Some probable/or common MCQs from the Units 5 & 6.

Q1. CPCB stands for

(a) Control pollution control board (b) Central pollution central board
(c) Control pollution central board (d) Central pollution control board
Ans: (d) Central pollution control board
Note: CPCB was established in 1974. It provides technical services to the ministry of
environment and forests. It promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of
the states to prevent and control water pollution.
Q2. What is the full form of NAMP?
(a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program (b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
(c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program (d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
Ans: (a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
Q3. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
(a) Mumbai (b) Chennai (c) Mysore (d) New Delhi
Ans: (d) New Delhi
Q4. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
(a) 1970 (b) 1972 (c) 1974 (d) 1976
Ans: (c) 1974 (22nd September)
Q5. In which year, the Central Pollution Control Board initiated its own National Ambient Air
Quality Monitoring (NAAQM) program?
(a) 1995 (b) 1985 (c) 1992 (d) 1975
Ans: (b) 1985
Note: The national ambient air quality monitoring (NAAQM) network, established by CPCB in
1985, served as the foundation for ongoing and deliberate air quality monitoring across India.
Q6. Depending upon the generation of different air pollutants, they can be classified as
(a) point source or non-point pollutants (b) primary or secondary pollutants
(c) natural or anthropogenic pollutants (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) primary or secondary pollutants
Q7. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) and Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(b) Methane (CH4) and Chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs)
(c) Nitrogen (N2) and Hydrogen (H2)
(d) Nitrous oxide (N2O) and Water vapor (H2O)
Ans: (c) Nitrogen (N2) and Hydrogen (H2)
Q8. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Fly Ash (d) Smog (e) None of these
Ans: (d) Smog
Note: Smog is an air pollutant that is composed mainly of particulate matter such as pollen and
dust along with other particulate matter such as sulphur oxides, volatile organic compounds,
nitrogen oxides, and ammonia gas. Smog happens due to smoke, dust, and practices of carbon
entering into the atmosphere.

