Show Up Fitness ACE Study Guide & Prep!

Abstract

Welcome to Show Up Fitness ACE

Study Guide & Prep! We look forward to
helping you PASS the ACE so you can
move onto becoming a QUALIFIED Level
1 Coach with Show Up Fitness.

Instructors:
Chris Hitchko

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FITNESS ACE START HERE:
TAG Show Up Fitness Internship

STUDY GUIDE on Instagram with the guide in

your story to receive your first
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which is accepted at Equinox,
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Get $50 for making a YouTube on
how we helped you PASS.
Pass the ACE within 30-days; we’ve helped
people pass it in 7! Focus on the guide & Email [email protected]
online Zoom calls Tuesday & Thursday 5pm
PST.

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Show Up Fitness ACE Study Guide & Prep!

READ BEFORE PROCEEDING!

We’ve helped over 3,000 people pass NASM, ACE, CSCS, ACSM & NSCA – this test is the easiest part
of your fitness journey. If you want to become a SUCCESSFUL PERSONAL TRAINER, READ THE
BOOK HERE once you pass so you can begin focusing on how to program, anatomy, the assessment,
guided supervision and mentorship.

We have bi-weekly ZOOM calls for $25/ month that will help you focus on the material needed to pass.
Sign up for them & our Level 1 coach here:

HOW TO USE THE GUIDE:

FLASHCARDS are at the top of each chapter review. Your focus should be chapters 2-5, 7,9-11… THAT’S
IT! YOU DO NOT NEED TO READ THESE CHAPTERS, but if you wanted to, so be it. Your goal should
be to pass the exam ASAP because time is money. The longer you wait, the opportunity to gain supervised
experience, mentorship and train clients is lost.

DO NOT:
1- Read the entire textbook
2- Spend more than 1-2 months studying
3- Take other practice exams / quizzes as they will overwhelm you
4- Put your certification in your IG bio as it shows inexperience, insecurity and your clients don’t
care. You are now a TRAINER…..not Chris Hitchko ACE, NASM, CES, WLS, Corrective
Expert, Life Coach, Movement Specialist, Animal Flow, Nutritionist, PN1.
5- Have your client do stability, bosu ball squats, jump like Tinkerbell or bench dips.

ONCE YOU PASS:

1- Tag SHOW UP FITNESS INTERNSHIP on social media to potentially win $50 (weekly winners
are sent cash via Venmo)
2- Sign up for the online internship and receive $25 off the LIVE calls or $10 off the recorded ones.
3- READ HOW TO BECOME A SUCCESSFUL PERSONAL TRAINER
4- Get to a 2-day weekend seminar and gain hands-on experience
5- Send the Belt Buckle Hunk some whiskey, scotch or red wine: 1207 4th street, suite 150, Santa
Monica, 90401 and I’ll hop on a call to help you navigate the “saturated” fitness market.

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The ACE certification exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions, with 125 of these being scored and
25 of them being “experimental.” The specific content that appears on the ACE Personal Trainer
Certification Exam is as follows:
• Interviews and assessments – 23%
• Program design and implementation – 31%
• Program modification and progression – 26%
• Professional conduct, safety, and risk management – 20%

Scores for participants in the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam are determined by the number of
questions they answered correctly; then they are converted to a scaled score in a range of 200 to 800
points. The passing score is set at a scaled score of 500 points, so those who earn scores of 500 or more
will receive ACE certification.

Show Up Fitness IS NOT affiliated with ACE or any certifying body. Show Up Fitness is NOT a school or
claim to be a certification body represented by the NCCA. This study guide is not to be shared, doesn’t
guarantee you to pass and doesn’t clear you to train clients inappropriately without properly assessment
and making the proper referrals.

American Council on Exercise – The Exercise Professional’s Guide to Personal

Training – ACE. Copyright 2020 (NEWEST CPT TEXTBOOK AS OF AUG 2022)

WHEN I SAY DO NOT READ, THAT MEANS REFERENCE ONLY THE

INFORMATION PRESENTED IN THE GUIDE OR THAT SPECIFIC PAGE
NUMBER IF YOU HAVE THE BOOK. EVEN WITHOUT THE BOOK YOU
WILL NOT NEED TO READ THAT CHAPTER.

