new word are arranged in alphabetical order, which letter will be the sixth from the left end of the new word thus formed?
B

Note: The new word formed after performing the mentioned operations may not necessarily be a meaningful English word.
Ans A). O B). N C). P D). J
hs

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.5 Which of the following equations is correct when the numbers 12 and 6 are interchanged and the signs ÷ and + are
interchanged?
M

Ans A). 9 ÷ 6 × 4 + 12 - 3 = 18 B). 12 ÷ 3 - 8 - 6 + 1 = 15 C). 4 - 6 × 12 ÷ 5 + 7 = 22 D). 6 ÷ 4 ×5 - 12 + 3 = 30

Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

DUYG, ?, PGKS, VMQY, BSWE

Ans A). JAEM B). KBDM C). IZFN D). JZDN
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some zinc is iron.
Some zinc is silver.
No silver is gold.
Conclusions:
I) Some zinc is not gold.
II) Some zinc is gold.
III) Some silver is iron.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follow B). Conclusion Either I or II follow C). Only conclusion II follow D). Only conclusion III follow

Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
3, 10, 24, 45, 73, ?
Ans A). 106 B). 107 C). 109 D). 108
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

r
Si
Ans

A). B). C).

ap D).
Correct Answer: B
at
Pr

Q.10 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
an

WKED, ZLHE, CMKF, FNNG, ?

Ans A). HPPI B). HOPH C). IOQH D). IPQI
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’
G

means ‘−’?
(280 + 10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ?
y

Ans A). 376 B). 368 C). 378 D). 388

B

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.12 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.13 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
120, 101, 139, 82, 158, ?
Ans A). 55 B). 63 C). 61 D). 58
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.14

Ans A). D B). A C). C D). B

Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
1. Immigrate
2. Immediate
3. Immerse

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4. Immense

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5. Immature
Ans A). 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 B). 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 C). 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 D). 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

Q.16
ap Correct Answer: D

Among seven people F, G, H, K, L, M and N, each has a different age. Only H is older than K. The second oldest is 38 years
at
old. Only three people are younger than L. M is older than only N. M’s age is half of K’s age. F is 36 years old. L’s age is a
Pr

multiple of 10. What can be the sum of the ages of K and L?

Ans A). 66 years B). 56 years C). 68 years D). 60 years
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.17 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.18 Six sports persons are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. R is sitting second to the right of M. Only two people
are sitting between R and K. V is sitting second to the right of S. N is an immediate neighbour of both K and V. Who is the
immediate neighbour of both M and R?
Ans A). K B). N C). S D). V
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
53, 52, 54, 53, 55, ?
Ans A). 56 B). 54 C). 57 D). 55
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All rectangles are trapezium.
All trapeziums are parallelogram.
No parallelogram is circle.
Conclusions:
I) No rectangle is circle.
II) No trapezium is circle.
III) All rectangles are parallelogram.
Ans A). Only conclusion I and II B). Only conclusion II and III C). Only conclusion I and III D). All conclusion I, II and III
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home
after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house. See the below text
message sent to Suresh by his parents and answer the following question accordingly.
“When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north. Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction.
Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the round-about and drive
1 km. Take a right and drive 3 km. Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.”
In which direct is Suresh facing after taking a right from the railway station?
Ans A). East B). West C). North D). South
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
14:205
5:34
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 28:793 B). 25:636 C). 9:91 D). 16:247

r
Correct Answer: A

Si
Q.23 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they

Statements:
All books are copies.
ap
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
at
Some books are texts.
Conclusions:
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I. Some texts are copies.

II. No text is a copy.
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Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. D). Both conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.24 A is the wife of R. R is the son of C. B is the wife of C and M is the brother of C. How is M related to R?
G

Ans A). Father's brother B). Father's sister C). Father D). Son
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.25 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
at

Statements:
Some teas are coffees.
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All coffees are waters.

All teas are colas.
Conclusions:
I.Some colas are waters.
II. Some coffees are colas.
III. Some waters are teas.
Ans A). Only conclusions II and III follow B). Only conclusion I follows C). All the conclusions follow D). Only conclusion II follows

Correct Answer: C

Q.26 In a certain code language, 'SECURE' is coded as YJGXTF and 'FAMILY' is coded as LFQLNZ. How will 'HOUSES' be coded
in the same language?
Ans A). TGVYTN B). NTVYGV C). NTYVGT D). NTYTGV
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.27

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.28 35 is related to 48 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 24. Which of the following is 80 related
to, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 99 B). 89 C). 98 D). 95
Correct Answer: A

Q.29 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)

r
Ans A). PSQ B). UXW C). BEC D). GJH
Correct Answer: B

Si
Q.30 How many triangles are there in the given figure?
ap
at
Pr
an
ag

Ans A). 13 B). 12 C). 11 D). 14

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.31 If 2 October 2012 was Tuesday, then what was the day of the week on 1 October 2016?
B y

Ans A). Sunday B). Thursday C). Saturday D). Friday

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.32 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and
the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
at

546 : 15 :: 879 : ? :: 715 : 13

M

Ans A). 24 B). 19 C). 17 D). 21

Correct Answer: A

Q.33 Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to yield the value ‘zero’ for the following
expression?
13 + 65 ÷ 2 × 8 – 21
Ans A). – and ÷; 8 and 13 B). + and ÷; 13 and 21 C). × and –; 21 and 65 D). + and ÷; 13 and 65
Correct Answer: D

Q.34 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given triad of numbers.
(4, 16, 60)
(2, 4, 6)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 8, 56, 448 B). 3, 9, 24 C). 7, 49, 42 D). 5, 25, 125
Correct Answer: B

Q.35 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
DA, XU, RO, LI, ?
Ans A). ED B). FC C). GD D). FB
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.36 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
614, ?, 349, 249, 168, 104
Ans A). 452 B). 470 C). 469 D). 513
Correct Answer: B

Q.37 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 6?

Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 1 D). 5

Correct Answer: A

Q.38 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Immigration : Entrance :: Emigration : ?
Ans A). Aeroplane B). Bridge C). Passport D). Departure
Correct Answer: D

Q.39 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). QILG B). SGJE C). UEDC D). PJMH
Correct Answer: C

Q.40 325 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 424 is related to 32. Which of the following numbers
is related to 16 using the same logic?

r
Si
Ans A). 184 B). 178 C). 182 D). 180
Correct Answer: C

Q.41
ap
Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
27:82
at
9:28
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
Pr

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 18:37 B). 42:127 C). 45:138 D). 36:107
an

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.42 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
G

Map : Directions :: Manual : ________

Ans A). Instructions B). Statements C). Conclusions D). Assumptions
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.43 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
hs

{(78 + 70) − (6 × 2))} ÷ 2 = 10

at

Ans A). ÷, + B). ÷, × C). +, × D). −, +

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.44 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
104 ÷ 8 – 15 + 4 x 26 = 21
Ans A). 15 and 26 B). 8 and 26 C). 15 and 4 D). 8 and 15
Correct Answer: B

Q.45 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing the number
‘4’.

Ans A). 2 B). 3 C). 6 D). 5

Correct Answer: C

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 Q.46 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely
true, based on the given statements.

Statements:
A≥B>C<D
E<B>F≥G
Ans A). E < G B). C > E C). D > E D). G < A
Correct Answer: D

Q.47 F is the brother of D. G is the daughter of B. H is the mother of F. D is the son of E. B is married to F. How is B related to E?
Ans A). Son’s wife B). Wife’s mother C). Wife’s brother D). Son’s daughter
Correct Answer: A

Q.48 H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two
people sit between L and M. M is the immediate neighbour of I and J. H sits to the immediate right of I. How many people sit
between K and H when counted from the left of K?
Ans A). One B). None C). Three D). Two
Correct Answer: A

Q.49 If + means ×, × means −, − means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the given expression?
24 – 4 + 18 × 3 ÷ 7
Ans A). 98 B). 120 C). 118 D). 112
Correct Answer: D

Q.50 In a certain code language, ‘BREATHE’ is coded as 70 and ‘TRIUMPH’ is coded as 135. How will ‘TRAGEDY’ be coded in the
same language?
Ans A). 111 B). 80 C). 86 D). 95
Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

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Si
Q.1 Kharchi Puja of Tripura is celebrated in the month of ________.
Ans A). July-August B). April-May C). September-October
apD). January-February
Correct Answer: A
at
Q.2 Cotton is used in making clothes. In this example, cotton is which type of good?
Pr

Ans A). Capital B). Intermediate C). Inferior D). Giffen

Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Dr. Jayanthi Kumaresh is famous for playing the ________.

an

Ans A). Saraswati Veena B). Ghatam C). Mridangam D). Harmonium
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.4 __________ are amoeboid (amoeba like movement, with pseudopodia) that can squeeze out through capillary walls.
G

Ans A). Guard cells B). Nerve cells C). White blood cells D). Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.5 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the highest number of slum population?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Rajasthan C). Andhra Pradesh D). Maharashtra
hs

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.6 The Malabar Coast is located in which of the following States of India?
Ans A). Maharashtra B). Gujarat C). Kerala D). Odisha
M

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 The Begumpuri mosque was built during the reign of which of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate?
Ans A). Firuz Shah Tughlaq B). Sikandar Lodhi C). Bahlul Lodhi D). Muhammad Tughlaq
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 According to the Census 2011, which group of seven sister states has the highest literacy rate?
Ans A). Mizoram and Tripura B). Mizoram and Meghalaya C). Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh D). Manipur and Nagaland
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Which of the following edicts of King Ashoka describes the Kalinga war?
Ans A). Rock edict II B). Pillar edict IV C). Pillar edict III D). Rock edict XIII
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 ‘Raga Mala’ is an autobiography of who among the following musicians?

Ans A). Lata Mangeshkar B). Ravi Shankar C). Amjad Ali Khan D). A R Rahman
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.11 To study the buildings and structures of the Harappan civilisation, a teacher should take his students on a field trip to which
of the following states of India?
Ans A). Bengal and Odisha B). Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh C). Sikkim and Tripura D). Gujrat and Rajasthan
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 With reference to the city administration of Mauryan Empire, consider the following statements.
a) Megasthenes put light on the Mauryan city administration.
b) The city council was divided into six committees.
c) City administration was well planned.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans A). a, b, c B). c, a C). b, c D). a, b
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 The 44th Chess Olympiad was organised in which of the following cities?
Ans A). Ahmedabad B). Chennai C). Mumbai D). Bhopal
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Identify the type of specialised cells found in flatworms that help in osmoregulation.
Ans A). Stem cells B). Mesoderm C). Sperm cells D). Flame cells
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Which of the following Indian classical musicians is also known as Sarod Maestro?
Ans A). RV Raghavan B). Amjad Ali Khan C). Asad Ali Khan D). Bismillah Khan
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 ________ is a game between two teams, each usually having six players, who wear skates and compete on an ice rink.
Ans A). Ice hockey B). Ice skating C). Rinkball D). Ringette
Correct Answer: A

r
Q.17 Which of the following folk dances is performed by the fisherfolk of the Mithila region in Bihar?

Si
Ans A). Kamala B). Nrityakali C). Karma D). Jiya
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Which of the following was NOT including in the Pitt’s India Act of 1784? ap
at
Ans A). Madras and Bombay presidencies were brought under Bengal presidency
B). A committee of six government appointees, known as the Board of Control, was formed
Pr

C). All the debts of the East India Company were taken over by the British Government of India
D). The governance of India was handed over to the Governor General and a council consisting of three members
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.19 Where was the first Headquarters of the Theosophical Society established in India?
ag

Ans A). Puducherry B). Adyar C). Kolkata D). Madurai

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.20 Who among the following is a famous Mohiniyattam dancer?

y

Ans A). Sheema Kermani B). Saswati Sen C). Mallika Sarabhai D). Sunanda Nair
B

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.21 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the climate of the Indian subcontinent?
Ans A). The climate of North India remains similar throughout the year
at

B). The Western Ghat protects the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia.
M

C). The Himalayas protect the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia.
D). The Thar desert protects the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia.
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 During the Green Revolution period in India, child nutrition-focused scheme, the Integrated Child Development Scheme
(ICDS) was launched in ________.
Ans A). 1977 B). 1975 C). 1976 D). 1972
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives equality before the law?
Ans A). Article 18 B). Article 20 C). Article 14 D). Article 16
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Coulomb’s law is applicable for _________.

Ans A). Between two distributed charges B). Between two point charges C). both distributed charges and point charges
D). neither point charges nor distributed charges
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.25 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Inheritance of Loss’?
Ans A). Kiran Desai B). Meena Kandasamy C). Manju Kapoor D). Kamala Bhasin
Correct Answer: A

Q.26 The first edition of Indian Women’s Premier League (cricket) was held in the year _________.
Ans A). 2000 B). 2023 C). 2022 D). 2021
Correct Answer: B

Q.27 Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for rabi crops.
Ans A). 4.5% B). 1.5% C). 3% D). 6%
Correct Answer: B

Q.28 Which of the following is an ex-officio member of the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Profession as provided
in the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Profession Act, 2021?
Ans A). Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India B). Prime Minister
C). Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India D). Joint Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice

Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Choose the correct statement regarding the bacterial cell wall.
Ans A). Pectin is the major component of the bacterial cell wall. B). Chitin is the major component of the bacterial cell wall.
C). The major component of the bacterial cell wall is cellulose. D). The major component of the bacterial cell wall is peptidoglycan or murein.

Correct Answer: D

Q.30 Which of the following is NOT a National Waterway of the country?

Ans A). National Waterway No. 2 B). National Waterway No. 1 C). National Waterway No. 4 D). National Waterway No. 6
Correct Answer: D

r
Si
Q.31 Where is the head office of the Sports Authority of India located?
Ans A). Kolkata B). New Delhi C). Punjab D). Kerala

Q.32 From 1950 to 1990, the proportion of GDP contributed by the Agriculture sector ______.
ap Correct Answer: B
at
Ans A). remained the same B). did not increase significantly C). declined significantly D). did not decline significantly
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Q.33 Which of the following options represents only the units of energy?
an

Ans A). Calorie, Kilowatt hour, Newton B). Joule, Calorie, Newton C). Joule, Newton, Kilowatt hour D). Joule, Calorie, Kilowatt hour
ag

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.34 The Mahabodhi Temple was built entirely from ________ by Ashoka.
Ans A). stones B). bricks C). rocks D). wood
y

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.35 The amount of Cash Reserves that commercial banks are required to keep with the RBI is referred to as:
hs

Ans A). SLR B). Bank Rate C). Repo Rate D). CRR
Correct Answer: D
at

Q.36 Choose the correct statement.

M

Ans A). Heterotrophs' survival depends directly or indirectly on autotrophs. B). Autotrophs' survival depends directly on heterotrophs.
C). All bacteria are autotrophs. D). Animals are autotrophs.
Correct Answer: A

Q.37 The festival of flowers, predominantly celebrated in Telangana, is also known as _________.
Ans A). Phool Dei B). Phulaich C). Kajari D). Bathukamma
Correct Answer: D

Q.38 Identify the odd option from among the following.

Ans A). Chlorine B). Fluorine C). Argon D). Bromine
Correct Answer: C

Q.39 Which of the following country hosted the One Day International Cricket World Cup in 2023?
Ans A). India B). Australia C). Pakistan D). England
Correct Answer: A

Q.40 Who among the following is the author of ‘The God of Small Things’?
Ans A). Arundhati Roy B). Vikram Seth C). Anita Desai D). Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.41 Which of the following statements is true about the changing pattern of India international trade?
An A). The share of agriculture and allied products has increased, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities
s have declined.
B). The share of agriculture and allied products has declined, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have
increased.
C). The share of agriculture and allied products has remained constant, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other
commodities have fluctuated.
D). The share of agriculture and allied products has varied, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have
remained constant.

Correct Answer: B

Q.42 Interspecific interaction between two species, in which both members benefit, is referred to as:
Ans A). neutralism B). commensalism C). mutualism D). uniquely
Correct Answer: C

Q.43 North Indian architecture is called:

Ans A). Nagara style B). Indo-Saracenic style C). Roman-Greek style D). Dravidian style
Correct Answer: A

Q.44 The correct chemical formula of the compound Magnesium Hydroxide is:
Ans A). MgOH2 B). Mg(OH) C). Mg(OH)2 D). Mg2(OH)
Correct Answer: C

Q.45 In December 2022, who became the first woman President of the Indian Olympic Association?
Ans A). PT Usha B). PV Sindhu C). Sakshi Malik D). Mary Kom
Correct Answer: A

r
Q.46 Consider the following statements with regard to Satnami Movement of Central India.

Si
a) The movement was founded by Ghasidas.
b) The movement was to improve the condition of leather workers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans A). Neither a or b B). Only a C). Only b apD). Both a and b
Correct Answer: D
at
Q.47 Select the CORRECT combination of novelist and their works.
Pr

Ans A). Two Leaves and a Bud – Mulk Raj Anand B). The Cat and Shakespeare – Ravindranath Tagore
C). The Chess Master and His Moves – RK Narayan D). Waiting for Mahatma – Raja Rao
an

Correct Answer: A

Q.48 Which of the following commissions does NOT safeguard the interests of any caste or community?
ag

Ans A). National Commission for Scheduled Tribes B). National Commission for Backward Classes C). Finance Commission of India
G

D). National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Correct Answer: C
y

Q.49 The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has classified the Indian soil into _____ categories as per the United
B

States Department of Agriculture (the USDA) Soil Taxonomy?

hs

Ans A). 9 B). 12 C). 8 D). 7

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.50 Which of the following is classified as an autotrophic organism?

M

Ans A). Animal B). Fungi C). Plant D). Human

Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
He ordered his soldiers to take that bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom he had imprisoned.
Ans A). He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminded me of my father whom I imprison.”
B). He said to his soldiers, “May this bird be taken away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.”
C). He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.”
D). He said to his soldiers, “Take the bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom I imprison.”
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form.
The shopkeeper lifted the shutter to open his shop.
Ans A). The shutter is being lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop. B). The shutter was lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop.
C). To open his shop, the shutter is lifted by the shopkeeper. D). The shutter will be lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop.

Correct Answer: B
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 Q.3 Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence.

The Headmistress said, “What a performance!”

Ans A). The Headmistress exclaimed that it was a great performance. B). The Headmistress said that what a performance.
C). The Headmistress praised what a great performance. D). The Headmistress exclaimed what a great performance.
Correct Answer: A

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech.
He told me that he would have finished the project by the following day.
Ans A). “I will finish the project by the next day,” he said to me. B). “I will have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me.
C). “I have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me. D). “I would finish the project,” he said to me tomorrow.
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Venus didn’t have any moons or satellites or even a ___________ field, but it did have an atmosphere sort of similar to
Earth’s, except it was super-hot.
Ans A). graphological B). musicological C). pedagogic D). magnetic
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

You can tell yourself that you would be willing to lose everything you have in order to get something you want: all of those
things you’re willing to lose are what make you___________.
Ans A). recognisable B). pessimist C). distract D). unfortunately
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The secretary has planted a lot of saplings to save the environment.

r
Si
Ans A). A lot of saplings are planted by the secretary to save the environment.
B). A lot of saplings have been planted by the secretary to save the environment.
C). A lot of saplings are being planted by the secretary to save the environment.
D). A lot of saplings were planted by the secretary to save the environment.
ap
at
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Taciturnity
an

Ans A). Eloquence B). Silence C). Talkative D). Tactic

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.9 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
G

"Dear daughter," she said caressing her cheeks, “have you come to comfort me in my time of need?”
Ans A). Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she did come to comfort her in her time of need.
y

B). Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she had been coming to comfort her in her time of need.
B

C). Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she had come to comfort her in her time of need.
hs

D). Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she has come to comfort her in her time of need.
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
M

The rain will / not have stop / before the match / begins.
Ans A). not have stop B). begins C). before the match D). The rain will
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Were you laughing at the poor masses?

Ans A). Were the poor masses being laughed at by you? B). Are the poor masses being laughed at by you?
C). Had the masses been laughed at by you? D). Have the poor masses been laughed at by you?
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

The patient consumed mushrooms for hallucinatory experiences, but the doctor advised to consume only
________(hallucinogenic) drugs.
Ans A). regular B). freaky C). abnormal D). psychedelic
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
My mom made her muffins, but she didn’t eat none.
Ans A). she didn’t ate any B). she did ate many C). she did eat none D). she didn’t eat any
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If we / were meeting at 6 p.m., / we will / have plenty of time.

Ans A). If we B). were meeting at 6 p.m., C). we will D). have plenty of time.
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

One of the great rivers / of China, a Hwang Ho, / originates from the / eastern face of Tibet.
Ans A). originates from the B). One of the great rivers C). of China, a Hwang Ho, D). eastern face of Tibet
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
His was a stupendous performance in the competition.
Ans A). Mnemonic B). Soothing C). Unimpressive D). Herculean
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The team’s performance was at its zenith in 2017.
Ans A). Height B). Sneak C). Nadir D). Peak
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The interference of the police force would have controlled the situation.

r
Si
Ans A). The situation could be controlled by the interference of the police force.
B). The situation would have been controlled by the interference of the police force.
C). The situation could have been controlled by the interference of the police force.
D). The situation would be controlled by the interference of the police force.
ap Correct Answer: B
at
Pr

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Ravi said that he might go to the mall.
Ans A). Ravi said, “I may go to the mall.” B). Ravi said, “I will go to the mall.” C). Ravi said, “I could go to the mall.”
an

D). Ravi said, “I can go to the mall.”

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.20 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

G

A bird's eye view

Ans A). A clear impression of what is happening B). To move or rise into sight, especially from a distance
y

C). To hold a negative or pessimistic opinion on something D). A limited understanding of something
B

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.21 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
When I saw / her, she write / a poem / with full attention.
at

Ans A). a poem B). with full attention. C). her, she write D). when I saw
Correct Answer: C
M

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The difference between a male and a female still __________ in our society. In this era where women have such great
achievements in every field, still in some sections of our community, a man is always termed as superior to women.
Ans A). persists B). insists C). defects D). requires
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Select the alternative from the given options that best expresses the same sentence in active/passive voice.

Who built this colossal architectural structure?

Ans A). By whom is this colossal architectural structure built? B). By whom was this colossal architectural structure built?
C). By whom has this colossal architectural structure been built ? D). Who had this colossal architectural structure built?
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.24 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
(A) I must tell you that I am referring to the tax year which began on 1 April
(B) Let me be the first to wish you a very happy New Year
(C) In case none of your friends or family did so
(D) Now, before you ask whether the spring sunshine has gone to my head
Ans A). CBDA B). ADCB C). DBAC D). BACD
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Who has told you to buy trash from the market?

Ans A). Who could tell you to buy trash? B). By whom have you been told to buy trash? C). By whom had you been told to buy trash?
D). The buying of trash has been told by whom?
Correct Answer: B

Q.26 Select the most appropriate form and tense of the bracketed verb in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

I’m busy today. I’d rather we ________ (has) the meeting tomorrow.
Ans A). had B). Has been C). has D). had been
Correct Answer: A

Q.27 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The compensation that the [A] / Government agreed to provide to [B] / the dependents of the [C] / train accident is fairly less
[D].
Ans A). C B). B C). A D). D
Correct Answer: D

Q.28 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

r
Although one’s body language is a very powerful medium of expression, we express our thoughts, verbally or _________

Si
through language, which is our main way of communication.
Ans A). hyperbolically B). anemically C). textually D). banefully

Q.29 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

ap Correct Answer: C
at
The Great wall of China was built to link existing fortifications into a united __________ system and to keep the invading
Mongol tribes out of China.
Pr

Ans A). ecological B). irrigation C). corporate D). defence

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.30 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
I know a person who parents live in Milan.
ag

Ans A). whom parents B). what parents C). whose parents D). which parents
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.31 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

B y

Diamond in the rough

Ans A). Unpolished diamonds B). An industry of star-struck actors C). An unsophisticated person with potential D). A top model
hs

Correct Answer: C
at

Q.32 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
M

He said, “Shall I ever reach my destination?”

Ans A). He said he shall never reach his destination. B). He said to me I shall never reach my destination.
C). He said I shall never reach his destination. D). He wondered if he would ever reach his destination.
Correct Answer: D

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

For no ___________ reason, the train suddenly stopped, and the passengers went into a state of panic.
Ans A). florid B). apparent C). gaudy D). taken
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Was your bicycle stolen by him?
Ans A). Did he steal your bicycle? B). Had he stolen your bicycle? C). Was he stealing your bicycle? D). Has he stolen your bicycle?

Correct Answer: A

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 Q.35 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Recumbent
Ans A). Upstanding B). Upright C). Review D). Prostrate
Correct Answer: D

Q.36 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I have thought at / what you said / and I’ve decided / to take your advice.
Ans A). to take your advice B). what you said C). I have thought at D). and I’ve decided
Correct Answer: C

Q.37 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

He is good _________ for the job.
Ans A). rather B). altogether C). enough D). partly
Correct Answer: C

Q.38 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The doctor advised me to take bed rest and eat nutritious food.
Ans A). The doctor said to me, “You take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” B). The doctor said to me, “Take bed rest and eat nutritious food.”
C). The doctor told me, “I should take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” D). The doctor said to me, “I take bed rest and eat nutritious food.”

Correct Answer: B

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Sakshi said that she would do it then or never.
Ans A). Sakshi said, “I will do it then or never.” B). Sakshi said, “I have to do it now or never.” C). Sakshi said, “I will do it now or never.”
D). Sakshi said, “I would do it then or never.”
Correct Answer: C

Q.40 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

r
Fathomable

Si
Ans A). Inauspicious B). Inartistic C). Incoherent D). Incite
Correct Answer: C

Q.41 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. ap

at
This narrow lane will take you to your destination.
Pr

Ans A). straight B). slender C). mild D). broad

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.42 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
This saree was bought by my son on the occasion of my birthday.
ag

Ans A). My son had bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. B). My son has bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday.
C). My son has bought the saree on the occasion of my birthday. D). My son bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday.
G

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

One should keep _________ surroundings neat and tidy.
hs

Ans A). ones B). there C). there's D). one’s

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

M

If you are going to keep eating those cookies, you are going to ________ your dinner.
Ans A). miss B). allow C). mute D). cheer
Correct Answer: A

Q.45 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

She made a courageous decision to quit her job.
Ans A). myopic B). obstinate C). coward D). calm
Correct Answer: C

Q.46 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

We have reorganised the department over the last year.

Ans A). The department is being reorganised over the last year. B). The department is reorganised by me.
C). Last year, the department was reorganised. D). The department has been reorganised over the last year.
Correct Answer: D

Q.47 Parts of the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
I stayed in my hometown with my parents on the pandemic.
Ans A). on B). in C). with D). I
Correct Answer: A
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 Q.48 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

(a) The Gita/ (b) is most sacred book/ (c) of the Hindus. / (d) No error
Ans A). d B). c C). b D). a
Correct Answer: C

Q.49 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. Telugu movie industry is proud of many great producers, directors, artists and musicians.
B. Savithri was one such great artist who influenced Telegu movie industry single-handedly for many years.
C. Her initial interest was in dance so she learnt dance before entering movies.
D. She is still worshipped for her matchless expressions and dialogue delivery.
Ans A). ABCD B). CDAB C). BCDA D). ACDB
Correct Answer: A

Q.50 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Before we could react or comprehend, the waters had wiped out all the shanties on the beach.
B. The word ‘tsunami’ sends shivers down my spine.
C. Suddenly, on a bright afternoon I noticed a lot of waves grow bigger and splash quickly.
D. I still remember my vacation in Thailand the day the tsunami struck.
Ans A). A, B, C, D B). D, A, B, C C). C, D, A, B D). B, D, C, A
Correct Answer: D

Q.51 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Your guess is as good as mine

Ans A). To guess an incredible idea B). To have no idea of the answer C). To predict a disaster D). To be superstitious
Correct Answer: B

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Si
Q.52 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Exaggerate
Ans A). Understate B). Emphasise C). Neglect ap D). Embellish
Correct Answer: A
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Q.53 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Pr

Let the door be closed.

Ans A). The door is closed. B). Close the door. C). Please let him close the door. D). The door will be closed.
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.54 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

ag

The lockdown during Covid-19 in certain places has imposed threatening constraints on market economy and it will take
time to recover from this.
G

Ans A). Faiths B). Beliefs C). Problems D). Restrictions

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.55 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
hs

They will have to pull down this building as they have not complied with the building regulations of the city.
at

Ans A). This building is to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them.
B). This building will be pulled down as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them.
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C). This building will have to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.
D). This building needs to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.
Correct Answer: C

Q.56 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

In August, she will be / enjoying / all the fruits her grandmother / will plant last January.
Ans A). all the fruits her grandmother B). enjoying C). In August, she will be D). will plant last January
Correct Answer: D

Q.57 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in direct speech.
She told me that she had already finished the project.
Ans A). She said to her, “I already finished the project.” B). She said to me, “I have already finished the project.”
C). She said, “She will have finished the project.” D). She told me, “ He had already finished the project.”
Correct Answer: B

Q.58 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Weal and woe

Ans A). Hot and cold B). Simplicity and complexity C). Early and late D). Joy and sorrow
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
 Q.59 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Suma is making tea.

Ans A). Tea is being made by Suma. B). Tea was made by Suma. C). Tea has been made by Suma. D). Tea was being made by Suma.

Correct Answer: A

Q.60 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Jatin said, “I was at home yesterday.”
Ans A). Jatin said that he had been at home the day before. B). Jatin said that he was at home yesterday. C). Jatin said he was at home.
D). Jatin said he was at home the day before.
Correct Answer: A

Q.61 Sentences of a paragraph—labelled A, B, C, D—are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the
sentences in the correct logical order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A.The Booker is awarded on 17 October, which also happens to be Garner’s 88th birthday, a coincidence that itself feels a
little magical.
B.‘If the rocks, caves, lakes, fens, bogs and dens of the land of Britain had a voice, it would sound like Alan Garner telling a
story.’
C.This year Alan Garner became the oldest author ever to be shortlisted for the Booker Prize for his small but mighty novel
Treacle Walker.
D.Treacle Walker, a dreamlike fable of a convalescent boy named Joseph, a rag-and-bone man and a bog-dwelling spirit is at
once a characteristically cryptic tale of a child threatened by dark forces, a meditation on time and mortality and a vivid
example of folk horror.

Ans A). B, D, A, C B). D, A, C, B C). C, A, D, B D). A, D, B, C

Correct Answer: C

Q.62 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

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Inclusion

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Ans A). Gain B). Accrual C). Omission D). Boost
Correct Answer: C

Q.63 ap
Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
The day is longer than year on Venus.
at
Ans A). All day is longer than a year on Venus. B). A day is longer than the year on Venus. C). A day is longer than a year on Venus.
Pr

D). Day is longer than the year on Venus.

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.64 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
ag

In the next few months, / they will / have teach / hundreds of children.
Ans A). they will B). have teach C). In the next few months, D). hundreds of children
Correct Answer: B
G

Q.65 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
B y

Koushik said to Tarun, “You are a good cricketer.”

hs

Ans A). Koushik tells Tarun that he is a good cricketer. B). Koushik told Tarun that he had been a good cricketer.
C). Koushik told Tarun that he was a good cricketer. D). Koushik told that Tarun is a good cricketer.
Correct Answer: C
at
M

Q.66 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
He asked me affectionately what he could do for me.
Ans A). He said to me, “What can I do for you, dear?” B). He said to me, “What should be done for you?”
C). He said to me, “What could he do?” D). He said to me, “What can be done for me?”
Correct Answer: A

Q.67 Select the phrase/idiom that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
Our defence minister has shown his silver will by introducing this scheme.
Ans A). diamond will B). iron will C). golden will D). stony will
Correct Answer: B

Q.68 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the most logical sequence of sentences from the options
to construct a meaningful and cohesive paragraph.
a. Researchers from five medical centres around the country found that insomniacs were also significantly likely to have
poor health, such as chest pain, arthritis, and depression, as well as difficulties doing daily duties.
b. Even temporary sleep loss can disrupt the body's capacity to break down carbohydrates, interfere with hormones, and
aggravate diabetes and high blood pressure.
c. So, make time for whatever helps you sleep, whether it's exercise, massages, yoga, meditation, or a fragrance bath.
d. Sleep deprivation has frightening consequences for many biological processes.
Ans A). d, a, c, b B). d, c, a, b C). d, c, b, a D). d, a, b, c
Correct Answer: D
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 Q.69 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Loose cannon
Ans A). Someone who is well known and respected in society B). Someone who is enthusiastic and very eager to take responsibilities
C). Someone who is quiet and reserved in social situations D). Someone who is unpredictable and liable to cause problems
Correct Answer: D

Q.70 Identify the error in the following sentence.

Once on a time, there was a brave king.
Ans A). was B). once C). on D). brave
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25
December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2)
aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring
together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey.

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). has B). had C). have D). has been
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25
December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2)

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aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring

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together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey.

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
ap
at
Ans A). had B). was C). is D). have
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
an

each blank.
The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25
December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2)
ag

aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring
together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey.
G

SubQuestion No : 73
y

Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

B

Ans A). apiculture B). agriculture C). sericulture D). horticulture

Correct Answer: A
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25
December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2)
aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring
together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey.

SubQuestion No : 74
Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). excepted B). accepted C). expected D). sophisticated
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25
December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2)
aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring
together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey.

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). related B). captivated C). engaged D). engrossed
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of
our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human
beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who
come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death.

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). incessant B). inadvertent C). robust D). transparent
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

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In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of

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our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human
beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who
come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death.

SubQuestion No : 77 ap
at
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). delicacy B). placement C). foundation D). pleasing
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
an

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ag

In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of
our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human
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beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who
come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death.
y

SubQuestion No : 78
B

Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

hs

Ans A). Noble B). problematic C). Corrosive D). Diffident

Correct Answer: A
at

Comprehension:
M

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of
our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human
beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who
come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death.

SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). preventing B). Deceiving C). Serving D). Hosting
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of
our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human
beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who
come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death.

SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). allowance B). longevity C). brink D). leverage
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of
some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that
care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning
walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which
protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset,
it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk
is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to
make morning walk a part of their daily routine.

SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). good B). poor C). strong D). best
Correct Answer: B

r
Comprehension:

Si
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of
some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that
care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning
at
walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which
Pr

protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset,
it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk
is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to
make morning walk a part of their daily routine.
an

SubQuestion No : 82
ag

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

G

Ans A). stress B). break C). urgent D). fulfilling

Correct Answer: B
y

Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
hs

The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of
some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that
at

care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning
walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which
M

protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset,
it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk
is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to
make morning walk a part of their daily routine.

SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). control B). deteriorate C). improve D). ruin
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of
some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that
care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning
walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which
protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset,
it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk
is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to
make morning walk a part of their daily routine.

SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). plan B). ruin C). forget D). break
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of
some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that
care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning
walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which
protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset,
it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk
is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to
make morning walk a part of their daily routine.

SubQuestion No : 85

r
Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Si
Ans A). neither B). whether C). either D). some
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
at
appropriate option for each blank.
Pr

She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to
save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions
were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him.
an

SubQuestion No : 86
ag

Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

G

Ans A). away B). on C). by D). through

Correct Answer: A
y

Comprehension:
B

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.
hs

She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to
at

save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions
were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him.
M

SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). smuggled B). debited C). filed D). suspected
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.

She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to
save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions
were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). crime B). time C). evidence D). opportunity
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.

She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to
save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions
were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him.

SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). killed B). guessed C). pondered D). persuaded
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each blank.

She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to
save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions
were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him.

SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). true B). facts C). concrete D). unfounded
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

r
The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some

Si
types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds,
such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction.
The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-

ap
independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by
pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are
then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent
at
reactions.
Pr

In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as
glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions
take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars.
Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of
an

food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require
oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that
ag

are necessary for most forms of life to survive.

Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic
G

compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life.

SubQuestion No : 91
y

Q.91 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.

B

Ans A). The Role of Pigments in Photosynthesis B). The Importance of Photosynthesis in the Earth’s Ecosystem
hs

C). Photosynthesis in Algae and Bacteria D). The Calvin Cycle and Carbon Fixation
Correct Answer: B
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some
types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds,
such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction.
The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-
independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by
pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are
then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent
reactions.
In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as
glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions
take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars.
Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of
food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require
oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that
are necessary for most forms of life to survive.
Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic
compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans A). Informal and personal B). Informative and neutral C). Assertive and passive D). Inquisitive and subjective
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some
types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds,

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such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction.

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The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-
independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by

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pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are
then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent
reactions.
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In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as
glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions
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take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars.
Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of
food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require
an

oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that
are necessary for most forms of life to survive.
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Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic
compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life.
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SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
B y

Ans A). The energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cell.
B). They use energy from sunlight to produce glucose. C). They power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
hs

D). They convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons.

Correct Answer: B
at
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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some
types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds,
such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction.
The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-
independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by
pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are
then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent
reactions.
In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as
glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions
take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars.
Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of
food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require
oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that
are necessary for most forms of life to survive.
Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic
compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life.

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?
Ans A). They take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts. B). They are also known as the Calvin cycle.
C). They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce oxygen. D). They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce glucose.

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

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The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some
types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds,

ap
such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction.
The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-
independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by
at
pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are
then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent
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reactions.
In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as
glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions
an

take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars.
Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of
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food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require
oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that
are necessary for most forms of life to survive.
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Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic
compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life.
B y

SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 Identify the structure of the passage.
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Ans A). Cause and Effect B). Compare and Contrast C). Introduction, Main Body, Conclusion D). Problem and Solution
Correct Answer: C
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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-
renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a
clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population.
One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal,
and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never
run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making
them a much more environmentally friendly option.
Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become
a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional
fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is
expected to decrease.
Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of
renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used
when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness.
Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on
fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly
viable and important in the coming years.

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Viable
Ans A). Impracticable B). Irresolvable C). Inaccurate D). Indignant
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-

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renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a

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clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population.
One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal,

ap
and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never
run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making
them a much more environmentally friendly option.
at
Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become
a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional
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fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is
expected to decrease.
Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of
an

renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used
when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness.
ag

Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on
fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly
viable and important in the coming years.
G

SubQuestion No : 97
y

Q.97 Identify the tone of the passage.