1
 Photochemical smog happens when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react
together in the presence of sunlight as a catalyst and form ozone at lower levels. The effects of
smog on human health and the environment are serious and harmful.
Q9. Smog is not form due to the presence of _____________ in the atmosphere.
(a) SO2 (b) NOx (c) CO2 (d) Any of theses
Ans: (c) CO2
Q10. Which of the following is called secondary air pollutant:
(a) SPM (Suspended Particulate Matter) (b) PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate)
(c) CO (Carbon Monoxide) (d) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
Ans: (b) PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate)
Q11. PAN is a secondary pollutant that
(a) forms when hydrocarbon radical reacts with nitrogen oxide.
(b) causes photochemical smog.
(c) may cause respiratory diseases in humans.
(d) All of the above.
Ans: (d) All of the above.
Q12. Which one of the following is a primary air pollutant?
(a) CO2 (b) NO (c) SO2 (d) All of theses
Ans: (d) All of theses
Q13. Photochemical smog is called
(a) Tokyo smog (b) London smog (c) Los Angeles smog (d) None of these
Ans: (b) London smog
Q14. The heating of earth's atmosphere due to trapped radiation is known as
(a) Global warming (b) Glass-House effect
(c) Thermal effect (d) Green House Effect
Ans: (d) Green House Effect
Q15. Which of the following is the main reason for producing the atmospheric greenhouse effect?
(a) Absorption and re-emission of infrared radiations by the atmosphere
(b) Absorption and re-emission of ultraviolet radiations by the atmosphere
(c) Absorption and re-emission of visible light by the atmosphere
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Absorption and re-emission of infrared radiations by the atmosphere.
Note: The greenhouse effect can be defined as the process by which radiation from the planet's
atmosphere warms the planet's surface to the temperature above what it would be without
this atmosphere and heat is trapped within the atmosphere.
Q16. Which of the following gas produces higher degree of greenhouse effect?
(a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) O3 (d) NO2
Ans: (b) CO2
Q17. Taj Mahal is threatened by pollution from: -
(a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen
Ans: (b) Sulphur dioxide
Note: Sulfur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, and nitrogen oxides are three polluting gases that pose
a threat to the Taj Mahal coming from the oil refinery near Mathura. They would transform the
2
 white marble's calcium carbonate into calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate. Acid rain is caused
by an increase in sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere.
Q18. Which of the following gas is present in the air in maximum amount?
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
Ans: (b) Nitrogen
Q19. The uses of CFCs are
(a) Aerosol propellants (b) Insulators (c) Refrigerants (d) All of these
Ans: (c) Refrigerants
Q20. Which one of the following is not normally a pollutant?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Hydrocarbons
Ans: (a) Carbon dioxide
Q21. Which of the following is a major source of air pollution?
(a) CO (b) CO2 (c) SO2 (d) N2
Ans: (a) CO (Carbon monoxide gas)
Q22. The most powerful eye irritant present in the smog is
(a) NO (b) O3 (c) PAN (d) SO2
Ans: (c) PAN
Q23. Nitric oxide is generated in
(a) Forest fires (b) Industry and domestic heating
(c) Intermale combustion engines (d) All of these
Ans: (c) Intermale combustion engines
Q24. The conversion of ammonia to nitrate is known as
(a) ammonification (b) nitrification (c) denitrification (d) all of these
Ans: (b) nitrification
Q25. The rate at which air temperature in the about troposphere gradually decreases with height is
about _______ °C/km.
(a) 0.05 (b) 1 (c) 6.5 (d) 15
Ans: (c) 6.5 °C/km
Q26. Which day is the International Day of Ozone preservation:
(a) 16th September (b) 9th May (c) 22nd March (d) 12th July
Ans: (a) 16th September
Q27. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in which of the following units?
(a) Meters (b) Centimeters (c) Dobson units (d) Decibel units.
Ans: (c) Dobson units
Q28. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy, one of the world's worst industrial disasters, occurred in which year?
(a) 1984 (b) 1986 (c) 1994 (d) 2002
Ans: (a) 1984
Q29. In 1984, the worst gas tragedy in India took place in
(a) Bengaluru (b) Mumbai (c) Bhopal (d) Patna
Ans: (c) Bhopal
Note: The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was primarily caused by the release of methyl isocyanate (MIC)
gas from the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh,
India. The incident occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984, and resulted in one of the
3
 world's worst industrial disasters. The toxic gas exposure led to immediate fatalities, long-term
health issues for survivors, and severe environmental consequences in the surrounding area.
Q30. What is the main reason for ozone depletion?
(a) Releasing of chemicals (b) Releasing of oxygen
(c) Releasing of CFCs (d) Releasing of nitrogen
Ans: (c) Releasing of CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCS) are extremely stable, non-flammable.)
Q31. Which of the following component is more hazardous to ozone layer?
(a) Halons (b) Nitrogen (c) CFCs (d) Sulphur
Ans: (a) Halons
Note: Halons are similar to structure to CFCs but it contains bromine instead of chlorine.
Halons, which were widely used in fire extinguishers and explosion suppression systems, have
an extremely high potential for ozone depletion - they are ten times more potent than
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and they also act as a global warming agent - three and a half
thousand times as potent as carbon dioxide (CO2)
Q32. Why ozone depletion more over the South Pole?
(a) Due to uneven disturbance of CFCs
(b) Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere
(c) Due to cyclonic depression in South Pole
(d) Due to extreme pressure
Ans: (b) Due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic atmosphere