FLASH CARD THESE VOCABULARY WORDS:

Type I diabetes
Type II diabetes
Hypertension
BMI

Chapter 1: Role & Scope of Practice for Personal Trainers – DO NOT READ
- CPT must attain at least 20-hours of ACE-approved CEU’s (2.0.)
- Introduction to IFT model & disease through which the rest of the book reviews 3-4x.
- You will see one question based off the appropriate scope of practice (the following chart)

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Chapter 2: The ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model – DO NOT READ

Integrated Fitness Training Model Cardiorespiratory Training:
- Base= RPE 3-4, Below VT1 (being able to easily talk during aerobic exercise aka talk test.)
Where beginners and deconditioned people start.
- Fitness= RPE 5-6. Just above VT1 below VT2.
- Performance= RPE 7-10. HIIT training (high intensity) above VT2. Ventilatory threshold is
referencing the stress on the heart and lungs. VT1 = easy. VT2 = hard.
- The following is the IFT model for lifting weights / reps (muscular training) & cardio.

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Chapter 3: Basics of Behavior Change - DO NOT READ

- Self Determination Theory: Creating an environment that supports intrinsic motivation via
autonomy, competence, and relatedness.
- Stages of change:
o Stages of Change: Precontemplation = no plan to exercise & inactive.
o Contemplation = planning to in 6-months.
o Preparation = Works out but not regularly / inconsistent.
o Action = Exercising regularly but not for 6-months
o Maintenance = 6+ months of exercise.
o Termination = never going back.
o Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Timely GOALS
o ABC approach = Ask questions, Breakdown barriers, Collaborate.

Chapter 4: Effective communication, goal setting, and teaching techniques - DO

NOT READ
- Stages of the client-personal trainer relationship:
o Rapport: Mutual understanding, trust & empathy.
o Investigation: Active listening & motivational interviewing (MI has 4 key components.
Collaboration acceptance, compassion, and evocation.)
o Planning: Trainer designs a program
o Action: Client learns new motor skills.

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- Open ended question vs closed: When were you born? (closed) Tell me more about why you want
to lose 50-pounds? (open)
- Motivational Interviewing & OARS: Open ended questions, Affirmations, Reflecting listening,
Summarizing.
- Phases of learning: Cognitive (clients learning the new behavior), Associative (clients begin to
master the basics and ready for more feedback), Autonomous (performing the skills naturally)
- Learning Styles: Visual (watching & demonstrating), Auditory (listening & instructing clearly),
Kinesthetic (hands on, ask before touching a client)

Chapter 5: Preparticipation health screening - DO NOT READ

- Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
- Do not allow clients to participate in exercise if they have any signs or symptoms of CAD
(coronary artery disease) or metabolic, renal or pulmonary disease = they need medical clearance
i.e. a client with Type 1 or 2 diabetes, asthma, history of CAD or symptoms like chest pain,
numbness, shortness of breath.

Chapter 6: Nutrition for health and fitness - DO NOT READ

- Macronutrients: carbs, fats, protein, alcohol.
- Carbohydrates (monosaccharides smallest unit i.e. glucose, fructose, galactose)
o 1g = 4 calories
o Stored glucose = glycogen in muscle & liver
o 45-65% recommended percentage of total calories
- Fats (fatty acids smallest unit)
o 1g = 9 calories
o 20-35% recommended percentage of total calories
o No more than 10% coming from saturated fats
- Protein (amino acids smallest unit)
o BCAA = Branch Chain Amino Acids (leucine, Isoleucine, Valine)
o Essential = the body cannot produce / non-essential the body produces
o 1g = 4 calories
o 10-35% recommended percentage of total calories
- Alcohol 1g = 7 calories
- Your client consumes 10g of fat, 10g of carbs, 25g of protein, how many total calories?
o 10x9 = 90 cals; 10x4 = 40 cals, 25x4 =100 cals. TOTAL OF 230 calories
- Caffeine suggested supplementation = 3-6 mg/kg 30-60 min prior to exercise
- 3-5g of creatine / day
- ADEK are fat soluble vitamins. Vitamins & minerals are micronutrients.