B

Ans A). Subjective B). Sarcastic C). Satirical D). Informative

Correct Answer: D
hs
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-
renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a
clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population.
One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal,
and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never
run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making
them a much more environmentally friendly option.
Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become
a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional
fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is
expected to decrease.
Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of
renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used
when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness.
Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on
fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly
viable and important in the coming years.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A). The Role of Technology in Energy Production B). The Advantages and Challenges of Renewable Energy
C). The Environmental Impact of Non-Renewable Energy Sources D). The Future of Nuclear Energy
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

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The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-

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renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a
clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population.
One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal,
ap
and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never
run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making
at
them a much more environmentally friendly option.
Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become
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a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional
fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is
expected to decrease.
an

Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of
renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used
when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness.
ag

Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on
fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly
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viable and important in the coming years.

SubQuestion No : 99
B y

Q.99 What is the main advantage of renewable energy over fossil fuels?
Ans A). It is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. B). It is cheaper than traditional fossil fuels.
hs

C). The renewable energy sources will eventually run out. D). It produces the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change.
at

Correct Answer: A
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-
renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a
clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population.
One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal,
and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never
run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making
them a much more environmentally friendly option.
Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become
a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional
fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is
expected to decrease.
Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of
renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used
when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness.
Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on
fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly
viable and important in the coming years.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100 What is the main challenge facing the adoption of renewable energy?
Ans A). Insufficient demand for renewable energy B). Cost of renewable energy is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels
C). Lack of skilled labour for the production of renewable energy D). Abundance of fossil fuels in the world
Correct Answer: B

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B y
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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 10/12/2024
Exam Time 4:30 PM - 6:30 PM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

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Ans

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Correct Answer: C

A). B). C).

ap D).
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Q.2 What will be the day of the week on 05 December 2045?

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Ans A). Sunday B). Saturday C). Tuesday D). Monday

Correct Answer: C
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Q.3 उस विकल्प का चयन करें , जो तीसरे शब्द से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है, जैसे दू सरा शब्द पहले शब्द से संबंधित है। (शब्दों को हिन्दी के अर्थपूर्ण शब्दों के
रूप में माना जाना चाहिए और ये शब्द, अक्षरों की संख्या/व्यंजनों/स्वरों की संख्या के आधार पर एक-दू सरे से संबंधित नहीं होने चाहिए)
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कढ़ाई : धागा :: बुनाई : ________

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Ans A). हूक B). सूई C). ऊन D). कपड़ा Correct Answer: C
B

Q.4 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
hs

251 – 332 – 422

at

Ans A). 125 – 223 – 342 B). 161 – 512 – 710 C). 432 – 523 – 712 D). 144 – 225 – 729
Correct Answer: B
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Q.5 In a certain code language, 'CAT' is coded as 9 and 'MOUSE' is coded as 25. How will 'TROUBLE' be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 36 B). 49 C). 45 D). 14
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
CRHT, GQLS, KPPR, ?, SNXP
Ans A). OQTS B). NQSP C). NOSQ D). OOTQ
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
10 : 101
6 : 37
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 8 : 64 B). 11 : 120 C). 14 : 196 D). 7 : 50
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s
from the given statements.
Statements:
Some devices are electronics.
All electronics are mobiles.
No mobile is a phone.
Conclusions:
(I) : No phone is a device.
(II) : At least some electronics are phones.
Ans A). Only conclusion (II) follows. B). Only conclusion (I) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 If + means − , − means × , × means ÷ , ÷ means +, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given equation?

70 × 2 – 4 ÷ 60 + 150 = ?
Ans A). 100 B). 150 C). 50 D). 125
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All cats are animals.
All animals are black.
Conclusions:
I. Some black are cats.
II. All cats are black.
Ans A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

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Correct Answer: B

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Q.11 Q is married to P. M is the husband of K. R is the brother of Q. T is the daughter of K. P is the father of M. How is Q related to
T?
Ans A). Father’s mother B). Son’s daughter C). Son’s son ap D). Mother’s father
Correct Answer: A
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Q.12 13 is related to 44 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 50. To which of the following is 21
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related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
an

1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans A). 78 B). 68 C). 58 D). 66
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Correct Answer: B
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Q.13 Ramesh wants to visit his childhood friend’s house. Ramesh’s friend explained his house directions over a text message.
See the below text sent to Ramesh about the direction of his friend’s house and answer the following question accordingly.
“When you step out of your house, you are facing north. Take a right and walk 3 km, you will see a T-point/junction. Take a
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right and walk 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the roundabout and walk 1 km.
B

Take a right and walk 3 km. Take a right and walk 1 km. You will find my house at the front.”
In which direction is Ramesh facing when he takes the second left from the roundabout?
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Ans A). East B). North C). South D). West

Correct Answer: C
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Q.14 K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z scored different marks in an exam. K scored more than only three people. Y scored less than only L
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and M. W scored more than Z but less than X. L did not score the highest marks. How many people scored less than X?
Ans A). One B). Two C). Four D). None
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Two statements are given followed by conclusions. Assuming the statements to be true ,even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow ( s ) from the statements.
Statements:
Some elephants are chairs.
All elephants are doors.
Conclusions:
1. At least some chairs are doors.
2. All doors are elephants.
Ans A). Only conclusion 2 follow B). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow C). Only conclusion 1 follow D). Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

Correct Answer: D

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 Q.16 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the same sequence and make
the series logically complete.

16, 22, 13, 19, 10, ?, 7, ?

Ans A). 19, 15 B). 13, 17 C). 17, 14 D). 16, 13
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.
Statements:
All cushions are quilts.
All pillows are quilts.
All quilts are beds.
Conclusions:
I. Some cushions are beds.
II. Some pillows are beds.
III. Some cushions are pillows.
Ans A). Only conclusions I and III follow B). Only conclusions I and II follow C). Only conclusions II and III follow D). All the conclusions follow

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Six students (Ritu, Vinayak, Arnab, Maya, Fathima and Ankur) are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not
necessarily in the same order). Ritu is an immediate neighbour of both Vinayak and Arnab. Arnab is sitting second to the left
of Fathima. Fathima is sitting second to the left of Vinayak. Vinayak is an immediate neighbour of both Ritu and Maya. Who
is the immediate neighbour of both Fathima and Arnab?
Ans A). Vinayak B). Ritu C). Ankur D). Maya
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 The two expressions on either side of the equal sign will have the same value if two numbers on the left-hand side are

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interchanged and two signs on the right-hand side are interchanged.

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What are those two numbers (not digits) and the two signs?
9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13
Ans A). 3 and 7; + and ÷ B). 3 and 8; + and – C). 1 and 3; + and ×
ap D). 1 and 9; ÷ and ×
Correct Answer: C
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Q.20 In a certain code language,
‘M & N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’
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‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the paternal grandfather of N’,

‘M % N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’,
‘M # N’ means ‘M is the son of N’
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Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P @ Q # R & S % T’?

Ans A). Wife’s father B). Brother C). Father’s brother D). Father
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Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?
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324, 289, 256, 225, ?

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Ans A). 169 B). 180 C). 196 D). 200

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.22 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).

Q.23 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
6, 5, 18, 10, 54, 20, ?, 40
Ans A). 168 B). 162 C). 158 D). 170
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). HEI B). QNR C). VSW D). MJL
Correct Answer: D
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 Q.25 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
BOIL : DRMQ :: SCAR : UFEW :: MAIL : ?
Ans A). ODLR B). ODMQ C). ODNR D). ODMS
Correct Answer: B

Q.26 42 is related to 36 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 57 is related to 144. Which of the following numbers is
related to 81 related using the same logic?
Ans A). 44 B). 45 C). 56 D). 46
Correct Answer: B

Q.27 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
3 : 31
2 : 12
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 4 : 65 B). 5 : 128 C). 6 : 220 D). 8 : 315
Correct Answer: C

Q.28 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

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Ans A). 6 B). 4 C). 7 D). 5
Correct Answer: A

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Q.29

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G
B y
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Ans
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A). B). C).

Correct Answer: A

D).

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 Q.30 Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation valid?
55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0
Ans A). 5, 14 and '–', '×' B). 1, 5 and '+', '–' C). 1, 3 and '–', '÷' D). 3, 5 and '+', '÷'
Correct Answer: B

Q.31 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Square
2. Hexagon
3. Heptagon
4. Triangle
5. Pentagon
Ans A). 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 B). 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C). 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 D). 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
Correct Answer: C

Q.32 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

ABCD, BCDE, ?, DEFG, EFGH

Ans A). CDFE B). CBGH C). CDEF D). CBDE
Correct Answer: C

Q.33 In a code language, ‘BROWN’ is coded as DTMYP and ‘PLACE’ is coded as RNYEG. How will ‘RIGHT’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). TKEJV B). TKEJU C). TKFJV D). TKIJV
Correct Answer: A

Q.34 R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). R sit second
to the left of V. Only one person sits between R and S. Only two persons sit between S and W. T is not an immediate
neighbour of R. Who sits second to the left of U?
Ans A). R B). S C). W D). T
Correct Answer: D

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Q.35 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Select a
figure from among the given options, which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

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Pr
an

Ans
Correct Answer: A
ag

A). B). C). D).

G
B y
hs

Q.36 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64
at

Ans A). 32 and 64 B). 18 and 32 C). 8 and 2 D). 8 and 18

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.37 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged?
3÷4−5×6+2=?
Ans A). 18 B). 20 C). 19 D). 22
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.38

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.39 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
18, 71, 21, 76, 24, 81, 27, 86, 30, ?
Ans A). 82 B). 91 C). 80 D). 83
Correct Answer: B

Q.40 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set.
(13, 57, 111)
(11, 49, 95)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (10, 54, 11) B). (12, 53, 109) C). (9, 41, 79) D). (8, 37, 73)
Correct Answer: C

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Si
Q.41 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
335 : 216 :: 987 : ?

ap
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
at
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 867 B). 868 C). 888 D). 872
Pr

Correct Answer: B

Q.42 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
an

7, 18, 40, 73, 117, ?

Ans A). 170 B). 173 C). 172 D). 171
ag

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.43 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

HUD, LXE, PAF, TDG, ?

B y

Ans A). AGG B). XGH C). AGH D). AGI

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.44 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely
true, based on the given statements.
at

Statements:
M

P≤Q=R>S
Q≤T≤U=V
Ans A). V ≥ P B). S > P C). V < S D). S ≥ U
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.45 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.46 Six letters P, Q, R, S, T and U are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the following
figure. Find the letter on the face opposite to S.

ap
at
Pr

Ans A). R B). U C). Q D). P

an

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.47 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1.The United Kingdom
2.World
G

3.Buckingham Palace
4.London
y

5.Europe
B

Ans A). 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 B). 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 C). 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 D). 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.48 Five players (A, B, C, D, and E) are fielding on a cricket ground in such a way that all are equidistant from each other. B is to
at

the East of A, while C is to the South of A. If D is to the East of C and to the West of E, then what is the position of B with
respect to E?
M

Ans A). South-East B). East C). North-West D). South

Correct Answer: C

Q.49 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All dogs are sheep.
All wolves are foxes.
All sheep are wolves.
Conclusions:
I. All wolves are sheep.
II. All dogs are foxes.
III. All dogs are wolves.
Ans A). None of the conclusions follow. B). Only conclusions II and III follow. C). Only conclusions I and III follow.
D). Only conclusions I and II follow.
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.50 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). LMIQ B). STPJ C). GHDV D). NOPQ
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the halogens group in the periodic table.
Ans A). They are reactive non-metals. B). They are located on the left of the noble gases on the periodic table.
C). They have the largest atomic size in their period. D). They form diatomic molecules in their elemental states.
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?

Ans A). Attorney General of India B). Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities C). Comptroller and Auditor General
D). National Commission for Minorities
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Khajuraho was one of the capitals of which of the following dynasties?
Ans A). Pala Dynasty B). Pratihara Dynasty C). Chandela Dynasty D). Kalachuri Dynasty
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Chandragupta Maurya’s capital was:

Ans A). Pataliputra B). Magadha C). Nalanda D). Vaishali
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 What is the name of the desert that is located in North-west India?
Ans A). Malva B). Ghat C). Thar D). Deccan
Correct Answer: C

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Q.6 Identify the scientific name of sea pen that belongs to phylum Cnidaria.
Ans A). Gorgonia B). Obelia C). Pennatula D). Adamsia
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 What are the best examples of Phyllosilicates?

ap
at
Ans A). Mercury, graphite, diamond B). Micas, chlorite, talc, and serpentine C). Calcite, magnesite, dolomite. D). Pyrite, galena, sphalerite
Pr

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.8 The pilot project for UPI was launched in which year?
Ans A). 2010 B). 2014 C). 2004 D). 2016
ag

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.9 Select the correct combination of novelist and their works.

Ans A). Tamas – Shrilal Shukla B). Jhootha Sach – Yashpal C). Chitralekha – Phanishwar Nath Renu D). Maila Anchal – Bhisham Sahani
B y

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.10 Who among the following musicians plays Carnatic music and also known as ‘God of Ghatam’?
Ans A). Ram Narayan B). TH Vinayakram C). RV Raghvan D). Asad Ali Khan
at

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.11 The 23rd FIFA World Cup Football will be jointly organised by:
Ans A). Germany, Poland and Austria B). France, Germany and Italy C). Canada, USA and Mexico D). France, Germany and Spain

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Which of the following books is written by Sanjiv Sahota, a winner of the European Union Prize for Literature?
Ans A). The God of Small Things B). The White Tiger C). The Year of the Runaways D). Midnight’s Children
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 What is the name of a cycling track?

Ans A). Astroturf B). Velodrome C). Aerodrome D). Velosuper
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Great Indian Novel’?
Ans A). Shashi Tharoor B). Vikram Seth C). Amish Tripathi D). Amitav Ghosh
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.15 Which of the below mentioned elements is NOT a way to finance the government deficits?
Ans A). Higher taxation B). Non-tax revenues C). Deficit financing D). Borrowings from domestic and international sources

Correct Answer: B

Q.16 According to Census of India 2011, in which of the following states was the Scheduled Caste (SC) population NOT
recorded?
Ans A). Manipur B). Nagaland C). Punjab D). Gujarat
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 The Car Festival or Festival of Chariots (Rath Yatra) of Puri is a famous festival associated with which God?
Ans A). Shiva B). Kartikeya C). Ganesh D). Jagannath
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Sangeet Natak Akademi awardee Jatin Goswami is a famous ________dancer.

Ans A). Mohiniyattam B). Kathakali C). Sattriya D). Kathak
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 In which year did India win the men's Hockey World Cup?
Ans A). 1975 B). 1984 C). 1979 D). 1983
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Which element is the first element in group 13 of the periodic table?
Ans A). Boron B). Gallium C). Indium D). Aluminium
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Which ministry governs the Sahakar Pragya initiative?

Ans A). Ministry of Finance B). Ministry of Education C). Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare D). Ministry of Home Affairs

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Correct Answer: C

Si
Q.22 In Vrindavan, near Mathura, temples were constructed in architectural styles that were very similar to the Mughal palaces in
________.
Ans A). Golconda B). Fatehpur Sikri C). Mandu
ap D). Jhansi
at
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.23 Which of the following books was NOT written by Jyotiba Phule?
Ans A). Gulamgiri B). Shetkaryacha Asud C). The Untouchables D). Brahmananche Kasab
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.24 In which year, and with what aim, was the Simon Commission appointed?
ag

Ans A). In 1939, to evaluate India’s war preparedness B). In 1942, to enhance troop movements during the war C). In 1924, to reform Swaraj
G

D). In 1927, to recommend a further reform of India’s Constitution

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.25 Sun temple at Modhera was built by which of the following rulers?
B

Ans A). Govinda II B). Raja Bhimdev I C). Krishna Deva Raya D). Aditya I
Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.26 Which of the following Mahajanapadas emerged as the most powerful at the end of a prolonged conflict for supremacy?
at

Ans A). Gandhara B). Magadha C). Vatsa D). Kosala

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.27 In which year did the government of British India pass a law according to which those who converted into Christianity got
the right in their ancestral property?
Ans A). 1846 B). 1839 C). 1850 D). 1855
Correct Answer: C

Q.28 In acetylene (C2H2), hybridzation of carbon atoms is:

Ans A). sp2 B). sp3 C). sp D). sp2d Correct Answer: C

Q.29 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Glassblower’s Breath’?
Ans A). Sunetra Gupta B). Shobha De C). Bharati Mukherjee D). Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
Correct Answer: A

Q.30 When was the voting age in India reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
Ans A). 1987 B). 1988 C). 1990 D). 1989
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.31 Which of the following natural ports is known as the 'Queen of the Arabian Sea'?
Ans A). Kochi B). New Mangalore C). Mormugao D). Mumbai
Correct Answer: A

Q.32 In the context of cell organelles, a centriole is:

Ans A). a heterogeneous family of organelles found ubiquitously in plant cells
B). a membrane-bound cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes
C). a paired barrel-shaped organelle located in the cytoplasm of animal cells near the nuclear envelope
D). a stack of small flat sacs formed by membranes inside the cell's cytoplasm
Correct Answer: C

Q.33 Which of the following Judges was NOT appointed by the President to the Supreme Court in 2023 after the Centre cleared
the proposal by the Collegium that was shared in December last year?
Ans A). Sudhir Singh B). Pankaj Mithal C). PV Sanjay Kumar D). Manoj Misra
Correct Answer: A

Q.34 Which of the following elements is responsible for high Blood Pressure?
Ans A). Calcium B). Potassium C). Magnesium D). Sodium
Correct Answer: D

Q.35 Who arranged the 56 elements in an ascending order of their atomic mass and found that each 8th element had the same
properties?
Ans A). Van Spronsen B). John Newlands C). Dmitri Mendeleev D). Lothar Meyer
Correct Answer: B

Q.36 Yamini Krishna Murti is a dancer of which of the following dance forms?
Ans A). Kuchipudi and Mohiniyattam B). Kuchipudi and Odissi C). Kuchipudi and Kathak D). Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam
Correct Answer: D

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Q.37 Which of the following architectural features were NOT a part of Harappan cities?
Ans A). Well backed brick houses B). Streets and pathways C). Drainage systems D). Industrial and commercial buildings
Correct Answer: D

Q.38 Which of the following type of roads in India carry the highest road traffic?
ap
at
Ans A). National Highways B). State Highways C). District Roads D). Border Roads
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.39 Which organelle is common between a eukaryotic and a prokaryotic cell?

an

Ans A). Ribosomes B). Cell organelle C). Cell membrane D). Nucleus
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.40 Ambubachi Mela is held in the premises of which temple in Assam?

G

Ans A). Aswaklanta Temple B). Kamakhya Temple C). Umananda Temple D). Doul Govinda Mandir
Correct Answer: B
y

Q.41 Which of the following periods was declared ‘Plan Holiday’ by the government?
B

Ans A). 1967-1969 B). 1965-1968 C). 1966-1971 D). 1966-1969

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.42 Chennai Open 2022 Tennis Singles was won by _______.

at

Ans A). Gabriela Dabrowski B). Linda Fruhvirtova C). Sania Mirza D). Luisa Stefani
Correct Answer: B
M

Q.43 In which of the following years was the Energy Conservation Amendment Bill passed to mandate non-fossil sources of
energy and establish a domestic carbon market in India?
Ans A). 2004 B). 1999 C). 2015 D). 2022
Correct Answer: D

Q.44 The species that invade a bare area are called _______ species.
Ans A). secondary B). primary C). ruderal D). pioneer
Correct Answer: D

Q.45 In which running event in athletics are hurdles used?

Ans A). 1500 meters race B). 400 meters Race C). 5000 meters race D). 800 meters race
Correct Answer: B

Q.46 Which of the following does NOT belong to the cytoskeleton filaments?
Ans A). Microtubules B). Intermediate C). Actin D). Centrioles
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.47 Who among the following Assamese playback singers was conferred with Bharat Ratna in 2019?
Ans A). Bhupen Hazarika B). Jayanta Hazarika C). Zubeen Garg D). Zoi Barua
Correct Answer: A

Q.48 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the highest number of Hindu population?
Ans A). Madhya Pradesh B). Maharashtra C). Kerala D). Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.49 Which of the following steps promoted the growth of the economy as a whole by stimulating the development of industrial
and tertiary sectors?
Ans A). Green Revolution B). Colonial rule C). Independence D). Planning
Correct Answer: D

Q.50 Which the following of statements is/are correct?

1) The Peninsular region of India does not have any well-defined cold weather season.
2) By the end of December (that is, by 22 December), the Sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern
Hemisphere.
Ans A). Both the statements are correct B). Only statement 2 is correct C). Only statement 1 is correct D). Both the statements are incorrect

Correct Answer: A

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.
The women of this country never questioned anything. Why are they so credulous?
Ans A). Indifferent to the basic necessities of life B). Suspicious of everything surrounding them
C). Reluctant to face the difficulties of life with courage D). Willing to believe promptly without adequate evidence
Correct Answer: D

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Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

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(P) and innovative solutions
(Q) creativity is the driving force
(O) behind new ideas
(R) for progress and change ap
at
Ans A). PQRO B). QROP C). ROQP D). ORQP
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word to fill in the blank.
an

A true friend always _______, but a selfish friend tries to mislead.

Ans A). guides B). deludes C). imbibes D). deplores
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.4 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
G

from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.
y

(a) Show me file/ (b) which has been given/ (c) to you by the lawyer . / (d) No error
B

Ans A). c B). a C). b D). d

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.5 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
at

Though the speaker used flowery expressions to convince the audience, they were intelligent enough to find out his ulterior
M

intentions.
Ans A). to read between the lines B). to be under somebody’s thumb C). to not judge a book by its cover D). to cast pearls before swine

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
A youth must respect the elderly, the rich must help the needy and a powerful must help the weak. If we keep up this trend,
then the world can be a beautiful place.
An A). The youth must respect the elderly, rich must help needy and the powerful must help the weak. If we keep up this trend, then the world
s can be a beautiful place.
B). The youth must respect the elderly, the rich must help the needy and the powerful must help the weak. If we keep up this trend, then the
world can be a beautiful place.
C). The youth must respect the elderly, the rich must help the needy and the powerful must help weak. If we keep up this trend, then the world
can be a beautiful place.
D). The youth must respect the elderly, the rich must help the needy and powerful must help the weak. If we keep up this trend, then the world
can be a beautiful place

Correct Answer: B

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 Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Languishing
Ans A). Diminutive B). Temporary C). Mesmerising D). Flourishing
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A storm in a teacup
Ans A). Unnecessary anger or worry B). An easy and pleasant job C). More than expected or required D). A hidden advantage

Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word to fill in the blank.

Only Mr. Sen’s emotions were genuine, while others showed ___________ sadness at grandmother’s death.
Ans A). friendly B). fake C). authentic D). precise
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
We should help each other to make a society that will be not concerned with any particular religious doctrines.
Ans A). a harmonious society B). a humanist society C). a prejudiced society D). a secular society
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Doctor wants Tony to cut back down junk foods.

Ans A). to cut back off B). to cut back over C). to cut back out D). to cut back on
Correct Answer: D

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Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Si
Since 1988, / the people of Rajasthan / have been searching / for 25-year-old man.
Ans A). Since 1988, B). the people of Rajasthan C). for 25-year-old man. D). have been searching
ap Correct Answer: C
at
Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the sentence given below.
Pr

Do not linger in the corridor.

Ans A). trifle B). hasten C). delay D). idle
Correct Answer: B
an

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
ag

A first / Indian who / went to space / was Rakesh Sharma.

Ans A). A first B). was Rakesh Sharma C). went to space D). Indian who
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.15 Identify the error in the following sentence.

y

The swimmer jumped on the pool with the whistle.

B

Ans A). on B). jumped C). whistle D). with

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

at

Wanton
M

Ans A). Habit B). Prevent C). Obscene D). Abrogation

Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.

a. Peace of mind is commonly correlated with happiness, contentment, tranquility, contemplation, exercise and relaxation.
b. Thus, we all need peace of mind in our lives.
c. Peace of mind, thus, give us all these attributes.
d. One of the most important aspects of the mind is getting peace.
Ans A). dcba B). bdca C). dacb D). bcda
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Why did your manager refuse to give you the pay raise?
Ans A). Why have you been refused the pay raise by your manager? B). Why was the pay raise refused to be given to you by your manager?
C). Why had your manager refused to give you the pay raise? D). Why has the pay raise been refused to be given to you by your manager?

Correct Answer: B

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 Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Dr. Paramahamsa has been working / as a Assistant Professor / of Mathematics / in IIT Madras for five years.
Ans A). of Mathematics B). Dr. Paramahamsa has been working C). as a Assistant Professor D). in IIT Madras for five years

Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The reporter reported, “The US President is arriving to India this week.”
Ans A). The reporter reports that the US President is arriving to India that week.
B). The reporter reported that the US President is arriving to India next week.
C). The reporter reported that the US President was arriving to India that week.
D). The reporter reported that the US President was arriving to India this week.
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
“You were warned by us three days ago,” the manager shouted at him.
Ans A). The manager shouted at him that he was warned by them three days earlier.
B). The manager shouted at him that he was warned by them three days before.
C). The manager shouted at him that he had been warned by them three days before.
D). The manager shouted at him that he was warned by them three days ago.
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Identify the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the given options.
Tide pool is a isolated pocket of water that is formed when sea water becomes trapped as tide goes out.
Ans A). Tide pool is isolated pocket of water that is formed when sea water becomes trapped as a tide goes out.
B). A tide pool is a isolated pocket of water that is formed when sea water becomes trapped as a tide goes out.

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C). The tide pool is isolated pocket of water that is formed when sea water becomes trapped as tide goes out.

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D). A tide pool is an isolated pocket of water that is formed when sea water becomes trapped as the tide goes out.
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
ap
at
Mr. Prakash writes short stories.
Ans A). Short stories are written by Mr. Prakash. B). Short stories are being written by Mr. Prakash.
Pr

C). Short stories have been written by Mr. Prakash. D). Short stories were written by Mr. Prakash.
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.24 Select the correct interrogative sentence.

ag

Ans A). What is the name of a next station? B). What is a name of a next station? C). What is a name of the next station?
D). What is the name of the next station?
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
y

My sister requested me to bring her a watch.

B

Ans A). She said, “My sister, please bring me a watch.” B). “Please bring me a watch,” said my sister.
hs

C). My sister said, “Will you bring me a watch?” D). “Please bring my sister a watch,” said she.
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.26 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
M

His finger had been cut by the sharp knife.

Ans A). The sharp knife had been cutting his finger. B). The sharp knife cuts his finger. C). The sharp knife has cut his finger.
D). The sharp knife had cut his finger.
Correct Answer: D

Q.27 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Survival of mankind __________ is in danger due to pollution.

Ans A). itself B). herself C). himself D). yourself
Correct Answer: A

Q.28 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

___________ the teacher entered the classroom, all the students stood up to greet him.
Ans A). As soon as B). Yet C). Whereas D). Rather
Correct Answer: A

Q.29 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
Ravi always / boasts at / his / achievements.
Ans A). achievements. B). boasts at C). his D). Ravi always
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.30 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in each blank.
Mount Vesuvius is (1)________ near Pompeii. It began to erupt and covered everything with stones and hot ash which fell
like (2)________ from the sky. It (3)______ the city almost under 2 metres of volcanic molten material.
Ans A). (1)found; (2)hail; (3) ignored B). (1)located; (2)a blizzard; (3) buried C). (1)situated; (2)tornado; (3) treasured
D). (1)placed; (2)volcano; (3) hid
Correct Answer: B

Q.31 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

My friend is not stubborn with regard to opinions; in fact, she is ________(intransigent).

Ans A). obstinate B). tenacious C). subservient D). pertinacious
Correct Answer: C

Q.32 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
What are there reasons for refusing the offer?
Ans A). is there reasons B). are there reason C). is their reasons D). are their reasons
Correct Answer: D

Q.33 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
a.Freedom of thought and expression are fundamental human rights.
b.There are two important human rights.
c.Through good deeds, one can gain dignity.
d.Everyone has the inherent right to be treated with dignity and courtesy at all times.
Ans A). bcad B). dcba C). bcda D). acdb
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Nipped in the bud

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Ans A). To stop something immediately so that it does not become a worse problem B). To remove unnecessary items
C). Very promising at a young age D). To cut the bud
Correct Answer: A

Q.35 ap
Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
at
A. Booming with private developers
B. And it is changing the landscape of the urban and semi-urban habitat
Pr

C. Making the Indian elevator industry the second highest market in the world
D. India’s real estate business is
Ans A). ABCD B). DBAC C). DABC D). BACD
an

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.36 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I looked / of the newspaper headlines / but I didn’t read / carefully.
G

Ans A). but I didn’t read B). carefully C). I looked D). of the newspaper headlines
Correct Answer: D
y

Q.37 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in indirect speech.
B

“I am not feeling well,” said Mary.

hs

Ans A). Mary says that she wasn’t feeling well. B). Mary said that she is not feeling well. C). Mary says that she is not feeling well.
D). Mary said that she was not feeling well.
Correct Answer: D
at
M

Q.38 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in indirect speech.
Ritu said, “I am eating apples.”
Ans A). Ritu said that she had been eating apples. B). Ritu said that she was eating apples. C). Ritu told that she was eating apples.
D). Ritu said that she has been eating apples.
Correct Answer: B

Q.39 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The sergeant ordered the soldiers to be armed to the teeth as he expected it to be a tough fight.
Ans A). Active without any goals B). Separated from the worthless C). Working in a great hurry D). Well-equipped or prepared

Correct Answer: D

Q.40 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Prerogative
Ans A). Satisfaction B). Privilege C). Predisposition D). Bias
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.41 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Latent
Ans A). Manifest B). Early C). Punctual D). Antique
Correct Answer: A

Q.42 Select the most appropriate synonym that can replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

She could sense something ominous in the darkness of the night.

Ans A). profane B). blissful C). inauspicious D). propitious
Correct Answer: C

Q.43 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
He behaves if he were a king.
Ans A). has been behaving as B). could be behaving as C). will be behaving as D). behaves as if
Correct Answer: D

Q.44 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Geography is taught to us by Mr. Anand.
Ans A). Mr. Anand will be teaching us Geography. B). Mr. Anand shall teach us Geography. C). Mr. Anand teaches us Geography.
D). Mr. Anand will teach us Geography.
Correct Answer: C

Q.45 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The principal said that he would hold a meeting the next day.
Ans A). “Tomorrow, I will hold a meeting,” says the principal. B). “I will hold a meeting tomorrow,” said the principal.
C). “A meeting will be held by me,” said the principal. D). “I will be holding a meeting tomorrow,” the principal said.
Correct Answer: B

Q.46 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error

r
from the given options.

Si
Mr. Unkerton glanced / to the inspector, / who merely snorted / and looked at the ceiling.
Ans A). to the inspector, B). and looked at the ceiling. C). Mr. Unkerton glanced D). who merely snorted
Correct Answer: A

Q.47
ap
Replace the underlined word in the given sentence with the most appropriate synonym from the options listed below.
at
Morality is contextual; therefore, it is foolish to believe that one’s moral judgement would be perfect and immaculate .
Pr

Ans A). tarnished B). grubby C). indelicate D). impeccable

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.48 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.
The resort manager planned to welcome the guests with open arms when they arrived.
ag

Ans A). without any delay B). in a melancholy spirit C). in a cordial manner D). in a secretive way
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.49 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

y

Our chemistry teacher taught us how, through a chemical reaction, milk ________ into curd.
B

Ans A). converts B). happens C). diverts D). progresses

Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.50 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
at

There are being several psychological theories that aid the diagnosis of a mental disorder or illness.
Ans A). is several B). have being several C). are several D). are severally
M

Correct Answer: C

Q.51 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I always believe that ________ is the best policy.
Ans A). complexity B). honesty C). immorality D). sanctity
Correct Answer: B

Q.52 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
(A) They do taste kind of funny.
(B) I’ve done so all my life.
(C) But it keeps them on the knife.
(D) I always eat peas with honey.
Ans A). DBAC B). ABDC C). CBAD D). BACD
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.53 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Ms. Jyothi will finish the task in a week.

Ans A). The task is being finished by Ms. Jyothi in a week. B). The task will have been finished by Ms. Jyothi in a week.
C). The task will be finished by Ms. Jyothi in a week. D). The task was being finished by Ms. Jyothi in a week.
Correct Answer: C

Q.54 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Seema will have told you the truth.
Ans A). Seema had told you the truth. B). You will have been told the truth by Seema. C). You are told the truth by Seema.
D). You would have told the truth to Seema.
Correct Answer: B

Q.55 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
My friend said to me, “Do you want to accompany us on this tour?”
Ans A). My friend asked me if I wanted to accompany us on that tour. B). My friend asked me if I wanted to accompany them on that tour?
C). My friend asked me if I wanted to accompany them on that tour. D). My friend asked me if he wanted to accompany them on that tour.

Correct Answer: C

Q.56 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Gita said, “I lost my umbrella.”
Ans A). Gita told me that he lost her umbrella. B). Gita said that she had lost her umbrella. C). Gita expressed that she has lost her umbrella.
D). Gita said that I lost my umbrella.
Correct Answer: B

Q.57 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active form.
A lot of masks have been distributed by the social workers.

r
Ans A). The social workers had distributed a lot of masks. B). The social workers are distributing a lot of masks.

Si
C). The social workers have distributed a lot of masks. D). The social workers would distribute a lot of masks.
Correct Answer: C

Q.58 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. ap
at
She was laughed at by all her friends.
Pr

Ans A). All her friends laughed at her. B). All her friends had laughed at her. C). All her friends had been laughing at her.
D). All her friends laugh at her.
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.59 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
ag

They think that the Governor will resign.

Ans A). They thought that the Governor would be resigning. B). It is thought that the Governor will resign.
G

C). They think that the Governor is resigning. D). It is thought that the Governor will be resigning.
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.60 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
He exclaimed with delight that he had won the first prize.
hs

Ans A). “Hurrah! I will win the first prize,” said he. B). “Hurrah! I win the first prize,” said he. C). “Wow! I might win the first prize,” said he.
D). “Hurrah! I have won the first prize,” said he.
at

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.61 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

(a) The more it rains,/ (b) worse/ (c) the roads become/ (d) No error
Ans A). c B). b C). a D). d
Correct Answer: B

Q.62 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To flog a dead horse

Ans A). To waste one’s energy on a lost cause B). To escape from the situation C). To achieve something easily D). To remain valid

Correct Answer: A

Q.63 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He said to her, “Do you know French?”
Ans A). He asked her if she knows French. B). He asked her whether she has known French. C). He asked her if she knew French.
D). He asked her that does she know French.
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.64 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The student requested them to take him to the reception.
Ans A). “Please take me in the reception,” said the student. B). “Take me to the reception,” said the student.
C). “Take me to the reception now,” said the student. D). “Please take me to the reception," said the student.
Correct Answer: D

Q.65 Replace the underlined word in the given sentence with the most appropriate synonym from the options listed below.
A slow, languid smile crossed her face, as if to voice the contentment of her heart.
Ans A). Sluggish B). Hurried C). Lively D). Energetic
Correct Answer: A

Q.66 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form.
He will visit the orphanage tomorrow.
Ans A). The orphanage must be visited by him tomorrow. B). The orphanage is visited by him tomorrow.
C). The orphanage should be visited by him tomorrow. D). The orphanage will be visited by him tomorrow.
Correct Answer: D

Q.67 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active form.
The entire cake was eaten by Maria.
Ans A). Maria is eating the entire cake. B). Maria had eaten the entire cake. C). Maria was eating the entire cake. D). Maria ate the entire cake.

Correct Answer: D

Q.68 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

A blog page has been created by the head of the department for the conference.
Ans A). The head of the department has been creating a blog page for the conference.
B). The head of the department has created a blog page for the conference.

r
C). The head of the department created a blog page for the conference.

Si
D). The head of the department was creating a blog page for the conference.
Correct Answer: B

Q.69 ap
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
at
In August next year, / she will been / studying / for four years.
Pr

Ans A). she will been B). for four years C). In August next year, D). studying
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.70 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in indirect speech.

“I am going to play with my friends,” the child says to his mother.

ag

Ans A). The child tells his mother that he is going to play with his friends. B). The child asked his mother that he is going to play with his friends.
G

C). The child said to his mother that he was going to play with his friends. D). The child told his mother that I am going to play with my friends.
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Comprehension:
hs

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at

Food brings people together and cooking at home is a great way to unite your family over the 1. _________ table. Everyone loves a
home-cooked meal— even moody teenagers or picky eaters. And, if you live alone, that doesn’t mean you have to cook or eat 2.
M

_________. If you live alone, invite a friend, co-worker or neighbour over. Sharing meals with others is a great way to 3. _________
your social network. Getting appreciative feedback on a 4. _________you’ve prepared for someone can bring a real boost to your
self-esteem too. The simple act of talking to a friend or loved-one over food can play a big role in relieving stress and 5. _________
mood. Gather the family together and stay up to date with each other’s daily lives.

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). console B). study C). dining D). vanity
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Food brings people together and cooking at home is a great way to unite your family over the 1. _________ table. Everyone loves a
home-cooked meal— even moody teenagers or picky eaters. And, if you live alone, that doesn’t mean you have to cook or eat 2.
_________. If you live alone, invite a friend, co-worker or neighbour over. Sharing meals with others is a great way to 3. _________
your social network. Getting appreciative feedback on a 4. _________you’ve prepared for someone can bring a real boost to your
self-esteem too. The simple act of talking to a friend or loved-one over food can play a big role in relieving stress and 5. _________
mood. Gather the family together and stay up to date with each other’s daily lives.

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). alone B). every day C). together D). healthy
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Food brings people together and cooking at home is a great way to unite your family over the 1. _________ table. Everyone loves a
home-cooked meal— even moody teenagers or picky eaters. And, if you live alone, that doesn’t mean you have to cook or eat 2.
_________. If you live alone, invite a friend, co-worker or neighbour over. Sharing meals with others is a great way to 3. _________
your social network. Getting appreciative feedback on a 4. _________you’ve prepared for someone can bring a real boost to your
self-esteem too. The simple act of talking to a friend or loved-one over food can play a big role in relieving stress and 5. _________
mood. Gather the family together and stay up to date with each other’s daily lives.

SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). reduce B). break C). expand D). harm
Correct Answer: C

r
Comprehension:

Si
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
Food brings people together and cooking at home is a great way to unite your family over the 1. _________ table. Everyone loves a
home-cooked meal— even moody teenagers or picky eaters. And, if you live alone, that doesn’t mean you have to cook or eat 2.
_________. If you live alone, invite a friend, co-worker or neighbour over. Sharing meals with others is a great way to 3. _________
at
your social network. Getting appreciative feedback on a 4. _________you’ve prepared for someone can bring a real boost to your
Pr

self-esteem too. The simple act of talking to a friend or loved-one over food can play a big role in relieving stress and 5. _________
mood. Gather the family together and stay up to date with each other’s daily lives.

SubQuestion No : 74
an

Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

ag

Ans A). tea B). biscuits C). meal D). card

Correct Answer: C
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

Food brings people together and cooking at home is a great way to unite your family over the 1. _________ table. Everyone loves a
home-cooked meal— even moody teenagers or picky eaters. And, if you live alone, that doesn’t mean you have to cook or eat 2.
hs

_________. If you live alone, invite a friend, co-worker or neighbour over. Sharing meals with others is a great way to 3. _________
your social network. Getting appreciative feedback on a 4. _________you’ve prepared for someone can bring a real boost to your
at

self-esteem too. The simple act of talking to a friend or loved-one over food can play a big role in relieving stress and 5. _________
mood. Gather the family together and stay up to date with each other’s daily lives.
M

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). lowering B). depreciating C). boosting D). falling
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
A landslip refers to the (1)_________ of rock, soil or other materials as they descend along an inclined surface of terrain. Landslides
can be triggered by several factors such as precipitation, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions or other destabilising elements affecting
the slope. (2)__________, being scholars specialising in the examination of the Earth's physical structures, occasionally classify
landslides as a sort of mass wasting. Mass wasting refers to any process in which there is a downward shift of the Earth's surface
resulting in erosion. Additional forms of mass wasting are rockfalls and the movement of coastal sediments known as alluvium.
Landslides pose (3)__________ risks to both, human lives and property in close proximity to densely inhabited regions. Landslides
result in an approximate annual toll of 25 to 50 fatalities and generate economic losses amounting to $3.5 billion inside the United
States. The (4)_________ of landslides can be heightened by human activities, including but not (5)____________ to agriculture and
building. Several operations, such as irrigation, deforestation, excavation and water leakage, have the potential to induce slope
destabilisation or weakening.

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). altercation B). displacement C). abduction D). embezzlement
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
A landslip refers to the (1)_________ of rock, soil or other materials as they descend along an inclined surface of terrain. Landslides
can be triggered by several factors such as precipitation, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions or other destabilising elements affecting
the slope. (2)__________, being scholars specialising in the examination of the Earth's physical structures, occasionally classify
landslides as a sort of mass wasting. Mass wasting refers to any process in which there is a downward shift of the Earth's surface
resulting in erosion. Additional forms of mass wasting are rockfalls and the movement of coastal sediments known as alluvium.
Landslides pose (3)__________ risks to both, human lives and property in close proximity to densely inhabited regions. Landslides
result in an approximate annual toll of 25 to 50 fatalities and generate economic losses amounting to $3.5 billion inside the United
States. The (4)_________ of landslides can be heightened by human activities, including but not (5)____________ to agriculture and
building. Several operations, such as irrigation, deforestation, excavation and water leakage, have the potential to induce slope
destabilisation or weakening.

r
SubQuestion No : 77

Si
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). Pathologists B). Botanists C). Geologists
ap D). Archaeologists
Correct Answer: C
at
Comprehension:
Pr

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
A landslip refers to the (1)_________ of rock, soil or other materials as they descend along an inclined surface of terrain. Landslides
can be triggered by several factors such as precipitation, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions or other destabilising elements affecting
the slope. (2)__________, being scholars specialising in the examination of the Earth's physical structures, occasionally classify
an

landslides as a sort of mass wasting. Mass wasting refers to any process in which there is a downward shift of the Earth's surface
resulting in erosion. Additional forms of mass wasting are rockfalls and the movement of coastal sediments known as alluvium.
ag

Landslides pose (3)__________ risks to both, human lives and property in close proximity to densely inhabited regions. Landslides
result in an approximate annual toll of 25 to 50 fatalities and generate economic losses amounting to $3.5 billion inside the United
G

States. The (4)_________ of landslides can be heightened by human activities, including but not (5)____________ to agriculture and
building. Several operations, such as irrigation, deforestation, excavation and water leakage, have the potential to induce slope
destabilisation or weakening.
B y

SubQuestion No : 78
Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
hs

Ans A). small B). minimal C). zero D). significant

Correct Answer: D
at

Comprehension:
M

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
A landslip refers to the (1)_________ of rock, soil or other materials as they descend along an inclined surface of terrain. Landslides
can be triggered by several factors such as precipitation, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions or other destabilising elements affecting
the slope. (2)__________, being scholars specialising in the examination of the Earth's physical structures, occasionally classify
landslides as a sort of mass wasting. Mass wasting refers to any process in which there is a downward shift of the Earth's surface
resulting in erosion. Additional forms of mass wasting are rockfalls and the movement of coastal sediments known as alluvium.
Landslides pose (3)__________ risks to both, human lives and property in close proximity to densely inhabited regions. Landslides
result in an approximate annual toll of 25 to 50 fatalities and generate economic losses amounting to $3.5 billion inside the United
States. The (4)_________ of landslides can be heightened by human activities, including but not (5)____________ to agriculture and
building. Several operations, such as irrigation, deforestation, excavation and water leakage, have the potential to induce slope
destabilisation or weakening.

SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). occurrence B). name C). form D). show
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
A landslip refers to the (1)_________ of rock, soil or other materials as they descend along an inclined surface of terrain. Landslides
can be triggered by several factors such as precipitation, seismic activity, volcanic eruptions or other destabilising elements affecting
the slope. (2)__________, being scholars specialising in the examination of the Earth's physical structures, occasionally classify
landslides as a sort of mass wasting. Mass wasting refers to any process in which there is a downward shift of the Earth's surface
resulting in erosion. Additional forms of mass wasting are rockfalls and the movement of coastal sediments known as alluvium.
Landslides pose (3)__________ risks to both, human lives and property in close proximity to densely inhabited regions. Landslides
result in an approximate annual toll of 25 to 50 fatalities and generate economic losses amounting to $3.5 billion inside the United
States. The (4)_________ of landslides can be heightened by human activities, including but not (5)____________ to agriculture and
building. Several operations, such as irrigation, deforestation, excavation and water leakage, have the potential to induce slope
destabilisation or weakening.

SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). limited B). escaped C). freed D). named
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The concept of (1)______ intelligence has intrigued psychologists for decades. It refers to the ability to understand and manage one’s
emotions, as well as (2)______ the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in personal and professional
success. Individuals with high emotional intelligence tend to excel in (3)______ situations, showing empathy and effective
communication. They can also navigate through (4)______ with resilience and adaptability. Developing emotional intelligence involves
self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Cultivating these skills can lead to improved relationships and
better (5)______ outcomes.

SubQuestion No : 81

r
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Si
Ans A). computer B). artificial C). media D). emotional
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

The concept of (1)______ intelligence has intrigued psychologists for decades. It refers to the ability to understand and manage one’s
emotions, as well as (2)______ the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in personal and professional
success. Individuals with high emotional intelligence tend to excel in (3)______ situations, showing empathy and effective
an

communication. They can also navigate through (4)______ with resilience and adaptability. Developing emotional intelligence involves
self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Cultivating these skills can lead to improved relationships and
ag

better (5)______ outcomes.

SubQuestion No : 82
G

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

y

Ans A). manage B). overlook C). ignore D). amplify

Correct Answer: A
B
hs

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at

each blank.
M

The concept of (1)______ intelligence has intrigued psychologists for decades. It refers to the ability to understand and manage one’s
emotions, as well as (2)______ the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in personal and professional
success. Individuals with high emotional intelligence tend to excel in (3)______ situations, showing empathy and effective
communication. They can also navigate through (4)______ with resilience and adaptability. Developing emotional intelligence involves
self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Cultivating these skills can lead to improved relationships and
better (5)______ outcomes.

SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). solitary B). theoretical C). social D). complication
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The concept of (1)______ intelligence has intrigued psychologists for decades. It refers to the ability to understand and manage one’s
emotions, as well as (2)______ the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in personal and professional
success. Individuals with high emotional intelligence tend to excel in (3)______ situations, showing empathy and effective
communication. They can also navigate through (4)______ with resilience and adaptability. Developing emotional intelligence involves
self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Cultivating these skills can lead to improved relationships and
better (5)______ outcomes.

SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). witness B). routine C). harness D). challenges
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The concept of (1)______ intelligence has intrigued psychologists for decades. It refers to the ability to understand and manage one’s
emotions, as well as (2)______ the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in personal and professional
success. Individuals with high emotional intelligence tend to excel in (3)______ situations, showing empathy and effective
communication. They can also navigate through (4)______ with resilience and adaptability. Developing emotional intelligence involves
self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Cultivating these skills can lead to improved relationships and
better (5)______ outcomes.

SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). interpersonal B). self-centred C). academic D). financial

r
Correct Answer: A

Si
Comprehension:

each blank. ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

The two children lost their way in the woods. They had heard tales about a witch residing in a remote corner of _____[A] woods. The
at
witch was notorious for eating children. They became afraid as the sky _______[B] dark. They were getting hungry and tired as well.
Pr

Soon after, they came across _____[C] old cottage. The chimney of the house was emitting smoke. It started to rain heavily, and they
rushed inside the cottage without giving it a second thought. To _______[D] surprise, they found a ______[E1], __________[E2],
_______________[E3] woman inside the house. She offered them chocolates to eat.
an

SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86 Fill in the blank marked [A] using the most appropriate option.
ag

Ans A). that B). them C). those D). this

Correct Answer: C
G

Comprehension:
y

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
The two children lost their way in the woods. They had heard tales about a witch residing in a remote corner of _____[A] woods. The
hs

witch was notorious for eating children. They became afraid as the sky _______[B] dark. They were getting hungry and tired as well.
Soon after, they came across _____[C] old cottage. The chimney of the house was emitting smoke. It started to rain heavily, and they
at

rushed inside the cottage without giving it a second thought. To _______[D] surprise, they found a ______[E1], __________[E2],
_______________[E3] woman inside the house. She offered them chocolates to eat.
M

SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87 Fill in the blank marked [B] using the most appropriate option.
Ans A). turned B). have turned C). were turning D). does turn
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The two children lost their way in the woods. They had heard tales about a witch residing in a remote corner of _____[A] woods. The
witch was notorious for eating children. They became afraid as the sky _______[B] dark. They were getting hungry and tired as well.
Soon after, they came across _____[C] old cottage. The chimney of the house was emitting smoke. It started to rain heavily, and they
rushed inside the cottage without giving it a second thought. To _______[D] surprise, they found a ______[E1], __________[E2],
_______________[E3] woman inside the house. She offered them chocolates to eat.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Fill in the blank marked [C] using the most appropriate option.
Ans A). no article B). the C). an D). a
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The two children lost their way in the woods. They had heard tales about a witch residing in a remote corner of _____[A] woods. The
witch was notorious for eating children. They became afraid as the sky _______[B] dark. They were getting hungry and tired as well.
Soon after, they came across _____[C] old cottage. The chimney of the house was emitting smoke. It started to rain heavily, and they
rushed inside the cottage without giving it a second thought. To _______[D] surprise, they found a ______[E1], __________[E2],
_______________[E3] woman inside the house. She offered them chocolates to eat.

SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89 Fill in the blank marked [D] using the most appropriate option.
Ans A). their B). they’re C). there D). there are
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The two children lost their way in the woods. They had heard tales about a witch residing in a remote corner of _____[A] woods. The
witch was notorious for eating children. They became afraid as the sky _______[B] dark. They were getting hungry and tired as well.
Soon after, they came across _____[C] old cottage. The chimney of the house was emitting smoke. It started to rain heavily, and they
rushed inside the cottage without giving it a second thought. To _______[D] surprise, they found a ______[E1], __________[E2],
_______________[E3] woman inside the house. She offered them chocolates to eat.

SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to sequentially fill in the blanks marked [E1], [E2], [E3].
Ans A). sweet, skinny, old B). old, skinny, sweet C). skinny, old, sweet D). sweet, old, skinny
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:

r
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Si
As a graduate student, it is important for them to remember that the skills and knowledge they gain during their studies will be valuable
not only in their chosen field, but also in their future career. In addition to mastering the subject matter of their program, they should

will serve them well in any career path they choose. ap

also strive to develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills. These abilities are highly valued by employers and

Furthermore, as a graduate student, they will have the opportunity to conduct research and make original contributions to their field.
at
This experience will not only help them gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter, but will also give them the opportunity to
Pr

publish their findings and build their professional network.

Additionally, it is important for them to take advantage of any opportunities to gain practical experience in their field. This can include
internships, co-op programs, or volunteer work. These experiences will not only help them to develop valuable skills, but they will also
help them to gain a better understanding of the real-world applications of their field, and they can also help them to make important
an

connections in the industry.

Finally, it is important for them to remember that graduate school is a challenging and demanding experience, but it is also an
ag

incredibly rewarding one. With hard work, dedication, and a positive attitude, they will be well on their way to achieving their goals and
making a meaningful impact in their field.
G

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 Which of the following is NOT an important aspect of a graduate student’s experience to achieve academic and professional
y

success?
B

Ans A). Building a professional network B). Conducting research and making original contributions to their field
hs

C). Gaining practical experience through internships, co-op programs or volunteer work
D). Forming support groups from different ethnic groups to stay connected
at

Correct Answer: D
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

As a graduate student, it is important for them to remember that the skills and knowledge they gain during their studies will be valuable
not only in their chosen field, but also in their future career. In addition to mastering the subject matter of their program, they should
also strive to develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills. These abilities are highly valued by employers and
will serve them well in any career path they choose.
Furthermore, as a graduate student, they will have the opportunity to conduct research and make original contributions to their field.
This experience will not only help them gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter, but will also give them the opportunity to
publish their findings and build their professional network.
Additionally, it is important for them to take advantage of any opportunities to gain practical experience in their field. This can include
internships, co-op programs, or volunteer work. These experiences will not only help them to develop valuable skills, but they will also
help them to gain a better understanding of the real-world applications of their field, and they can also help them to make important
connections in the industry.
Finally, it is important for them to remember that graduate school is a challenging and demanding experience, but it is also an
incredibly rewarding one. With hard work, dedication, and a positive attitude, they will be well on their way to achieving their goals and
making a meaningful impact in their field.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Rewarding
Ans A). inspiring B). comforting C). discouraging D). stimulating
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

As a graduate student, it is important for them to remember that the skills and knowledge they gain during their studies will be valuable
not only in their chosen field, but also in their future career. In addition to mastering the subject matter of their program, they should
also strive to develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills. These abilities are highly valued by employers and
will serve them well in any career path they choose.

r
Furthermore, as a graduate student, they will have the opportunity to conduct research and make original contributions to their field.

Si
This experience will not only help them gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter, but will also give them the opportunity to
publish their findings and build their professional network.

ap
Additionally, it is important for them to take advantage of any opportunities to gain practical experience in their field. This can include
internships, co-op programs, or volunteer work. These experiences will not only help them to develop valuable skills, but they will also
help them to gain a better understanding of the real-world applications of their field, and they can also help them to make important
at
connections in the industry.
Finally, it is important for them to remember that graduate school is a challenging and demanding experience, but it is also an
Pr

incredibly rewarding one. With hard work, dedication, and a positive attitude, they will be well on their way to achieving their goals and
making a meaningful impact in their field.
an

SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93 Identify the main theme of the passage.
ag

Ans A). The importance of experience-based knowledge to increase the learning potential of graduate students
G

B). The importance of developing various skills and gaining practical experience as a graduate student in order to achieve academic and
professional success
y

C). The ways in which graduate school can be utilised to create political opportunities
B

D). Methods to include experiential learning in graduate school to inculcate discipline

Correct Answer: B
hs

Comprehension:
at

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
M

As a graduate student, it is important for them to remember that the skills and knowledge they gain during their studies will be valuable
not only in their chosen field, but also in their future career. In addition to mastering the subject matter of their program, they should
also strive to develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills. These abilities are highly valued by employers and
will serve them well in any career path they choose.
Furthermore, as a graduate student, they will have the opportunity to conduct research and make original contributions to their field.
This experience will not only help them gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter, but will also give them the opportunity to
publish their findings and build their professional network.
Additionally, it is important for them to take advantage of any opportunities to gain practical experience in their field. This can include
internships, co-op programs, or volunteer work. These experiences will not only help them to develop valuable skills, but they will also
help them to gain a better understanding of the real-world applications of their field, and they can also help them to make important
connections in the industry.
Finally, it is important for them to remember that graduate school is a challenging and demanding experience, but it is also an
incredibly rewarding one. With hard work, dedication, and a positive attitude, they will be well on their way to achieving their goals and
making a meaningful impact in their field.

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A). Skills and Experience: The Key to Success as a Graduate Student B). The Importance of Positive Attitude during Graduate Days
C). Career Advancement Schemes for Graduate Students D). The Role of Research in Graduate School
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

As a graduate student, it is important for them to remember that the skills and knowledge they gain during their studies will be valuable
not only in their chosen field, but also in their future career. In addition to mastering the subject matter of their program, they should
also strive to develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills. These abilities are highly valued by employers and
will serve them well in any career path they choose.
Furthermore, as a graduate student, they will have the opportunity to conduct research and make original contributions to their field.
This experience will not only help them gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter, but will also give them the opportunity to
publish their findings and build their professional network.
Additionally, it is important for them to take advantage of any opportunities to gain practical experience in their field. This can include
internships, co-op programs, or volunteer work. These experiences will not only help them to develop valuable skills, but they will also
help them to gain a better understanding of the real-world applications of their field, and they can also help them to make important
connections in the industry.
Finally, it is important for them to remember that graduate school is a challenging and demanding experience, but it is also an
incredibly rewarding one. With hard work, dedication, and a positive attitude, they will be well on their way to achieving their goals and
making a meaningful impact in their field.

SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 Which of the following is NOT important for a graduate student to achieve academic and professional success?
Ans A). Mastering the subject matter of their program B). Having a corporate job C). Having a positive attitude
D). Developing critical thinking, problem-solving, and communication skills
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Everything that departs from righteousness could be considered corrupt, taken in a broad sense. However, we all possess traits like
fear, egotism, greed, sloth, and wrath. We tend to travel in the wrong direction when the proportion of negative qualities is noticeably
higher than the positive ones like honesty, purity, and serenity. The core cause of corruption is the innate tendency to be affected by
external factors. Since the beginning of time, it has existed. However, sincerity and integrity are crucial in many aspects of life,

r
including interpersonal relationships, the workplace, commerce, government, and the legal system. The abuse of authority for

Si
personal gain is corruption. We believe that the cost of food, access to clean drinking water, economic possibilities, and housing
amenities are fundamental needs for every citizen. However, the government spends a lot of money on infrastructure initiatives like
constructing flyovers, modernising airports, and fostering economic growth.
ap
Have you ever wondered why this is the case? Why can’t we address social ills like poverty and illiteracy? It’s because we’ve grown
accustomed to living with corruption as the standard. The integrity of our own and other people’s behaviour bothers us the least.
at
Therefore, there is a loss of integrity on a monetary, intellectual, and moral level. Even after years of independence, we still worry
about societal bias, safety, and economic slowdowns. In today’s world, bribery is used to obtain government contracts, licences, and
Pr

patents, avoid paying taxes, and other things. Low and mid-level authorities frequently abuse their authority to provide necessary
products and services. We typically take into account bribes in addition to the agreed-upon price. However, high-level corruption in
both the public and corporate sectors leads to the manipulation of laws and regulations, which may have a negative impact on the
an

general public. The prevalence of widespread corruption in the system puts a country's economy in jeopardy. Negative factors
impeding our growth include the massive mountain of non-performing assets, a lack of foreign investment, and schedule and cost
overruns on infrastructure projects. Additionally, our administrative processes are drenched in red tape and require bribes at every
ag

turn. To begin any business activity, a lot of paperwork is required, and hundreds of rules must be followed. It makes us unwelcoming
and makes it challenging for foreigners to invest here. Project delays and cancellations are also brought on by red tape. The
G

fundamental cause of social disparity is corruption. The poor are particularly hard hit. Not everyone has the financial means to pay
bribes. Additionally, although there are more pipeline, dam, and refinery developments in our area, not everyone has access to basic
necessities like roads, schools, and hospitals. The stability of the nation may suffer from a divided community. Criminals are produced
y

as a result, and they pose a threat to the rule of law. The entire population needs to be made aware of the problem, and those who
B

wish to fight corruption should come together. We should determine the overall amount of money lost as a result of unethical
behaviour and inform everyone of it. It is imperative that we monitor the money raised by political parties. Politicians’ earnings and
hs

wealth should be made available to the public. The Jan Lokpal bill revolutionised the war against corruption. However, just like earlier
measures, it was modified to suit unscrupulous individuals. The general population has grown so accustomed to the wrongdoings that
at

we now put up with unfair treatment and corrupt behaviour. Businesses and long-term thinkers dislike conflict with bureaucracy.
M

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 Select the most appropriate summary of the passage.
An A). The instances of social disparity among individuals in Indian society are existing because of corruption and other financial irregularities,
s which are legal.
B). The entire population should be made aware of the problem of corruption and join hands together to fight against corruption.
C). Politicians’ earnings and wealth should be made available to the public through revolutions like Jan Lokpal Bill which will enhance the
transparency
D). It is true to say that high-level corruption in both the public and corporate sectors leads to the integration of laws and regulations.

Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Everything that departs from righteousness could be considered corrupt, taken in a broad sense. However, we all possess traits like
fear, egotism, greed, sloth, and wrath. We tend to travel in the wrong direction when the proportion of negative qualities is noticeably
higher than the positive ones like honesty, purity, and serenity. The core cause of corruption is the innate tendency to be affected by
external factors. Since the beginning of time, it has existed. However, sincerity and integrity are crucial in many aspects of life,
including interpersonal relationships, the workplace, commerce, government, and the legal system. The abuse of authority for
personal gain is corruption. We believe that the cost of food, access to clean drinking water, economic possibilities, and housing
amenities are fundamental needs for every citizen. However, the government spends a lot of money on infrastructure initiatives like
constructing flyovers, modernising airports, and fostering economic growth.
Have you ever wondered why this is the case? Why can’t we address social ills like poverty and illiteracy? It’s because we’ve grown
accustomed to living with corruption as the standard. The integrity of our own and other people’s behaviour bothers us the least.
Therefore, there is a loss of integrity on a monetary, intellectual, and moral level. Even after years of independence, we still worry
about societal bias, safety, and economic slowdowns. In today’s world, bribery is used to obtain government contracts, licences, and
patents, avoid paying taxes, and other things. Low and mid-level authorities frequently abuse their authority to provide necessary
products and services. We typically take into account bribes in addition to the agreed-upon price. However, high-level corruption in
both the public and corporate sectors leads to the manipulation of laws and regulations, which may have a negative impact on the
general public. The prevalence of widespread corruption in the system puts a country's economy in jeopardy. Negative factors
impeding our growth include the massive mountain of non-performing assets, a lack of foreign investment, and schedule and cost
overruns on infrastructure projects. Additionally, our administrative processes are drenched in red tape and require bribes at every
turn. To begin any business activity, a lot of paperwork is required, and hundreds of rules must be followed. It makes us unwelcoming
and makes it challenging for foreigners to invest here. Project delays and cancellations are also brought on by red tape. The
fundamental cause of social disparity is corruption. The poor are particularly hard hit. Not everyone has the financial means to pay
bribes. Additionally, although there are more pipeline, dam, and refinery developments in our area, not everyone has access to basic
necessities like roads, schools, and hospitals. The stability of the nation may suffer from a divided community. Criminals are produced
as a result, and they pose a threat to the rule of law. The entire population needs to be made aware of the problem, and those who
wish to fight corruption should come together. We should determine the overall amount of money lost as a result of unethical
behaviour and inform everyone of it. It is imperative that we monitor the money raised by political parties. Politicians’ earnings and
wealth should be made available to the public. The Jan Lokpal bill revolutionised the war against corruption. However, just like earlier
measures, it was modified to suit unscrupulous individuals. The general population has grown so accustomed to the wrongdoings that
we now put up with unfair treatment and corrupt behaviour. Businesses and long-term thinkers dislike conflict with bureaucracy.

r
SubQuestion No : 97

Si
Q.97 Which of the following factors is negatively impeding our growth?
Ans A). Administrative processes drenched in red tape
C). Schedule and cost cutting on infrastructure projects ap
B). Abundance of foreign investment
D). The collection of performing assets
Correct Answer: A
at
Comprehension:
Pr

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Everything that departs from righteousness could be considered corrupt, taken in a broad sense. However, we all possess traits like
an

fear, egotism, greed, sloth, and wrath. We tend to travel in the wrong direction when the proportion of negative qualities is noticeably
higher than the positive ones like honesty, purity, and serenity. The core cause of corruption is the innate tendency to be affected by
external factors. Since the beginning of time, it has existed. However, sincerity and integrity are crucial in many aspects of life,
ag

including interpersonal relationships, the workplace, commerce, government, and the legal system. The abuse of authority for
personal gain is corruption. We believe that the cost of food, access to clean drinking water, economic possibilities, and housing
G

amenities are fundamental needs for every citizen. However, the government spends a lot of money on infrastructure initiatives like
constructing flyovers, modernising airports, and fostering economic growth.
Have you ever wondered why this is the case? Why can’t we address social ills like poverty and illiteracy? It’s because we’ve grown
y

accustomed to living with corruption as the standard. The integrity of our own and other people’s behaviour bothers us the least.
B

Therefore, there is a loss of integrity on a monetary, intellectual, and moral level. Even after years of independence, we still worry
about societal bias, safety, and economic slowdowns. In today’s world, bribery is used to obtain government contracts, licences, and
hs

patents, avoid paying taxes, and other things. Low and mid-level authorities frequently abuse their authority to provide necessary
products and services. We typically take into account bribes in addition to the agreed-upon price. However, high-level corruption in
at

both the public and corporate sectors leads to the manipulation of laws and regulations, which may have a negative impact on the
general public. The prevalence of widespread corruption in the system puts a country's economy in jeopardy. Negative factors
M

impeding our growth include the massive mountain of non-performing assets, a lack of foreign investment, and schedule and cost
overruns on infrastructure projects. Additionally, our administrative processes are drenched in red tape and require bribes at every
turn. To begin any business activity, a lot of paperwork is required, and hundreds of rules must be followed. It makes us unwelcoming
and makes it challenging for foreigners to invest here. Project delays and cancellations are also brought on by red tape. The
fundamental cause of social disparity is corruption. The poor are particularly hard hit. Not everyone has the financial means to pay
bribes. Additionally, although there are more pipeline, dam, and refinery developments in our area, not everyone has access to basic
necessities like roads, schools, and hospitals. The stability of the nation may suffer from a divided community. Criminals are produced
as a result, and they pose a threat to the rule of law. The entire population needs to be made aware of the problem, and those who
wish to fight corruption should come together. We should determine the overall amount of money lost as a result of unethical
behaviour and inform everyone of it. It is imperative that we monitor the money raised by political parties. Politicians’ earnings and
wealth should be made available to the public. The Jan Lokpal bill revolutionised the war against corruption. However, just like earlier
measures, it was modified to suit unscrupulous individuals. The general population has grown so accustomed to the wrongdoings that
we now put up with unfair treatment and corrupt behaviour. Businesses and long-term thinkers dislike conflict with bureaucracy.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word in the context of the passage.
Unscrupulous
Ans A). Ethical B). Dishonest C). Overtly D). Principled
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Everything that departs from righteousness could be considered corrupt, taken in a broad sense. However, we all possess traits like
fear, egotism, greed, sloth, and wrath. We tend to travel in the wrong direction when the proportion of negative qualities is noticeably
higher than the positive ones like honesty, purity, and serenity. The core cause of corruption is the innate tendency to be affected by
external factors. Since the beginning of time, it has existed. However, sincerity and integrity are crucial in many aspects of life,
including interpersonal relationships, the workplace, commerce, government, and the legal system. The abuse of authority for
personal gain is corruption. We believe that the cost of food, access to clean drinking water, economic possibilities, and housing
amenities are fundamental needs for every citizen. However, the government spends a lot of money on infrastructure initiatives like
constructing flyovers, modernising airports, and fostering economic growth.
Have you ever wondered why this is the case? Why can’t we address social ills like poverty and illiteracy? It’s because we’ve grown
accustomed to living with corruption as the standard. The integrity of our own and other people’s behaviour bothers us the least.
Therefore, there is a loss of integrity on a monetary, intellectual, and moral level. Even after years of independence, we still worry
about societal bias, safety, and economic slowdowns. In today’s world, bribery is used to obtain government contracts, licences, and
patents, avoid paying taxes, and other things. Low and mid-level authorities frequently abuse their authority to provide necessary
products and services. We typically take into account bribes in addition to the agreed-upon price. However, high-level corruption in
both the public and corporate sectors leads to the manipulation of laws and regulations, which may have a negative impact on the
general public. The prevalence of widespread corruption in the system puts a country's economy in jeopardy. Negative factors
impeding our growth include the massive mountain of non-performing assets, a lack of foreign investment, and schedule and cost
overruns on infrastructure projects. Additionally, our administrative processes are drenched in red tape and require bribes at every
turn. To begin any business activity, a lot of paperwork is required, and hundreds of rules must be followed. It makes us unwelcoming
and makes it challenging for foreigners to invest here. Project delays and cancellations are also brought on by red tape. The
fundamental cause of social disparity is corruption. The poor are particularly hard hit. Not everyone has the financial means to pay
bribes. Additionally, although there are more pipeline, dam, and refinery developments in our area, not everyone has access to basic
necessities like roads, schools, and hospitals. The stability of the nation may suffer from a divided community. Criminals are produced
as a result, and they pose a threat to the rule of law. The entire population needs to be made aware of the problem, and those who
wish to fight corruption should come together. We should determine the overall amount of money lost as a result of unethical
behaviour and inform everyone of it. It is imperative that we monitor the money raised by political parties. Politicians’ earnings and
wealth should be made available to the public. The Jan Lokpal bill revolutionised the war against corruption. However, just like earlier
measures, it was modified to suit unscrupulous individuals. The general population has grown so accustomed to the wrongdoings that
we now put up with unfair treatment and corrupt behaviour. Businesses and long-term thinkers dislike conflict with bureaucracy.

r
SubQuestion No : 99

Si
Q.99 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans A). Friendly B). Curious C). Worried
ap D). Optimistic
Correct Answer: C
at
Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Pr

Everything that departs from righteousness could be considered corrupt, taken in a broad sense. However, we all possess traits like
fear, egotism, greed, sloth, and wrath. We tend to travel in the wrong direction when the proportion of negative qualities is noticeably
higher than the positive ones like honesty, purity, and serenity. The core cause of corruption is the innate tendency to be affected by
an

external factors. Since the beginning of time, it has existed. However, sincerity and integrity are crucial in many aspects of life,
including interpersonal relationships, the workplace, commerce, government, and the legal system. The abuse of authority for
ag

personal gain is corruption. We believe that the cost of food, access to clean drinking water, economic possibilities, and housing
amenities are fundamental needs for every citizen. However, the government spends a lot of money on infrastructure initiatives like
constructing flyovers, modernising airports, and fostering economic growth.
G

Have you ever wondered why this is the case? Why can’t we address social ills like poverty and illiteracy? It’s because we’ve grown
accustomed to living with corruption as the standard. The integrity of our own and other people’s behaviour bothers us the least.
y

Therefore, there is a loss of integrity on a monetary, intellectual, and moral level. Even after years of independence, we still worry
B

about societal bias, safety, and economic slowdowns. In today’s world, bribery is used to obtain government contracts, licences, and
patents, avoid paying taxes, and other things. Low and mid-level authorities frequently abuse their authority to provide necessary
hs

products and services. We typically take into account bribes in addition to the agreed-upon price. However, high-level corruption in
both the public and corporate sectors leads to the manipulation of laws and regulations, which may have a negative impact on the
at

general public. The prevalence of widespread corruption in the system puts a country's economy in jeopardy. Negative factors
impeding our growth include the massive mountain of non-performing assets, a lack of foreign investment, and schedule and cost
M

overruns on infrastructure projects. Additionally, our administrative processes are drenched in red tape and require bribes at every
turn. To begin any business activity, a lot of paperwork is required, and hundreds of rules must be followed. It makes us unwelcoming
and makes it challenging for foreigners to invest here. Project delays and cancellations are also brought on by red tape. The
fundamental cause of social disparity is corruption. The poor are particularly hard hit. Not everyone has the financial means to pay
bribes. Additionally, although there are more pipeline, dam, and refinery developments in our area, not everyone has access to basic
necessities like roads, schools, and hospitals. The stability of the nation may suffer from a divided community. Criminals are produced
as a result, and they pose a threat to the rule of law. The entire population needs to be made aware of the problem, and those who
wish to fight corruption should come together. We should determine the overall amount of money lost as a result of unethical
behaviour and inform everyone of it. It is imperative that we monitor the money raised by political parties. Politicians’ earnings and
wealth should be made available to the public. The Jan Lokpal bill revolutionised the war against corruption. However, just like earlier
measures, it was modified to suit unscrupulous individuals. The general population has grown so accustomed to the wrongdoings that
we now put up with unfair treatment and corrupt behaviour. Businesses and long-term thinkers dislike conflict with bureaucracy.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100 Why can’t we address social evils like poverty and illiteracy?
Ans A). Because of high integrity on monetary and moral level B). Because we have been conditioned to accept corruption as the norm
C). Because of the massive mountain of non-performing assets D). Because of unethical behaviour and divided community
Correct Answer: B

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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/12/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
441 – 540 – 243
Ans A). 225 – 333 – 432 B). 144 – 225 – 729 C). 161 – 512 – 710 D). 432 – 512 – 711
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Kamlesh got an opportunity to work in a multinational company. Tomorrow is his first day of office and he asked his fellow
employee to give him directions to his new office. Kamlesh lives in Town A (in the North) and his office is in Town F. His
fellow employee gave him the directions over a phone and he noted it in a piece of paper. Below is the written transcript.
Read the transcript carefully and answer the question that follows.
‘Take left from Town A and drive 2 km and you will be at Town B. Take left from Town B and drive 3 km to reach Town C. Take

r
right from Town C and drive 4 km to reach Town D. Take right from Town D and drive 4 km to reach Town E. Take left from

Si
Town E and drive 5 km to reach Town F. The office is in Town F.’
Upon reaching Town E, how many kilometres would Kamlesh have covered tomorrow?
Ans A). 5 B). 13 C). 9
ap D). 18
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.3 In a certain code language, 'OWL' is coded as 150 and 'CROW' is coded as 236. How will 'ROBIN' be coded in the same
Pr

language?
Ans A). 232 B). 209 C). 290 D). 295
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.4 D, E, K, W, X, Y and Z scored different marks in an exam. K scored more than only two people. E scored less than only one
person. W scored more than D but less than both E and Z. D did not score the lowest marks and Z did not score the highest
ag

marks. X scored less than Y. How many people scored more than Y?
G

Ans A). Two B). More than three C). Three D). None
Correct Answer: D
y

Q.5 If A means ‘+’, B means ‘×’, C means ‘−' and D means ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the following expression?
B

16 D 4 A 4 B 2 C 2
Ans A). 40 B). 30 C). 20 D). 10
hs

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.6 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series.
MSTS, LPUV, ?, JJWB, IGXE
M

Ans A). KNVE B). KQVZ C). KMVY D). KVVY

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Select a
figure from among the given options, which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

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 Q.8 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 2?

Ans A). 4 B). 5 C). 6 D). 1

Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). BFE B). OST C). IML D). UYX
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Boiling : Lukewarm :: Freezing : ?
Ans A). Water B). Ice C). Gas D). Cold
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
3÷4×2−1+5=?
Ans A). 4 B). 2 C). 5 D). 3
Correct Answer: B

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Q.12 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and
the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
84 : 196 :: 51 : ? :: 96 : 224

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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Ans A). 103 B). 119 C). 98 D). 143

Correct Answer: B
an

Q.13 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
7, 27, 87, 267, 807, ?
ag

Ans A). 2287 B). 2427 C). 6227 D). 1287

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.14 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.15 35 is related to 1125 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 45 is related to 1925. To which of the following is 85
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 7135 B). 7125 C). 7225 D). 7325
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.16 D is married to F. B is the wife of Q. G is the daughter of A. F is the mother of Q. A is the sister of D. How is D related to B?
Ans A). Son’s wife B). Wife’s mother C). Daughter’s husband D). Husband’s father
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
9, 54, 59, ?, 239 , 478
Ans A). 230 B). 236 C). 232 D). 234
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
11 : 123
6 : 38
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 13 : 169 B). 10 : 1001 C). 14 : 198 D). 18 : 321
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘CITY’ is coded as 228 and ‘CRY’ is coded as 138. How will ‘BOLD’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 123 B). 125 C). 132 D). 99
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
252, 247, 242, 237, 232, ?
Ans A). 228 B). 227 C). 225 D). 226
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Paragraph

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2. Letter

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3. Word
4. Book
5. Page
Ans A). 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 B). 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 C). 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ap D). 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Correct Answer: A
at
Q.22 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given triad of numbers.
Pr

2312 – 62 – 12
Ans A). 2423 – 6 – 14 B). 1831 – 83 – 38 C). 3214 – 64 – 26 D). 5116 – 56 – 30
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.23 What will be the day of the week on 26 January 2028?

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Ans A). Wednesday B). Friday C). Monday D). Tuesday

Correct Answer: A
G

Q.24 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
y

(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
B

Ans A). FEKS B). IJOT C). POUI D). HGMQ

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
at

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
M

TEAM : SUDFZBLN :: PLAY : ?

Ans A). QOMKBZZX B). OQKMZBXZ C). QOKMBZXZ D). OQMKZBZX
Correct Answer: B

Q.26

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

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 Q.27 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
14 ÷ 3 − 18 × 6 + 28 = ?
Ans A). 47 B). 22 C). 17 D). 12
Correct Answer: C

Q.28 Ramesh wants to visit his childhood friend’s house. Ramesh’s friend explained his house directions over a text message.
See the below text sent to Ramesh about the direction of his friend’s house and answer the following question accordingly.
“When you step out of your house, you are facing north. Take a right and walk 3 km, you will see a T-point/junction. Take a
right and walk 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the roundabout and walk 1 km.
Take a right and walk 3 km. Take a right and walk 1 km. You will find my house at the front.”
How many kilometres did Ramesh walk till the roundabout?
Ans A). 10 B). 6 C). 9 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
TJV, WFY, ZBB, CXE, ?
Ans A). FTH B). ETH C). FUT D). FTA
Correct Answer: A

Q.30 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming the information given in the statements is true, even if they
appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All pears are melons.
All melons are apricots.
All apricots are fruits.
Conclusions:
I. All pears are fruits.
II. Some fruits are melons.