Note: Despite the fact that CFCs are evenly distributed over the globe, ozone depletion is
especially pronounced over the South Pole due to extreme weather conditions in the Antarctic
atmosphere.
Q33. Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen oxide (c) Methane (d) Ozone
Ans: (b) Nitrogen oxide
Q34. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are also known as ______________.
(a)Anisol (b) Freon (c) Fluoromethane (d) Carbene
Ans: (b) Freon
Freon is a simple fluorinated aliphatic organic compound that is used in commerce and
industry. Freons are types of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs),
and related compounds. The Freons are colorless, odorless, nonflammable, noncorrosive gases
or liquids of low toxicity that were introduced as refrigerants in the 1930s.
Q35. Which pollution causes Itai-Itai disease in human beings?
(a) Cadmium pollution (b) Mercury pollution
(c) Nitrate pollution (d) Arsenic pollution
Ans: (a) Cadmium pollution
Itai-itai disease is caused by cadmium (Cd) exposure, produced as a result of human activities
related to industrialization, and this condition was first recognized in Japan in the 1960s. Itai-
itai disease is characterized by osteomalaecia with severe bone pain and is associated with
renal tubular dysfunction.
Q36. Which pollution causes Minamata disease in human beings?
(a) Cadmium pollution (b) Mercury pollution
(c) Nitrate pollution (d) Arsenic pollution
4
Ans: (b) Mercury pollution (Minamata disease is a neurological disease)
Q37. Which pollution causes blue baby syndrome?
(a) Cadmium pollution (b) Mercury pollution
(c) Nitrate pollution (d) Arsenic pollution
Ans: (c) Nitrate pollution
Q38. Black foot disease is caused by the pollution of groundwater as a consequence of increased
seepage of:
(a) Fluorides (b) Mercury (c) Nitrates (d) Arsenic
Ans: (d) Arsenic
Q39. When did India signed the Montreal Protocol?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
Ans: (c) 1992 (Note: India signed the Montreal Protocol in 1992. The aim is to control the production
and consumption of ozone depleting substances. It was set up as an example of a successful
international agreement.)
Q40. Which of the following causes the rusting of iron?
(a) Oxidation (b) Chemical reaction with oxygen
(c) Reduction (d) Chemical reaction with C02
Ans: (a) Oxidation & (b) Chemical reaction with oxygen
Q41. What converts the oxygen into ozone in the upper atmosphere?
(a) Isomerizing radiation (b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) Solar radiation (d) Ionizing radiation
Ans: (b) Ultraviolet radiation
Note: Layer of ozone molecules found in the stratosphere (the second layer of the atmosphere)
that oxygen is converted into ozone due to irradiation of UV light. Ozone is a molecule made up
of three oxygen atoms, often represent as O3.
Q42. Mostly ozone layer is present in
(a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Thermosphere (d) Stratosphere
Ans: (d) Stratosphere
Note: The stratosphere is the second major layer of the earth's atmosphere. It is present below
the mesosphere and just above the troposphere. About 90% ozone is present in a region of
stratosphere that absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the sun and about 10% of
ozone is present in a region of troposphere.
Q43. What is the main reason for skin cancer?
(a) Due to unhealthy lifestyle (b) Due to mutation
(c) Due to UV radiations (d) Due to alcohol consumption
Ans: (c) Due to UV radiations
Note: When humans are exposed to Sunlight where due to ozone layer depletion receives direct
UV radiations which cause skin burn which further causes skin cancer.
Q44. Which of the following is the cause of Melanornia (skin cancer)?
(a) Allergens (b) Acid rain (c) Ozone depletion (d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Ozone depletion
Note: Skin cancer can be defined as the abnormal growth of skin cells. Ozone depletion means
the thinning of the ozone layer present in the upper atmosphere. It is very harmful to nature
and the atmosphere. It might result in various health issues such as skin cancer, etc.
5
Q45. Which of the following is not an environmental problem?
(a) Loss of Biodiversity (b) Genetic modification of food
(c) Afforestation (d) Acid Rain
Ans: (c) Afforestation
Q46. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of __________________.
(a)sulphuric acid and nitric acid (b)hexane and methane
(c)acetic acid and bromine (d) ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans: (a)sulphuric acid and nitric acid
Q47. The main reason for blueness of the sky is
(a) Due to the absorption of blue light due to the air (b) Due to the presence of water vapor
(c) Due to the scattering of sunlight by air molecules (d)None of the these
Ans: (c) Due to the scattering of sunlight by air molecules
Note: A clear and cloudless sky is blue because the air molecules scatter blue light more than
the red light from the sun. At the time of sunset, we see orange and red colors because of the
scattering out of blue light.
Q48. CNG stands for
(a) Compressed National gas (b) Compressed Natural gas
(c) Common Natural gas (d) Certified National gas
Ans: (b) Compressed Natural gas
Q49. Which of the following device is used to measure the atmospheric humidity?
(a) Auxanometer (b) Photometer (c) Hygrometer (d) Barometer
Ans: (c) Hygrometer
Q50. What is the indicator of pollution in water?
(a) Amount of oxygen (b) Amount of hydrogen
(c) Amount of BOD (d) Amount of nitrogen
Ans: (c) Amount of BOD
Note: The amount of oxygen required to break down a certain amount of organic matter is
called the biological oxygen demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in water is an indicator of the
level of pollution.
Q51. ________ gives an empirical value to water quality and is a parameter for the organic matter
present in water.
(a) BOD (b) COD (c) DO (d) All of these
Ans: (a) BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand)
Note: COD stand for Chemical Oxygen Demand and DO stand for Dissolved Oxygen.
Q52. What is the unit of BOD?
(a) g L 1 (b) kg (c) g cm 1 (d) mg L 1
Ans: (d) mg L or mg/L
1