Chapter 7: Resting assessments & measurements – DO NOT READ

- Blood pressure taken at the brachial artery (upper arm); radial artery is thumb side & used for
heart rate.
- Tachycardia is abnormally high RHR greater than 100 BPM
- High Blood Pressure = 140 / 90 and is called hypertension (only 1 reading needs to be above
these numbers i.e. 140/60 is still hypertension)
- Top number is called systolic; bottom diastolic; normal BP is 120 / 80
- Essential fat for men = 3-5% / women 8-12%

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- Women have more subcutaneous fat (under the skin) men have more visceral fat (midsection
protecting vital organs)
- Males typically are called apples aka android obese / women gynoids obese (pear)
- BMI ranges: 18.5-24.9 = normal. 25-29.9 = overweight. 30+ = obese

Chapter 8: Cardio Training - DO NOT READ

- Arteries go away from the heart. All arteries carry O2 (except for pulmonary artery = CO2 to the
lungs)
- Veins go towards the heart. All veins carry CO2 (except for the pulmonary vein = O2 to the left
atrium)
- Heart chambers
o Superior & holding chambers = atriums.
o Inferior & pumping chambers = ventricles
- SA node is the pacemaker of the heart
- Cardiac Output (Q) = heart rate x stroke volume
- SV = amount of blood ejected each beat. During aerobic exercise, more blood pushed to heart, and
therefore more forceful contraction.
- VT1 = easy & can talk
- VT2 = moderate to difficult & cannot talk / associated with onset of blood lactate accumulation
(OBLA) aka the burn in the chest
- The warm-up & cool-down should be between 5-10 minutes

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READ THE BOOK TO BECOME A SUCCESSFUL PERSONAL TRAINER

Chapter 9: Muscular Training Foundations - READ

- 206 bones in the human body.
o 74 = axial (skull, ribs, sternum, vertebrae)
o Vertebrae = 33: 7 cervical (top), 12 thoracic (middle), 5 lumbar (lower), 9 sacrum &
coccyx
o 126 = appendicular everything coming out of the axial.
- Planes of motion
o Sagittal: imaginary line bisecting the body into right / left halves allowing for flexion &
extension. The elbow can move anteriorly (flex) and posterior (extension) which is a
hinge joint. Examples of exercises include: biceps curl, walking, lunges, squats, leg
extensions, chin-ups
o Frontal: imaginary line bisecting the body into anterior / posterior halves allowing for
abduction/adduction. The hip joint is a ball & socket and when you move the femur
away, it’s abducting in the frontal plane. Examples of exercises include: jumping jacks,
lateral raises, pull-ups, military press & band walks.

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o Transverse: imaginary line separating the body into superior & inferior halves allowing
for rotation. The Shoulder joint can get into all planes of motion and is called a ball and
socket. Examples of exercise include: Chest flies, reverse flies, any sport of med ball
rotation
o Multi-planer exercises: Bench press
- 3 types of muscles
o Smooth (veins / arteries / lining of the gut)
o Cardiac (heart)
o Voluntary Skeletal (650+ muscles that are on top of the bones)
- Agonist = primes mover
- Synergist = assistor in movement
- Antagonist = opposite
- Bench Press agonist = pectoralis major
o Synergist = triceps & anterior deltoids
o Antagonist = posterior deltoid
- Pull-ups agonist = Latissimus Dorsi
o Synergist = Biceps, rhomboids
o Antagonist = Deltoid
- Squats agonist = at the knee = quads / knee extensors & at the hip glutes
o Synergist = hamstrings
o Antagonist = Hip flexors aka Psoas Major
- Type I vs Type 2 muscle fibers
o Slow Twitch = Type 1. Marathon runner. Aerobic. Fat as a fuel. Fatigue resistant. Heart
muscle, stabilizing muscles around joints i.e. rotator cuff.
o Fast Twitch = Type 2. Sprinters. Anaerobic. Carbs as fuel. Fatigue quickly. Lats, glutes,
and large movement muscles.
- Sarcomere is the basic unit of muscle (sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass due to age)
o Actin & myosin are the myofibrils (myosin is larger)
o During the sliding filament theory as long as there is enough ATP, myosin will pull actin
towards the center and the sarcomere shortens.
- Muscle actions
o Concentric = muscle shortens (During the bicep curl or Squat it’s the upward movement
when you would want to breath out)
o Eccentric = muscle lengthens (During the decent of the pull-up or push-up when you
would want to breath in)
o Isometric = no visible movement
- Open vs closed kinetic chain
o Open = distal region moves i.e. curls, leg press
o Closed = distal region doesn’t move / move core engagement = push-up, squat, chin-up.
- Rep Ranges SEE BELOW