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Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Neither conclusions I nor II follows.

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Correct Answer: B

Q.31
ap
Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
at
Pr
an
ag
G

Ans
y

Correct Answer: D
B

A). B). C). D).

hs
at

Q.32 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

M

Ans A). 13 B). 11 C). 10 D). 12

Correct Answer: D

Q.33 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
425 – 623 – 713
Ans A). 125 – 223 – 342 B). 432 – 513 – 711 C). 164 – 542 – 614 D). 144 – 225 – 729
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.34 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No potatoes is sweet.
All potatoes are avocadoes.
Some potatoes are dragon fruits.
Conclusions:
I. Some avocadoes are not sweets.
II. Some dragon fruits are not sweets.
III. Some avocadoes are sweets.
Ans A). Both conclusion I and II follow. B). Both conclusion II and III follow. C). Only conclusion III follows. D). All conclusions follow.

Correct Answer: A

Q.35 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely
true, based on the given statements.

Statements:
P≥Q≥R≥S<T
J≤K≤R
Ans A). P ≥ J B). S ≥ K C). K < T D). J > T
Correct Answer: A

Q.36 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, then what is ‘?’ in the given equation?
8 + 1 ÷ 112 − 2 × 86 = ?
Ans A). 150 B). 149 C). 37 D). 38
Correct Answer: D

Q.37 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

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11, 20, 37, 69, 131, ?, 489

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Ans A). 250 B). 254 C). 253 D). 251
Correct Answer: D

Q.38
ap
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s
at
from the given statements.
Statements:
Pr

Some nouns are pronouns.

All pronouns are adjectives.
No adjective is an adverb.
an

Conclusions:
(I) : No pronoun is an adverb.
(II) : At least some nouns are adverbs.
ag

Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
G

D). Only conclusion (II) follows.

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.39 What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
B

interchanged?
hs

99 ÷ 9 − 999 × 9 + 99 = ?
at

Ans A). 904 B). 901 C). 902 D). 903

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.40 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

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 Q.41 Six scientists are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Suhail is an immediate neighbour of Elroy and Aaron.
Nelson is sitting to the immediate right of Elroy. Rajan is sitting second to the left of Suhail. Carlton is an immediate
neighbour of Nelson. Who is the immediate neighbour of both Aaron and Carlton?
Ans A). Rajan B). Nelson C). Suhail D). Elroy
Correct Answer: A

Q.42 What was the day of the week on 4 July 2008?

Ans A). Thursday B). Sunday C). Friday D). Wednesday
Correct Answer: C

Q.43 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the same sequence and make
the series logically complete.
35, 38, 32, ?, 29, ?, 26, 47
Ans A). 45, 51 B). 39, 43 C). 41, 44 D). 37, 48
Correct Answer: C

Q.44 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some brownies are healthy.
All brownies are cakes.
Conclusions:
I. Some cakes are healthy.
II. No cake is healthy.
Ans A). Neither conclusion I nor II follows. B). Only conclusion I follows. C). Only conclusion II follows. D). Both conclusions I and II follow.

Correct Answer: B

Q.45

r
Si
ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G

Ans
B y
hs

A). B). C). D).

at
M

Correct Answer: D

Q.46 आशा को एक तस्वीर का परिचय देते हुए रितिका ने कहा, "उसकी बहन मेरे पति की पुत्री है"। तस्वीर में दिखने वाली रितिका से किस प्रकार संबंधित
है?
Ans A). माता B). पुत्री C). भांजी D). नवासी/पोती/दौहित्री Correct Answer: B

Q.47 A, E, O, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). Only one
person sits between A and S. Only two people sit between S and E. R sits second to the left of E. T sits second to the left of
A. Who is sitting to the immediate left of O?
Ans A). R B). A C). S D). T
Correct Answer: B

Q.48 Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
33 – 15 × 4 + 9 ÷ 11 = 6
Ans A). 9 and 15; – and × B). 4 and 11; + and ÷ C). 15 and 33; × and ÷ D). 11 and 15; – and ÷
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.49 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
ADG, ILO, QTW, YBE, ?
Ans A). HJM B). GIL C). GJM D). HKL
Correct Answer: C

Q.50 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
186:168
Ans A). 324:243 B). 486:464 C). 237:273 D). 729:794 Correct Answer: C

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 How much maximum amount of loan can be taken from Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (2015)?
Ans A). 6 lakh B). 8 lakh C). 10 lakh D). 5 lakh
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 In February 2023, who was appointed as the Governor of Bihar?

Ans A). Sushri Anusuiya Uikye B). Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar C). Gulab Chand Kataria D). Ramesh Bais
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Small-scale industries in India in 1950 were defined as all those industries in which the maximum investment amounted to:
Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The fifth and sixth five-year plans were majorly focused on which of the following?
Ans A). protection of environment B). industrial products C). level of employment D). To reduce poverty
Correct Answer: D

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Q.5 Under which article is the Finance Commission constituted?

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Ans A). 338 B). 148 C). 280 D). 324
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Which of the following describes the Medhi part in Buddhist structure? ap
at
Ans A). The umbrella-shaped structure placed at the top of the structure B). A low wall to enclose the structure
C). The circular terrace between the railing and dome D). Ceremonial gateways in front of stupas
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which detergents are also used in toothpaste?

an

Ans A). Cationic detergents B). Non-ionic detergents C). Anionic detergents D). Synthetic detergents
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.8 The Dhakeshwari Temple in present day Bangladesh has been constructed under the rule of which dynasty?
G

Ans A). Sena B). Rashtrakuta C). Parmara D). Chandela

Correct Answer: A
y

Q.9 The Self-Respect movement was led by whom among the following social reformers?
B

Ans A). Narayana Guru B). EV Ramaswamy Naicker C). Gopal Ganesh Agarkar D). Vinoba Bhave
Correct Answer: B
hs
at

Q.10 Who among the following sports personalities has written, ‘Straight From My Heart: An Autobiography’?
Ans A). Yuvraj Singh B). Kapil Dev C). Mary Kom D). Sania Mirza
M

Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Select the INCORRECT pair of autobiographies and their respective authors.
Ans A). Moonwalk – Michael Jackson B). Wings of Fire – Dr APJ Abdul Kalam C). Dreams from My Father – Barack Obama
D). Playing It My Way – MS Dhoni
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Nahid Siddiqui is a famous classical dancer in _______ genre.

Ans A). Odissi B). Bharatnatyam C). Manipuri D). Kathak
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 ‘Playing It My Way’ is an autobiography of which of the following legendary cricket players?
Ans A). Ricky Ponting B). Sunil Gavaskar C). Sachin Tendulkar D). Brian Lara
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 When is the Army Day celebrated in India?

Ans A). 15 August B). 15 January C). 12 January D). 24 January
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.15 What food items are most commonly affected by the adulteration of Sudan dyes?
Ans A). Coffee powder B). Tea C). Hot paprika D). Coriander powder
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Which of the following states of India does the Konkan Railway connect?
Ans A). Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh B). Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh C). Maharashtra and Karnataka D). Gujarat and Karnataka

Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Which is the largest sea located in the North Indian Ocean, covering an area of about 3.86 million square kilometres?
Ans A). Java Sea B). Arabian Sea C). Red Sea D). Andaman Sea
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Chandragupta Maurya overthrew which of the following dynasties of ancient India to establish the Mauryan empire?
Ans A). Sunga B). Shishunaga C). Haryanka D). Nanda
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 The main location for ATP production is:

Ans A). nucleus B). mitochondria C). peroxisome D). plastids
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The RBI launched the Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) to mobilise deposits and step-up lending to weaker sections of the
economy. When was the scheme launched?
Ans A). 1973 B). 1969 C). 1962 D). 1958
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 Identify the atomic number of an element that belongs to group 17.
Ans A). 1 B). 11 C). 7 D). 53
Correct Answer: D

r
Si
Q.22 Kautilya has mentioned the concept of Saptanga Rajya to understand the State with seven organs and one of them is
Danda, which means:
Ans A). Ministers B). Force C). Ally
ap D). Fort
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.23 The Companies Act, _________ is an Act to consolidate and amend the law relating to companies.
Pr

Ans A). 2005 B). 2020 C). 2013 D). 2017

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.24 The Barakar is a tributary of river:

Ans A). Betwa B). Son C). Chambal D). Damodar
ag

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.25 Which of the following initiatives was announced by the Union Labour and Employment Minister in March 2022 under the
Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) scheme?
y

Ans A). Donate-a-Pension B). Live with Pension C). Click-2 Pension D). Interest-in-Pension
Correct Answer: A
B

Q.26 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Last Burden’?
hs

Ans A). Devdutt Pattnayak B). Jugal Hansraj C). Upamanyu Chatterjee D). Ravinder Singh
Correct Answer: C
at
M

Q.27 The entrance gateway in Dravidian style temple is known as:

Ans A). Vimana B). Mandap C). Shikhara D). Gopuram
Correct Answer: D

Q.28 Who among the following was the first principal of the Bengal National College started in 1906?
Ans A). Aurobindo Ghose B). Satish Chandra Mukherjee C). Rash Behari Ghosh D). Subodh Chandra Mullick
Correct Answer: A

Q.29 Paavo Nurmi games 2022 were hosted by _____________.

Ans A). Scotland B). Ireland C). Switzerland D). Finland
Correct Answer: D

Q.30 In badminton, a _________ is called when a rally is stopped without any point.
Ans A). let B). pass C). smash D). serve
Correct Answer: A

Q.31 Who is responsible for hoisting the flag on Independence Day?

Ans A). The Prime Minister of India B). The Attorney General of India C). The Vice President of India D). The President of India

Correct Answer: A
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 Q.32 If the MPC = 0.8, what is the likely value of the Government expenditure multiplier for a standard national output (aggregate
demand) function Y = C + I + G ?
Ans A). 0.2 B). 8 C). 5 D). 2.25
Correct Answer: C

Q.33 Identify the correct statement related to metallic character.

Ans A). Metallic character decreases across a group and stays the same down a group.
B). Metallic character decreases across a period and increases down a group.
C). Metallic character increases across a period and decreases down a group.
D). Metallic character stays the same across a period and decreases the same down a group.
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 What is the name of the disease that can be caused by Vitamin D deficiency in children?
Ans A). Osteoporosis B). Scurvy C). Rickets D). Bleeding diathesis
Correct Answer: C

Q.35 Which of the following correctly defines the difference between a major port and a minor port in India?
Ans A). Major ports handle traffic within the country, minor ports handle exports
B). Major ports are under the Central government while minor ports are under the State government
C). Major ports are along the coasts, minor ports are on inland waterways D). Major ports are publicly owned, minor ports are privately owned

Correct Answer: B

Q.36 Who used the drawing circle and arrow symbols to represent the atoms of different elements in 1803?
Ans A). Amedeo Avogadro B). Antoine Lavoisier C). Jacob Berzelius D). John Dalton
Correct Answer: D

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Q.37 Which of the following is a group of chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic and primarily aquatic (both freshwater

Si
and marine) organisms?
Ans A). Pteridophytes B). Gymnosperms C). Algae D). Bryophytes
Correct Answer: C

Q.38 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Bibi ka Maqbara at Aurangabad?
ap
at
Ans A). It is built completely with marble. B). It is an imitation of the Taj Mahal due to its similar designs.
Pr

C). It is the burial place of Aurangzeb’s wife, Rabia-ud-Durrani. D). It was built by Mughal prince Azam Shah.
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.39 Who among the following is a Hindustani classical vocalist?

Ans A). Kishori Amonkar B). Zakir Hussain C). Shiv Kumar Sharma D). TR Mahalingam
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.40 How is the image formed by a plane mirror?

G

Ans A). Virtual and inverted B). Virtual and erect C). Erect and inverted D). Laterally inverted and virtual
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.41 Pt. Ram Narayan is a ________.

hs

Ans A). Mridangam player B). Sarangi player C). Rudra Veena player D). Sarod player
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.42 Which of the following Articles prohibits employment of children under 14 years of age in factories?
M

Ans A). Article 25 B). Article 26 C). Article 27 D). Article 24

Correct Answer: D

Q.43 Indian opener Murali Vijay announced his retirement from international cricket in _________.
Ans A). November 2022 B). June 2020 C). January 2023 D). February 2021
Correct Answer: C

Q.44 Chota Nagpur is a ___________ in India.

Ans A). plateau B). mountain C). river D). plain
Correct Answer: A

Q.45 India created history by winning which of the following cup titles for the first time in May 2022?
Ans A). Davis Cup B). Beighton Cup C). French Open D). Thomas Cup
Correct Answer: D

Q.46 According to the Census 2011, which of the following states has the highest literacy rate?
Ans A). Tamil Nadu B). Kerala C). Karnataka D). Goa
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.47 Where did the 25th edition of the IHF Women's World Handball Championship organise?
Ans A). Egypt B). Spain C). Germany D). Japan
Correct Answer: B

Q.48 What was the term of the Central Legislative Assembly under the Government of India Act of 1919?
Ans A). Three year B). Seven year C). Two year D). Five year
Correct Answer: A

Q.49 Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma is associated with which of the following dance forms?
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kathak C). Mohiniyattam D). Kuchipudi
Correct Answer: C

Q.50 Which of the following is NOT used as food preservative?

Ans A). Table Salt B). Sodium hydrogen carbonate C). Sodium benzoate D). Sugar
Correct Answer: B

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Read the sentence carefully and select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined part.

He was publicly scorned due to his predilection for luxurious items.

Ans A). observant nature B). extreme indifference C). special liking D). dreamy meditation
Correct Answer: C

Q.2 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.

a. Often one fails to grab that chance.

b. Life often gives us one single chance to flourish.

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c. Getting a chance to do good is not easy.

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d. If you get a chance, grab it and give your best.
Ans A). bcad B). dabc C). abcd D). dcab
Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

ap
at
Plentiful
Pr

Ans A). Abundant B). Concordant C). Stingy D). Fondant

Correct Answer: A

Q.4 The following sentence has been divided into five segments. The first segment has no error. Select the option that has the
an

segment with the grammatical error.

They decided to / consult a lawyer / as soon as they / reach their / home town.
ag

Ans A). reach their B). consult a lawyer C). home town. D). as soon as they
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Endless
B y

Ans A). Associate B). Limited C). Limitless D). Encompass

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The tiger looked at me with a serious ________.
at

Ans A). Smile B). Nap C). Stare D). Wink

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Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
Dipesh loves to answer his boss’s questions in tactful ways.
Ans A). Affordable B). Humble C). Ambiguous D). Undiplomatic
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

Good books should be read again and _________ .
Ans A). after B). ever C). again D). never
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Procrastination
Ans A). Limitation B). Resumption C). Action D). Suspension
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.10 Select the option that can replace the underlined phrase and make the sentence grammatically correct.
I don’t trust my friend because he has not and can never be trusted because of his deeds.
Ans A). has not been and can never be B). has not be and can never be C). has not and can’t be D). has been not and can never be

Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “I can't attend the meeting tomorrow.”

Ans A). He said that he can't attend the meeting the next day. B). He said that he can't attend the meeting tomorrow.
C). He said that he couldn't attend the meeting the next day. D). He said that he couldn't attend the meeting tomorrow.
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active form.
The job work had been learnt by me.
Ans A). I would learn the job work. B). I will learn the job work. C). I have learnt the job work. D). I had learnt the job work.
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
I want my son to be pharmacist and my husband wants him to be a engineer. He wishes to be architect.
Ans A). I want my son to be pharmacist and my husband wants him to be an engineer. He wishes to be an architect.
B). I want my son to be a pharmacist and my husband wants him to be a engineer. He wishes to be an architect.
C). I want my son to be a pharmacist and my husband wants him to be an engineer. He wishes to be a architect.
D). I want my son to be a pharmacist and my husband wants him to be an engineer. He wishes to be an architect.
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

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Quandary

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Ans A). Dilemma B). Solution C). Harmony D). Certainty
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. ap

at
His friends disagreed _________ him on that point.
Pr

Ans A). on B). with C). to D). for

Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
an

Mrs. Lisa suggested that we should purchase the property.

ag

Ans A). Mrs. Lisa said, “Please purchase the property.” B). Mrs. Lisa told, “You may purchase the property.”
C). Mrs. Lisa said, “Property must be purchased by us.” D). Mrs. Lisa said, “Let us purchase the property.”
Correct Answer: D
G

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
y

Suman felt ashamed and shy about admitting his fault before his boss.
B

Ans A). sad B). embarrassed C). exalted D). brazen

Correct Answer: B
hs

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
at

Megha asked Reena where she was going that day.

M

Ans A). Megha asked Reena, “Where were you going today?” B). Megha asked Reena, “Where were you going that day?”
C). Megha asked Reena, “Where have you been going today?” D). Megha asked Reena, “Where are you going today?”
Correct Answer: D

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Mrs. Leela opened the window.

Ans A). The window is being opened by Mrs. Leela. B). The window was opened by Mrs. Leela. C). The window is opened by Mrs. Leela.
D). The window was being opened by Mrs. Leela.
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She is not rich / and that is why, she cannot afford to / buy a expensive bungalow / near the sea-side.
Ans A). She is not rich B). and that is why, she cannot afford to C). near the sea-side D). buy a expensive bungalow
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Why don’t you come visit us sometime?
Ans A). elude B). ignore C). snub D). see
Correct Answer: D
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 Q.22 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

At the eleventh hour

Ans A). At the present time B). At the distance C). At the break of the day D). At the last possible moment
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The winner’s performance was head and shoulders above all other participants' in the dance competition.
Ans A). Caught between two alternatives B). Worse than others C). Well informed of current trends D). Much better than others

Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Sanchit has been read since early morning for his class test.
Ans A). for his B). since early morning C). Sanchit has been read D). class test.
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

At the sight of the police, the thief ran away in the ________ of an eye.
Ans A). back B). core C). blink D). sparkling
Correct Answer: C

Q.26 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
What do you like to do on your free days other than to watching movies?
Ans A). having watched movies B). watches movies C). watching movies D). watch movie
Correct Answer: C

Q.27 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence and forms a

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meaningful sentence.

Si
The initial days / are not (P) / of my high school (Q) / to remember (R) / very good (S).
Ans A). P, R, S, Q B). Q, P, S, R C). P, S, R, Q ap D). R, Q, P, S
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.28 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Pr

Bill was looking impatient / at the useless guest / who showed / no signs of leaving the room.
Ans A). at the useless guest B). Bill was looking impatient C). no signs of leaving the room D). who showed
an

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.29 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. The King Cobra is the world’s largest venomous snake.

G

B. Even, the baby King Cobra is one-and-a-half foot long when born.
C. It is mostly found in parts of Africa.
y

D. The Cobra is the only snake that builds a nest.

B

Ans A). CBAD B). BACD C). ABCD D). BDAC

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.30 Parts of sentences are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.
at

A. They think there are some bitter learning experiences

B. Which, over a period of time, guide them to take a good path
M

C. Many successful people believe that

D. There is no failure in anybody’s life
Ans A). CDAB B). CBDA C). CBAD D). BDAC
Correct Answer: A

Q.31 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

These toys were made by my uncle.

Ans A). My uncles have made these toys. B). My uncle made these toys. C). My uncle was making these toys.
D). My uncle had made these toys.
Correct Answer: B

Q.32 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The door was opened by Samira when the fire was reported by Mithali.
Ans A). Samira opened the door and Mithali reported the fire. B). Samira opened the door when Mithali reported the fire.
C). Samira opened the door when the fire was being reported by Mithali. D). When Mithali reports the fire, Samira opened the door.

Correct Answer: B

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 Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Technology hasn’t left anything behind, it has _________ almost everything. From the phones we use to the medicines we
consume; it is all a product of technology.
Ans A). dislodged B). evicted C). effected D). affected
Correct Answer: D

Q.34 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

How was it written by Pragya?

Ans A). How did Pragya write it? B). How has Pragya written it? C). How does Pragya write it? D). How will Pragya write it?
Correct Answer: A

Q.35 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The Minister explained that he was working for the benefit of the country.
Ans A). The Minister explains, “I will work for the benefit of the country.”
B). The Minister explained, “I am working for the benefit of the country.”
C). The Minister explained, “I was working for the benefit of the country.”
D). The Minister explained, “He was working for the benefit of the country.”
Correct Answer: B

Q.36 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Deplore
Ans A). Decode B). Ridicule C). Relish D). Prolong
Correct Answer: C

Q.37 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Coimbatore is one of / the biggest cities in Tamil Nadu / and is considered / as a Manchester of South India.

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Ans A). as a Manchester of South India B). the biggest cities in Tamil Nadu C). and is considered D). Coimbatore is one of

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Correct Answer: A

Q.38 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Mr. Thomas helps Mr. Anil.

ap
at
Ans A). Mr. Anil was helped by Mr. Thomas. B). Mr. Anil is being helped by Mr. Thomas. C). Mr. Anil is helped by Mr. Thomas.
Pr

D). Mr. Anil was being helped by Mr. Thomas.

Correct Answer: C
an

Q.39 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Jaundice is caused by drinking contaminated water.
ag

Ans A). Drinking contaminated water caused jaundice. B). Drinking contaminated water has caused jaundice.
C). Drinking contaminated water can cause jaundice D). Drinking contaminated water causes jaundice.
G

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.40 Select the phrase/idiom that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
I do not pay heed to walking excuses of the students.
B

Ans A). lame excuses B). deaf excuses C). sleeping excuses D). blind excuses
Correct Answer: A
hs
at

Q.41 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options.
M

Let us, at any rate, / give him / an outline out the case, / and hear what he has to say.
Ans A). and hear what he has to say. B). an outline out the case, C). give him D). Let us, at any rate,
Correct Answer: B

Q.42 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
He exclaimed that he was a very stupid fellow.
Ans A). “Are you a stupid fellow!” he remarked. B). “How a stupid fellow are you!” he remarked.
C). “What a stupid fellow you are!” he remarked. D). “How a stupid fellow you are!” he remarked.
Correct Answer: C

Q.43 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence and forms a
meaningful sentence.
The first part 'Zombies are not real' is fixed.

Zombies are not real / sound effects (P) / make it believable (Q) / but special (R) / and visuals (S)
Ans A). P, Q, S, R B). R, P, S, Q C). P, R, S, Q D). P, Q, R, S
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.44 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

She asked, “Are you coming to the party?”

Ans A). She asked if I can come to the party. B). She asked if I was coming to the party. C). She asked if I am coming to the party.
D). She asked are you going to the party.
Correct Answer: B

Q.45 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Wholly
Ans A). Barely B). Lonely C). Entirely D). Weekly
Correct Answer: C

Q.46 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
She spotted the novel [A] / and shouted, "Here the book lies [B] / that we were searching for[C] / all around."[D]
Ans A). C B). B C). D D). A
Correct Answer: B

Q.47 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Little Sam requested to let him rest there.
Ans A). Little Sam said, “Let me rest here.” B). Little Sam said, “Let me be resting here.” C). Little Sam said, “Let us rest here.”
D). Little Sam said, “Do rest here.”
Correct Answer: A

Q.48 Parts of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful
paragraph. The first part 'R.' is fixed.
R. The knowledge so far
A. Available about the endocrine gland is very limited.
B. Hormones are the body’s chemical messengers.
C. These are the glands that make all the hormones.
D. They influence almost every cell, organ and function of our bodies.

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Si
Ans A). BCDA B). CABD C). ABCD D). ACBD
Correct Answer: D

Q.49 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
My father said, “Neha shall come back by 3:00 p.m.” ap
at
Ans A). My father told that Neha should come back by 3:00 p.m. B). My father told that Neha shall come back by 3:00 p.m.
Pr

C). My father said that Neha should come back by 3:00 p.m. D). My father said that Neha will come back by 3:00 p.m.
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.50 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
His gloomy demeanour is often criticised.
ag

Ans A). Highly B). Poorly C). Lively D). Slimy

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.51 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He promised, “He will not do the mistake again.”
y

Ans A). He promises that he will not do the mistake again. B). He promised that he would not did the mistake next time.
B

C). He promised that he would not do the mistake next time. D). He promised that he will not do the mistake again.
Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.52 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

at

Prefer
M

Ans A). Regret B). Disjoint C). Dislike D). Choose

Correct Answer: C

Q.53 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said, “Bravo! You have done well.”
Ans A). She applauded her saying that she had done well. B). She told her saying that she had done well.
C). She applauded her saying that she has done well. D). She applauded her saying that she did well.
Correct Answer: A

Q.54 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
I visited mall yesterday. It had unique designer shop of accessories.
Ans A). I visited a mall yesterday. It had a unique designer shop of accessories.
B). I visited a mall yesterday. It had unique designer shop of accessories.
C). I visited a mall yesterday. It had an unique designer shop of accessories.
D). I visited mall yesterday. It had a unique designer shop of accessories.
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.55 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The function hall has been decorated attractively by the boys.
Ans A). The boys have decorated the function hall attractively. B). The boys will decorate the function hall attractively.
C). The boys had decorated the function hall attractively. D). The boys attractively decorated the function hall.
Correct Answer: A

Q.56 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Remote
Ans A). Remorse B). Rash C). Sociable D). Aloof
Correct Answer: D

Q.57 Identify the error in the following sentence.

Akash would be staying to his uncle’s place during the holidays.
Ans A). would B). during C). staying D). to
Correct Answer: D

Q.58 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Lee is humming a soothing tune for the masses.
Ans A). A soothing tune is being hummed for the masses by Lee. B). A soothing tune had been hummed for the masses by Lee.
C). A soothing tune has been hummed by Lee for the masses. D). A soothing tune was being humming by Lee for the masses.

Correct Answer: A

Q.59 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.

a. People come from divergent families, nations, faiths, political structures and ethnicities.
b. Their beliefs constitute distinct moral frameworks.
c. Respect for these ideals or for human dignity will define society’s functioning.

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d. Respect and compromise are essential components of human dignity among the diverse members of any community.

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Ans A). cbad B). badc C). dabc D). bcda
Correct Answer: C

Q.60 ap
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
This smartphone is / superior than / the model I had been /using previously.
at
Ans A). superior than B). the model I had been C). using previously D). This smartphone is
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.61 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech.
an

Mother warned me not to make a mess of the living room again.

ag

Ans A). Mother warned, “Don’t make a mess of the living room again!”
B). Mother instructed, “You may not be making a mess of the living room again.”
G

C). Mother told me, “Do not make a mess from the living room again.”
D). Mother warned, “Don’t you dare to have made a mess of the living room again.”
y

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.62 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
hs

I am upset because my cell phone has been stolen.

at

Ans A). I have been upset because an unknown person has stolen my cell phone. B). I was upset because they have stolen my cell phone.
M

C). I am upset because someone has stolen my cell phone. D). I am upset because someone has been stealing my cell phone.

Correct Answer: C

Q.63 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
You must send applications to the university before December 30.
Ans A). Applications are to be sent to the university before December 30. B). Applications must be sent to the university before December 30.
C). Applications were to be sent to the university before December 30. D). Applications has to be sent to the university before December 30.

Correct Answer: B

Q.64 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
She said, “How beautiful is the rain!”
Ans A). She exclaimed with joy that the rain had been beautiful. B). She exclaimed with joy that the rain is beautiful.
C). She exclaimed with joy that the rain has been beautiful. D). She exclaimed with joy that the rain was beautiful.
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.65 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

“I will teach you,” said the old man to his grandson.

Ans A). The old man told his grandson to teach him. B). The old man told his grandson that he would teach him.
C). The old man told his grandson that he taught him. D). The old man said that he will teach you.
Correct Answer: B

Q.66 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Their plan of acquisition was __________ flawed from the very beginning; it was bound to fail.
Ans A). cheerfully B). fatally C). biblically D). amicably
Correct Answer: B

Q.67 Select the option that can replace the underlined phrase and make the sentence grammatically correct.
After flip through half dozen profiles with the same name, he chance upon Elina’s profile, he succeed in zeroing in on her
now recognisable face.
Ans A). flipping through half a dozen profiles with the same name, he chanced upon Elina’s profile, he succeeded
B). flip through half dozen profile with the same name, he chance upon Elina’s profile, he succeeded
C). flipping through half dozen profile with the same name, he chance upon Elina’s profile, he succeeded
D). flipping through half dozen profiles with the same name, he chanced upon Elina’s profile, he succeed
Correct Answer: A

Q.68 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

All eyes and ears
Ans A). to be attentive B). to be mistaken C). to be helpful D). to be restless
Correct Answer: A

Q.69 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

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Si
(a) I have bought/ (b) a house in Jalandhar./ (c) House is in a rural area/ (d) No error
Ans A). b B). d C). c D). a
ap Correct Answer: C
at
Q.70 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Turned a deaf ear
Pr

Ans A). To defeat B). To disregard C). Trying to hear from the deafened ear D). To depend on
Correct Answer: B
an

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
ag

each blank.
It’s 1. _________ to have a conversation about health and wellness without talking about mental health. In the United States, nearly
G

one in five adults has a mental illness or mental health condition. That’s nearly 52 million people. However, mental health isn’t just
about having or not having a mental illness. Our wellbeing is 2. _________ by all aspects of our lives and that, in turn, affects how we
experience life, work and time with our loved ones. Now, the conversation is more 3. _________ than ever. In 2021, the prevalent
y

feeling of the year was languishing. Research found that more than 55% of workers weren’t mentally ill, but they weren’t thriving
B

either. As the pandemic has brought physical health at the centre stage in an unprecedented way, it’s time 4. _________ look at the
other major components of wellbeing. The conversation around mental health awareness has never been as public, as prevalent, or
hs

as important. After all, building 5. _________ is a critical ingredient to learning how to care for your mental health.
at

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
M

Ans A). beneficial B). advisable C). impossible D). easy

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It’s 1. _________ to have a conversation about health and wellness without talking about mental health. In the United States, nearly
one in five adults has a mental illness or mental health condition. That’s nearly 52 million people. However, mental health isn’t just
about having or not having a mental illness. Our wellbeing is 2. _________ by all aspects of our lives and that, in turn, affects how we
experience life, work and time with our loved ones. Now, the conversation is more 3. _________ than ever. In 2021, the prevalent
feeling of the year was languishing. Research found that more than 55% of workers weren’t mentally ill, but they weren’t thriving
either. As the pandemic has brought physical health at the centre stage in an unprecedented way, it’s time 4. _________ look at the
other major components of wellbeing. The conversation around mental health awareness has never been as public, as prevalent, or
as important. After all, building 5. _________ is a critical ingredient to learning how to care for your mental health.

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). effected B). affected C). indifferent D). different
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It’s 1. _________ to have a conversation about health and wellness without talking about mental health. In the United States, nearly
one in five adults has a mental illness or mental health condition. That’s nearly 52 million people. However, mental health isn’t just
about having or not having a mental illness. Our wellbeing is 2. _________ by all aspects of our lives and that, in turn, affects how we
experience life, work and time with our loved ones. Now, the conversation is more 3. _________ than ever. In 2021, the prevalent
feeling of the year was languishing. Research found that more than 55% of workers weren’t mentally ill, but they weren’t thriving
either. As the pandemic has brought physical health at the centre stage in an unprecedented way, it’s time 4. _________ look at the
other major components of wellbeing. The conversation around mental health awareness has never been as public, as prevalent, or
as important. After all, building 5. _________ is a critical ingredient to learning how to care for your mental health.

SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). unnecessary B). difficult C). critical D). irrelevant
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It’s 1. _________ to have a conversation about health and wellness without talking about mental health. In the United States, nearly
one in five adults has a mental illness or mental health condition. That’s nearly 52 million people. However, mental health isn’t just
about having or not having a mental illness. Our wellbeing is 2. _________ by all aspects of our lives and that, in turn, affects how we
experience life, work and time with our loved ones. Now, the conversation is more 3. _________ than ever. In 2021, the prevalent
feeling of the year was languishing. Research found that more than 55% of workers weren’t mentally ill, but they weren’t thriving
either. As the pandemic has brought physical health at the centre stage in an unprecedented way, it’s time 4. _________ look at the
other major components of wellbeing. The conversation around mental health awareness has never been as public, as prevalent, or
as important. After all, building 5. _________ is a critical ingredient to learning how to care for your mental health.

SubQuestion No : 74

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Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

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Ans A). about B). to C). of D). for
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

It’s 1. _________ to have a conversation about health and wellness without talking about mental health. In the United States, nearly
one in five adults has a mental illness or mental health condition. That’s nearly 52 million people. However, mental health isn’t just
about having or not having a mental illness. Our wellbeing is 2. _________ by all aspects of our lives and that, in turn, affects how we
experience life, work and time with our loved ones. Now, the conversation is more 3. _________ than ever. In 2021, the prevalent
an

feeling of the year was languishing. Research found that more than 55% of workers weren’t mentally ill, but they weren’t thriving
either. As the pandemic has brought physical health at the centre stage in an unprecedented way, it’s time 4. _________ look at the
ag

other major components of wellbeing. The conversation around mental health awareness has never been as public, as prevalent, or
as important. After all, building 5. _________ is a critical ingredient to learning how to care for your mental health.
G

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
B y

Ans A). family B). hospitals C). dreams D). awareness

Correct Answer: D
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

The students were taken on a field trip [A]____ the museum. The curator of the museum enlightened them [B]____ varied information
from different periods of history. They saw the fossil remains of dinosaurs and other extinct large mammals. They learned about the
importance of mountain ranges like [C]______ Himalayas. They also witnessed the [D]______ of rare royal jewels that were being
displayed at the time. They saw busts of Roman Emperors and replicas of famous works of art. They also saw the portrait of
Cleopatra, who was a [E1]______, [E2]_____, [E3]_______ Queen.

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank [A].
Ans A). to B). on C). from D). for
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The students were taken on a field trip [A]____ the museum. The curator of the museum enlightened them [B]____ varied information
from different periods of history. They saw the fossil remains of dinosaurs and other extinct large mammals. They learned about the
importance of mountain ranges like [C]______ Himalayas. They also witnessed the [D]______ of rare royal jewels that were being
displayed at the time. They saw busts of Roman Emperors and replicas of famous works of art. They also saw the portrait of
Cleopatra, who was a [E1]______, [E2]_____, [E3]_______ Queen.

SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank [B].
Ans A). in B). with C). for D). to
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The students were taken on a field trip [A]____ the museum. The curator of the museum enlightened them [B]____ varied information
from different periods of history. They saw the fossil remains of dinosaurs and other extinct large mammals. They learned about the
importance of mountain ranges like [C]______ Himalayas. They also witnessed the [D]______ of rare royal jewels that were being
displayed at the time. They saw busts of Roman Emperors and replicas of famous works of art. They also saw the portrait of
Cleopatra, who was a [E1]______, [E2]_____, [E3]_______ Queen.

SubQuestion No : 78
Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank [C].
Ans A). a B). the C). No article D). an
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:

r
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

Si
each blank.
The students were taken on a field trip [A]____ the museum. The curator of the museum enlightened them [B]____ varied information
from different periods of history. They saw the fossil remains of dinosaurs and other extinct large mammals. They learned about the

ap
importance of mountain ranges like [C]______ Himalayas. They also witnessed the [D]______ of rare royal jewels that were being
displayed at the time. They saw busts of Roman Emperors and replicas of famous works of art. They also saw the portrait of
Cleopatra, who was a [E1]______, [E2]_____, [E3]_______ Queen.
at
SubQuestion No : 79
Pr

Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank [D].

Ans A). action B). reaction C). illustration D). exhibition
an

Correct Answer: D
ag

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.
The students were taken on a field trip [A]____ the museum. The curator of the museum enlightened them [B]____ varied information
from different periods of history. They saw the fossil remains of dinosaurs and other extinct large mammals. They learned about the
y

importance of mountain ranges like [C]______ Himalayas. They also witnessed the [D]______ of rare royal jewels that were being
B

displayed at the time. They saw busts of Roman Emperors and replicas of famous works of art. They also saw the portrait of
Cleopatra, who was a [E1]______, [E2]_____, [E3]_______ Queen.
hs

SubQuestion No : 80
at

Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks [E1], [E2] and [E3] respectively.
M

Ans A). Egyptian, bronze-skinned, beautiful B). beautiful, Egyptian, bronze-skinned C). bronze-skinned, beautiful, Egyptian
D). beautiful, bronze-skinned, Egyptian
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Climate change, driven primarily by human activities, is a pressing global issue. The burning of fossil fuels releases greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the atmosphere, leading to the (1) ______ effect. Rising temperatures cause melting ice caps, (2)
______ sea levels and extreme weather patterns. Mitigating climate change requires a (3) ______ approach, including transitioning to
renewable energy sources, promoting sustainable practices and implementing policies to reduce emissions. Additionally, raising (4)
______ awareness about the importance of conservation is crucial. The collective effort to combat climate change will determine the
quality of life for future (5) ______.

SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). greenhouse B). red sea C). sound D). visual
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Climate change, driven primarily by human activities, is a pressing global issue. The burning of fossil fuels releases greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the atmosphere, leading to the (1) ______ effect. Rising temperatures cause melting ice caps, (2)
______ sea levels and extreme weather patterns. Mitigating climate change requires a (3) ______ approach, including transitioning to
renewable energy sources, promoting sustainable practices and implementing policies to reduce emissions. Additionally, raising (4)
______ awareness about the importance of conservation is crucial. The collective effort to combat climate change will determine the
quality of life for future (5) ______.

SubQuestion No : 82
Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). increasing B). purifying C). stabilising D). vapouring
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Climate change, driven primarily by human activities, is a pressing global issue. The burning of fossil fuels releases greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the atmosphere, leading to the (1) ______ effect. Rising temperatures cause melting ice caps, (2)
______ sea levels and extreme weather patterns. Mitigating climate change requires a (3) ______ approach, including transitioning to
renewable energy sources, promoting sustainable practices and implementing policies to reduce emissions. Additionally, raising (4)
______ awareness about the importance of conservation is crucial. The collective effort to combat climate change will determine the
quality of life for future (5) ______.

SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). haphazard B). trivial C). multifaceted D). narrow
Correct Answer: C

r
Comprehension:

Si
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
Climate change, driven primarily by human activities, is a pressing global issue. The burning of fossil fuels releases greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the atmosphere, leading to the (1) ______ effect. Rising temperatures cause melting ice caps, (2)
______ sea levels and extreme weather patterns. Mitigating climate change requires a (3) ______ approach, including transitioning to
at
renewable energy sources, promoting sustainable practices and implementing policies to reduce emissions. Additionally, raising (4)
Pr

______ awareness about the importance of conservation is crucial. The collective effort to combat climate change will determine the
quality of life for future (5) ______.

SubQuestion No : 84
an

Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

ag

Ans A). public B). governmental C). commercial D). individual

Correct Answer: A
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

Climate change, driven primarily by human activities, is a pressing global issue. The burning of fossil fuels releases greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the atmosphere, leading to the (1) ______ effect. Rising temperatures cause melting ice caps, (2)
hs

______ sea levels and extreme weather patterns. Mitigating climate change requires a (3) ______ approach, including transitioning to
renewable energy sources, promoting sustainable practices and implementing policies to reduce emissions. Additionally, raising (4)
at

______ awareness about the importance of conservation is crucial. The collective effort to combat climate change will determine the
quality of life for future (5) ______.
M

SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). generations B). organisms C). economies D). environments
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

With the aid of globalisation, the (1)________ planet can be viewed as a (2)________ marketplace. By viewing the world as a single
market, merchants are able to expand their reach. Agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries that were already
created in India were not permitted to be (3)_______ until the 1990s. But during the 1990s, the wealthy countries (4)________
pressure on the poor and emerging nations to open their markets so that the wealthy might more easily spread their industries. When
India first began its liberalisation and globalisation process in 1991, it was a (5)______ step for the country.

SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). half B). entire C). limited D). part
Correct Answer: B
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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

With the aid of globalisation, the (1)________ planet can be viewed as a (2)________ marketplace. By viewing the world as a single
market, merchants are able to expand their reach. Agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries that were already
created in India were not permitted to be (3)_______ until the 1990s. But during the 1990s, the wealthy countries (4)________
pressure on the poor and emerging nations to open their markets so that the wealthy might more easily spread their industries. When
India first began its liberalisation and globalisation process in 1991, it was a (5)______ step for the country.

SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). unified B). separated C). decentralised D). segregated
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

With the aid of globalisation, the (1)________ planet can be viewed as a (2)________ marketplace. By viewing the world as a single
market, merchants are able to expand their reach. Agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries that were already
created in India were not permitted to be (3)_______ until the 1990s. But during the 1990s, the wealthy countries (4)________
pressure on the poor and emerging nations to open their markets so that the wealthy might more easily spread their industries. When
India first began its liberalisation and globalisation process in 1991, it was a (5)______ step for the country.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). martyred B). imported C). intoxicated D). elated
Correct Answer: B

r
Comprehension:

Si
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
With the aid of globalisation, the (1)________ planet can be viewed as a (2)________ marketplace. By viewing the world as a single
market, merchants are able to expand their reach. Agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries that were already
at
created in India were not permitted to be (3)_______ until the 1990s. But during the 1990s, the wealthy countries (4)________
Pr

pressure on the poor and emerging nations to open their markets so that the wealthy might more easily spread their industries. When
India first began its liberalisation and globalisation process in 1991, it was a (5)______ step for the country.

SubQuestion No : 89
an

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

ag

Ans A). exerted B). conserved C). exempted D). discontinued

Correct Answer: A
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

With the aid of globalisation, the (1)________ planet can be viewed as a (2)________ marketplace. By viewing the world as a single
hs

market, merchants are able to expand their reach. Agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries that were already
created in India were not permitted to be (3)_______ until the 1990s. But during the 1990s, the wealthy countries (4)________
at

pressure on the poor and emerging nations to open their markets so that the wealthy might more easily spread their industries. When
India first began its liberalisation and globalisation process in 1991, it was a (5)______ step for the country.
M

SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). emerged B). engrossed C). abducted D). significant
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A Fox, one day, fell into a deep well and could find no means of escape. Meanwhile, a Goat, overcome with thirst, came to the same
well, and seeing the Fox, enquired the reason for which the fox was in the well. Concealing his sad plight under a merry guise, the Fox
indulged in a lavish praise of the water, saying it was excellent beyond measure, and told the goat that he deliberately jumped in the
well to enjoy its benefits. He kept encouraging the goat to jump in the well. The Goat, mindful only of his thirst, thoughtlessly jumped
down, but just as he drank, the Fox informed him of the difficulty they were both in and suggested a scheme for their common escape.
“If,” said he, “you will place your forefeet upon the wall and bend your head, I will run up your back and escape, and will help you out
afterwards.” The Goat readily assented and the Fox leaped upon his back. Steadying himself with the Goat’s horns, he safely reached
the mouth of the well and made off as fast as he could. When the Goat upbraided him for breaking his promise, he turned around and
cried out, “You foolish old fellow! If you had as many brains in your head as you have hairs in your beard, you would never have gone
down before you had inspected the way up, nor have exposed yourself to dangers from which you had no means of escape.”

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 How did the goat get into the well?
Ans A). He was thrown into the well by a passer-by. B). He was lured by the fox. C). He descended into the well by mistake.
D). He fell into the well.
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A Fox, one day, fell into a deep well and could find no means of escape. Meanwhile, a Goat, overcome with thirst, came to the same
well, and seeing the Fox, enquired the reason for which the fox was in the well. Concealing his sad plight under a merry guise, the Fox
indulged in a lavish praise of the water, saying it was excellent beyond measure, and told the goat that he deliberately jumped in the
well to enjoy its benefits. He kept encouraging the goat to jump in the well. The Goat, mindful only of his thirst, thoughtlessly jumped
down, but just as he drank, the Fox informed him of the difficulty they were both in and suggested a scheme for their common escape.
“If,” said he, “you will place your forefeet upon the wall and bend your head, I will run up your back and escape, and will help you out
afterwards.” The Goat readily assented and the Fox leaped upon his back. Steadying himself with the Goat’s horns, he safely reached

r
the mouth of the well and made off as fast as he could. When the Goat upbraided him for breaking his promise, he turned around and

Si
cried out, “You foolish old fellow! If you had as many brains in your head as you have hairs in your beard, you would never have gone
down before you had inspected the way up, nor have exposed yourself to dangers from which you had no means of escape.”

Q.92
SubQuestion No : 92
Why did the fox invite the goat into the well?
ap
at
Ans A). Because the fox felt lonely in the well B). Because the fox needed support to get out of the well
Pr

C). Because the fox wanted the goat to drink the water D). Because they were friends
Correct Answer: B
an

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
ag

A Fox, one day, fell into a deep well and could find no means of escape. Meanwhile, a Goat, overcome with thirst, came to the same
well, and seeing the Fox, enquired the reason for which the fox was in the well. Concealing his sad plight under a merry guise, the Fox
G

indulged in a lavish praise of the water, saying it was excellent beyond measure, and told the goat that he deliberately jumped in the
well to enjoy its benefits. He kept encouraging the goat to jump in the well. The Goat, mindful only of his thirst, thoughtlessly jumped
y

down, but just as he drank, the Fox informed him of the difficulty they were both in and suggested a scheme for their common escape.
B

“If,” said he, “you will place your forefeet upon the wall and bend your head, I will run up your back and escape, and will help you out
afterwards.” The Goat readily assented and the Fox leaped upon his back. Steadying himself with the Goat’s horns, he safely reached
hs

the mouth of the well and made off as fast as he could. When the Goat upbraided him for breaking his promise, he turned around and
cried out, “You foolish old fellow! If you had as many brains in your head as you have hairs in your beard, you would never have gone
at

down before you had inspected the way up, nor have exposed yourself to dangers from which you had no means of escape.”

SubQuestion No : 93
M

Q.93 Identify the tone of the passage.

Ans A). Assertive B). Cheerful C). Informal D). Didactic
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A Fox, one day, fell into a deep well and could find no means of escape. Meanwhile, a Goat, overcome with thirst, came to the same
well, and seeing the Fox, enquired the reason for which the fox was in the well. Concealing his sad plight under a merry guise, the Fox
indulged in a lavish praise of the water, saying it was excellent beyond measure, and told the goat that he deliberately jumped in the
well to enjoy its benefits. He kept encouraging the goat to jump in the well. The Goat, mindful only of his thirst, thoughtlessly jumped
down, but just as he drank, the Fox informed him of the difficulty they were both in and suggested a scheme for their common escape.
“If,” said he, “you will place your forefeet upon the wall and bend your head, I will run up your back and escape, and will help you out
afterwards.” The Goat readily assented and the Fox leaped upon his back. Steadying himself with the Goat’s horns, he safely reached
the mouth of the well and made off as fast as he could. When the Goat upbraided him for breaking his promise, he turned around and
cried out, “You foolish old fellow! If you had as many brains in your head as you have hairs in your beard, you would never have gone
down before you had inspected the way up, nor have exposed yourself to dangers from which you had no means of escape.”

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A). The Fox and the Forest B). The Fox and the Goat C). The Cunning Goat D). The Kind Fox
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A Fox, one day, fell into a deep well and could find no means of escape. Meanwhile, a Goat, overcome with thirst, came to the same
well, and seeing the Fox, enquired the reason for which the fox was in the well. Concealing his sad plight under a merry guise, the Fox
indulged in a lavish praise of the water, saying it was excellent beyond measure, and told the goat that he deliberately jumped in the
well to enjoy its benefits. He kept encouraging the goat to jump in the well. The Goat, mindful only of his thirst, thoughtlessly jumped
down, but just as he drank, the Fox informed him of the difficulty they were both in and suggested a scheme for their common escape.
“If,” said he, “you will place your forefeet upon the wall and bend your head, I will run up your back and escape, and will help you out
afterwards.” The Goat readily assented and the Fox leaped upon his back. Steadying himself with the Goat’s horns, he safely reached
the mouth of the well and made off as fast as he could. When the Goat upbraided him for breaking his promise, he turned around and
cried out, “You foolish old fellow! If you had as many brains in your head as you have hairs in your beard, you would never have gone

r
down before you had inspected the way up, nor have exposed yourself to dangers from which you had no means of escape.”

Si
SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 What moral lesson can be drawn from the passage?
Ans A). One good turn deserves another. B). Honesty is the best policy.
ap
C). Pride comes before a fall. D). Look before you leap.
at
Correct Answer: D
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The major factor in ensuring the safety of the food supply is food packaging. To ensure that food safety criteria are met, advances in
food processing and packaging have dramatically increased. When food processing is finished, packaging preserves the benefits
without having a negative impact on individuals who consume the food. Additionally, it enables food to be transported from the point of
production to the point of consumption while maintaining its integrity despite the considerable distance. Additionally, it shields delicate
foods from light, physical harm, and chemical changes as well as against microbial contamination of meals like meat.
In other cases, the packaging is a tool for business promotion in the food processing industries. The packages frequently brand the
business or promote it in some way. Packages can occasionally improve a product’s appearance and increase consumer appeal. To
comply with rules, packaging technology must strike a compromise between a number of issues. These include the protection of food
along with other factors including increased social and environmental awareness, the expense of energy and materials, rigorous limits
on pollutants, and the removal of municipal solid waste.
Food packaging can be made from a variety of materials, some of which include foil, laminates, coated sheets, films, metals, plastics,
conventional, and paper. Some of these things don’t decay at all, while others degrade in varying degrees. The topic of environmental
damage brought on by food packing materials is not new. Plastic and other items are virtually universally discarded, harming the
ecosystem. Despite how important packaging is, it nevertheless poses a serious environmental risk.
The process of making packaging necessitates the use of natural resources, which results in the destruction of a variety of unintended
animal habitats. Some businesses, like those that harvest trees, also don’t allow the growth of many of the natural resources they use.
Because harmful fumes are released into the atmosphere during the manufacture of these packaging materials, the environment is
also harmed. The air will become more contaminated if these processes aren’t managed. Occasionally, these packaging wastes are
carelessly disposed of, polluting the environment, and some of those wastes don’t disintegrate at all. Wood and paper are two
prominent packaging materials made from forest resources. Uncontrolled, contentious exploitation of forest resources will upset the
balance of the forests’ growth. Erosion, desertification, water scarcities, and a host of ecological issues are just a few of the effects of
an unbalanced growth rate. Non-biodegradable packing materials have long-lasting negative effects on the environment and can harm
soil and other components through aquatic and atmospheric processes. This can lead to food insecurity, harm to other creatures, and
damage to ecology and marine life. Improper disposal of packaging waste can be fatal to animals and impact spawning seasons,
making pollution a serious concern. Food packaging has a negative impact on the environment, thus it’s important to manage the
trash properly to protect human health, the environment, and natural resources. Some of these methods include utilising less
packaging, creating products with longer shelf lives, and repurposing goods and resources are all part of source reduction. By altering
the appearance, acquisition, production, or usage of the originating material and products, source reduction also lowers the quantity
and toxicity of the trash. Waste combustion is a controlled burning method used at specific facilities to dispose of non-recyclable
materials. Waste-to-energy combustion incinerators use steam generators to produce heat for electricity generation. Composting is

r
the controlled aerobic or biological decomposition of organic waste and is an effective waste disposal solution. This process involves

Si
placing organic debris in piles and providing sufficient moisture for decomposition by microorganisms.

Q.96
SubQuestion No : 96
What do you mean by ‘composting’ in the above passage? ap
at
Ans A). Generating electricity using decomposition B). Mismanaging the energy resources C). Biological decomposition of organic waste
Pr

D). Waste to energy combustion

Correct Answer: C
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The major factor in ensuring the safety of the food supply is food packaging. To ensure that food safety criteria are met, advances in
food processing and packaging have dramatically increased. When food processing is finished, packaging preserves the benefits
without having a negative impact on individuals who consume the food. Additionally, it enables food to be transported from the point of
production to the point of consumption while maintaining its integrity despite the considerable distance. Additionally, it shields delicate
foods from light, physical harm, and chemical changes as well as against microbial contamination of meals like meat.
In other cases, the packaging is a tool for business promotion in the food processing industries. The packages frequently brand the
business or promote it in some way. Packages can occasionally improve a product’s appearance and increase consumer appeal. To
comply with rules, packaging technology must strike a compromise between a number of issues. These include the protection of food
along with other factors including increased social and environmental awareness, the expense of energy and materials, rigorous limits
on pollutants, and the removal of municipal solid waste.
Food packaging can be made from a variety of materials, some of which include foil, laminates, coated sheets, films, metals, plastics,
conventional, and paper. Some of these things don’t decay at all, while others degrade in varying degrees. The topic of environmental
damage brought on by food packing materials is not new. Plastic and other items are virtually universally discarded, harming the
ecosystem. Despite how important packaging is, it nevertheless poses a serious environmental risk.
The process of making packaging necessitates the use of natural resources, which results in the destruction of a variety of unintended
animal habitats. Some businesses, like those that harvest trees, also don’t allow the growth of many of the natural resources they use.
Because harmful fumes are released into the atmosphere during the manufacture of these packaging materials, the environment is
also harmed. The air will become more contaminated if these processes aren’t managed. Occasionally, these packaging wastes are
carelessly disposed of, polluting the environment, and some of those wastes don’t disintegrate at all. Wood and paper are two
prominent packaging materials made from forest resources. Uncontrolled, contentious exploitation of forest resources will upset the
balance of the forests’ growth. Erosion, desertification, water scarcities, and a host of ecological issues are just a few of the effects of
an unbalanced growth rate. Non-biodegradable packing materials have long-lasting negative effects on the environment and can harm
soil and other components through aquatic and atmospheric processes. This can lead to food insecurity, harm to other creatures, and
damage to ecology and marine life. Improper disposal of packaging waste can be fatal to animals and impact spawning seasons,
making pollution a serious concern. Food packaging has a negative impact on the environment, thus it’s important to manage the
trash properly to protect human health, the environment, and natural resources. Some of these methods include utilising less
packaging, creating products with longer shelf lives, and repurposing goods and resources are all part of source reduction. By altering
the appearance, acquisition, production, or usage of the originating material and products, source reduction also lowers the quantity
and toxicity of the trash. Waste combustion is a controlled burning method used at specific facilities to dispose of non-recyclable
materials. Waste-to-energy combustion incinerators use steam generators to produce heat for electricity generation. Composting is

r
the controlled aerobic or biological decomposition of organic waste and is an effective waste disposal solution. This process involves

Si
placing organic debris in piles and providing sufficient moisture for decomposition by microorganisms.

Q.97
SubQuestion No : 97
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.
Stringent
ap
at
Ans A). Contamination B). Occasionally C). Erosion D). Rigorous
Pr

Correct Answer: D
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The major factor in ensuring the safety of the food supply is food packaging. To ensure that food safety criteria are met, advances in
food processing and packaging have dramatically increased. When food processing is finished, packaging preserves the benefits
without having a negative impact on individuals who consume the food. Additionally, it enables food to be transported from the point of
production to the point of consumption while maintaining its integrity despite the considerable distance. Additionally, it shields delicate
foods from light, physical harm, and chemical changes as well as against microbial contamination of meals like meat.
In other cases, the packaging is a tool for business promotion in the food processing industries. The packages frequently brand the
business or promote it in some way. Packages can occasionally improve a product’s appearance and increase consumer appeal. To
comply with rules, packaging technology must strike a compromise between a number of issues. These include the protection of food
along with other factors including increased social and environmental awareness, the expense of energy and materials, rigorous limits
on pollutants, and the removal of municipal solid waste.
Food packaging can be made from a variety of materials, some of which include foil, laminates, coated sheets, films, metals, plastics,
conventional, and paper. Some of these things don’t decay at all, while others degrade in varying degrees. The topic of environmental
damage brought on by food packing materials is not new. Plastic and other items are virtually universally discarded, harming the
ecosystem. Despite how important packaging is, it nevertheless poses a serious environmental risk.
The process of making packaging necessitates the use of natural resources, which results in the destruction of a variety of unintended
animal habitats. Some businesses, like those that harvest trees, also don’t allow the growth of many of the natural resources they use.
Because harmful fumes are released into the atmosphere during the manufacture of these packaging materials, the environment is
also harmed. The air will become more contaminated if these processes aren’t managed. Occasionally, these packaging wastes are
carelessly disposed of, polluting the environment, and some of those wastes don’t disintegrate at all. Wood and paper are two
prominent packaging materials made from forest resources. Uncontrolled, contentious exploitation of forest resources will upset the
balance of the forests’ growth. Erosion, desertification, water scarcities, and a host of ecological issues are just a few of the effects of
an unbalanced growth rate. Non-biodegradable packing materials have long-lasting negative effects on the environment and can harm
soil and other components through aquatic and atmospheric processes. This can lead to food insecurity, harm to other creatures, and
damage to ecology and marine life. Improper disposal of packaging waste can be fatal to animals and impact spawning seasons,
making pollution a serious concern. Food packaging has a negative impact on the environment, thus it’s important to manage the
trash properly to protect human health, the environment, and natural resources. Some of these methods include utilising less
packaging, creating products with longer shelf lives, and repurposing goods and resources are all part of source reduction. By altering
the appearance, acquisition, production, or usage of the originating material and products, source reduction also lowers the quantity
and toxicity of the trash. Waste combustion is a controlled burning method used at specific facilities to dispose of non-recyclable
materials. Waste-to-energy combustion incinerators use steam generators to produce heat for electricity generation. Composting is

r
the controlled aerobic or biological decomposition of organic waste and is an effective waste disposal solution. This process involves

Si
placing organic debris in piles and providing sufficient moisture for decomposition by microorganisms.

Q.98
SubQuestion No : 98
ap
According to the above passage, how can we reduce the amount and toxicity of the garbage?
at
Ans A). By keeping the appearance rigid B). By Source reduction C). Creating products with shorter shelf lives
Pr

D). By increasing the quantity of food packaging

Correct Answer: B
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The major factor in ensuring the safety of the food supply is food packaging. To ensure that food safety criteria are met, advances in
food processing and packaging have dramatically increased. When food processing is finished, packaging preserves the benefits
without having a negative impact on individuals who consume the food. Additionally, it enables food to be transported from the point of
production to the point of consumption while maintaining its integrity despite the considerable distance. Additionally, it shields delicate
foods from light, physical harm, and chemical changes as well as against microbial contamination of meals like meat.
In other cases, the packaging is a tool for business promotion in the food processing industries. The packages frequently brand the
business or promote it in some way. Packages can occasionally improve a product’s appearance and increase consumer appeal. To
comply with rules, packaging technology must strike a compromise between a number of issues. These include the protection of food
along with other factors including increased social and environmental awareness, the expense of energy and materials, rigorous limits
on pollutants, and the removal of municipal solid waste.
Food packaging can be made from a variety of materials, some of which include foil, laminates, coated sheets, films, metals, plastics,
conventional, and paper. Some of these things don’t decay at all, while others degrade in varying degrees. The topic of environmental
damage brought on by food packing materials is not new. Plastic and other items are virtually universally discarded, harming the
ecosystem. Despite how important packaging is, it nevertheless poses a serious environmental risk.
The process of making packaging necessitates the use of natural resources, which results in the destruction of a variety of unintended
animal habitats. Some businesses, like those that harvest trees, also don’t allow the growth of many of the natural resources they use.
Because harmful fumes are released into the atmosphere during the manufacture of these packaging materials, the environment is
also harmed. The air will become more contaminated if these processes aren’t managed. Occasionally, these packaging wastes are
carelessly disposed of, polluting the environment, and some of those wastes don’t disintegrate at all. Wood and paper are two
prominent packaging materials made from forest resources. Uncontrolled, contentious exploitation of forest resources will upset the
balance of the forests’ growth. Erosion, desertification, water scarcities, and a host of ecological issues are just a few of the effects of
an unbalanced growth rate. Non-biodegradable packing materials have long-lasting negative effects on the environment and can harm
soil and other components through aquatic and atmospheric processes. This can lead to food insecurity, harm to other creatures, and
damage to ecology and marine life. Improper disposal of packaging waste can be fatal to animals and impact spawning seasons,
making pollution a serious concern. Food packaging has a negative impact on the environment, thus it’s important to manage the
trash properly to protect human health, the environment, and natural resources. Some of these methods include utilising less
packaging, creating products with longer shelf lives, and repurposing goods and resources are all part of source reduction. By altering
the appearance, acquisition, production, or usage of the originating material and products, source reduction also lowers the quantity
and toxicity of the trash. Waste combustion is a controlled burning method used at specific facilities to dispose of non-recyclable
materials. Waste-to-energy combustion incinerators use steam generators to produce heat for electricity generation. Composting is

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the controlled aerobic or biological decomposition of organic waste and is an effective waste disposal solution. This process involves

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placing organic debris in piles and providing sufficient moisture for decomposition by microorganisms.

Q.99
SubQuestion No : 99
Identify the central theme of the passage. ap
at
Ans A). To understand the role and effect of food packaging on the environment
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B). Managing the food packaging through reducing the cost and quality of plastics
C). Awareness regarding the biodegradable and non-biodegradable food packaging resources
D). To understand and manage the waste through composting and recycling
an

Correct Answer: A
ag
G
B y
hs
at
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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The major factor in ensuring the safety of the food supply is food packaging. To ensure that food safety criteria are met, advances in
food processing and packaging have dramatically increased. When food processing is finished, packaging preserves the benefits
without having a negative impact on individuals who consume the food. Additionally, it enables food to be transported from the point of
production to the point of consumption while maintaining its integrity despite the considerable distance. Additionally, it shields delicate
foods from light, physical harm, and chemical changes as well as against microbial contamination of meals like meat.
In other cases, the packaging is a tool for business promotion in the food processing industries. The packages frequently brand the
business or promote it in some way. Packages can occasionally improve a product’s appearance and increase consumer appeal. To
comply with rules, packaging technology must strike a compromise between a number of issues. These include the protection of food
along with other factors including increased social and environmental awareness, the expense of energy and materials, rigorous limits
on pollutants, and the removal of municipal solid waste.
Food packaging can be made from a variety of materials, some of which include foil, laminates, coated sheets, films, metals, plastics,
conventional, and paper. Some of these things don’t decay at all, while others degrade in varying degrees. The topic of environmental
damage brought on by food packing materials is not new. Plastic and other items are virtually universally discarded, harming the
ecosystem. Despite how important packaging is, it nevertheless poses a serious environmental risk.
The process of making packaging necessitates the use of natural resources, which results in the destruction of a variety of unintended
animal habitats. Some businesses, like those that harvest trees, also don’t allow the growth of many of the natural resources they use.
Because harmful fumes are released into the atmosphere during the manufacture of these packaging materials, the environment is
also harmed. The air will become more contaminated if these processes aren’t managed. Occasionally, these packaging wastes are
carelessly disposed of, polluting the environment, and some of those wastes don’t disintegrate at all. Wood and paper are two
prominent packaging materials made from forest resources. Uncontrolled, contentious exploitation of forest resources will upset the
balance of the forests’ growth. Erosion, desertification, water scarcities, and a host of ecological issues are just a few of the effects of
an unbalanced growth rate. Non-biodegradable packing materials have long-lasting negative effects on the environment and can harm
soil and other components through aquatic and atmospheric processes. This can lead to food insecurity, harm to other creatures, and
damage to ecology and marine life. Improper disposal of packaging waste can be fatal to animals and impact spawning seasons,
making pollution a serious concern. Food packaging has a negative impact on the environment, thus it’s important to manage the
trash properly to protect human health, the environment, and natural resources. Some of these methods include utilising less
packaging, creating products with longer shelf lives, and repurposing goods and resources are all part of source reduction. By altering
the appearance, acquisition, production, or usage of the originating material and products, source reduction also lowers the quantity
and toxicity of the trash. Waste combustion is a controlled burning method used at specific facilities to dispose of non-recyclable
materials. Waste-to-energy combustion incinerators use steam generators to produce heat for electricity generation. Composting is

r
the controlled aerobic or biological decomposition of organic waste and is an effective waste disposal solution. This process involves

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placing organic debris in piles and providing sufficient moisture for decomposition by microorganisms.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100 Which of the following is an effect of unbalanced growth rate? ap
at
Ans A). Recycling B). Desertification C). Aerobic decomposition D). Composting
Correct Answer: B
Pr
an
ag
G
B y
hs
at
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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/12/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 5?

Ans A). 4 B). 3 C). 6 D). 1

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Correct Answer: A

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Q.2 Among seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G, scored different marks (out of 100) in an exam. A scored the highest. G’s marks
were a multiple of 9, but more than 85. Nobody scored more than 92. The sum of the marks of G and F was 150. D scored
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more than only E. C scored more than F and less than B. E scored 33 marks. Which of the following can be a possible score
for D?
at
Ans A). 62 B). 30 C). 63 D). 48
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.3 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
7, 13, 27, 53, 107, ?
an

Ans A). 203 B). 113 C). 103 D). 213

Correct Answer: D
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Q.4 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
G

12 : 141
8 : 61
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
y

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
B

1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Ans A). 18 : 321 B). 13 : 165 C). 14 : 197 D). 11 : 121

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.5 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 2?
M

Ans A). 1 B). 6 C). 4 D). 5

Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
PQS, ?, ZAC, EFH, JKM
Ans A). SUV B). UVX C). UWX D). TUZ
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.
Statements:
Some balloons are nitrogen.
All balloons are hydrogen.
All hydrogens are helium.
Conclusions:
I. All balloons are helium
II. All nitrogens are heliums.
III. Some heliums are nitrogen.
Ans A). All the conclusions follow B). Only conclusions I and III follow C). Only conclusions I and II follow D). Only conclusions II and III follow

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘a’ means ‘÷’, ‘b’ means ‘+’, ‘c’ means ‘−’ and ‘d’
means ‘×’?
11 b 15 c 8 a 4 d 5 = ?
Ans A). 15 B). 14 C). 17 D). 16
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
668 – 776 – 992
Ans A). 725 – 623 – 542 B). 195 – 285 – 348 C). 144 – 225 – 729 D). 488 – 398 – 299
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
9 : 725
3 : 23
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into

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1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 8 : 315 B). 5 : 128 C). 4 : 60 D). 6 : 220
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

ap
at
Pr
an
ag
G

Ans A). 14 B). 13 C). 15 D). 12

Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.12 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘–‘, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’, what will come in place of the question mark in
the following equation?
hs

7 C 9 B 35 D 5 A 3 = ?
Ans A). 55 B). 49 C). 52 D). 59
at

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.13 What will come in place of the ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
56 + 12 − 54 × 18 ÷ 6 = ?
Ans A). 50 B). 86 C). 26 D). 62
Correct Answer: D

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set.
(13, 41, 89)
(4, 14, 26)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (8, 26, 54) B). (11, 31, 75) C). (12, 38, 80) D). (9, 29, 63)
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.15 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Sugar : Diabetes :: Fat : ________
Ans A). Lethargy B). Obesity C). Insomnia D). Thyroid
Correct Answer: B

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Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
8, 17, 35, 71, ?, 287
Ans A). 131 B). 156 C). 150 ap D). 143
Correct Answer: D
at
Q.18 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
Pr

9:69
11:109
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
an

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag

Ans A). 8:76 B). 16:244 C). 24:576 D). 14:209

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.19 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
y

statements.
B

Statements:
All papers are books.
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Some books are notebooks.

All notebooks are files.
at

Conclusions:
I. Some papers are notebooks.
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II. All books are files.

Ans A). Only conclusion II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: C

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘BEAUTY’ is coded as 71 and ‘RIVER’ is coded as 70. How will ‘PEOPLE’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 65 B). 66 C). 69 D). 67
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely
true, based on the given statements.

Statements:
P≤Q<R<S
T>S>V≥W
Ans A). R > W B). P < T C). P < V D). Q < W
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.22 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All milk are white.
Some white are red.
Conclusions:
I. All red are milk.
II. No red is a milk.
Ans A). Both conclusions I and II follow. B). Only conclusion II follows. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).

Q.24 Ramesh wants to visit his childhood friend’s house. Ramesh’s friend explained his house directions over a text message.
See the below text sent to Ramesh about the direction of his friend’s house and answer the following question accordingly.

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“When you step out of your house, you are facing north. Take a right and walk 3 km, you will see a T-point/junction. Take a

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right and walk 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the roundabout and walk 1 km.
Take a right and walk 3 km. Take a right and walk 1 km. You will find my house at the front.”
In which direction is Ramesh facing at the destination?
Ans A). North B). West C). East apD). South
Correct Answer: A
at
Q.25 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary?
Pr

1. Mimic
2. Million
an

3. Minaret
4. Millstone
ag

5. Mimicry
Ans A). 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 B). 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 C). 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 D). 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
G

Correct Answer: B

Q.26 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
y

339 – 663 – 555

B

348 – 636 – 555

hs

Ans A). 164 – 542 – 614 B). 432 – 513 – 711 C). 195 – 285 – 348 D). 161 – 512 – 710
Correct Answer: C
at

Q.27 Six babies are sitting around a circular dining table, facing the centre. Jo is an immediate neighbour of both Lucy and Stacy.
Eva is sitting second to the right of Lucy. Keith is sitting third to the left of Stacy. Carol is an immediate neighbour of both
M

Eva and Stacy. Who among the following is the immediate neighbour of both Jo and Carol?
Ans A). Lucy B). Eva C). Stacy D). Keith
Correct Answer: C

Q.28 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

ZLPT, LABI, XPNX, ?, VTLB

Ans A). JEZM B). KFAN C). IDAM D). LEYL
Correct Answer: A

Q.29 Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark(?), if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
42 × 7 ÷ 13 – 67 + 13 = ?
Ans A). 129 B). 145 C). 132 D). 121
Correct Answer: C

Q.30 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). U sits to the
immediate right of Q. Only two people sit between U and R. P sits to the immediate left of S. Which of the following
represents the position of T with respect to S?
Ans A). Second to the right B). Second to the left C). Immediate right D). Third to the left
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 Q.31 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Carpenter : Wood :: Mason : _________
Ans A). Stone B). Pipe C). Builder D). Iron
Correct Answer: A

Q.32 Rahul’s father is the only son of Monika’s mother. How is Monika’s husband’s mother-in-law related to Rahul?
Ans A). Mother B). Grandmother C). Aunt D). Sister
Correct Answer: B

Q.33 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels/consonants or their position in the letter-cluster).
Ans A). GDB B). LHF C). ROM D). YVT
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 A man travels 10 km towards the west and turns left and travels 4 km and then travels another 4 km towards the east. He
then turns to his right and travels 5 kms. Then, he turns to his left and travels 6 kms. In which direction is he from his
starting position?
Ans A). West B). North C). East D). South
Correct Answer: D

Q.35 If + means ×, × means −, − means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the given expression?
15 − 3 ÷ 25 × 7 + 3
Ans A). 27 B). 9 C). 69 D). 18
Correct Answer: B

Q.36 In a certain code language, 'LEMON' is coded as OQPIQ and 'BASIL' is coded as MKVEG. How will 'CHILI' be coded in the
same language?

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Ans A). JNLLH B). JNNLH C). HMLNL D). HLLNJ
Correct Answer: A

Q.37
ap
In the word ‘AMBIDEXTROUS’, if the first letter is interchanged with the last letter, the second letter is interchanged with the
eleventh letter, the third letter is interchanged with the tenth letter and so on, then which letter would immediately follow R
in the new arrangement when read from left to right?
at
Ans A). O B). E C). X D). T
Pr

Correct Answer: D

Q.38 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
an

4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

Ans A). 159 B). 151 C). 153 D). 152
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.39 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?
G
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.40 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s
from the given statements.
Statements:
Some pins are clips.
Some clips are papers.
No paper is a book.
Conclusions:
(I) : No book is a pin.
(II) : At least some pins are papers.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) follows. B). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. C). Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D). Only conclusion (II) follows.
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 Q.41 Pointing to a photograph Rani said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the girl in the
photograph related to Rani?
Ans A). Sister B). Cousin C). Brother D). Daughter
Correct Answer: A

Q.42 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). NRI B). SHO C). VER D). JQF
Correct Answer: A

Q.43 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
2 : 11
1:4
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 3 : 27 B). 4 : 65 C). 5 : 128 D). 6 : 217
Correct Answer: C

Q.44 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans
Correct Answer: C

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A). B). C). D).

ap
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Q.45 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Pr

1, 65, 114, ?, 175, 191

Ans A). 154 B). 160 C). 144 D). 150
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.46 What will be the day of the week on 08 June 2030?

ag

Ans A). Sunday B). Monday C). Saturday D). Friday

Correct Answer: C
G

Q.47 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
983, 975, 948, 884, 759, ?
B y

Ans A). 433 B). 733 C). 543 D). 633

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.48 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing the number
‘6’.
at
M

Ans A). 2 B). 4 C). 5 D). 3

Correct Answer: C

Q.49 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
NDJP, PBMM, RZPJ, ?, VVVD
Ans A). SYSF B). TXSG C). SZTF D). UXTG
Correct Answer: B

Q.50 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘–‘, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’ what will come in place of the question mark in
the following equation?
60 D 10 A 4 C 6 B 25 = ?
Ans A). 6 B). 9 C). 10 D). 5
Correct Answer: D

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Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to the Census of India 2011, which group of states is correct about the lowest density of population?
Ans A). Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram B). Mizoram, Haryana C). Mizoram, Manipur D). Meghalaya, Tripura
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the correct combination of the novel and its respective writer.
Ans A). The Blue Umbrella – Ruskin Bond B). The White Tiger – Anita Desai C). The Guide – Mulk Raj Anand D). Untouchable – RK Narayan

Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Which constitutional body conducts recruitments for All India Services?
Ans A). National Commission for Backward Classes B). Union Public Service Commission C). Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
D). National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 The sculptures under the Gandhara School of Art were made of stone, terracotta and _________.
Ans A). concrete B). clay C). granite D). ivory
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Which of the following states emerged as a champion state under the Van Dhan Vikas Yojana in 2021?
Ans A). Meghalaya B). Manipur C). Tripura D). Assam
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 Birsa Munda International Hockey Stadium, which is also the largest seated hockey stadium in the world, is situated in
which of the following states?
Ans A). Uttar Pradesh B). Odisha C). Maharashtra D). Gujrat
Correct Answer: B

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Q.7 The last Indian Olympic games were held in ________.

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Ans A). Bombay B). Lahore C). Delhi D). Calcutta
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Who has assumed charge as the Chairman of ISRO in January 2022? ap
at
Ans A). P Muralidhar B). S Somanath C). KM Rao D). K Sivan
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.9 The Primary Deficit is zero in which of the following situations?

A. Fiscal Deficit is zero.
an

B. Interest payment is equal to Fiscal Deficit.

Ans A). Neither A nor B B). Both A and B C). Only A D). Only B
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Correct Answer: D

Q.10 What is the name of the solution that is employed to identify the existence of starch in food?
G

Ans A). Ammonium chloride B). Chlorine solution C). Iodine solution D). Copper sulphate solution
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.11 What is the vitamin deficiency in milk?

hs

Ans A). A B). C C). B Complex D). D

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.12 Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the leader of which major peasant movement in 1928?
M

Ans A). Jungle Satyagraha B). Dandi Satyagraha C). Champaran Satyagraha D). Bardoli Satyagraha
Correct Answer: D

Q.13 ‘Justice for the Judge’ is the autobiographical work of which retired Chief Justice of India?
Ans A). Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana B). Ranjan Gogoi C). Deepak Misra D). Madam Mohan Punchhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in which year in British India to limit the freedom of the Indian-language press?
Ans A). 1875 B). 1879 C). 1876 D). 1878
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 For the financial year 2022-23, which of the following schemes of the Central Government provides an assured pension rate
of 7.40% per annum, payable monthly?
Ans A). Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana B). Ayushman Sahakar Yojana C). Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana D). Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

Correct Answer: D

Q.16 Identify a structure that plays a role in motility.