Q53. The mean temperature of the earth is approximately

(a) 10 C (b) 15 C (c) 20 C (d) 29 C
Ans: (a) 10 C
Q54. The BOD of a pond is high, the pond is: -
(a) highly polluted (b) not polluted
(c) without any green vegetation (d) None of the these
Ans: (a) highly polluted
6
Q55. What does COD measure in water?
(a) The amount of dissolved oxygen (b) The amount of organic pollutants
(c) The temperature of the water (d) The acidity of the water
Ans: (b) The amount of organic pollutants
Note: Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is the amount of oxygen needed to oxidize the organic
matter present in water. Chemical oxygen demand testing is used to determine the amount of
oxidation that will occur and the amount of organic matter in a water sample. Chemical oxygen
demand testing is also used to determine the amount of inorganic chemicals in a sample. It is
commonly expressed in mass of oxygen consumed over volume of solution, which in SI units is
milligrams per liter (mg/L).
Q56. COD is often used as an indicator of:
(a) Water clarity (b) Oxygen levels in water
(c) Organic pollution and water quality (d) Salinity of water
Ans: (c) Organic pollution and water quality
Q57. High COD levels in water suggest:
(a) Low pollution
(b) Minimal organic pollutants
(c) High pollution and a high demand for oxygen
(d) Excellent water quality
Ans: (c) High pollution and a high demand for oxygen
Q58. What does TDS stand for?
(a) Total Drinking Solutions (b) Total Dissolved Solids
(c) Total Density of Substances (d) Total Decomposed Solvents
Ans: (b) Total Dissolved Solids
Q59. Which of the following is a measure of TDS in water?
(a) pH (b) Conductivity (c) Temperature (d) Turbidity
Ans: (b) Conductivity
Q60. What is the unit of measurement commonly used for TDS?
(a) Degrees Celsius (°C) (b) Parts Per Million (ppm)
(c) Newtons (N) (d) Lumens (lm)
Ans: (b) Parts Per Million (ppm)
Q61. CBWTF stands for
(a) the Common Biochemical Waste Treatment Forum
(b) the Council of Biomedical Waste Treatment Forum
(c) the Common Biomedical Waste Treatment Facility
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) the Common Biomedical Waste Treatment Facility
Q62. How do industrial pollution results in water pollution?
(a) Dumping of various waste products from industries
(b) Taking water bodies places to built industries
(c) Industries which uses all the water from the water bodies and cause scarcity of water
(d) Building of purification unit in the industries
Ans: (a) Dumping of various waste products from industries
Q63. Which of the following organisms found in human waste that cause water pollution?
7
 (a) Coliform bacteria (b) Viruses
(c) Protozoa (d) Parasitic worms
Ans: (a) Coliform bacteria
Note: Humans waste contains concentrated populations of coliform bacteria such as
Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis. These bacteria normally grow in the large intestine
of the human body.
Q64. The metal associated with ground water pollution in the present day is
(a) mercury (b) lead (c) cadmium (d) arsenic
Ans: (d) arsenic.
Q65. When does the rate of aerobic oxidation reduced in the sewage that is reduced to the water?
(a) When oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l
(b) When oxygen concentration falls below 2.5 mg/l
(c) When oxygen concentration falls below 3.5 mg/l
(d) When oxygen concentration falls below 4.5 mg/l
Ans: (a) When oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l
When the oxygen concentration falls below 1.5 mg/l, the rate of aerobic oxidation is reduced
and replaced by anaerobic bacteria that can oxidizes the organic molecules without the use of
oxygen.
Q66. Which of the following is NOT a biodegradable pollutant?
(a) Pesticide (b) Paper waste (c)Manure (d) Fruit waste
Ans: (a) Pesticide
Note: DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, used as insecticide), plastics, polythene, bags,
insecticides, pesticides, mercury, lead, arsenic, metal articles like aluminum cans, synthetic
fibers, glass objects, iron products, silver foils, etc. are nonbiodegradable pollutants.
Those pollutants which can be broken down into simpler, harmless, substances in nature in
due course of time (by the action of micro-organisms like certain bacteria) are called
biodegradable pollutants.
Domestic wastes (garbage), urine, fecal matter, sewage, agriculture residues, paper, wood,
cloth, cattle dung, animal bones, leather, wool, vegetable stuff, or plants, etc. are biodegradable
pollutants.
Q67. Which of the following is an exclusive example of industrial sources of soil pollution?
(a) Solid waste (b) Effluent and sewage
(c) Pesticides and Chemical fertilizers (d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
Q68. Cultural Eutrophication is caused by which of the following?
(a) Sediments brought by a tributory stream
(b) Nutrients brought by a tributory stream
(c) Nutrients added into the water bodies by anthropogenic factors
(d) More than one of the above
Ans: (c) Nutrients added into the water bodies by anthropogenic factors
Note: Cultural eutrophication occurs when human activities, such as the release of excess
nutrients (e.g., nitrogen and phosphorus) from agricultural runoff, sewage discharge, and
industrial processes, lead to an overabundance of nutrients in aquatic ecosystems.