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Chapter 10: Muscular Training Assessments – READ

- 5-common posture deviations (OVER / HYPER / SHORT / TIGHT = the same & UNDER / WEAK
/ LENGHTEND = THE SAME)
o Subtalar / pronation
▪ Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Peroneals, adductors, TFL muscles OVERACTIVE.
▪ Anterior tibialis, gluteus group UNDERACTIVE
o Hip Adduction
▪ Psoas major, TFL, rectus femoris – TIGHT
▪ Gluteus – WEAK
o Pelvic Tilting – Anterior
▪ Hip Flexors & erector spinae – HYPERTONIC
▪ Hamstrings & rectus abdominis – LENGTHENED
o Shoulder Tilt anteriorly / protracting
▪ Upper traps, levator scapula, Latissimus Dorsi, Pec Major / minor, Subscapularis
- OVERACTIVE
▪ Serratus Anterior, rhomboids, mid / lower traps, posterior deltoid -
UNDERACTIVE
o Head position migrating forward
▪ Cervical spine extensors, upper traps, levator scapulae - OVERACTIVE
▪ Deep spinal muscles, middle / lower traps - UNDERACTIVE

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- Balance tests
o Static UNIPEDAL. Stand on 1-foot for 45-seconds
o Dynamic Y-balance test. Stand on 1-foot and reach as far as you can anteriorly and
posteriorly.
- McGill’s Torso Test
o Trunk flexor endurance test. Client maintains 50-60 degree suspended position.
o Trunk lateral endurance test. Side plank position with feet staggered testing the quadratus
lumborum muscle. REGRESSION is with the knees bent.
o Trunk extensor test. Testing the erector spinae muscles & multifidi
- Thomas Test
o Testing hip flexors to see if leg can get to 80 degrees of flexion
- In general, increase weight 5-10% per set
- Spot overhead dumbbells by the wrists NOT ELBOWS
- Shoulder flexors / extensor strength ratios 2:3 as well as knee flexors / extensors.
- Power = Force x Velocity or Work / Time
- T cone test is a 10 yard by 10 yard agility test.
- KNOW THIS CHART

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- Chapter 11: Integrated Exercise Programming

- Integrated Fitness Training
o Exercises under the functional training model: Bird dog, cat cow, rocking
quadruped. Programming focuses on proximal stability then progressions to distal
stability.
o Static stretches should be held for 30-seconds.
o Foam rolling SMR 30-60 seconds.
o Balance progressions: single leg, double leg unstable, single leg unstable.
o Movement training (second block of the IFT model). Train the 5-movement
patterns: Bend and lift, single leg, pushing, pulling, rotational.
o Frequency, intensity, time, type, volume, pattern / progression.
o Load / speed training (third block). Hypertrophy / athlete specific.
o Progressions for speed: Linear fwd, lateral, backpedal, rotational , crossover cutting
/ curving.
o Progressions for plyos: Jumps in place, single linear, multiple, multidirectional,
hops, depth jumps (form a box down)
o Plyometrics. Stretch shortening cycle includes: eccentric, amortization, concentric.
o Beginners 80-100 jumps per session, 100-120 for intermediate, 120-140 for
advanced.
- Periodization has 3 phases: micro (smallest weeks), meso (month), macro (year).
o Undulating vs Linear
▪ Undulating day 1- 3x10, day 2- 3x12, day 3- 3x 15
▪ Linear day 1 – 3 3x10. Week 2 day 1-3 3x8 (heavier)

- Chapter’s 12-16 – DON’T READ

- Hormones:
o Anabolic = testosterone, insulin, HGH, IGF 1-2
o Catabolic = Glucagon, cortisol
- Obese clients start out in VT1 & an RPE of 3-4
- LDL = bad cholesterol / HDL = good. Good levels = 45-55 HDL, <100 LDL’s.
- Metabolic Syndrome = High blood pressure, overweight (waist circumference >40in males, >35
females) & dyslipidemia (elevated cholesterol)
- Osteoporosis = BMD (bone mineral density) greater than >2.5 standard deviations below avg
adults. Osteopenia is between 1-25 standard deviations below- think of osteopenia like
overweight, they’re not as bad as obesity or osteoporosis.
- 80% of adults have low back pain
- Ace recommends 1-million in liability insurance.