Ans A). Fimbria B). Villi C). Flagella D). Pili
Correct Answer: C
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 Q.17

Ans A). i-d,ii-b, iii-c, iv-a B). i-a,ii-b, iii-c, iv-d C). i-a,ii-d, iii-c, iv-b D). i-c,ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Which type of rocks is formed at relatively high temperatures and by crystallization of solids?
Ans A). Igneous rocks B). Sedimentary rocks C). Volcanic rocks D). Metamorphic rocks
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Who among the following was the first independent Gupta king to hold the title of Maharajadhiraj?
Ans A). Srigupta I B). Chandragupta I C). Ramagupta D). Ghatotkach Gupta
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 Which of the following is the correct explanation of painting and sculpture of Ajanta and Elora caves?
Ans A). They are depiction of Buddhist religious art. B). They are designed in Persian art form.
C). They are representations of medieval Islamic art. D). They are symbolic representations of Gods in Judaism.
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Biotic potential is defined as:

Ans A). the tendency of a population to remain constant under extreme environmental conditions
B). the tendency of a population to decrease under extreme environmental conditions

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C). the ability of a population to increase under ideal environmental conditions

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D). the ability of a population to survive and remain constant under ideal environmental conditions
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Who discovered the nucleus of the cell? ap

at
Ans A). Watson B). Robert Brown C). Anton van Leeuwenhoek D). Robert Hook
Correct Answer: B
Pr

Q.23 Madhavi Mudgal is a famous _______ dancer.

an

Ans A). Kathak B). Bharatnatyam C). Odissi D). Manipuri

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.24 The unit of density is:

Ans A). metre cubed B). metre squared C). kilogram metre per second D). kilogram per cubic metre
G

Correct Answer: D
y

Q.25 Who among the following is a famous Sitar player?

B

Ans A). Imrat Khan B). Rashid Khan C). Begum Akhtar D). Asad Ali Khan
Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.26 Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the ______________ Five-Year Plan covering 15 districts.
at

Ans A). Fifth B). Second C). Fourth D). Sixth

Correct Answer: A
M

Q.27 Itmad-ud-daula tomb is situated in which of the following cities?

Ans A). Lucknow B). Agra C). Guntur D). Delhi
Correct Answer: B

Q.28 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Thousand Faces of Night’?
Ans A). Urvashi Butalia B). Namita Gokhale C). Meena Alexander D). Githa Hariharan
Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Indian men's national cricket team created a record by defeating Sri Lanka by 317 runs in the final third match in January
2023 in _________.
Ans A). Rajkot B). Guwahati C). Thiruvananthapuram D). Kolkata
Correct Answer: C

Q.30 Who among the following coined the name oxygen for the element released by mercury oxide in 1779?
Ans A). Martin Klaproth B). John Dalton C). Jons Jacob Berzelius D). Antoine Lavoisier
Correct Answer: D

Q.31 For domestic tariff, one unit of electrical energy consumption is equal to:
Ans A). kilowatt-hour B). milliamps hour C). kilo joule hour D). kilo volt ampere hour
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: A
 Q.32 The major aspect of financial inclusion is enabling the flow of credit to small businesses. In pursuance of the announcement
in the Union Budget 2015-16, the Micro Units Development finance Agency (MUDRA) was set up and this led to which of the
below mentioned schemes?
Ans A). Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) B). Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram C). Bhasha Sangam Initiative
D). Mission Indradhanush
Correct Answer: A

Q.33 Which of the following National Waterways is the longest in India?

Ans A). West Coast Canal (Kottapuram - Kollam), Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals
B). North Buckingham Canal (Peddaganjam to Central Station of Chennai) C). Brahmaputra River (Dhubri - Sadiya)
D). Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System (Haldia - Allahabad)
Correct Answer: D

Q.34 Guruvayur Dorai is associated with playing the ________.

Ans A). Sarangi B). Tabla C). Mridangam D). Rudra Veena
Correct Answer: C

Q.35 Which of the following administrative units was introduced during the reign of Shahjahan?
Ans A). Paraganas B). Mahals C). Subah D). Chakla
Correct Answer: D

Q.36 Which of the following is a reason for India trade deficit?

Ans A). India has stopped imports B). India’s exports and imports are equal C). India’s imports are less than its exports
D). India’s exports are less than its imports
Correct Answer: D

Q.37 Which of the following States is a part of Panjnad (land of five rivers)?
Ans A). Kerala B). Gujarat C). Sikkim D). Punjab

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Correct Answer: D

Si
Q.38 Which of the following organisations was NOT associated with Vinayak Damodar Savarkar?
Ans A). Free India Society B). Hindu Mahasabha C). Servants of India Society
apD). Abhinav Bharat Society
Correct Answer: C
at
Q.39 Generally, with development, the share of agricultural sector ______.
Pr

Ans A). decreases B). increases C). remains constant D). remains stable
Correct Answer: A
an

Q.40 Identify another name of Choanocytes.

Ans A). Flame cells B). Sperm cells C). Stem cells D). Collar cells
ag

Correct Answer: D

Q.41 What is the percentage of the disabled population in India according to the 2011 census?
G

Ans A). 2.21% B). 2.97% C). 3.63% D). 1.33%

Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.42 Chad Laho is a dance-festival, primarily celebrated by which of the following tribes of Meghalaya?
hs

Ans A). Hojang B). Jaintia C). Khasi D). Garo

Correct Answer: B
at

Q.43 The book ‘All Roads Lead to Ganga’ has been written by which famous author?
M

Ans A). Amish Tripathi B). Devdutt Pattanaik C). Ruskin Bond D). Sudha Murthy
Correct Answer: C

Q.44 ________ dance icon Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma enjoys a pre-eminent place in the ‘stree-vesham’ hall of fame.
Ans A). Kathak B). Mohiniyattam C). Kuchipudi D). Bharatnatyam
Correct Answer: C

Q.45 Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty is given under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Article 20 B). Article 22 C). Article 23 D). Article 21
Correct Answer: D

Q.46 Where was the 2022 FIFA World Cup held?

Ans A). Qatar B). Tokyo C). England D). France
Correct Answer: A

Q.47 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the rule of Chandragupta II?
A) Chandragupta II adopted the title ‘Vikramaditya’.
B)Kalidasa and Amarasimha were part of his court.
Ans A). Only B B). Only A C). Neither A nor B D). Both A and B
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.48 The term ‘square leg’ is related to which of the following games?
Ans A). Cricket B). Football C). Volleyball D). Baseball
Correct Answer: A

Q.49 Which physicist was famous for the gold foil experiment?
Ans A). Ernest Rutherford B). Niels Bohr C). JJ Thomson D). John Dalton
Correct Answer: A

Q.50 Which of the following festivals is celebrated to welcome the spring season in India?
Ans A). Deepawali B). Holi C). Makar Sankranti D). Raja Parba
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

There ______ been too many incidents of thefts lately.
Ans A). have B). was C). has D). has not
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

P. some experienced teachers say that

Q. teaching about English is easy and
R. teaching English is difficult as
S. the latter needs dedication, resources and many more
Ans A). PSRQ B). PQRS C). PRSQ D). PSQR
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

r
Si
He must be written to by us.
Ans A). We are writing to him. B). We must write to him. C). We can write. D). I have been writing to him.
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
ap
at
She told her friend that she had been studying for her examination.
Pr

Ans A). She told her friend, “I had studied for my examination.” B). She tells her friend, “I have been studying for my examination.”
C). She told her friend, “I am studying for my examination.” D). She told her friend, “I was studying for my examination.”
Correct Answer: D
an

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
ag

A Himalayas stretch across / the north-east part / of India and pass / through many countries.
G

Ans A). the north-east part B). through many countries C). A Himalayas stretch across D). of India and pass
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

Sarika’s husband had been undergoing vicissitudes in his fortune since 2002.
hs

Ans A). hibernations B). consolations C). compilations D). tribulations

Correct Answer: D
at

Q.7 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
M

and coherent paragraph.

A.Positive thinking leads a man to success. One who thinks that he can achieve the things will put his best to achieve.
B.Self-confidence, determination, perseverance, and hard work are the key factors of success.
C.He will not fetter by the problems in the path of success and one day he will win positively.
D.Every small or big, easy, or complex problem has its solution. There is a way out of every labyrinth, there is an answer to
every enigma.
Ans A). D, C, B, A B). B, C, A, D C). C, D, B, A D). A, C, B, D
Correct Answer: D

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Calling me a friend, Surjit Singh encouraged me and advised me not to lose heart.
Ans A). Surjit Singh demanded, “Cheer up, friend. Do not lose heart.” B). Surjit Singh said, “Cheer up, friend. Do not lose heart.”
C). Surjit Singh asked me, “Cheer up, friend. Do not lose heart.” D). Surjit Singh ordered me, “Cheer up, friend. Do not lose heart.”

Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On the ball
Ans A). To not understand a situation well B). To be unaware of any changes happening around C). To be inattentive
D). To be aware of any changes or developments and quick to react to them
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: D
 Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Somebody paid the workers 2000 rupees.

Ans A). The workers were paid 2000 rupees. B). 2000 rupees has been paid to the workers. C). 2000 rupees is paid to the workers.
D). The workers were being paid 2000 rupees.
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

The manager said to the peon, “Why were you absent yesterday?”
Ans A). The manager asked the peon why had he been absent the previous day.
B). The manager asked the peon why he was absent the previous day.
C). The manager asked the peon why he had been absent the previous day.
D). The manager enquired why the peon was absent the previous day.
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
So Mahesh is much sensitive, / we are very careful / when communicating with him / about his failures.
Ans A). we are very careful B). when communicating with him C). So Mahesh is much sensitive, D). about his failures
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
I shall be cook my favourite dish tonight for the party.
Ans A). tonight for B). my favourite dish C). I shall be cook D). the party
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
The father said, “Ramu, try again”.

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Ans A). The father said that Ramu tries again. B). The father told Ramu that he tried again. C). The father requested Ramu to try again.

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D). The father advised Ramu to try again.
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Made his mark
ap
at
Ans A). To make a colourful exit B). To take a stand C). To fail in the task D). To distinguish himself
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.16 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
He said, “Alas! I am a ruined man.”
an

Ans A). He cried out with sorrow that he was a ruined man. B). He wished that he was a ruined man.
ag

C). He confessed with sorrow that he was a ruined man. D). He applauded with sorrow that he was a ruined man.
Correct Answer: A
G

Q.17 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
y

I shared a clipping of myself dead-lifting and doing back squats.

B

Ans A). A clipping of myself doing dead-lifting and back squats are being shared by me.
hs

B). A clipping of myself doing dead-lifting and back squats was shared by me.
C). A clipping of myself doing dead-lifting and back squats is shared by me. D). Dead-lifting and back squats are being done by myself.
at

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Adult Education is a great step that must be taken by all the countries as it will __________ a lot of issues. The third world
countries must especially work to make this happen so they can prosper.
Ans A). permeate B). stagnate C). resolve D). contradict
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.

Milk of human kindness

Ans A). Compassion B). Bravery C). Victory D). Luck
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Stones were thrown at the dog.
Ans A). They had been throwing stones at the dog. B). They threw stones at the dog. C). They were throwing stones at the dog.
D). They throw stones at the dog.
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The business operates ________ the same way as the other businesses did.
Ans A). had B). such C). much D). very
Correct Answer: C

Q.22 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Intent
Ans A). uncertain B). alert C). involved D). rigid
Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The experiment is being completed by the whole class.
Ans A). The whole class is completing the experiment. B). The whole class has been completing experiment.
C). The whole class has completed the experiment. D). The whole class completes the experiment.
Correct Answer: A

Q.24 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

His lecture was terse and interesting.

Ans A). inert B). short C). braggart D). overt
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in indirect speech.

“I have not completed the assignment yet,” the student admitted.

Ans A). The student admitted that he/she hadn’t been able to complete the assignment yet.
B). The student admitted that he/she hasn’t completed the assignment yet.
C). The student admitted that he/she hadn’t completed the assignment yet.

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Si
D). The student admitted that he/she hasn't been able to complete the assignment yet.
Correct Answer: C

Q.26
ap
Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
at
(P) the paintings of Sayed Haider Raza blended
Pr

(Q) considered as one of the

(R) foremost pioneers of Indian modern art
(S) parisian modernism with the colours of Indian Rajput art
an

Ans A). P, S, Q, R B). P, Q, R, S C). Q, R, P, S D). R, P, S, Q

Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.27 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Though the / global financial crisis, / China's economy continues / to grow at an impressive rate.
G

Ans A). global financial crisis, B). china's economy continues C). Though the D). to grow at an impressive rate.
Correct Answer: C
B y

Q.28 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
People think the government will change the economic policies.
hs

Ans A). People thought that the government will change the economic policies.
at

B). The government has been thinking to change the economic policies. C). The government will think to change the economic policies.
D). It is thought that the economic policies will be changed by the government.
M

Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
When is this car driven by you?
Ans A). When do you drive this car? B). When did you drive this car? C). When should you drive this car? D). When will you drive this car?

Correct Answer: A

Q.30 Select the sentence that requires the article ‘the’.

Ans A). They share rent of the house equally. B). She is ignorant of her social standing. C). She has an abundance of cake at home.
D). He lives somewhere in southern Germany.
Correct Answer: A

Q.31 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
While I was waiting for Asha for shopping, I spilled lemonade on my new trousers
Ans A). to hold shop B). to shop C). to see shopping D). to shopper
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.32 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The letter had been posted by me before I met him.

Ans A). I met him after posting the letter. B). I had posted the letter before I met him. C). I had posted the letter after meeting him.
D). The letter has been posted by me before I had met him.
Correct Answer: B

Q.33 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
Tom said that he had a strange experience the day before.
Ans A). Tom exclaimed, "What a strange experience it was!" B). Tom said, “I had a strange experience yesterday.”
C). Tom said, “I must have a strange experience the day before.” D). Tom said, “I will have a strange experience the day before.”

Correct Answer: B

Q.34 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence and forms a
meaningful sentence.
The first part 'He wrapped himself' is fixed.

He wrapped himself / two sweatshirts (P) / with a blanket, (Q) / was wearing (R) / though he (S)
Ans A). S, P, Q, R B). Q, R, P, S C). Q, S, R, P D). P, Q, S, R
Correct Answer: C

Q.35 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
When will you play the musical instrument in the event?
Ans A). When will the music instrument be played in the event? B). When will the music instrument be played by you in the event?
C). When should the music instrument be played by you in the event? D). When was the music instrument played by you in the event?

Correct Answer: B

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Si
Q.36 Change the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech:
She said, “Don’t the children like the cake?”
Ans A). She asked whether the children liked the cake.
C). she asked me whether the children didn’t like the cake. ap
B). She enquired about whether the children liked the cake.
D). She wondered why the children didn’t like the cake.
Correct Answer: C
at
Pr

Q.37 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to replace the italicised word in the given sentence.
I am astonished to see her mercurial demeanour in making any task a success.
Ans A). invariable B). capricious C). fluctuant D). erratic
an

Correct Answer: A

Q.38 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

ag

Mutely
G

Ans A). Silently B). Forcefully C). Promptly D). Loudly

Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.39 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
She looked tired and sallow after the long day she’d had.
hs

Ans A). Flushed B). Livid C). Paled D). Pallid

Correct Answer: A
at

Q.40 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
M

Mr. Suman opened the door.

Ans A). The door is being opened by Mr. Suman. B). The door was opened by Mr. Suman. C). The door was being opened by Mr. Suman.
D). The door is opened by Mr. Suman.
Correct Answer: B

Q.41 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Leo Tolstoy wrote many stories for children.
Ans A). Many children wrote stories for Leo Tolstoy. B). Many stories were written for children by Leo Tolstoy.
C). Many stories have been written for children by Leo Tolstoy. D). Many stories were written by children for Leo Tolstoy.
Correct Answer: B

Q.42 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The questions were framed by the content creators just to assess the skills of the test takers.
Ans A). The content creators could frame the questions just to assess the skills of the test takers.
B). The content creators framed the questions just to assess the skills of the test takers.
C). The content creators had framed the questions just to assess the skills of the test takers.
D). The content creators were framing the questions just to assess the skills of the test takers.
Click To Join Telegram - Maths By Gagan Pratap Sir Correct Answer: B
 Q.43 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Raghu did not get the job / because he did not have / experience enough for the post.
Ans A). Raghu did not get the job B). No error C). because he did not have D). experience enough for the post
Correct Answer: D

Q.44 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Amrit felt a chill run down his spine as Mrityu gazed at him mid-conversation.
Ans A). shot B). stared C). shouted D). glanced
Correct Answer: D

Q.45 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

It was just an action in the nick of time that prepared all of us for further arrangements.
Ans A). Just in time B). Delayed as expected C). Unnatural happenings D). Forceful labour
Correct Answer: A

Q.46 Select the word segment that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the sentence meaningfully.
(Everyone carefully were trying to) reason with the CEO regarding the need for work-life balance during the upcoming
festivals.
Ans A). Everyone were carefully trying to B). Everyone was carefully trying to C). Everyone had carefully trying to
D). Everyone did carefully tried to
Correct Answer: B

Q.47 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence.
Take a lot of care in writing official letters because they leave a trail behind.
Ans A). a lasting impression B). a sound effect C). a longing desire D). a temporary exposure
Correct Answer: A

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Q.48 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful

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and coherent paragraph.
(A) Ask your employer for information on the child care scheme.
(B) If the employer does not contribute to the costs, the government will do so.
(C) The employers of both parents are expected to contribute to child care.
(D) The Government policy on child care was designed as a welfare scheme for citizens.
ap
at
Ans A). BACD B). CDBA C). DCAB D). BDAC
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Q.49 Identify the error in the following sentence.

an

I always love to eat snacks at the evening.

Ans A). to B). snacks C). at D). always
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.50 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

G

The enemy, even if it is a child, is a challenge and needs to be removed from his path.
y

Ans A). nuisance B). problem C). solution D). threat

B

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.51 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

at

To have sticky fingers

Ans A). To punish for a crime B). To have a tendency to steal C). To remain joyful in a difficult situation D). To be suspicious
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Correct Answer: B

Q.52 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The seven ________ for accreditation were presented in a seminar organised by the university.
Ans A). criterions B). criterion C). criteria D). criterias
Correct Answer: C

Q.53 Identify the segment that contains an error in the given sentence.

Gandhi ji considered it wrongly to use unfair means even for fair ends.
Ans A). to use unfair means B). Gandhi ji considered C). it wrongly D). even for fair ends
Correct Answer: C

Q.54 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Inquisitive
Ans A). Curious B). Indolent C). Uninterested D). Dull
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.55 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Call it a day
Ans A). To reach the destination B). To stop worrying over something C). To decide to stop doing something D). To avoid meeting someone

Correct Answer: C

Q.56 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
They said, "We were planning to visit you next week."
Ans A). They said that they had been planning to visit him the following week. B). They said that they had planned to visit him next week.
C). They said that they have been planning to visit him next week. D). They said that they are planning to visit him the coming week.

Correct Answer: A

Q.57 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “My mother will be here tomorrow.”

Ans A). He said that my mother will be here the next day. B). He said that my mother will be here tomorrow.
C). He said that his mother would be there the next day. D). He said that his mother would be here tomorrow.
Correct Answer: C

Q.58 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The boss said to the secretary, “Don’t forget to order A3 size paper.”
Ans A). The boss told the secretary that she didn’t forget to order A3 size paper. B). The boss asked the secretary to order A3 size paper.
C). The boss told the secretary that she should not forget to order A3 size paper.
D). The boss instructed the secretary not to forget to order A3 size paper.
Correct Answer: D

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Q.59 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Si
The bridge that connect the two sides of the city broke today.
Ans A). that have been connecting B). that connects C). that have connect D). that has connect

Q.60
ap Correct Answer: B

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
at
Pr

O) arid deserts
P) from lush forests to
Q) hikers encountered diverse ecosystems
R) trekking through the wilderness
an

Ans A). PRQO B). OPQR C). QPOR D). RQPO

Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.61 Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.
G

Jack was given the responsibility of driving, as he was the only teetotaller.
Ans A). Person who completely abstains from intoxicating drinks like alcohol B). Person who habitually drinks to the point of losing control
B y

C). Person with imagination and creative potential D). Responsible citizen of the country with high self-esteem
Correct Answer: A
hs

Q.62 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

It may seem __________ that the hours of women’s chores at home have not declined inspite of the availability of many
at

appliances (gas, electric ranges, washing machines, etc.)

M

Ans A). promising B). persisting C). perceiving D). perplexing

Correct Answer: D

Q.63 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Villagers / who approached the agriculture officer / are uneducated and poor.
Ans A). who approached the agriculture officer B). No error C). are uneducated and poor D). Villagers
Correct Answer: D

Q.64 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
“Why is he crying?” he asked.
Ans A). She asked why he is crying. B). He asked why she crying. C). She asked why he was crying. D). He asked why he was crying.

Correct Answer: D

Q.65 The following sentence contains four underlined words and are given as options. Identify the option that contains an error.
They were sitting on the chairs in the class talking to each other when they entered in a heated argument.
Ans A). When B). In C). On D). To
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.66 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options.
I am sorry / to intrude by / you at / such a time.
Ans A). such a time. B). you at C). to intrude by D). I am sorry
Correct Answer: C

Q.67 Select the correct version of the following sentence.

He would be meet us next week.
Ans A). He will be meet us next week. B). He would be meets us next week. C). He would not be met us next week.
D). He will be meeting us next week.
Correct Answer: D

Q.68 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abandon
Ans A). Possess B). Desert C). Reclaim D). Commence
Correct Answer: B

Q.69 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
Doctor she spoke to at a exhibition was very knowledgeable. The medicines prescribed by him have proved excellent for my
father.
Ans A). The doctor she spoke to at the exhibition was very knowledgeable. A medicines prescribed by him have proved excellent for my father.
B). Doctor she spoke to at the exhibition was very knowledgeable. The medicines prescribed by him have proved excellent for my father.
C). The doctor she spoke to at the exhibition was very knowledgeable. The medicines prescribed by him have proved excellent for my father.
D). The doctor she spoke to at exhibition was very knowledgeable. The medicines prescribed by him have proved excellent for my father.

Correct Answer: C

Q.70 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

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His request was overlooked by the management.

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Ans A). Disdained B). Neglected C). Ignored D). Considered
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

Child prodigies are a miraculous category of children that (1)________ bestowed with undying attention because of their exceptional
skills in every domain of their curricula. When we speak of (2)________ changes in society, we grant its responsibility to child
prodigies. (3)________ these are children who thrive everywhere, their parents are overjoyed when they win the lottery, and their
peers are envious of them, research shows that young prodigies rarely go on to change the course of history. According to
an

psychologists, many of history’s most (4)________ and important figures weren’t particularly talented as kids. To paraphrase TS Eliot,
their careers tend to end not with a bang, but (5)________.
ag

Although child prodigies frequently possess a wealth of intelligence and ambition, their inability to develop unique thoughts prevents
them from advancing society.
G

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
B y

Ans A). are B). is C). was D). were

Correct Answer: A
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

Child prodigies are a miraculous category of children that (1)________ bestowed with undying attention because of their exceptional
skills in every domain of their curricula. When we speak of (2)________ changes in society, we grant its responsibility to child
prodigies. (3)________ these are children who thrive everywhere, their parents are overjoyed when they win the lottery, and their
peers are envious of them, research shows that young prodigies rarely go on to change the course of history. According to
psychologists, many of history’s most (4)________ and important figures weren’t particularly talented as kids. To paraphrase TS Eliot,
their careers tend to end not with a bang, but (5)________.
Although child prodigies frequently possess a wealth of intelligence and ambition, their inability to develop unique thoughts prevents
them from advancing society.

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). ordinary B). remarkable C). forgotten D). professional
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Child prodigies are a miraculous category of children that (1)________ bestowed with undying attention because of their exceptional
skills in every domain of their curricula. When we speak of (2)________ changes in society, we grant its responsibility to child
prodigies. (3)________ these are children who thrive everywhere, their parents are overjoyed when they win the lottery, and their
peers are envious of them, research shows that young prodigies rarely go on to change the course of history. According to
psychologists, many of history’s most (4)________ and important figures weren’t particularly talented as kids. To paraphrase TS Eliot,
their careers tend to end not with a bang, but (5)________.
Although child prodigies frequently possess a wealth of intelligence and ambition, their inability to develop unique thoughts prevents
them from advancing society.

SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). So that B). Nonetheless C). Neither D). Which
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Child prodigies are a miraculous category of children that (1)________ bestowed with undying attention because of their exceptional
skills in every domain of their curricula. When we speak of (2)________ changes in society, we grant its responsibility to child
prodigies. (3)________ these are children who thrive everywhere, their parents are overjoyed when they win the lottery, and their
peers are envious of them, research shows that young prodigies rarely go on to change the course of history. According to
psychologists, many of history’s most (4)________ and important figures weren’t particularly talented as kids. To paraphrase TS Eliot,
their careers tend to end not with a bang, but (5)________.
Although child prodigies frequently possess a wealth of intelligence and ambition, their inability to develop unique thoughts prevents
them from advancing society.

SubQuestion No : 74

r
Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Si
Ans A). dumb B). researcher C). lame D). notable
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension: ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
at
each blank.
Pr

Child prodigies are a miraculous category of children that (1)________ bestowed with undying attention because of their exceptional
skills in every domain of their curricula. When we speak of (2)________ changes in society, we grant its responsibility to child
prodigies. (3)________ these are children who thrive everywhere, their parents are overjoyed when they win the lottery, and their
peers are envious of them, research shows that young prodigies rarely go on to change the course of history. According to
an

psychologists, many of history’s most (4)________ and important figures weren’t particularly talented as kids. To paraphrase TS Eliot,
their careers tend to end not with a bang, but (5)________.
ag

Although child prodigies frequently possess a wealth of intelligence and ambition, their inability to develop unique thoughts prevents
them from advancing society.
G

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
B y

Ans A). a whimper B). an impalpable C). an indomitable D). a reconcile

Correct Answer: A
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
M

A savanna is a kind of rolling grassland dotted with isolated trees and shrubs. The grasslands of Australia are known as the bush. The
grassland plains of North America are referred to as the prairie. A vast plain with hills and forests is called savanna. Africa has the
(1)______ savannas. In the savanna of Africa, wet and dry are the two seasons. The dry season is shorter for two to three months
near the equator, longer for nine to ten months near the tropics, and longer for five to six months in the majority of the savanna. Heavy
downpours (2)______ during the wet seasons. In the dry seasons,vegetative life develops exceptionally quickly. Savanna grass rises
two to three metres whereas forests are sparse. There are places where there aren’t many trees. Strong evaporation (3)_______ tree
leaves to fall off and bushes and grass to wither during the dry season. It frequently starts a fire that spreads to large areas.
Everything (4)_______ so lovely during the wet season—grass sprouts, trees and bushes turn green, and so on. Take a stroll through
the savanna to see a (5)________ of animals, including elephants, giraffes, and zebras. The savanna is also home to the lion, the
animal king.

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). heaviest B). fattest C). cleverest D). biggest
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A savanna is a kind of rolling grassland dotted with isolated trees and shrubs. The grasslands of Australia are known as the bush. The
grassland plains of North America are referred to as the prairie. A vast plain with hills and forests is called savanna. Africa has the
(1)______ savannas. In the savanna of Africa, wet and dry are the two seasons. The dry season is shorter for two to three months
near the equator, longer for nine to ten months near the tropics, and longer for five to six months in the majority of the savanna. Heavy
downpours (2)______ during the wet seasons. In the dry seasons,vegetative life develops exceptionally quickly. Savanna grass rises
two to three metres whereas forests are sparse. There are places where there aren’t many trees. Strong evaporation (3)_______ tree
leaves to fall off and bushes and grass to wither during the dry season. It frequently starts a fire that spreads to large areas.
Everything (4)_______ so lovely during the wet season—grass sprouts, trees and bushes turn green, and so on. Take a stroll through
the savanna to see a (5)________ of animals, including elephants, giraffes, and zebras. The savanna is also home to the lion, the
animal king.

SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). pass B). occur C). conquer D). materialise
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A savanna is a kind of rolling grassland dotted with isolated trees and shrubs. The grasslands of Australia are known as the bush. The
grassland plains of North America are referred to as the prairie. A vast plain with hills and forests is called savanna. Africa has the
(1)______ savannas. In the savanna of Africa, wet and dry are the two seasons. The dry season is shorter for two to three months
near the equator, longer for nine to ten months near the tropics, and longer for five to six months in the majority of the savanna. Heavy
downpours (2)______ during the wet seasons. In the dry seasons,vegetative life develops exceptionally quickly. Savanna grass rises
two to three metres whereas forests are sparse. There are places where there aren’t many trees. Strong evaporation (3)_______ tree
leaves to fall off and bushes and grass to wither during the dry season. It frequently starts a fire that spreads to large areas.

r
Everything (4)_______ so lovely during the wet season—grass sprouts, trees and bushes turn green, and so on. Take a stroll through

Si
the savanna to see a (5)________ of animals, including elephants, giraffes, and zebras. The savanna is also home to the lion, the
animal king.

SubQuestion No : 78 ap
at
Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). root B). source C). causes D). reason
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
an

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ag

A savanna is a kind of rolling grassland dotted with isolated trees and shrubs. The grasslands of Australia are known as the bush. The
G

grassland plains of North America are referred to as the prairie. A vast plain with hills and forests is called savanna. Africa has the
(1)______ savannas. In the savanna of Africa, wet and dry are the two seasons. The dry season is shorter for two to three months
near the equator, longer for nine to ten months near the tropics, and longer for five to six months in the majority of the savanna. Heavy
y

downpours (2)______ during the wet seasons. In the dry seasons,vegetative life develops exceptionally quickly. Savanna grass rises
B

two to three metres whereas forests are sparse. There are places where there aren’t many trees. Strong evaporation (3)_______ tree
leaves to fall off and bushes and grass to wither during the dry season. It frequently starts a fire that spreads to large areas.
hs

Everything (4)_______ so lovely during the wet season—grass sprouts, trees and bushes turn green, and so on. Take a stroll through
the savanna to see a (5)________ of animals, including elephants, giraffes, and zebras. The savanna is also home to the lion, the
at

animal king.
M

SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). studies B). gapes C). examines D). looks
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A savanna is a kind of rolling grassland dotted with isolated trees and shrubs. The grasslands of Australia are known as the bush. The
grassland plains of North America are referred to as the prairie. A vast plain with hills and forests is called savanna. Africa has the
(1)______ savannas. In the savanna of Africa, wet and dry are the two seasons. The dry season is shorter for two to three months
near the equator, longer for nine to ten months near the tropics, and longer for five to six months in the majority of the savanna. Heavy
downpours (2)______ during the wet seasons. In the dry seasons,vegetative life develops exceptionally quickly. Savanna grass rises
two to three metres whereas forests are sparse. There are places where there aren’t many trees. Strong evaporation (3)_______ tree
leaves to fall off and bushes and grass to wither during the dry season. It frequently starts a fire that spreads to large areas.
Everything (4)_______ so lovely during the wet season—grass sprouts, trees and bushes turn green, and so on. Take a stroll through
the savanna to see a (5)________ of animals, including elephants, giraffes, and zebras. The savanna is also home to the lion, the
animal king.

SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). mixture B). array C). peak D). variety
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Shan's mother passed away a month ago. From that very moment, his life underwent a drastic change. Life became (1)_______ for
him. He would often lock himself (2)______ in his room and did not come out for hours together. That was a usual day, he locked
himself. When the day turned into night and he did not come out, his elder sister got anxious and knocked at the door (3)________.
She struggled with the lock of the door but when she failed, she called some people for help. While those people were busy in
breaking the lock of the door, they heard the (4)______ of porcelain from inside. They tried hard to open the door and ultimately
succeeded. On entering, they found Shan's body lying on the floor with arms and legs (5)_______. His sister wondered who could
have broken the plate. All she wished Shan to rest in peace and meet their dead mother .

r
SubQuestion No : 81

Si
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). intolerable B). ecstatic C). comfortable
ap D). satisfactory
Correct Answer: A
at
Comprehension:
Pr

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Shan's mother passed away a month ago. From that very moment, his life underwent a drastic change. Life became (1)_______ for
him. He would often lock himself (2)______ in his room and did not come out for hours together. That was a usual day, he locked
an

himself. When the day turned into night and he did not come out, his elder sister got anxious and knocked at the door (3)________.
She struggled with the lock of the door but when she failed, she called some people for help. While those people were busy in
ag

breaking the lock of the door, they heard the (4)______ of porcelain from inside. They tried hard to open the door and ultimately
succeeded. On entering, they found Shan's body lying on the floor with arms and legs (5)_______. His sister wondered who could
G

have broken the plate. All she wished Shan to rest in peace and meet their dead mother .

SubQuestion No : 82
y

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

B

Ans A). up B). off C). out D). over

Correct Answer: A
hs

Comprehension:
at

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
M

each blank.
Shan's mother passed away a month ago. From that very moment, his life underwent a drastic change. Life became (1)_______ for
him. He would often lock himself (2)______ in his room and did not come out for hours together. That was a usual day, he locked
himself. When the day turned into night and he did not come out, his elder sister got anxious and knocked at the door (3)________.
She struggled with the lock of the door but when she failed, she called some people for help. While those people were busy in
breaking the lock of the door, they heard the (4)______ of porcelain from inside. They tried hard to open the door and ultimately
succeeded. On entering, they found Shan's body lying on the floor with arms and legs (5)_______. His sister wondered who could
have broken the plate. All she wished Shan to rest in peace and meet their dead mother .

SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans A). unconsciously B). sincerely C). relentlessly D). conscientiously
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Shan's mother passed away a month ago. From that very moment, his life underwent a drastic change. Life became (1)_______ for
him. He would often lock himself (2)______ in his room and did not come out for hours together. That was a usual day, he locked
himself. When the day turned into night and he did not come out, his elder sister got anxious and knocked at the door (3)________.
She struggled with the lock of the door but when she failed, she called some people for help. While those people were busy in
breaking the lock of the door, they heard the (4)______ of porcelain from inside. They tried hard to open the door and ultimately
succeeded. On entering, they found Shan's body lying on the floor with arms and legs (5)_______. His sister wondered who could
have broken the plate. All she wished Shan to rest in peace and meet their dead mother .

SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans A). rattling B). jingling C). spinning D). smashing
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Shan's mother passed away a month ago. From that very moment, his life underwent a drastic change. Life became (1)_______ for
him. He would often lock himself (2)______ in his room and did not come out for hours together. That was a usual day, he locked
himself. When the day turned into night and he did not come out, his elder sister got anxious and knocked at the door (3)________.
She struggled with the lock of the door but when she failed, she called some people for help. While those people were busy in
breaking the lock of the door, they heard the (4)______ of porcelain from inside. They tried hard to open the door and ultimately
succeeded. On entering, they found Shan's body lying on the floor with arms and legs (5)_______. His sister wondered who could
have broken the plate. All she wished Shan to rest in peace and meet their dead mother .

SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans A). spacious B). poles apart C). outspread D). momentum

r
Correct Answer: C

Si
Comprehension:

each blank. ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

Centuries ago, Aryabhata, one of the most famous Indian mathematicians and astronomers (1)__________ the concept of zero, the
at
base of the present (2)_______ system. With time, zero became a stepping stone to (3)_______ simplified computations, (4)______
Pr

the ways for development of algebra, algorithms and calculus, three pillars of modern mathematics, while eventually laying the
(5)______ for computers.

SubQuestion No : 86
an

Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.

ag

Ans A). propounded B). propounds C). has propounded D). propound
Correct Answer: A
G

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
y

each blank.
B

Centuries ago, Aryabhata, one of the most famous Indian mathematicians and astronomers (1)__________ the concept of zero, the
base of the present (2)_______ system. With time, zero became a stepping stone to (3)_______ simplified computations, (4)______
hs

the ways for development of algebra, algorithms and calculus, three pillars of modern mathematics, while eventually laying the
(5)______ for computers.
at

SubQuestion No : 87
M

Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.

Ans A). numerically B). numerology C). numerological D). numeral
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Centuries ago, Aryabhata, one of the most famous Indian mathematicians and astronomers (1)__________ the concept of zero, the
base of the present (2)_______ system. With time, zero became a stepping stone to (3)_______ simplified computations, (4)______
the ways for development of algebra, algorithms and calculus, three pillars of modern mathematics, while eventually laying the
(5)______ for computers.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
Ans A). scarcely B). sadly C). many D). much
Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Centuries ago, Aryabhata, one of the most famous Indian mathematicians and astronomers (1)__________ the concept of zero, the
base of the present (2)_______ system. With time, zero became a stepping stone to (3)_______ simplified computations, (4)______
the ways for development of algebra, algorithms and calculus, three pillars of modern mathematics, while eventually laying the
(5)______ for computers.

SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.
Ans A). have paved B). paving C). has been paved D). was paved
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Centuries ago, Aryabhata, one of the most famous Indian mathematicians and astronomers (1)__________ the concept of zero, the
base of the present (2)_______ system. With time, zero became a stepping stone to (3)_______ simplified computations, (4)______
the ways for development of algebra, algorithms and calculus, three pillars of modern mathematics, while eventually laying the
(5)______ for computers.

SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.
Ans A). foundation B). activation C). creation D). origin
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The use of plastic bags has been a contentious issue for many years. On one hand, they are convenient for carrying groceries and

r
other items. On the other hand, they are a major contributor to pollution and can have devastating effects on the environment.