8
 Nutrient enrichment of lakes at an accelerated rate is caused by human activities and the
consequent ageing phenomenon is known as cultural eutrophication. Activities like the
discharge of wastewaters or agricultural runoff cause cultural eutrophication.
The nutrient-enrichment of the lakes promotes the growth of algae, aquatic plants and various
fauna. This process is known as natural eutrophication.
Q69. Which of the following chemical compound causes Bio-magnification?
(a) Methane (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) DDT (c) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (c) DDT
Note: Biomagnification is the accumulation of the increasing amount of non-degradable
pollutants through the food chain i.e., the concentration of toxicants increases at successive
trophic levels.
It is caused because a toxic substance accumulated in an organism cannot be metabolized or
excreted out. These bio-magnification is usually caused by Mercury (Hg) and
Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT).
Q70. Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is an example of: -
(a) Biochemical pollutant (b) Non-biodegradable pollutant
(c) Biodegradable pollutant (d) Non-pollutant
Ans: (b) Non-biodegradable pollutant
Note: DDT is a colourless, crystalline, tasteless, and almost odorless organochlorine known for
its insecticidal properties and environmental impacts.
Q71. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
(a) Animal bones (b) Wool (c) Nylon (d) Tea leaves
Ans: (c) Nylon
Q72. Which one is the major causative pollutant for the soil?
(a) Detergents (b) Plastics (c) Iron junks (d) Pesticides
Ans: (b) Plastics
However other three options are also harmful when it uses in extensive amount.
Q73. Which fertilizer used excessively could be the cause of the poisonous material found in the
groundwater?
(a) Phosphate (b) Potassium (c) Nitrogen (d) Phosphate and
potassium
Ans: (c) Nitrogen
Note: High application rates of nitrogen-containing fertilizers combined with the high water-
solubility of nitrate lead to increased runoff into surface water as well as leaching into
groundwater, thereby causing groundwater pollution. The heavy use of nitrogenous fertilizers
in cropping systems is the largest contributor to anthropogenic nitrogen in groundwater
worldwide.
Examples: Urea, Ammonium nitrate, Ammonium sulphate, etc.
Q74. The salinization can be defined as
(a) Accumulation of salts in the body (b) Accumulation of salts in the soil
(c) Accumulation of salts in animals (d) Accumulation of salts in water
Ans: (b) Accumulation of salts in the soil
Note: Salinization is the process of increasing the salt content in the soil. Salts enter the soil via
irrigation. Depletion of vegetation occurs due to the increased salinization of the soil.
9
Q75. Which of the following is the cause of soil pollution?
(a) Aerosol (b) Acid rain (c) Ozone (d) All of these
Ans: (b) Acid rain
Q76. The pollutants that decomposable and manageable in nature are termed as
(a) Renewable pollutants (b) Non-biodegradable pollutants
(c) Biodegradable pollutants (d) None of these
Ans: (c) Biodegradable pollutants
Q77. The mosquito repellent that is used in the homes in the form of a coil, liquids, etc. are
(a) Pesticide (b) Sedatives (c) Fertilizers (d) Insecticide
Ans: (d) Insecticide
Substances that are used to kill insects are insecticides. Insecticides include larvicides and
ovicides that are used against eggs and larvae of insects.
Q77. Why area treatment is important for soil?
(a) To reduces the impact of raindrops on the soil
(b) To maximize surface run-off
(c) Not treating the upper catchment and proceeds towards an outlet
(d) Not storing surplus rainwater
Ans: (a) To reduces the impact of raindrops on the soil
Q78. Which of the following items is recommended to be avoided in the context of Organic
agriculture?
(a) Organic manure (b) Stored water
(c) Modern technologies in harvesting (d) Chemical fertilizers
Ans: (d) Chemical fertilizers
Q79. What is a major source of soil pollution?
(a) Pesticides (b) Organic matter
(c) Earthworms (d) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Ans: (a) Pesticides
Q80. What is a potential health risk associated with soil pollution?
(a) Enhanced nutrient content in crops
(b) Reduced groundwater contamination
(c) Increased risk of respiratory diseases
(d) Improved soil fertility
Ans: (c) Increased risk of respiratory diseases
Q81. What is the term for the process of removing or neutralizing contaminants from the soil?
(a) Erosion (b) Leaching (c) Phytoremediation (d) Sedimentation
Ans: (c) Phytoremediation
Q82. Which type of pollution is NOT directly related to soil pollution?
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution (c) Noise pollution (d) Light pollution
Ans: (c) Noise pollution
Q83. What is a common effect of soil pollution on plant life?
(a) Accelerated growth (b) Increased crop yield
(c) Reduced fertility (d) Enhanced resistance to diseases
Ans: (c) Reduced fertility

10
Q84. Which of the following pollutants is often associated with agricultural activities and can lead
to soil pollution?
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrogen-based fertilizers (c) Ozone (d) Sulfur dioxide
Ans: (b) Nitrogen-based fertilizers
Q85. Hormones and pheromones are
(a) first generation pesticides (b) second generation pesticides
(c) third generation pesticides (d) fourth generation pesticides
Ans: (c) third generation pesticides
Q86. Vermicomposting is a method of composting that involves
(a) tapeworms (b) silkworms (c) earthworms (d) leeches
Ans: (c) earthworms
Q87. The common conversion of solid waste into manure & biogas, using bacteria & fungi is called
(a) recycling of waste (b) disposal of waste
(c) composting (d) incineration
Ans: (c) composting
Q88. Which one of the following is the prime factor towards soil pollution?
(a) Soil erosion (b) Dumping of industrial wastes
(c) Floods (d) Using land for irrigation
Ans: (b) Dumping of industrial wastes (Note: Dumping of industrial wastes contain large amounts
of various chemicals which get accumulated on the top layer of soil, resulting in loss of fertility
of the soil. Such loss of fertility ultimately results in changes in the ecological balances.)
Q89. What is noise?
(a) Desirable sound (b) Desirable and unwanted sound
(c) Undesirable and unwanted sound (d) Undesirable and wanted sound
Ans: (c) Undesirable and unwanted sound
Q90. Behavioural disorders, development of destructive nature in later stages and neurotic traits as
adults are the outcome of
(a) noise pollution (b) thermal pollution
(c) radiation pollution (d) soil pollution
Ans: (a) noise pollution
Q91. In which unit sound is measured?
(a) Pascal (Pa) (b) Kilometer (km) (c) Decibel (dB) (d) Kilogram (kg)
Ans: (c) Decibel (dB)
Note: The decibel (dB) is a logarithmic number for expressing the ratio of a physical quantity,
usually power or intensity, to a specified or implied reference level.
Q93. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 125 (d) 150
Ans: (d) 150
Note: Exposure to noise greater than 140 dB can permanently damage hearing. Almost all
firearms create noise that is over the 140 dB level. Threshold of pain is described as the
maximum level in which one can sustain the noise after this the noise and cause several health-
related issues and it even damage the hearing capacity permanently or temporarily.
Q94. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
(a) Temporary ear pain (b) Temporary hearing problem
11
 (c) Temporary threshold shift (d) Temporary hearing shift
Ans: (c) Temporary threshold shift
Q95. What is the permissible noise limit of 120 dB?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 1 minute (c) 2 minutes (d) 30 minutes
Ans: (a) 30 seconds
Note: One can hear 120 dB for a duration of 30 seconds. For 30 seconds the permissible noise
limit is 120 dB. If someone hear more than this duration there are high chances of hearing loss
and other mental health issues.
Q96. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
(a) 2000 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2007
Ans: (a) 2000
Q97. Which of the following Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
(a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires
(b) Ministry of Pollution Control
(c) Ministry of Industries
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ans: (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q98. What is the dB level for heavy vehicles in India?
(a) 65 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 80
Ans: (d) 80 (Note: 80 dB is the standard noise limit which has been accepted by Government of India
for heavy vehicles.)
Q99. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
(a) 75 dB (b) 80 dB (c) 85 dB (d) 100 dB
Ans: (a) 75 dB (Note: The ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time are 75
dB and during night it is 70 dB.)
Q100. What is the reason that oil pollution attracts the greatest attention?
(a) Because of the volume (b) Because of the density
(c) Because of the mass (d) Because of the visibility
Ans: (d) Because of the visibility
Q101. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
(a) 40 dB (b) 45 dB (c) 50 dB (d) 55 dB
Ans: (b) 45 dB
Note: The ambient noise level in residential zone during night period is 45 dB. During day time
the ambient noise levels in the residential area are 55 dB. Ambient noise levels are different
for commercial zone and industrial zones.
Q102. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
(a) 1974 (b) 1981 (c) 1988 (d) 1994
Ans: (b) 1981
Note: Noise though not defined in any statute but it is included as environmental pollutants in
Section (a) of the Air Act 1981. After this included noise is recognized as a kind of air pollution
and steps are taken to control it efficiently.
Q103. Electrostatic precipitator and filters are used in factories to minimize