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QUESTIONS SIMILAR TO THE EXAM!

1. Your client is performing the push-up. What plane of motion are they in?
A- Sagittal B- Frontal C- Transverse D- Multi-planes of motion

2. Your client Billy is performing the forward lunge and you notice their legs are wobbly. Which
of the following would be the best regression?
A- Allow the client to support themselves with a stick
B- Decrease the amount of reps that they are performing
C- How the client increase the intensity and perform less reps
D- Have the client perform the exercise on a Bosu Ball for more instability

3. Your client Amber is performing the reverse lunge and you notice it is too easy. Which would
be the best progression to challenge your client appropriately?
A- Perform 5 sets of jumping lunges for 30-seconds
B- Have your client perform the reps more rapidly
C- Give your client light dumbbells while doing the reverse lunge
D- Have the client go slower and perform forward lunges instead.

4. Jessica is performing the barbell back squat and you notice that she is leaning too far forward.
Which of the following would be the best cue for her to perform the movement properly?
A- Instruct Jessica to drive through her heels and balls of her feet
B- Stop the squat and choose another movement pattern
C- Have her strengthen each leg individually by performing pistol squats
D- Have the client perform the squat on a Bosu Ball

5. Franklin is performing the bird dog exercise, which of the following best describes the muscle
groups working?
A- Hip & back extensors
B- Hip & back flexors
C- Shoulder flexors & extensors
D- Core stability & shoulder extensors

6. You notice during the squat, your client is leaning too far forward, which muscles are
suspected to be tight?
A- Hip Flexors and Glutes
B- Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae
C- Rectus Abdominis & Hamstrings
D- Hamstrings and Erector Spinae

7. You notice your client has a deviation with their pelvis tilting anteriorly. Which of the
following muscles would be lengthened?
A- Psoas Major

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B- Hamstrings
C- Erector Spinae
D- Hip Flexors

8. You notice your client has a deviation with their pelvis tilting anteriorly. Which of the
following muscles would be overactive?
A- Hip Flexors and Glutes
B- Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae
C- Rectus Abdominis & Hamstrings
D- Hamstrings and Erector Spinae

9. Jaime is performing the biceps curl. What is the name for the “up” portion of the exercise?
A- Negative.
B- Eccentric
C- Isometric
D- Concentric

10. Jackson is performing the seated leg curl. What is the name for the antagonist during this
exercise?
A- Hamstrings
B- Hip Flexors
C- Knee Extensors
D- Ankle Dorsiflexors

11. Which portion of the integrated fitness training model would a client focus on correcting
posture and kinetic chain mobility?
A- Functional
B- Movement
C- Load / Speed
D- Performance

12. Which portion of the integrated fitness training model would you want to have a client in if
they wanted to improve every day activities to play with their grandchildren?
A- Functional
B- Movement
C- Load / Speed
D- Performance

13. What does the V stand for within the FITT-VP model?
A- Volume
B- Variety
C- Ventilation
D- Vexing

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14. During the body weight squat pattern, you feel your client is ready for a progression. Which
of the following would be the most appropriate progression?
A- Barbell Back Squat
B- Reverse Lunge
C- Medicine Ball
D- Hack Squat Machine

15. Which of the following would be the best exercise selection for a client in the functional
training portion of the IFT model?
A- Reverse Crunch
B- Bird Dog
C- Active hamstring stretch
D- Hops & bounds

16. Which of the following is the action between the eccentric and concentric portion of jumping
& hopping?
A- Isometric
B- Negative
C- Plyometrics
D- Amortization

17. For a beginning client, how many ground contacts would you start a client out with?
A- 80-100
B- 100-120
C- 120-140
D- 140-160