Si
One of the main causes of plastic bag pollution is their widespread use. They are given out for free at almost every store and are used
for just a few minutes before being discarded. This means that there are billions of plastic bags in circulation at any given time, many
of which end up as litter on streets, in parks, and in waterways.

ap
Another cause of plastic bag pollution is their slow degradation. Plastic bags can take up to 1,000 years to decompose, which means
that they will continue to pollute the environment for centuries to come. This is especially problematic in oceans where they can harm
marine life and damage ecosystems.
at
The effects of plastic bag pollution are wide-ranging and can be devastating. They can harm wildlife and marine life, damage
Pr

ecosystems, and even contribute to the spread of disease. Plastic bags that end up in oceans can be mistaken as food by marine
animals, leading to starvation or suffocation. They can also entangle animals, making it difficult for them to move or escape predators.
Plastic bags can also damage coral reefs, which are vital habitats for many species of marine life.
In addition to harming wildlife, plastic bags can also affect human health. Plastic bags that end up in waterways can contaminate
an

drinking water and food sources, leading to the spread of disease. They can also block drainage systems, causing flooding and other
problems.
ag

To address the problem of plastic bag pollution, many cities and countries have implemented plastic bag bans or fees. These policies
have been effective in reducing the use of plastic bags and in turn reducing pollution. Consumers can also take action by choosing to
G

bring reusable bags when shopping, or by using paper bags instead of plastic bags.
In conclusion, the use of plastic bags has severe consequences on the environment and human health. The cause of the problem is
the widespread use and slow degradation of plastic bags, while the effects are wide-ranging and can be devastating. To mitigate these
y

effects, individuals and governments can take actions such as implementing plastic bag bans, choosing to use reusable bags or paper
B

bags instead of plastic bags.

hs

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
at

Contaminate
M

Ans A). Collect B). Pollute C). Purify D). Extract

Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The use of plastic bags has been a contentious issue for many years. On one hand, they are convenient for carrying groceries and
other items. On the other hand, they are a major contributor to pollution and can have devastating effects on the environment.
One of the main causes of plastic bag pollution is their widespread use. They are given out for free at almost every store and are used
for just a few minutes before being discarded. This means that there are billions of plastic bags in circulation at any given time, many
of which end up as litter on streets, in parks, and in waterways.
Another cause of plastic bag pollution is their slow degradation. Plastic bags can take up to 1,000 years to decompose, which means
that they will continue to pollute the environment for centuries to come. This is especially problematic in oceans where they can harm
marine life and damage ecosystems.
The effects of plastic bag pollution are wide-ranging and can be devastating. They can harm wildlife and marine life, damage
ecosystems, and even contribute to the spread of disease. Plastic bags that end up in oceans can be mistaken as food by marine
animals, leading to starvation or suffocation. They can also entangle animals, making it difficult for them to move or escape predators.
Plastic bags can also damage coral reefs, which are vital habitats for many species of marine life.
In addition to harming wildlife, plastic bags can also affect human health. Plastic bags that end up in waterways can contaminate
drinking water and food sources, leading to the spread of disease. They can also block drainage systems, causing flooding and other
problems.
To address the problem of plastic bag pollution, many cities and countries have implemented plastic bag bans or fees. These policies
have been effective in reducing the use of plastic bags and in turn reducing pollution. Consumers can also take action by choosing to
bring reusable bags when shopping, or by using paper bags instead of plastic bags.
In conclusion, the use of plastic bags has severe consequences on the environment and human health. The cause of the problem is
the widespread use and slow degradation of plastic bags, while the effects are wide-ranging and can be devastating. To mitigate these
effects, individuals and governments can take actions such as implementing plastic bag bans, choosing to use reusable bags or paper
bags instead of plastic bags.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an effect of plastic bag pollution on the environment?
Ans A). Damage to ecosystems B). Air pollution C). Harm to wildlife and marine life D). Contamination of drinking water and food sources

Correct Answer: B

r
Comprehension:

Si
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The use of plastic bags has been a contentious issue for many years. On one hand, they are convenient for carrying groceries and
ap
other items. On the other hand, they are a major contributor to pollution and can have devastating effects on the environment.
One of the main causes of plastic bag pollution is their widespread use. They are given out for free at almost every store and are used
at
for just a few minutes before being discarded. This means that there are billions of plastic bags in circulation at any given time, many
of which end up as litter on streets, in parks, and in waterways.
Pr

Another cause of plastic bag pollution is their slow degradation. Plastic bags can take up to 1,000 years to decompose, which means
that they will continue to pollute the environment for centuries to come. This is especially problematic in oceans where they can harm
marine life and damage ecosystems.
an

The effects of plastic bag pollution are wide-ranging and can be devastating. They can harm wildlife and marine life, damage
ecosystems, and even contribute to the spread of disease. Plastic bags that end up in oceans can be mistaken as food by marine
animals, leading to starvation or suffocation. They can also entangle animals, making it difficult for them to move or escape predators.
ag

Plastic bags can also damage coral reefs, which are vital habitats for many species of marine life.
In addition to harming wildlife, plastic bags can also affect human health. Plastic bags that end up in waterways can contaminate
G

drinking water and food sources, leading to the spread of disease. They can also block drainage systems, causing flooding and other
problems.
To address the problem of plastic bag pollution, many cities and countries have implemented plastic bag bans or fees. These policies
y

have been effective in reducing the use of plastic bags and in turn reducing pollution. Consumers can also take action by choosing to
B

bring reusable bags when shopping, or by using paper bags instead of plastic bags.
In conclusion, the use of plastic bags has severe consequences on the environment and human health. The cause of the problem is
hs

the widespread use and slow degradation of plastic bags, while the effects are wide-ranging and can be devastating. To mitigate these
effects, individuals and governments can take actions such as implementing plastic bag bans, choosing to use reusable bags or paper
at

bags instead of plastic bags.

M

SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93 What is the main cause of plastic bag pollution?
Ans A). Careful recycling B). Lots of proper disposal methods C). Their easy decomposition D). Their widespread use and slow degradation

Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The use of plastic bags has been a contentious issue for many years. On one hand, they are convenient for carrying groceries and
other items. On the other hand, they are a major contributor to pollution and can have devastating effects on the environment.
One of the main causes of plastic bag pollution is their widespread use. They are given out for free at almost every store and are used
for just a few minutes before being discarded. This means that there are billions of plastic bags in circulation at any given time, many
of which end up as litter on streets, in parks, and in waterways.
Another cause of plastic bag pollution is their slow degradation. Plastic bags can take up to 1,000 years to decompose, which means
that they will continue to pollute the environment for centuries to come. This is especially problematic in oceans where they can harm
marine life and damage ecosystems.
The effects of plastic bag pollution are wide-ranging and can be devastating. They can harm wildlife and marine life, damage
ecosystems, and even contribute to the spread of disease. Plastic bags that end up in oceans can be mistaken as food by marine
animals, leading to starvation or suffocation. They can also entangle animals, making it difficult for them to move or escape predators.
Plastic bags can also damage coral reefs, which are vital habitats for many species of marine life.
In addition to harming wildlife, plastic bags can also affect human health. Plastic bags that end up in waterways can contaminate
drinking water and food sources, leading to the spread of disease. They can also block drainage systems, causing flooding and other
problems.
To address the problem of plastic bag pollution, many cities and countries have implemented plastic bag bans or fees. These policies
have been effective in reducing the use of plastic bags and in turn reducing pollution. Consumers can also take action by choosing to
bring reusable bags when shopping, or by using paper bags instead of plastic bags.
In conclusion, the use of plastic bags has severe consequences on the environment and human health. The cause of the problem is
the widespread use and slow degradation of plastic bags, while the effects are wide-ranging and can be devastating. To mitigate these
effects, individuals and governments can take actions such as implementing plastic bag bans, choosing to use reusable bags or paper
bags instead of plastic bags.

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A). The Convenience of Plastic Bags: Ignoring the Negative Impact B). The Consequences of a Damaged Ecosystem
C). The future of Marine Life D). The Causes and Effects of Plastic Bag Pollution
Correct Answer: D

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Comprehension:

Si
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The use of plastic bags has been a contentious issue for many years. On one hand, they are convenient for carrying groceries and
ap
other items. On the other hand, they are a major contributor to pollution and can have devastating effects on the environment.
One of the main causes of plastic bag pollution is their widespread use. They are given out for free at almost every store and are used
at
for just a few minutes before being discarded. This means that there are billions of plastic bags in circulation at any given time, many
of which end up as litter on streets, in parks, and in waterways.
Pr

Another cause of plastic bag pollution is their slow degradation. Plastic bags can take up to 1,000 years to decompose, which means
that they will continue to pollute the environment for centuries to come. This is especially problematic in oceans where they can harm
marine life and damage ecosystems.
an

The effects of plastic bag pollution are wide-ranging and can be devastating. They can harm wildlife and marine life, damage
ecosystems, and even contribute to the spread of disease. Plastic bags that end up in oceans can be mistaken as food by marine
animals, leading to starvation or suffocation. They can also entangle animals, making it difficult for them to move or escape predators.
ag

Plastic bags can also damage coral reefs, which are vital habitats for many species of marine life.
In addition to harming wildlife, plastic bags can also affect human health. Plastic bags that end up in waterways can contaminate
G

drinking water and food sources, leading to the spread of disease. They can also block drainage systems, causing flooding and other
problems.
To address the problem of plastic bag pollution, many cities and countries have implemented plastic bag bans or fees. These policies
y

have been effective in reducing the use of plastic bags and in turn reducing pollution. Consumers can also take action by choosing to
B

bring reusable bags when shopping, or by using paper bags instead of plastic bags.
In conclusion, the use of plastic bags has severe consequences on the environment and human health. The cause of the problem is
hs

the widespread use and slow degradation of plastic bags, while the effects are wide-ranging and can be devastating. To mitigate these
effects, individuals and governments can take actions such as implementing plastic bag bans, choosing to use reusable bags or paper
at

bags instead of plastic bags.

M

SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 Identify the structure of the passage.
Ans A). Classification B). Chronological C). Compare and Contrast D). Descriptive
Correct Answer: D

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“It is not a lip or eye we beauty call/ But the joint force and full result of all,” wrote Alexander Pope, the English intellectual poet and
contemporary of John Dryden. The very idea of beauty is subjective because we never take it in totality.
Years ago, one saw a painting at an art museum in Warsaw, Poland. Some unknown Polish painter made it during World War I. It was
about an undraped woman, who had a chiselled body but no face. There was a comment in the corner of that painting: Impose your
idea of beauty on it and think of a face for her.
Everyone will visualise according to his one idea of beauty. This is indeed intriguing. Beauty, especially feminine beauty, is always
stereotyped and reduced to concrete and unaltered idioms. The core concept of beauty lies in being abstract. ‘Koi soorat de do ke
tarasta hoon main/ Meri taameer ki mitti abhi narm hai dekho’ – Give me a face, an appearance; my clay’s still wet. The moment we
try to concretise and quantify beauty, it loses its aura and its appeal. There is a term in French – ‘Je ne sais quoi’, I know not what.
Beauty ought to have this quality that cannot be adequately described or expressed, yet that makes somebody or something more
attractive and interesting.
Beauty is always an open-ended idea. Neither can you bind it, nor can you define it. It is like love, indefinable, yet so desirable. And
like love, it can only be felt and experienced. You can never appreciate it superficially. Then it becomes voyeuristic and too quotidian.

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Intriguing
Ans A). Gripping B). Interesting C). Boring D). Historical
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“It is not a lip or eye we beauty call/ But the joint force and full result of all,” wrote Alexander Pope, the English intellectual poet and
contemporary of John Dryden. The very idea of beauty is subjective because we never take it in totality.
Years ago, one saw a painting at an art museum in Warsaw, Poland. Some unknown Polish painter made it during World War I. It was

r
about an undraped woman, who had a chiselled body but no face. There was a comment in the corner of that painting: Impose your

Si
idea of beauty on it and think of a face for her.
Everyone will visualise according to his one idea of beauty. This is indeed intriguing. Beauty, especially feminine beauty, is always

ap
stereotyped and reduced to concrete and unaltered idioms. The core concept of beauty lies in being abstract. ‘Koi soorat de do ke
tarasta hoon main/ Meri taameer ki mitti abhi narm hai dekho’ – Give me a face, an appearance; my clay’s still wet. The moment we
try to concretise and quantify beauty, it loses its aura and its appeal. There is a term in French – ‘Je ne sais quoi’, I know not what.
at
Beauty ought to have this quality that cannot be adequately described or expressed, yet that makes somebody or something more
attractive and interesting.
Pr

Beauty is always an open-ended idea. Neither can you bind it, nor can you define it. It is like love, indefinable, yet so desirable. And
like love, it can only be felt and experienced. You can never appreciate it superficially. Then it becomes voyeuristic and too quotidian.
an

SubQuestion No : 97
ag

Q.97 The central theme of the passage is ___________.

Ans A). one should enjoy beauty in youth B). physical health is more important than beauty C). beautiful women can inspire others
G

D). beauty is indefinable but can be felt and experienced

Correct Answer: D
B y

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
hs

“It is not a lip or eye we beauty call/ But the joint force and full result of all,” wrote Alexander Pope, the English intellectual poet and
at

contemporary of John Dryden. The very idea of beauty is subjective because we never take it in totality.
Years ago, one saw a painting at an art museum in Warsaw, Poland. Some unknown Polish painter made it during World War I. It was
M

about an undraped woman, who had a chiselled body but no face. There was a comment in the corner of that painting: Impose your
idea of beauty on it and think of a face for her.
Everyone will visualise according to his one idea of beauty. This is indeed intriguing. Beauty, especially feminine beauty, is always
stereotyped and reduced to concrete and unaltered idioms. The core concept of beauty lies in being abstract. ‘Koi soorat de do ke
tarasta hoon main/ Meri taameer ki mitti abhi narm hai dekho’ – Give me a face, an appearance; my clay’s still wet. The moment we
try to concretise and quantify beauty, it loses its aura and its appeal. There is a term in French – ‘Je ne sais quoi’, I know not what.
Beauty ought to have this quality that cannot be adequately described or expressed, yet that makes somebody or something more
attractive and interesting.
Beauty is always an open-ended idea. Neither can you bind it, nor can you define it. It is like love, indefinable, yet so desirable. And
like love, it can only be felt and experienced. You can never appreciate it superficially. Then it becomes voyeuristic and too quotidian.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
Ans A). One visualises according to his idea of beauty. B). Physical beauty is more impressive than inner beauty.
C). Beauty is an open-ended idea. D). Beauty is like love.
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“It is not a lip or eye we beauty call/ But the joint force and full result of all,” wrote Alexander Pope, the English intellectual poet and
contemporary of John Dryden. The very idea of beauty is subjective because we never take it in totality.
Years ago, one saw a painting at an art museum in Warsaw, Poland. Some unknown Polish painter made it during World War I. It was
about an undraped woman, who had a chiselled body but no face. There was a comment in the corner of that painting: Impose your
idea of beauty on it and think of a face for her.
Everyone will visualise according to his one idea of beauty. This is indeed intriguing. Beauty, especially feminine beauty, is always
stereotyped and reduced to concrete and unaltered idioms. The core concept of beauty lies in being abstract. ‘Koi soorat de do ke
tarasta hoon main/ Meri taameer ki mitti abhi narm hai dekho’ – Give me a face, an appearance; my clay’s still wet. The moment we
try to concretise and quantify beauty, it loses its aura and its appeal. There is a term in French – ‘Je ne sais quoi’, I know not what.
Beauty ought to have this quality that cannot be adequately described or expressed, yet that makes somebody or something more
attractive and interesting.
Beauty is always an open-ended idea. Neither can you bind it, nor can you define it. It is like love, indefinable, yet so desirable. And
like love, it can only be felt and experienced. You can never appreciate it superficially. Then it becomes voyeuristic and too quotidian.

SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99 What does the French term ‘Je ne sais quoi’ mean?
Ans A). I know not what B). I know what C). I know not where is it D). I know where is it
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“It is not a lip or eye we beauty call/ But the joint force and full result of all,” wrote Alexander Pope, the English intellectual poet and
contemporary of John Dryden. The very idea of beauty is subjective because we never take it in totality.
Years ago, one saw a painting at an art museum in Warsaw, Poland. Some unknown Polish painter made it during World War I. It was
about an undraped woman, who had a chiselled body but no face. There was a comment in the corner of that painting: Impose your
idea of beauty on it and think of a face for her.

r
Everyone will visualise according to his one idea of beauty. This is indeed intriguing. Beauty, especially feminine beauty, is always

Si
stereotyped and reduced to concrete and unaltered idioms. The core concept of beauty lies in being abstract. ‘Koi soorat de do ke
tarasta hoon main/ Meri taameer ki mitti abhi narm hai dekho’ – Give me a face, an appearance; my clay’s still wet. The moment we

ap
try to concretise and quantify beauty, it loses its aura and its appeal. There is a term in French – ‘Je ne sais quoi’, I know not what.
Beauty ought to have this quality that cannot be adequately described or expressed, yet that makes somebody or something more
attractive and interesting.
at
Beauty is always an open-ended idea. Neither can you bind it, nor can you define it. It is like love, indefinable, yet so desirable. And
like love, it can only be felt and experienced. You can never appreciate it superficially. Then it becomes voyeuristic and too quotidian.
Pr

SubQuestion No : 100
an

Q.100 Select an appropriate title for the passage.

ag

Ans A). Poets and beauty B). Beauty of women is inspiring C). Beauty is what strikes the soul D). Alexander Pope and his beauty

Correct Answer: C
G
B y
hs
at
M

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 Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/12/2024
Exam Time 4:30 PM - 6:30 PM
Subject Stenographer Grade C and D Examination 2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group?
Ans A). PUR B). BFD C). JNL D). VZX
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
31, 16, 17, ?, 56, 142.5
Ans A). 49 B). 27 C). 25 D). 36
Correct Answer: B

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Q.3 Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the same sequence and make
the series logically complete.
24, 31, 22, 33, ?, 35, ?, 37
Ans A). 22, 18 B). 20, 18 C). 22, 16 ap D). 18, 20
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.4 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
Pr

0.19 : 0.0019 :: 2.02 : ?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
an

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag

Ans A). 2.0002 B). 0.00202 C). 0.202 D). 0.0202

Correct Answer: D
G

Q.5 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?
B y
hs
at
M

Ans
Correct Answer: C

A). B). C). D).

Q.6 Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
24 ÷ 3 × 2 + 8 - 18 = 21
Ans A). 2, 3 and -,× B). 3, 18 and +,× C). 8, 24 and +,÷ D). 3, 8 and -,+
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
29, 174, 179, ?, 719, 1438
Ans A). 698 B). 700 C). 718 D). 716
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.8

Ans
Correct Answer: B

A). B). C). D).

Q.9 E is the mother of L. G is the father of H. L is the sister of D. H is the sister of E. D is the son of A. How is H related to A?
Ans A). Wife’s brother B). Sister’s husband C). Wife’s sister D). Brother’s wife
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
HORSE : GNQRD :: ANIMAL : ?
Ans A). BOJNBM B). ZOHNZM C). ZMHLZK D). BMJLBK
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Two statements are given followed by conclusions. Assuming the statements to be true ,even if they seem to be at variance

r
with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow ( s ) from the statements.

Si
Statements:
All stones are chairs.
Some chairs are dogs.
Conclusions:
ap
at
1. All dogs are stones.
2. At least some dogs are chairs.
Pr

Ans A). Only conclusion 1 follow B). Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow C). Only conclusion 2 follow D). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow
an

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Four number-sets have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-set
ag

that is different.(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking
G

down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). (9 : 33) B). (12 : 46) C). (11 : 41) D). (10 : 37)
y

Correct Answer: B
B

Q.13 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pairs of numbers.
hs

2513 − 20;
4213 − 18
at

Ans A). 5131 − 22 B). 3122 − 14 C). 2521 − 10 D). 1462 − 26

Correct Answer: B
M

Q.14 Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home
after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house. See the below text
message sent to Suresh by his parents and answer the following question accordingly.
“When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north. Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction.
Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the round-about and drive
1 km. Take a right and drive 3 km. Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.”
How many kilometres did Suresh drive to reach his home from the railway station?
Ans A). 11 B). 12 C). 10 D). 13
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 1?

Ans A). 2 B). 5 C). 3 D). 6

Correct Answer: C
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 Q.16 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and
the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
125 : 625 :: 343 : ? :: 221 : 721

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 843 B). 1126 C). 1296 D). 512
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting
second to the left of A. E is an immediate neighbour of F. C sits second to the right of D. B sits to the immediate left of E.
Who is sitting second to the left of B?
Ans A). D B). C C). F D). A
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

YTUQ, XVRU, ?, VZLC, UBIG

Ans A). WYOX B). WXOY C). WXPY D). WYOY
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Town T is to the south of town U. Town V is to the east of town T. Town X is to the north of town V. Town Y is to the north of
town X. Town Z is to the west of town Y. What can be the position of town Z with respect to town T?
Ans A). West B). East C). North D). South
Correct Answer: C

Q.20 Ravi and Raghu are brothers. Raju is the father of Raghu. Shyam is the brother of Tushar. Shyam is also the mother's
brother of Ravi. How is Shyam related to Raju?
Ans A). Wife's brother B). Brother C). Husband D). Father

r
Correct Answer: A

Si
Q.21 Given below is a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Study the statement carefully and decide which
Conclusion/s is/are definitely true.
Statement: M ≥ N > O ≥ P = W; X ≥ O > Y
Conclusion I: M > X
ap
at
Conclusion II: W < Y
Pr

Ans A). Both Conclusions I and II are true. B). Only Conclusion I is true. C). Only Conclusion II is true. D). Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Correct Answer: D
an

Q.22 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair.
18 : 325
ag

12 : 145
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
G

digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
y

Ans A). 9 : 81 B). 8 : 63 C). 15 : 225 D). 16 : 257

Correct Answer: D
B
hs

Q.23 If + means ×, × means −, − means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the given expression?
36 + 10 – 2 × 18 ÷ 8
at

Ans A). 165 B). 150 C). 198 D). 170

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.24 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans A). 12 B). 10 C). 11 D). 13

Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Diya is sitting second to the left of Arjun. Pawan is sitting
second to the right of Bhim. Kapil is sitting second to the left of Diya. Diya is an immediate neighbour of both Pawan and
Ram. Who is the immediate neighbour of both Pawan and Bhim?
Ans A). Kapil B). Pawan C). Ram D). Arjun
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.26 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)
Ans A). HEIS B). UCGF C). IOSR D). WAED
Correct Answer: A

Q.27 K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z scored different marks in an exam. K scored more than both L and W but less than Y. X scored less
than only Y. Neither L nor M scored the lowest marks. Z scored more than L but less than M. K scored more than M. Who
scored the third-lowest marks?
Ans A). K B). L C). Z D). W
Correct Answer: C

Q.28 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Bigotry : Hatred :: Fanaticism : ?
Ans A). Elite B). Poor C). Intolerance D). Rich
Correct Answer: C

Q.29 What was the day of the week on 22 October 1979?

Ans A). Monday B). Wednesday C). Tuesday D). Sunday
Correct Answer: A

Q.30 Four words are EQUATION, MATHS, WINTER and RAIN.

When counted from the left, if every fourth letter in each of the above words is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no letter appearing more than once?
Ans A). Four B). One C). Three D). Two
Correct Answer: A

Q.31 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
287, 276, 265, 254, 243, ?

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Si
Ans A). 231 B). 230 C). 233 D). 232
Correct Answer: D

Q.32
ap
The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Select a
figure from among the given options, which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.
at
Pr
an
ag

Ans
Correct Answer: C
G

A). B). C). D).

B y
hs
at

Q.33 In a certain code language, 'ROAD' is coded as TRCG and 'STOP' is coded as UWQS. How will 'BOOK' be coded in the same
language?
M

Ans A). DRRM B). DRQN C). DRPN D). DQQN

Correct Answer: B

Q.34 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following –
13:676
6:144
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 6:288 B). 4:192 C). 8:256 D). 15:225
Correct Answer: C

Q.35 In a certain code language, 'FIRE' is coded as 38 and 'WATER' is coded as 67. How will 'FOREST' be coded in the same
language?
Ans A). 79 B). 76 C). 80 D). 83
Correct Answer: D

Q.36 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘−’?
9×4+5−2=?
Ans A). 6 B). 3 C). 7 D). 5
Correct Answer: B
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 Q.37 What will be the day of the week on 13th January 2076?
Ans A). Tuesday B). Monday C). Sunday D). Wednesday
Correct Answer: B

Q.38 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
SBRJ, UEVO, WHZT, ?, ANHD
Ans A). ZJEX B). XJDZ C). YKDY D). ZKEY
Correct Answer: C

Q.39 Select the option that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

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Q.40 Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark(?), if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are

Si
interchanged?
13 ÷ 145 × 29 – 69 + 13 = ?
Ans A). 121 B). 113 C). 129
ap D). 116
Correct Answer: A
at
Q.41 Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they
Pr

seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
an

No letter is an alphabet.
All alphabets are words.
Conclusions:
ag

I. All words can never be letters.

II. All letters being words is a possibility.
G

Ans A). Only conclusion II follows B). Only conclusion I follows C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow
y

Correct Answer: D
B

Q.42 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
hs

QRT, SVR, UZP, WDN, ?

Ans A). YHP B). ZFL C). WAY D). YHL
at

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.43 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All dahlias are lilies.
All sunflowers are lilies.
Some dahlias are hibiscus.
Conclusions:
I. Some sunflowers are not dahlias.
II. Some hibiscuses are not lilies.
III. Some lilies are hibiscus.
Ans A). Both conclusion I and III follow. B). Both conclusion II and III follow. C). Only conclusion III follows. D). All conclusions follow.

Correct Answer: C

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 Q.44 Identify the figure that closely resembles with the missing part of the given figure pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). C).
B). D).

Q.45 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
Ans A). 64 B). 61 C). 63 D). 62
Correct Answer: A

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Q.46 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Select a

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figure from among the given options, which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

ap
at
Pr
an

Ans
Correct Answer: D
ag

A). B). C). D).

G
B y

Q.47 Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad.
hs

198 – 297 – 594

at

Ans A). 125 – 223 – 342 B). 369 – 576 – 747 C). 442 – 513 – 711 D). 488 – 364 – 299
Correct Answer: B
M

Q.48 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.
(87 * 63) * 6 * 1 * 5
Ans A). x + ÷ = B). + ÷ x = C). ÷ + x = D). − ÷ + =
Correct Answer: D

Q.49 In this question, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
All stones are pebbles.
Some stones are gems.
Conclusions:
I. All gems are pebbles.
II. Some pebbles are stones.
Ans A). Neither conclusions I nor II follows. B). Both conclusions I and II follow. C). Only conclusion I follows. D). Only conclusion II follows.

Correct Answer: D

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 Q.50 The two expressions on either side of the equal sign will have the same value if two numbers on the left-hand side are
interchanged and two signs on the right-hand side are interchanged.
What are those two numbers (not digits) and the two signs?
4 × 3 ÷ 6 + 2 – 8 = 10 + 2 × 3 ÷ 5 – 18
Ans A). 2 and 4; + and x B). 4 and 6; ÷ and x C). 6 and 8; + and – D). 4 and 8; + and ÷
Correct Answer: D

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the below mentioned elements occurs when the government’s revenue expenditure is more than its revenue
receipts?
Ans A). Fiscal Deficit B). Capital Deficit C). Budgetary Deficit D). Revenue Deficit
Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Right to Education has been given in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Ans A). Article 20 B). Article 21 C). Article 25A D). Article 21A
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 The first National Games, on the line of Olympics, were held in ________.
Ans A). Madras B). Lucknow C). Hyderabad D). New Delhi
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 The Aryans are considered to represent a linguistic group speaking which of the following groups of languages?
Ans A). Afro-Asiatic B). Indo-European C). Austronesian D). Niger-Congo
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Section 56 (2) (vii b) in the Income Tax Act is referred to as:
Ans A). Normal Investments B). Angel Fund C). Normal Taxing D). Angel Tax
Correct Answer: D

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Q.6 Which of the following has the highest density?
Ans A). Liquid B). Plasma C). Solid D). Gas

Q.7
ap
Who among the following was NOT one of the founders of the Ahrar Movement in British India?
Correct Answer: C
at
Ans A). Hasan Imam B). Hakim Ajmal Khan C). Maulana Abul Kalam Azad D). Maulana Muhammad Ali
Pr

Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Who gave the expanding universe hypothesis?

an

Ans A). James Clerk Maxwell B). CV Raman C). Edwin Hubble D). Galileo Galilei
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.9 ‘Kanchenjunga’ and ‘K2’ are names of ___________.

G

Ans A). mountain peaks B). plateaus C). lakes D). glaciers
Correct Answer: A
y

Q.10 ‘Senani’, ‘Kulapa’ and ‘Gramani’ are some of the functionaries mentioned primarily in which Veda?
B

Ans A). Samaveda B). Yajurveda C). Atharvaveda D). Rigveda

Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.11 In which year was the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports Patiala established?
at

Ans A). 1982 B). 1957 C). 1961 D). 1971

Correct Answer: C
M

Q.12 The Asian Football Cup is held once in _________.

Ans A). 2 years B). 1 year C). 4 years D). 3 years
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 RK Narayan is the author of which pair of novels from the given alternatives?
Ans A). ‘In Custody’ and ‘Fire on the Mountain’ B). ‘The Cat and Shakespeare’ and ‘On the Ganga Ghat’
C). ‘The English Teacher’ and ‘Waiting for the Mahatma’ D). ‘The Poison Tree’ and ‘Ananda Math’
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Trishulganga is a stream of the river:

Ans A). Ghaghara B). Beas C). Godavari D). Gandak
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 According to the Census of India 2011, among the seven sister states, which state has the highest literacy rate?
Ans A). Mizoram B). Tripura C). Manipur D). Nagaland
Correct Answer: A

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 Q.16 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Not Only The Things That Have Happened’?
Ans A). Mridula Koshy B). Sushmita Banerjee C). Arshia Sattar D). Rashmi Bansal
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Which of the following states have witnessed effective implementation of land reform measures?
Ans A). Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal B). Kerala and West Bengal C). Tamil Nadu and Gujarat D). Uttar Pradesh and Kerala

Correct Answer: B

Q.18 Who among the following was the first to describe the nucleus as a cell organelle?
Ans A). Robert Brown B). Robert Koch C). LucioFontana D). Eduard Strasburger
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Kamala Lakshmi Narayanan is recognised all over the world as the foremost proponent of ________, a southern Indian
classical dance form that combines artistic expression with rhythmic footwork.
Ans A). Bharatanatyam B). Kathak C). Kuchipudi D). Mohiniyattam
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Chitti Babu is a well-known ________.

Ans A). Veena player B). Sitar player C). Tabla player D). Sarod player
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the largest number of Muslim population?
Ans A). Rajasthan B). Manipur C). Maharashtra D). Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Which of the following Acts had provided the establishment of the Federal Court in British India?
Ans A). The Government of India Act, 1858 B). The Indian Councils Act, 1909 C). The Indian Councils Act, 1892

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D). The Government of India Act, 1935
Correct Answer: D

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Q.23 Saga Dawa celebrated by Buddhist communities falls between which two months?
Ans A). January and February B). May and June C). August and September apD). October and November
Correct Answer: B
at
Q.24 Which of the following regarding the trophic levels is INCORRECT?
Pr

Ans A). Omnivores – Fungus B). Carnivores – Secondary or tertiary consumers C). Decomposers – Bacteria
D). Herbivores – Primary consumers
an

Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Which of the following is the best indicator of the borrowings of the Government?
ag

Ans A). Primary deficit B). Revenue deficit C). Fiscal deficit D). Balance of payments deficit
Correct Answer: C
G

Q.26 Pankaj Advani won his 25th World Title in October 2022 at _______.
B y

Ans A). London B). Canberra C). Paris D). Kuala Lumpur
Correct Answer: D
hs

Q.27 Which of the following is the novel written by Hansda Sowvendra Shekhar?
at

Ans A). The God of Small Things B). All The Lives We Never Lived C). Blood and Laughter D). My Father’s Garden
Correct Answer: D
M

Q.28 Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for annual
commercial crops.
Ans A). 8% B). 5% C). 7% D). 6%
Correct Answer: B

Q.29 Identify a structure found in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae.
Ans A). Cytoplasm B). Lysosomes C). Mesosomes D). Plastids
Correct Answer: C

Q.30 Which of the following sites would be suitable for observing the architecture of the Harappan civilisation?
Ans A). Sunabeda B). Sanchi C). Valparai D). Banawali
Correct Answer: D

Q.31 The Golden Quadrilateral is a project of Government of India which is related to _______.
Ans A). Ports B). Railways C). Airports D). Highways
Correct Answer: D

Q.32 What did the rulers of Vijayanagara call themselves?

Ans A). Nayak B). Chakravarthi C). Raya D). Maharaja
Correct Answer: C
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 Q.33 Which of the following is NOT included in the State Executive?
Ans A). Governor B). Attorney General of India C). Council of Ministers D). Advocate General of the State
Correct Answer: B

Q.34 ‘Kabuli Bagh Mosque’ of Panipat was constructed by which Mughal ruler?
Ans A). Babur B). Humayun C). Jahangir D). Akbar
Correct Answer: A

Q.35 Choose the INCORRECT statement.

Ans A). Crocodiles have four heart chambers. B). Birds have four-chambered heart. C). Fishes have two chambered heart.
D). Frogs have four-chambered heart.
Correct Answer: D

Q.36 Who among the following is known for playing the Mridangam?
Ans A). Asad Ali Khan B). Ram Narayan C). RV Raghavan D). TH Vinayakram
Correct Answer: C

Q.37 Which of the following is a popular Thanksgiving festival of Meghalaya?

Ans A). Dussehra B). Nazu C). Sarhul D). Chad Laho
Correct Answer: D

Q.38 Warm days and cold nights is characteristic of which season in Northern India?
Ans A). Rainy season B). Winter season C). Summer season D). Spring season
Correct Answer: B

Q.39 The Arya Samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati in which of the following years?
Ans A). 1872 B). 1875 C). 1829 D). 1857
Correct Answer: B

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Q.40 The 36th National Games were inaugurated in _________.

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Ans A). Bhuj B). Gandhinagar C). Surat D). Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: D

Q.41 What was the contribution of the agriculture sector to the GDP in 1950?
ap
at
Ans A). 48.6% B). 72.3% C). 67.5% D). 56.6%
Correct Answer: C
Pr

Q.42 In March 2023, who took charge as the 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA) of Ministry of Finance of the Government
of India?
an

Ans A). SS Dubey B). Deepak Das C). Girraj Prasad Gupta D). Soma Roy Burman
Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.43 Who introduced the term ‘triads’ in the classification of elements?

G

Ans A). Dmitri Mendeleev B). Johann Dobereiner C). AEB de Chancourtois D). John Newlands
Correct Answer: B
B y

Q.44 Who among the following is the Padma Shri 2022 awardee Kuchipudi dancer credited with reviving the Kakatiyam dance
form?
hs

Ans A). Shovana Narayan B). Padmaja Reddy C). Padma Subrahmanyam D). Nalini Asthana
Correct Answer: B
at

Q.45 Choose the INCORRECT statement about lichens.

M

Ans A). Fungi and cyanobacteria both lives in lichens independently. B). Lichens contains cyanobacteria.
C). Lichens are seen slow-growing large coloured patches on the bark of trees. D). Fungi are found in lichen living a symbiotic life.

Correct Answer: A

Q.46 Which of the following is an impact of globalisation on India's trade?

Ans A). It has reduced the dependency on foreign markets B). It has reduced the competition and challenges of trade
C). It has increased the volume and diversity of trade D). It has increased the self-reliance and autonomy of trade
Correct Answer: C

Q.47 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Nectar in a Sieve’?
Ans A). Kamala Markandaya B). Aruna Asaf Ali C). Sarojini Naidu D). Rajkumari Kaur
Correct Answer: A

Q.48 _________ are circular and biconcave for easy passage through blood capillaries and to transport oxygen.
Ans A). Guard cells B). Red blood cells C). White blood cells D). Nerve cells
Correct Answer: B

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 Q.49 Identify an element that does NOT belong to period 4.
Ans A). Zinc B). Potassium C). Calcium D). Lithium
Correct Answer: D

Q.50 Who built the Jaisalmer fort in 1156 AD?

Ans A). Rao Maldo Rathore B). Jai Singh Prabhakar Bahadur C). Rawal Jaisal D). Prithviraj Chauhan
Correct Answer: C

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors.
The boy you met on an train last night was quite impressed by you. He has expressed his wish to work under you.
Ans A). The boy you met on train last night was quite impressed by you. He has expressed his wish to work under you.
B). The boy you met on the train last night was quite impressed by you. He has expressed his wish to work under you.
C). An boy you met on the train last night was quite impressed by you. He has expressed his wish to work under you.
D). Boy you met on the train last night was quite impressed by you. He has expressed his wish to work under you.
Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

These days most of the researchers conduct research with the help of internet.
Ans A). These days the research has been done with the help of internet by most of the researchers.
B). These days most of the research is being done with the help of internet.
C). These days most of the researchers are conducting their research with the help of internet.
D). These days the research is conducted with the help of internet by most of the researchers.
Correct Answer: D

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Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Si
They said that they were practising for the next annual function.
Ans A). They said, “We have been practising for the next annual function.” B). They said, “They were practising for the next annual function.”
C). They said, “We are practising for tomorrow’s annual function.”
ap
D). They said, “We are practising for the next annual function.”
at
Correct Answer: D
Pr

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The interviewers were asking difficult questions.

an

Ans A). Difficult questions are asked by the interviewers. B). Difficult questions were being asked by the interviewers.
C). Difficult questions were asked by the interviewers. D). Difficult questions are being asked by the interviewers.
ag

Correct Answer: B
G

Q.5 The following sentence has been divided into five segments. The first segment has no error. Select the option that has the
segment with the grammatical error.
It began / to rain / as soon as / she steps out of / the movie theatre.
B y

Ans A). to rain B). as soon as C). she steps out of D). the movie theatre.
Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

at

This book is written by a famous author named G.H. Sullivan.

M

Ans A). illiterate B). uniform C). unknown D). illegible

Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Stretch
Ans A). Lessen B). Range C). Scope D). Scale
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.
He gave his heart and soul to make the entire show a success.
Ans A). partially useful knowledge B). offer of peace and harmony C). practical experience D). entire energy and effort
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
The committee’s decision / have been / a topic / of controversy.
Ans A). of controversy. B). The committee’s decision C). a topic D). have been
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.10 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Srikar had been promised good support by Mahitha.
Ans A). Mahitha promises good support to Srikar. B). Mahitha will have promised Srikar good support.
C). Mahitha had promised good support to Srikar. D). Mahitha has promised Srikar good support.
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The traffic police told me that I couldn’t park my two-wheeler there.
Ans A). The traffic police said to me, “I can’t park my two-wheeler there.” B). The traffic police told me, “I couldn’t park my two-wheeler here.”
C). The traffic police said to me, " You can’t park your two-wheeler here.” D). The traffic police said, "Do not park the two-wheeler here."

Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The detective's astute observations led to the discovery of crucial evidence, unlike his oblivious partner.
Ans A). keen B). attentive C). idiotic D). sharp
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The tourist said, “Wow! what a wonderful view.”
Ans A). The tourist told what a wonderful view it is. B). The tourist exclaimed with joy that it was a wonderful view.
C). The tourist said that the view is wonderful. D). The tourist explained with joy that the view is wonderful.
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Identify the error in the following sentence.

The police are searching about the missing jewellery.
Ans A). missing B). are C). the D). about
Correct Answer: D

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Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

Rathan said, “I have written a poem.”