12
 (a) air pollution (b) water pollution.
(c) noise pollution (d) pesticide pollution.
Ans: (a) air pollution
Q104. Which of the following are the negative health effects of noise pollution?
(a) Stress and headache (b) Hearing loss (c) Hypertension (d) All of these
Ans: (d) All of these
Q105. Which of the following is a common heavy metal pollutant in soil?
(a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Mercury (d) Calcium
Ans: (c) Mercury
Q106. Why industries pollute water?
(a) Because they use water in large quantities
(b) Because they release all the pollutants to water
(
(d) Because water is an universal solvent
Ans: (b) Because they release all the pollutants to water
Q107. What is the primary cause of soil contamination by industrial chemicals?
(a) Agricultural runoff (b) Air pollution (c) Industrial discharge (d) Soil erosion
Ans: (c) Industrial discharge
Q108. Which of the following is the consequence of industrial pollution?
(a) Increase in the water level in seas (b) Releases of the hazardous radiations
(c) Increase in the animals in forests (d) Global warming
Ans: (d) Global warming
Q109. Which of the following are the largest contributors to global pollution?
(a) Soil pollution (b) Industrial pollution
(c) Radioactive pollution (d) Water pollution
Ans: (b) Industrial pollution
Q110. What is called for the pollution that can be traced directly to industrial activity?
(a) Soil pollution (b) Water pollution (c) Air pollution (d) Industrial pollution
Ans: (d) Industrial pollution
Q111. Which of the following energy is stored in the earth?
(a) Mechanical energy (b) Solar energy (c) Chemical energy (d) Geothermal
energy
Ans: (d) Geothermal energy
Q112. Which one of the following industries produced Sulfur dioxide and fly ash as pollutants?
(a) Textile industries (b) Cottage industries
(c) Thermal industries (d) Coal industries
Ans: (c) Thermal industries
Q113. Which is the most input of waste causing marine pollution?
(a) Pesticides (b) Pipes directly discharge waste into the sea
(c) Death of aquatic organisms (d) Climatic conditions

13
Ans: (b) Pipes directly discharge waste into the sea
Q114. What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated
water to its source?
(a) Water pollution (b) Soil pollution (c) Air pollution (d) Thermal pollution
Ans: (d) Thermal pollution
Q115. Which one of the following can cause thermal pollution?
(a) Residential houses (b) Power plants
(c) Death of marine organisms (d) Oil spill
Ans: (b) Power plants (Note: Thermal pollution refers to the degradation of water quality as a result
of any process that changes the ambient water temperature. Power plants discharge heated
water, which is at least 15 C higher than the normal and it is back into a water body.)
Q116. What is the effect of warmer temperature to the fishes?
(a) Increase the metabolism (b) Decrease the metabolism
(c) Stabilize the metabolism (d) Increase the solubility of oxygen
Ans: (a) Increase the metabolism
Q117. What is a thermal shock?
(a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
(b) Sudden cooling of temperature to abnormal level
(
(d) Temperature changes only due to environmental factors
Ans: (a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
Q118. What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
(a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
(b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
(c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
(d)
Ans: (c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
Q119. How does an artificial lake help in solving thermal pollution?
(a) It stores heated water
(b) It gives a good aesthetic view
(c) It helps to breed fishes
(d) It is used during the summer season where water scarcity cause
Ans: (a) It stores heated water
Q120. What is the disadvantage of control measures of thermal pollution by passing the heated
water?
(a) Water is lost due to leakage
(b) Water is lost due to absorption
(c) Water is lost due to dilution
(d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Ans: (d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Q121. Which of the following is the main reason for thermal pollution?

14
 (a) Bio fuels (b) Organic farming
(c) Eco friendly vehicles (d) Power plants
Ans: (d) Power plants
Q122. What is the term for the phenomenon where elevated water temperatures reduce the amount
of dissolved oxygen in water?
(a) Hypoxia (b) Photosynthesis (c) Eutrophication (d)Stratification
Ans: (a) Hypoxia
Q123. How does thermal pollution affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of water?
(a) It increases oxygen-carrying capacity.
(b) It has no impact on oxygen levels.
(c) It decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity.
(d) It stabilizes oxygen levels.
Ans: (c) It decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q124. The process of conversion of electricity (energy) from waste is called
(a) pyrolysis (b) vermicomposting
(c) sanitary landfill (d) plastic recycling
Ans: (a) pyrolysis
Q125. The main discharge from a thermal power plant is
(a) smog (b) dust particulates (c) fly ash (d) smoke
Ans: (c) fly ash
Q126. Incineration is the disposal method of
(a) water pollutants (b) air pollutants
(c) solid waste (d) All of these
Ans: (c) solid waste
Q127. Which of the following is a geothermal source of energy?
(a) Tidal waves (b) Ocean current
(c) Gases and hot springs (d) All of these
Ans: (c) Gases and hot springs
Q128. Which river in India is considered the most polluted, especially due to industrial discharges?
(a) Ganges (b) Yamuna (c) Brahmaputra (d) Godavari
Ans: (b) Yamuna
Q129. The principal pollutant from automobile exhaust is
(a) mercury (b) lead (c) chromium (d) cadmium
Ans: (b) lead
Q130. Where we can find water soluble radioactive isotopes?
(a) In radioactive reactor (b) In radioactive coolant
(c) In radioactive shield (d) In radioactive waste
Ans: d) In radioactive waste
Q131. Which radioactive element is commonly associated with nuclear power plant accidents, such
as the Chernobyl disaster?

15
 (a) Radon (b) Cesium-137 (c) Uranium (d) Thorium
Ans: (b) Cesium-137
Q132. Radioactive pollution can lead to the contamination of:
(a) Air and water (b) Soil and air
(c) Water and soil (d) Only air
Ans: (c) Water and soil
Q133. The process of the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nucleus of an unstable atom is
known as:
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (c) Radioactive decay (d) Ionization
Ans: (c) Radioactive decay
Q134. The unit used to measure the activity of a radioactive substance is:
(a) Gray (Gy) (b) Sievert (Sv) (c) Becquerel (Bq) (d) Tesla (T)
Ans: (c) Becquerel (Bq)
Note: The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel (Bq) and this term is named after Henri
Becquerel. Unit of radioactivity is defined as: The activity of a quantity of radioactive material
where one decay takes place per second.
1 curie (Ci) = 3.7×1010 radioactive decays per second.
1 Bq = 1 radioactive decay per second = 2.703 10 11 Ci.
1 Rutherford = 1.106 radionuclide decays per second.
Q135. One Curie is equal to
(a) 3.7 1010 disintegrations/second (b) 2.08 109 pairs of gaseous ions
(c) 2 10 5 Nm 2 (d) 10 12 w/m2
Ans: (a) 3.7 1010 disintegrations/second
Q136. Which of the following is a common health effect associated with exposure to ionizing
radiation?
(a) Vitamin deficiency (b) Respiratory issues
(c) Cancer (d) Allergic reactions
Ans: (c) Cancer
Q137. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes for:
(a) The isotope to decay to half its original quantity
(b) The isotope to reach its maximum activity
(c) The isotope to become non-radioactive
(d) The isotope to be absorbed by living organisms
Ans: (a) The isotope to decay to half its original quantity
Q138. What is the primary concern regarding the disposal of radioactive waste?
(a) Soil erosion (b) Air pollution
(c) Groundwater contamination (d) Noise pollution
Ans: (c) Groundwater contamination
Q139. Which of the following materials is commonly used as a shielding material to protect against
ionizing radiation?
(a) Lead (b) Aluminum (c) Copper (d) Glass
16
Ans: (a) Lead
Q140. What is the primary source of anthropogenic radioactive pollution?
(a) Volcanic eruptions (b) Nuclear power plants
(c) Solar radiation (d) Forest fires
Ans: (b) Nuclear power plants
Q141. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the
environment?
(a) India (b) Brazil (c) China (d) Japan
Ans: (a) India (Note: In 1976, the Indian parliament passed the 42nd amendment to its constitution
for safeguarding the environment.)
Q142. Which of the following is the first national park in India?
(a) Gir National Park (b) Kanha National Park
(c) Jim Corbett National Park (d) Ranthambore National Park
Ans: (c) Jim Corbett National Park
Note: Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India, spread over 500square
kilometers. It is situated in the district of Nainital in the state of Uttarakhand, India and is also
a part of Corbett Tiger Reserve. It got its name from Jim Corbett that was a hunter who later
became a conservationist.
Q143. The names of Baba Amte and Medha Patkar are associated with which of the protest
movements of India?
(a) Silent Valley Movement (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement (d) All of these
Ans: (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Q144. Chipko Movement is
(a) a movement of political strength (b) an environmental movement
(c) a movement for independence (d) None of these
Ans: (b) an environmental movement
Q145. Environmental planning organization is
(a) ICAR (b) NEERI (c) NCO (d) NPO
Ans: (b) NEERI (National Environmental Engineering Research Institute)
Q146. The two largest dam-reservoirs which were planned to be constructed on river Narmada are
(a) Sardar Sarovar and Narmada Sagar.
(b) Sardar Sarovar and Nagarjuna Sagar.
(c) Narmada Sagar and Nagarjuna Sagar.
(d) Narmada Dam and Sardar Dam.
Ans: (a) Sardar Sarovar and Narmada Sagar.
Q147. Which international document is considered the foundation of modern human rights?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) Geneva Conventions
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Treaty of Versailles