Ans A). Rathan said that he had written a poem. B). Rathan said that I had written a poem.
ap C). Rathan said that he has written a poem.
at
D). Rathan said that he wrote a poem.
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Siraj threw a stone to destroy the _______ built by the bird in a tree.
an

Ans A). nest B). roof C). home D). house

Correct Answer: A
ag

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

G

Meera wanted to prove to those around her that she was not a fair-weather friend.
Ans A). Helping and caring companion B). Friend for all situations C). Unreliable friend in difficult times D). Reliable friend in tough times
B y

Correct Answer: C
hs

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Your silly tricks will not impress me.
at

Ans A). impact B). neglect C). expunge D). bore

Correct Answer: A
M

Q.19 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Mr. Arun had / written the letter / before the manager arrived.
Ans A). before the manager arrived B). No error C). Mr. Arun had D). written the letter
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
When a beggar appeared, / I offered him / an one rupee coin / but he did not take it.
Ans A). I offered him B). When a beggar appeared C). an one rupee coin D). but he did not take it
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Virtue’ from the given sentence.
Every person's actions have an innate power that determines the appropriate reward or punishment in addition to a moral v
alue that produces merit or demerit.
Ans A). innate B). merit C). appropriate D). demerit
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.22 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

(a) This is book/ (b) you are/ (c) searching for./ (d) No error
Ans A). c B). d C). b D). a
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Today's managers’ meeting has given me a lot to think about as I decide whether or not to stay with this company.
Ans A). bird’s eye view B). belle of the ball C). roll with the punches D). food for thought
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Mr. Varun had answered all the questions.

Ans A). All the questions are answered by Mr. Varun. B). All the questions had been answered by Mr. Varun.
C). All the questions have been answered by Mr. Varun. D). All the questions were answered by Mr. Varun.
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “I am going to the party tonight.”

Ans A). He said that he was going to the party that night. B). He said that he is going to the party tonight.
C). He said that he would go to the party that night. D). He said that he was going to the party tonight.
Correct Answer: A

Q.26 Substitute the underlined word-segment with the most appropriate idiom.

Lack of funds is the main obstacle for the company’s growth.

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Ans A). storm in the teacup B). odds and ends C). stumbling block D). uphill battle

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Correct Answer: C

Q.27 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word to fill in the blank.
We are blessed with a prudent house keeper, but cursed with an ________ house master.
Ans A). indiscreet B). prominent C). wise
ap D). potential
at
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.28 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute (replace) the bracketed segment in the following sentence.
I look forward (see) you soon.
an

Ans A). on seeing B). into see C). to seeing D). to see
Correct Answer: C
ag

Q.29 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
Shyamali is / very / careful for / her health.
G

Ans A). careful for B). Shyamali is C). very D). her health.
Correct Answer: A
B y

Q.30 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

John is really / good in / playing / the piano.

hs

Ans A). good in B). John is really C). playing D). the piano
Correct Answer: A
at
M

Q.31 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

My aunt said that they had shifted to a new house.

Ans A). “We are shifting to a new house,” said my aunt. B). “We have shifted to a new house,” said my aunt.
C). “We will be shifting to a new house,” said my aunt. D). “I am shifting to a new house,” said my aunt.
Correct Answer: B

Q.32 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Sachin and Sehwag are / great batsmen / but the former is greater / than latter.
Ans A). Sachin and Sehwag are B). but the former is greater C). great batsmen D). than latter
Correct Answer: D

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Our crops depend on the rainy season. Before the monsoon begins, farmers in communities begin their work in the fields.
They irrigate their grounds and grow a variety of crops __________ for this season using the natural water supply.
Ans A). manipulating B). inadequate C). appropriate D). incompatible
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.34 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Our environment is facing a severe crisis like never before. Any recklessness in this regard could prove ________ to life on
Earth.
Ans A). fatal B). innocuous C). harmless D). bland
Correct Answer: A

Q.35 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Anya was a empath and had accurate intuitions regarding other people’s feelings.
Ans A). was an empath B). had an empath C). is an empath D). being a empath
Correct Answer: A

Q.36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A city on a hill ___________ be hidden.
Ans A). need B). yet C). cannot D). ought
Correct Answer: C

Q.37 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
A courage gives / enormous strength to people / to fight for what they want.
Ans A). No error B). A courage gives C). enormous strength to people D). to fight for what they want
Correct Answer: B

Q.38 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A: by the doctor to drink
B: the lady was compelled
C: such a vile medicine that
D: but killed by him
E: she was all
Ans A). ACDEB B). CBDAE C). DACBE D). BACED

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Correct Answer: D

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Q.39 Select the most appropriate form of the bracketed verb in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

If only we ________(has) started earlier, we would be there now.

ap
at
Ans A). had B). have C). have been D). Has been
Correct Answer: A
Pr

Q.40 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The tree lost many of its ___________ in the heavy rain and storm.
an

Ans A). creepers B). branches C). bark D). root

Correct Answer: B
ag

Q.41 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the segment with the grammatical error.
G

Radha climbed the / ladder cautious, / but she fell off / despite being careful.
Ans A). but she fell off B). Radha climbed the C). ladder cautious, D). despite being careful
y

Correct Answer: C
B

Q.42 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
hs

She said, “I cannot call you at this time.”

Ans A). She said that she would not call me at this time. B). She said that she could not call me this time.
at

C). She said that she cannot call me at that time. D). She said that she could not call me at that time.
Correct Answer: D
M

Q.43 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Are they watching the programmes?
Ans A). Had the programmes been watched by them? B). Have the programmes been watched by them?
C). Were the programmes being watched by them? D). Are the programmes being watched by them?
Correct Answer: D

Q.44 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Accelerate
Ans A). Heighten B). Downsize C). Augment D). Escalate
Correct Answer: B

Q.45 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Whether she wishes to relocate to Mumbai or continues to live here are her personal decisions.
Ans A). were her personal decisions B). No substitution required C). have her personal decision D). is her personal decision

Correct Answer: D

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 Q.46 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The telephone was invented by Graham Bell in the second half of the 18th Century.
Ans A). Graham Bell will have invented the telephone in the second half of the 18th Century.

B). Graham Bell invents the telephone in the second half of the 18th Century.
C). Graham Bell has invented the telephone in the second half of the 18th Century.
D). Graham Bell invented the telephone in the second half of the 18th Century. Correct Answer: D

Q.47 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Ram said, “I watched football.”

Ans A). Ram said that he watches football. B). Ram said that they watched football. C). Ram said that he had watched football.
D). Ram said that I shall watch football.
Correct Answer: C

Q.48 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Mrs. Sandhaya teaches us English.

Ans A). English is being taught to us by Mrs. Sandhaya. B). English was being taught to us by Mrs. Sandhaya.
C). English has been taught to us by Mrs. Sandhaya. D). English is taught to us by Mrs. Sandhaya.
Correct Answer: D

Q.49 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Banish
Ans A). Belligerent B). Savage C). Recoil D). Deport
Correct Answer: D

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Q.50 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Si
The helper threw the trash in the dustbin.
Ans A). The trash has been thrown in the dustbin by the helper. B). The trash is thrown in the dustbin by the helper.
C). The trash had been thrown in the dustbin by the helper.
ap
D). The trash was thrown in the dustbin by the helper.
Correct Answer: D
at
Q.51 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Radha and Sheela have been knowing each other since they were children.
Pr

Ans A). had been known themselves B). had knowing themselves C). have been know each other D). have known each other
an

Correct Answer: D
ag

Q.52 Select the alternative from the given options that best expresses the same sentence in active/passive voice.

How did you pay the bill?

G

Ans A). How was the bill paid by you? B). How is the bill paid by you? C). How the bill is to be paid by you?
y

D). How the bill has been paid by you?

Correct Answer: A
B

Q.53 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
hs

The couple was trolled by everyone.

at

Ans A). The social media trolled the couple. B). Everyone had trolled the couple. C). Everyone trolled the couple.
D). Everyone trolls the couple.
M

Correct Answer: C

Q.54 If there is an error in the given sentence, choose the correct answer from the options without changing the tense. One of the
four options has same response as the original sentence, which can be chosen in case of agreement with the original
sentence .
I will have been studying English for three years by the end of this course.
Ans A). I was studying English for three years by the end of this course.
B). I will have been studying English for three years by the end of this course.
C). I have been studying English for three years by the end of this course.
D). I had been studying English for three years by the end of this course.
Correct Answer: B

Q.55 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

Mohan said, “I shall go as soon as it is possible.”

Ans A). Mohan said that he will go as soon as it was possible. B). Mohan said that he would go as soon as it is possible.
C). Mohan said that he will go as soon as it is possible. D). Mohan said that he would go as soon as it was possible.
Correct Answer: D

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 Q.56 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
A dam is a barrier that stops the flow of water and results in the creation of a ___________ .
Ans A). barricade B). blockade C). reservoir D). tunnel
Correct Answer: C

Q.57 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.

a. Nowadays, society has become corrupted by cunning, manipulative and toxic people.
b. The responsibility should be taken by mentally strong people.
c .There lies a responsibility for others to make society a better place to live in.
d. Being robust, they can devote their time or resources to change noxious individuals.
Ans A). acbd B). dcba C). cbad D). abcd
Correct Answer: A

Q.58 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Get your act together

Ans A). Behave in a rude way B). Write a letter C). Speak properly D). Get organised and work efficiently
Correct Answer: D

Q.59 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Who is making such a loud noise?
Ans A). By whom is such a loud noise being made? B). By whom is such loud noise made? C). By whom has such a loud noise been made?
D). By whom was such loud noise being made?
Correct Answer: A

Q.60 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Curiosity

r
Ans A). Restore B). Inquisitiveness C). Lament D). Indifference
Correct Answer: D

Si
Q.61 Parts of sentences are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.
The first part 'R.' is fixed.
R. Mahatma Gandhi led a long struggle against untouchability
A. Dr B R Ambedkar, the father of the Indian Constitution, belonged to the lower
ap
at
B. Such as entry into temples and public places
C. And worked for the welfare of the so called lower castes
Pr

D. Caste and made many efforts to secure basic rights for them
Ans A). DBAC B). BCAD C). CADB D). CDBA
Correct Answer: C
an

Q.62 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

ag

The Warrens are __________ their house by the end of this month.
G

Ans A). will shift B). shifted C). been shifting D). going to shift
Correct Answer: D
B y

Q.63 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
hs

Ammu said, “How brilliant I am!”

Ans A). Ammu exclaimed that she has been brilliant. B). Ammu exclaimed that she is brilliant. C). Ammu exclaimed that she was being brilliant.
at

D). Ammu exclaimed that she was brilliant.

Correct Answer: D
M

Q.64 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Enrage
Ans A). Stimulate B). Infuriate C). Expand D). Eradicate
Correct Answer: B

Q.65 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Ron always blows his own trumpet by mentioning his academic achievements.
Ans A). To ignore someone in the presence of others B). To talk proudly about one’s success C). To blow air into an instrument
D). To save one’s money with great effort using different means
Correct Answer: B

Q.66 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Divine
Ans A). Modest B). Perpetual C). Celestial D). Artful
Correct Answer: C

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 Q.67 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Spending quality time with friends and family is also _________ to have a healthy daily routine. These happy moments
release happy hormones in the body.
Ans A). unseasonable B). derogatory C). sceptical D). obligatory
Correct Answer: D

Q.68 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The traveller asked the owner if he could stay in that tavern. The peasant replied that he could.
Ans A). The traveller said, “Could I stay in this tavern?'' The peasant replied, “He should.”
B). The traveller said, “Can I stay in this tavern?” The peasant replied, “She could.”
C). The traveller said, “Can I stay in this tavern?” The peasant replied, “You can.”
D). The traveller said, “May I stay in this tavern?” The peasant replies, “You can.”
Correct Answer: C

Q.69 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

He said that it would be fun if I could join.

Ans A). He said, “It will have been fun if you had joined.” B). He said, “It will have been fun if I had joined.”
C). He said, “It will be fun if you can join.” D). He said, “It will have been fun if I could have joined.”
Correct Answer: C

Q.70 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Do not mind Hari’s insulting words.
Ans A). Let’s don’t mind Hari’s insulting words. B). Let Hari’s insulted words be minded. C). Let not Hari’s insulting words be minded.
D). Let Hari not mind the insulting words.
Correct Answer: C

r
Si
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
ap
Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating (1)_____________ the
darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2)___________ by that voice, infused with unexpected
at
life: the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky;
the (3)____________ of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4)___________
Pr

everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally
hidden, a world that (5)___________ into eternity.
an

SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
ag

Ans A). but B). over C). aside D). besides

Correct Answer: B
G

Comprehension:
y

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating (1)_____________ the
hs

darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2)___________ by that voice, infused with unexpected
life: the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky;
the (3)____________ of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4)___________
at

everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally
hidden, a world that (5)___________ into eternity.
M

SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). lapsed B). awakened C). untried D). belated
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating (1)_____________ the
darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2)___________ by that voice, infused with unexpected
life: the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky;
the (3)____________ of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4)___________
everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally
hidden, a world that (5)___________ into eternity.

SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). Pack B). Transition C). Branches D). Material
Correct Answer: C
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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating (1)_____________ the
darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2)___________ by that voice, infused with unexpected
life: the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky;
the (3)____________ of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4)___________
everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally
hidden, a world that (5)___________ into eternity.

SubQuestion No : 74
Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). chiselled B). transacted C). lightened D). brought
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating (1)_____________ the
darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2)___________ by that voice, infused with unexpected
life: the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky;
the (3)____________ of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4)___________
everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally
hidden, a world that (5)___________ into eternity.

SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans A). asked for B). stretched out C). handed over D). pleaded for
Correct Answer: B

r
Comprehension:

Si
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

ap
The education system is (1)_____ more and more frustrations among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear
about what can be done to make it more meaningful. (2)_______ reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for
at
one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of (3)______colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards.
Pr

They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their (4)_______courses, to hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their
own method of assessing students, the students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they made out that such colleges will have a free
(5)_______in nearly everything except granting degrees.
an

SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
ag

Ans A). training B). gracing C). breeding D). renovating

Correct Answer: C
G

Comprehension:
y

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
B

each blank.
hs

The education system is (1)_____ more and more frustrations among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear
about what can be done to make it more meaningful. (2)_______ reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for
at

one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of (3)______colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards.
They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their (4)_______courses, to hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their
M

own method of assessing students, the students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they made out that such colleges will have a free
(5)_______in nearly everything except granting degrees.

SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). Too B). Many C). Lot D). More
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The education system is (1)_____ more and more frustrations among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear
about what can be done to make it more meaningful. (2)_______ reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for
one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of (3)______colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards.
They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their (4)_______courses, to hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their
own method of assessing students, the students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they made out that such colleges will have a free
(5)_______in nearly everything except granting degrees.

SubQuestion No : 78
Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). privately B). automatic C). govern D). autonomous
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The education system is (1)_____ more and more frustrations among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear
about what can be done to make it more meaningful. (2)_______ reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for
one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of (3)______colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards.
They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their (4)_______courses, to hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their
own method of assessing students, the students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they made out that such colleges will have a free
(5)_______in nearly everything except granting degrees.

SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). vary B). own C). much D). differently

r
Correct Answer: B

Si
Comprehension:

ap
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
at
The education system is (1)_____ more and more frustrations among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear
Pr

about what can be done to make it more meaningful. (2)_______ reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for
one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of (3)______colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards.
They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their (4)_______courses, to hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their
own method of assessing students, the students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they made out that such colleges will have a free
an

(5)_______in nearly everything except granting degrees.

ag

SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
G

Ans A). ear B). hand C). leg D). eye

Correct Answer: B
B y

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
hs

each blank.
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park was (1)__________ by severe floods in 2016 that destroyed 80 per cent of the park’s land and killed
at

its wildlife.
World Heritage-listed Kaziranga National Park is in India. It is a (2)________ area with the highest tiger population in the world and is
M

home to two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. In addition, there are a lot of elephants, swamp deer, and wild water
buffalo in this area.
Nearly 250 animals, including at least 20 one-horned rhinos, were killed in the devastating 2016 floods. Over 200 animals were saved
by the foresters, including nine rhino calves. Sadly, we have very little control over the annual flood phenomenon. Due to significant
climatic changes, the possibility that it will only get worse in the coming years is (3)_________. Additionally, the dangers posed by
road and highway encroachment as well as the increasing number of human settlements surrounding the Park’s core areas are a
cause for concern.
In order to guarantee the complete safety of the wildlife and other inhabitants of the area, it is high time that we plan some risk
reduction measures. Because they are familiar with the river, its course, and other relocation centres where wildlife can be sheltered,
the local communities can support us. Additionally, we must ensure that no animals are chained up during the disaster. Their likelihood
of surviving floods is increased by 50% as a result.
When combined with the (4)________ provided by the public authority, conventional information by the local people can undoubtedly
prevent animals from succumbing to these devastating events.
The life cycle is extremely delicate. While preventing flooding would be beneficial for the animals, we must also recognise that these
water levels supply the soil with essential nutrients. This, in turn, aids in the development of grasses. The base of the food chain is
then formed by this. Animals would begin to die from a lack of essential nutrients if the floods stopped. While it is our responsibility to
(5)________ wildlife, we must never negatively affect the life cycle.

SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). traumatised B). shocked C). sheltered D). devastated
Correct Answer: D
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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park was (1)__________ by severe floods in 2016 that destroyed 80 per cent of the park’s land and killed
its wildlife.
World Heritage-listed Kaziranga National Park is in India. It is a (2)________ area with the highest tiger population in the world and is
home to two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. In addition, there are a lot of elephants, swamp deer, and wild water
buffalo in this area.
Nearly 250 animals, including at least 20 one-horned rhinos, were killed in the devastating 2016 floods. Over 200 animals were saved
by the foresters, including nine rhino calves. Sadly, we have very little control over the annual flood phenomenon. Due to significant
climatic changes, the possibility that it will only get worse in the coming years is (3)_________. Additionally, the dangers posed by
road and highway encroachment as well as the increasing number of human settlements surrounding the Park’s core areas are a
cause for concern.
In order to guarantee the complete safety of the wildlife and other inhabitants of the area, it is high time that we plan some risk
reduction measures. Because they are familiar with the river, its course, and other relocation centres where wildlife can be sheltered,
the local communities can support us. Additionally, we must ensure that no animals are chained up during the disaster. Their likelihood
of surviving floods is increased by 50% as a result.
When combined with the (4)________ provided by the public authority, conventional information by the local people can undoubtedly
prevent animals from succumbing to these devastating events.
The life cycle is extremely delicate. While preventing flooding would be beneficial for the animals, we must also recognise that these
water levels supply the soil with essential nutrients. This, in turn, aids in the development of grasses. The base of the food chain is
then formed by this. Animals would begin to die from a lack of essential nutrients if the floods stopped. While it is our responsibility to
(5)________ wildlife, we must never negatively affect the life cycle.

SubQuestion No : 82
Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). worried B). abhorred C). abided D). protected
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

r
each blank.

Si
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park was (1)__________ by severe floods in 2016 that destroyed 80 per cent of the park’s land and killed
its wildlife.

ap
World Heritage-listed Kaziranga National Park is in India. It is a (2)________ area with the highest tiger population in the world and is
home to two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. In addition, there are a lot of elephants, swamp deer, and wild water
buffalo in this area.
at
Nearly 250 animals, including at least 20 one-horned rhinos, were killed in the devastating 2016 floods. Over 200 animals were saved
by the foresters, including nine rhino calves. Sadly, we have very little control over the annual flood phenomenon. Due to significant
Pr

climatic changes, the possibility that it will only get worse in the coming years is (3)_________. Additionally, the dangers posed by
road and highway encroachment as well as the increasing number of human settlements surrounding the Park’s core areas are a
cause for concern.
an

In order to guarantee the complete safety of the wildlife and other inhabitants of the area, it is high time that we plan some risk
reduction measures. Because they are familiar with the river, its course, and other relocation centres where wildlife can be sheltered,
ag

the local communities can support us. Additionally, we must ensure that no animals are chained up during the disaster. Their likelihood
of surviving floods is increased by 50% as a result.
When combined with the (4)________ provided by the public authority, conventional information by the local people can undoubtedly
G

prevent animals from succumbing to these devastating events.

The life cycle is extremely delicate. While preventing flooding would be beneficial for the animals, we must also recognise that these
y

water levels supply the soil with essential nutrients. This, in turn, aids in the development of grasses. The base of the food chain is
B

then formed by this. Animals would begin to die from a lack of essential nutrients if the floods stopped. While it is our responsibility to
(5)________ wildlife, we must never negatively affect the life cycle.
hs

SubQuestion No : 83
at

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans A). appealing B). tempting C). threatening D). wondering
M

Correct Answer: C

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park was (1)__________ by severe floods in 2016 that destroyed 80 per cent of the park’s land and killed
its wildlife.
World Heritage-listed Kaziranga National Park is in India. It is a (2)________ area with the highest tiger population in the world and is
home to two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. In addition, there are a lot of elephants, swamp deer, and wild water
buffalo in this area.
Nearly 250 animals, including at least 20 one-horned rhinos, were killed in the devastating 2016 floods. Over 200 animals were saved
by the foresters, including nine rhino calves. Sadly, we have very little control over the annual flood phenomenon. Due to significant
climatic changes, the possibility that it will only get worse in the coming years is (3)_________. Additionally, the dangers posed by
road and highway encroachment as well as the increasing number of human settlements surrounding the Park’s core areas are a
cause for concern.
In order to guarantee the complete safety of the wildlife and other inhabitants of the area, it is high time that we plan some risk
reduction measures. Because they are familiar with the river, its course, and other relocation centres where wildlife can be sheltered,
the local communities can support us. Additionally, we must ensure that no animals are chained up during the disaster. Their likelihood
of surviving floods is increased by 50% as a result.
When combined with the (4)________ provided by the public authority, conventional information by the local people can undoubtedly
prevent animals from succumbing to these devastating events.
The life cycle is extremely delicate. While preventing flooding would be beneficial for the animals, we must also recognise that these
water levels supply the soil with essential nutrients. This, in turn, aids in the development of grasses. The base of the food chain is
then formed by this. Animals would begin to die from a lack of essential nutrients if the floods stopped. While it is our responsibility to
(5)________ wildlife, we must never negatively affect the life cycle.

SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). striving B). trying C). undertaking D). venturing
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

r
each blank.

Si
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park was (1)__________ by severe floods in 2016 that destroyed 80 per cent of the park’s land and killed
its wildlife.

ap
World Heritage-listed Kaziranga National Park is in India. It is a (2)________ area with the highest tiger population in the world and is
home to two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. In addition, there are a lot of elephants, swamp deer, and wild water
buffalo in this area.
at
Nearly 250 animals, including at least 20 one-horned rhinos, were killed in the devastating 2016 floods. Over 200 animals were saved
by the foresters, including nine rhino calves. Sadly, we have very little control over the annual flood phenomenon. Due to significant
Pr

climatic changes, the possibility that it will only get worse in the coming years is (3)_________. Additionally, the dangers posed by
road and highway encroachment as well as the increasing number of human settlements surrounding the Park’s core areas are a
cause for concern.
an

In order to guarantee the complete safety of the wildlife and other inhabitants of the area, it is high time that we plan some risk
reduction measures. Because they are familiar with the river, its course, and other relocation centres where wildlife can be sheltered,
ag

the local communities can support us. Additionally, we must ensure that no animals are chained up during the disaster. Their likelihood
of surviving floods is increased by 50% as a result.
When combined with the (4)________ provided by the public authority, conventional information by the local people can undoubtedly
G

prevent animals from succumbing to these devastating events.

The life cycle is extremely delicate. While preventing flooding would be beneficial for the animals, we must also recognise that these
y

water levels supply the soil with essential nutrients. This, in turn, aids in the development of grasses. The base of the food chain is
B

then formed by this. Animals would begin to die from a lack of essential nutrients if the floods stopped. While it is our responsibility to
(5)________ wildlife, we must never negatively affect the life cycle.
hs

SubQuestion No : 85
at

Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans A). safeguards B). safeguarded C). safeness D). safeguard
M

Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
One of the (1)_______ efficient systems of the human body is the circulatory system. It is considered to be made up of complex and
delicate blood vessels which (2)__________ blood to and from the heart. This system comprises artilleries, veins and capillaries. The
blood is pushed out of the heart to arteries (3)________ high pressure. (4)___________, the arteries have thick and muscular veins.
Veins bring blood from all parts of the body and work as the purifying (5)____ in the system. Capillaries transfer blood from arteries to
veins.

SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). more B). most C). several D). many
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
One of the (1)_______ efficient systems of the human body is the circulatory system. It is considered to be made up of complex and
delicate blood vessels which (2)__________ blood to and from the heart. This system comprises artilleries, veins and capillaries. The
blood is pushed out of the heart to arteries (3)________ high pressure. (4)___________, the arteries have thick and muscular veins.
Veins bring blood from all parts of the body and work as the purifying (5)____ in the system. Capillaries transfer blood from arteries to
veins.

SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). give B). catch C). carry D). clean
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
One of the (1)_______ efficient systems of the human body is the circulatory system. It is considered to be made up of complex and
delicate blood vessels which (2)__________ blood to and from the heart. This system comprises artilleries, veins and capillaries. The
blood is pushed out of the heart to arteries (3)________ high pressure. (4)___________, the arteries have thick and muscular veins.
Veins bring blood from all parts of the body and work as the purifying (5)____ in the system. Capillaries transfer blood from arteries to
veins.

SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). under B). of C). from D). in
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:

r
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in

Si
each blank.
One of the (1)_______ efficient systems of the human body is the circulatory system. It is considered to be made up of complex and
delicate blood vessels which (2)__________ blood to and from the heart. This system comprises artilleries, veins and capillaries. The

ap
blood is pushed out of the heart to arteries (3)________ high pressure. (4)___________, the arteries have thick and muscular veins.
Veins bring blood from all parts of the body and work as the purifying (5)____ in the system. Capillaries transfer blood from arteries to
veins.
at
SubQuestion No : 89
Pr

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans A). but B). because C). Therefore D). although
an

Correct Answer: C
ag

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
G

each blank.
One of the (1)_______ efficient systems of the human body is the circulatory system. It is considered to be made up of complex and
delicate blood vessels which (2)__________ blood to and from the heart. This system comprises artilleries, veins and capillaries. The
y

blood is pushed out of the heart to arteries (3)________ high pressure. (4)___________, the arteries have thick and muscular veins.
B

Veins bring blood from all parts of the body and work as the purifying (5)____ in the system. Capillaries transfer blood from arteries to
veins.
hs

SubQuestion No : 90
at

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

M

Ans A). station B). camp C). stage D). stand

Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The crystal clear, blue water and the magnificent sun make the Caribbean island of Saint Maarten a favourite vacation spot, one that
is popular with North Americans during their winter holidays from December through March, as well as with South Americans and
Europeans from April through August. The French and Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s, and to this day, the island is divided
between the two of them. The French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is Philipsburg. Tourists soon discover that St. Maarten has
an intriguing history. Ancient artifacts found on the island date back to the Stone Age, 6,000 years ago! Tourists also learn that 1,200
years ago the Arawak Indians inhabited all the islands of the West Indies and were a peaceful people living under the guidance of their
chiefs. Three hundred years after the Arawaks first arrived on St. Maarten, in the 1300s, they were defeated and forced to abandon
the island by a hostile tribe of Indians originating in South America. This new tribe was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was
named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in times of strife. And they were extremely
warlike.

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word in the context of the passage.
Intriguing
Ans A). Crunching B). Boring C). Stimulating D). Torrid
Correct Answer: B
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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The crystal clear, blue water and the magnificent sun make the Caribbean island of Saint Maarten a favourite vacation spot, one that
is popular with North Americans during their winter holidays from December through March, as well as with South Americans and
Europeans from April through August. The French and Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s, and to this day, the island is divided
between the two of them. The French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is Philipsburg. Tourists soon discover that St. Maarten has
an intriguing history. Ancient artifacts found on the island date back to the Stone Age, 6,000 years ago! Tourists also learn that 1,200
years ago the Arawak Indians inhabited all the islands of the West Indies and were a peaceful people living under the guidance of their
chiefs. Three hundred years after the Arawaks first arrived on St. Maarten, in the 1300s, they were defeated and forced to abandon
the island by a hostile tribe of Indians originating in South America. This new tribe was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was
named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in times of strife. And they were extremely
warlike.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
Ans A). The Arawaks first arrived at Saint Maarten around 1000 AD. B). The Carib tribe defeated the French in 1600 AD.
C). The Arawaks first arrived at Saint Maarten around 1300 AD. D). Both the Arawaks and Caribs had permanent chiefs.
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The crystal clear, blue water and the magnificent sun make the Caribbean island of Saint Maarten a favourite vacation spot, one that
is popular with North Americans during their winter holidays from December through March, as well as with South Americans and
Europeans from April through August. The French and Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s, and to this day, the island is divided
between the two of them. The French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is Philipsburg. Tourists soon discover that St. Maarten has
an intriguing history. Ancient artifacts found on the island date back to the Stone Age, 6,000 years ago! Tourists also learn that 1,200
years ago the Arawak Indians inhabited all the islands of the West Indies and were a peaceful people living under the guidance of their
chiefs. Three hundred years after the Arawaks first arrived on St. Maarten, in the 1300s, they were defeated and forced to abandon

r
the island by a hostile tribe of Indians originating in South America. This new tribe was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was

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named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in times of strife. And they were extremely
warlike.

Q.93
SubQuestion No : 93
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.
ap
at
Hostile
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Ans A). Magnificent B). Ancient C). Warlike D). Permanent

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
an

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
ag

The crystal clear, blue water and the magnificent sun make the Caribbean island of Saint Maarten a favourite vacation spot, one that
is popular with North Americans during their winter holidays from December through March, as well as with South Americans and
G

Europeans from April through August. The French and Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s, and to this day, the island is divided
between the two of them. The French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is Philipsburg. Tourists soon discover that St. Maarten has
y

an intriguing history. Ancient artifacts found on the island date back to the Stone Age, 6,000 years ago! Tourists also learn that 1,200
years ago the Arawak Indians inhabited all the islands of the West Indies and were a peaceful people living under the guidance of their
B

chiefs. Three hundred years after the Arawaks first arrived on St. Maarten, in the 1300s, they were defeated and forced to abandon
the island by a hostile tribe of Indians originating in South America. This new tribe was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was
hs

named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in times of strife. And they were extremely
warlike.
at

SubQuestion No : 94
M

Q.94 The passage talks about two groups of people: one which was peaceful by nature and one which wasn’t. List them in that
order.
Ans A). Arawaks and Caribs B). Arawaks and Dutch C). French and Caribs D). Dutch and French
Correct Answer: A

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The crystal clear, blue water and the magnificent sun make the Caribbean island of Saint Maarten a favourite vacation spot, one that
is popular with North Americans during their winter holidays from December through March, as well as with South Americans and
Europeans from April through August. The French and Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s, and to this day, the island is divided
between the two of them. The French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is Philipsburg. Tourists soon discover that St. Maarten has
an intriguing history. Ancient artifacts found on the island date back to the Stone Age, 6,000 years ago! Tourists also learn that 1,200
years ago the Arawak Indians inhabited all the islands of the West Indies and were a peaceful people living under the guidance of their
chiefs. Three hundred years after the Arawaks first arrived on St. Maarten, in the 1300s, they were defeated and forced to abandon
the island by a hostile tribe of Indians originating in South America. This new tribe was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was
named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in times of strife. And they were extremely
warlike.

SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 Which two groups of people settled in the island after 1600 AD?
Ans A). The Arawaks and the Caribs B). The French and the Caribs C). The Dutch and the Arawaks D). The French and the Dutch

Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Once upon a time, in a land far, far away, there lived a group of mischievous monkeys. These monkeys were known throughout the
land for their love of mischief and pranks. They were always up to something, and the other animals in the forest never knew what to
expect from them.
One day, the monkeys decided to play a prank on the elephants. They climbed up to the top of a tall tree and began throwing ripe
bananas at the unsuspecting elephants below. The elephants, not used to being pelted with fruit, were confused and startled. They
trumpeted in alarm and ran around in circles, trying to figure out what was happening.
The monkeys, meanwhile, were having the time of their lives. They laughed and chattered as they threw more and more bananas at

r
the elephants. The elephants, however, were not amused. They decided to teach the monkeys a lesson and began to shake the tree

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with all their might.
The monkeys, realizing they had gone too far, quickly climbed down from the tree and ran away as fast as they could. They knew they
had made a big mistake and felt guilty for causing so much trouble.
ap
From that day on, the monkeys decided to stick to less destructive pranks, like stealing the ranger’s hat or putting honey in the bird
feeder. They learned their lesson and lived happily ever after, never bothering the elephants again.
at
The moral of the story: monkeys will be monkeys, but sometimes even they need to learn when to stop monkey-ing around.
Pr

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 What did the elephants do to teach the monkeys a lesson?
an

Ans A). They threw bananas back at the monkeys. B). They called the ranger. C). They started shaking the tree with all their might.
D). They started chasing the monkeys.
Correct Answer: C
ag

Comprehension:
G

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
y

Once upon a time, in a land far, far away, there lived a group of mischievous monkeys. These monkeys were known throughout the
B

land for their love of mischief and pranks. They were always up to something, and the other animals in the forest never knew what to
expect from them.
hs

One day, the monkeys decided to play a prank on the elephants. They climbed up to the top of a tall tree and began throwing ripe
bananas at the unsuspecting elephants below. The elephants, not used to being pelted with fruit, were confused and startled. They
at

trumpeted in alarm and ran around in circles, trying to figure out what was happening.
The monkeys, meanwhile, were having the time of their lives. They laughed and chattered as they threw more and more bananas at
M

the elephants. The elephants, however, were not amused. They decided to teach the monkeys a lesson and began to shake the tree
with all their might.
The monkeys, realizing they had gone too far, quickly climbed down from the tree and ran away as fast as they could. They knew they
had made a big mistake and felt guilty for causing so much trouble.
From that day on, the monkeys decided to stick to less destructive pranks, like stealing the ranger’s hat or putting honey in the bird
feeder. They learned their lesson and lived happily ever after, never bothering the elephants again.
The moral of the story: monkeys will be monkeys, but sometimes even they need to learn when to stop monkey-ing around.

SubQuestion No : 97
Q.97 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans A). Worried B). Humorous C). Encouraging D). Assertive
Correct Answer: B

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 Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Once upon a time, in a land far, far away, there lived a group of mischievous monkeys. These monkeys were known throughout the
land for their love of mischief and pranks. They were always up to something, and the other animals in the forest never knew what to
expect from them.
One day, the monkeys decided to play a prank on the elephants. They climbed up to the top of a tall tree and began throwing ripe
bananas at the unsuspecting elephants below. The elephants, not used to being pelted with fruit, were confused and startled. They
trumpeted in alarm and ran around in circles, trying to figure out what was happening.
The monkeys, meanwhile, were having the time of their lives. They laughed and chattered as they threw more and more bananas at
the elephants. The elephants, however, were not amused. They decided to teach the monkeys a lesson and began to shake the tree
with all their might.
The monkeys, realizing they had gone too far, quickly climbed down from the tree and ran away as fast as they could. They knew they
had made a big mistake and felt guilty for causing so much trouble.
From that day on, the monkeys decided to stick to less destructive pranks, like stealing the ranger’s hat or putting honey in the bird
feeder. They learned their lesson and lived happily ever after, never bothering the elephants again.
The moral of the story: monkeys will be monkeys, but sometimes even they need to learn when to stop monkey-ing around.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Unsuspecting
Ans A). Trusting B). Naïve C). Unguarded D). Wary
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Once upon a time, in a land far, far away, there lived a group of mischievous monkeys. These monkeys were known throughout the
land for their love of mischief and pranks. They were always up to something, and the other animals in the forest never knew what to
expect from them.
One day, the monkeys decided to play a prank on the elephants. They climbed up to the top of a tall tree and began throwing ripe

r
bananas at the unsuspecting elephants below. The elephants, not used to being pelted with fruit, were confused and startled. They

Si
trumpeted in alarm and ran around in circles, trying to figure out what was happening.
The monkeys, meanwhile, were having the time of their lives. They laughed and chattered as they threw more and more bananas at

with all their might. ap

the elephants. The elephants, however, were not amused. They decided to teach the monkeys a lesson and began to shake the tree

The monkeys, realizing they had gone too far, quickly climbed down from the tree and ran away as fast as they could. They knew they
at
had made a big mistake and felt guilty for causing so much trouble.
From that day on, the monkeys decided to stick to less destructive pranks, like stealing the ranger’s hat or putting honey in the bird
Pr

feeder. They learned their lesson and lived happily ever after, never bothering the elephants again.
The moral of the story: monkeys will be monkeys, but sometimes even they need to learn when to stop monkey-ing around.
an

SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
ag

Ans A). Monkeying Around: A Tale of Mischief and Pranks B). Trouble in the Trees: A Monkey’s Mischief
G

C). The Great Elephant Uprising: A Cautionary Tale D). The Banana Bandit’s Misadventure
Correct Answer: A
y

Comprehension:
B

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
hs

Once upon a time, in a land far, far away, there lived a group of mischievous monkeys. These monkeys were known throughout the
land for their love of mischief and pranks. They were always up to something, and the other animals in the forest never knew what to
at

expect from them.

One day, the monkeys decided to play a prank on the elephants. They climbed up to the top of a tall tree and began throwing ripe
M

bananas at the unsuspecting elephants below. The elephants, not used to being pelted with fruit, were confused and startled. They
trumpeted in alarm and ran around in circles, trying to figure out what was happening.
The monkeys, meanwhile, were having the time of their lives. They laughed and chattered as they threw more and more bananas at
the elephants. The elephants, however, were not amused. They decided to teach the monkeys a lesson and began to shake the tree
with all their might.
The monkeys, realizing they had gone too far, quickly climbed down from the tree and ran away as fast as they could. They knew they
had made a big mistake and felt guilty for causing so much trouble.
From that day on, the monkeys decided to stick to less destructive pranks, like stealing the ranger’s hat or putting honey in the bird
feeder. They learned their lesson and lived happily ever after, never bothering the elephants again.
The moral of the story: monkeys will be monkeys, but sometimes even they need to learn when to stop monkey-ing around.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100 What can be inferred about the monkeys’ behaviour after the incident with the elephants?
Ans A). They stop playing pranks altogether. B). They only play pranks during certain times of the day.
C). They only play less harmful pranks. D). They continue to play pranks on the elephants.
Correct Answer: C

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