17
Ans: (a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Q148. Which organization is responsible for monitoring and promoting human rights globally?
(a) United Nations (b) World Health Organization
(c) International Monetary Fund (d) Amnesty International
Ans: (a) United Nations
Q149. The right to education is recognized as a fundamental human right in which international
treaty?
(a) Convention on the Rights of the Child
(b) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(c) Convention against Torture
(d) Paris Agreement
Ans: (a) Convention on the Rights of the Child
Q150. What is the primary objective of the Kyoto Protocol?
(a) Conservation of biodiversity
(b) Reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
(c) Protection of ozone layer
(d) Prevention of deforestation
Ans: (b) Reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
Q151. Which international organization is dedicated to the conservation and sustainable use of the
world's oceans?
(a) Greenpeace (b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
(c) International Maritime Organization (IMO) (d) Ocean Conservancy
Ans: (c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
Q152. The right to freedom of expression is protected under which article of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) Article 3 (b) Article 12
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 30
Ans: (c) Article 19
Q153. In the Indian Constitution, which article explicitly mentions the Right to Equality?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 25
Ans: (a) Article 14
Q154. The Protection of Human Rights Act in India was enacted in which year?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1996 (d) 2000
Ans: (b) 1993
Q155. Which fundamental right in the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
(a) Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
(b) Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
(c) Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Ans: (a) Right to Equality (Article 14-18)

18
Q156. The concept of "Sustainable Development" was prominently highlighted in which landmark
report?
(a) Brundtland Report (b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Rio Declaration (d) Montreal Protocol
Ans: (a) Brundtland Report
Q157. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
(a) should be made compulsory for starting a developmental project
(b) should not be made compulsory for starting a developmental project
(c) should be done after completion of a developmental project
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) should be made compulsory for starting a developmental project
Q158. First International convention on environment was held in
(a) New Delhi (b) New York (c) Stockholm (d) Geneva
Ans: (c) Stockholm
Q159. The term "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under which
article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 30
Ans: (a) Article 17
Q160. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in India was formerly
known as:
(a) Ministry of Ecology and Environment
(b) Ministry of Forests and Wildlife
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(d) Ministry of Natural Resources
Ans: (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q161. Chipko Movement was held in
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
Ans: (a) Uttar Pradesh
Q162. In India, Control of air Pollution is protected by
(a) Forest Act (b) Police Act
(c) Environmental Pollution Act (d) Wildlife Act.
Ans: (c) Environmental Pollution Act
Q163. The Silent Valley is a
(a) place in Himachal Pradesh
(b) densely forested valley in Palghat district of north Kerala
(c) valley in Garhwal Himalayan region
(d) valley in Shivalik range
Ans: (b) densely forested valley in Palghat district of north Kerala
Q164. The name Sundarlal Bahuguna is related to
(a) Chipko movement (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Silent Valley (d) None of these

19
Ans: (a) Chipko movement
Q165. Which international organization works towards regulating and promoting the safe use of
nuclear energy?
(a) Greenpeace (b) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
(c) World Health Organization (WHO) (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Ans: (b) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
Q166. Sustainable development
(a) meets the need of the present without compromising with those of future generations
(b) maintains a balance between social and economic development along with protection of
nature
(c) is consistent with long term development and growth
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
Q167. Frontier mentality is believed by
(a) environmentalists and conservationists (b) politicians and bureaucrat
(c) economists and technocrats (d) farmers and laymen
Ans: (c) economists and technocrats
Q168. The NGOs
(a) play a significant role in environmental protection
(b) mainly work at the grass root level
(c) act as the eyes and ears of the government
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
Q169. Carbon trading
(a) is a fundamental concept of national environmental laws and regulations
(b) monitors the impact of pollution upon environmental, social and economic justice
(c) suggests that funding for environmental improvement should be obtained from its
beneficiaries
(d) monitors the emission of hydrocarbons from automobiles
Ans: (b) monitors the impact of pollution upon environmental, social and economic justice
Q170. The United Nations Conference on Human Environment was organized at
(a) Rio de Janiero (b) Paris (c) Stockholm (d) Delhi
Ans: (c) Stockholm
Q171.
(a) Karnataka (b) Delhi (c) Orissa (d) Gujarat
Ans: (a) Karnataka

20