18. Which of the following would be the best exercise choice for an elite-level client in the Load
/ Speed portion of the IFT model?
A- Rotational Planks
B- Power Push-Ups
C- Back Squats
D- Cat / Cow

19. Your client performs the following workout routine M/W/F, what kind of periodization is it?
M- 140lbs x 12 reps, W-160lbs x8 reps F- 200lbs x6 reps
A- Linear
B- Undulating
C- Conjugate
D- Daily progressions

20. Your client Bill is able to stand on one foot with his hands crossed on his chest. Which of the
following would be the proper progression?
A- Standing on two balance disks

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B- Performing a single leg military press

C- Doing a goblet squat with dumbbells on a Bosu Ball
D- Rear Foot Elevate Split Squat

21. How long should a client hold over a tender region for during self-myofascial release?
A- 0-10 seconds
B- 10-20 seconds
C- 30-40 seconds
D- 60+ seconds

22. Which of the following would be the best warm-up stretch for a track sprinter?
A- Performing long strides that emphasize hip extension while maintaining a posterior pelvic tilt
B- Passive static stretch of the hamstrings
C- Standing on one leg on a foam pad
D- Bird Dog

23. Which of the following actions is outside of the scope of practice for an ACE certified
personal trainer?
A- Providing general information on healthy, evidence-based nutrition.
B- Telling your client to take the newest fat burning supplement to assist in their goals.
C- Referring clients to the appropriate healthcare professional.
D- Assessing for exercise limitations

24. What is the MINIMUM amount of CEU’s required for an ACE-certified professional to
receive within 2-years?
A- 10-hours
B- 15-hours
C- 20-hours
D- CEU’s are not required

25. You just checked your client Abe’s blood pressure and it’s high. You’ve then discussed
hypertension and gave him some better options for his food intake, what part of the health belief
model have you discussed:
A- Perceived Susceptibility
B- Hypertension
C- Barriers
D- Decision to change

26. Your client just started working out but hasn’t been doing it for 6-months, what stage if
change are they in? A- Precontemplation B- Contemplation
C- Preparation
D- Action

27. Which of the following is the correct stage of change for someone who doesn’t exercise but

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is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6-months?A- Action B- Maintenance C-
Contemplation D- Precontemplation

28. What stage is someone in if they are looking for a workout partner?
A- Contemplation B- Preparation C- Action
D- Maintenance

29. Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

A- Squats
B- Lat Pull down Machine C- Machine Leg Extension
D- Bench press

30. A(n) action occurs when an external force exceeds the contractile force generated by a
muscle?
A- Concentric
B- Eccentric
C- Isometric
D- Amortization

31. Your client Sharon is hesitant of lifting weights because she doesn’t want to bulk up. You
explain to her that women naturally have lower anabolic hormones (testosterone) than males do
and it won’t happen training with you. She’s willing to give a 12-session package a try. What is
this an example of?
A- Asking great questions
B- Breaking down barriers
C- Collaborating
D- Demonstrating active listening

32. Which of the following is the synergist during the RDL:

A- Gluteus Maximus
B- Rectus Femoris
C- Erector Spinae
D- Gluteus Medius

33. Travis just finished a set of bench press for 10 reps and now is going to rest. How long
should he rest for if his goals are muscular hypertrophy?
A- 0-30 seconds
B- 30-60 seconds
C- 2-3 minutes
D- 3+ minutes

34. Which of the following would be the appropriate regression for the trunk lateral endurance
test?
A- Modified hook-lying position

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B- Prone Ab Curl
C- McGill’s Torso endurance test
D- Y Balance Test

35. The Thomas test evaluation is assessing which of the following muscles?
A- Gluteus Maximus, Erector Spinae
B- Rectus Femoris, Psoas Major
C- Sartorius, Quads
D- Psoas Major, Erector Spinae

36. Which of the following muscles are overactive if a clients ankle everts and laterally rotates?
A- Media Gastrocnemius and soleus
B- Ankle dorsiflexors and hip extensors
C- Hip Adductors and lateral Gastrocnemius
D- Lateral Gastrocnemius and peroneals

37. Your client exhibits scapular winging during the push-up assessment. Which of the following
muscles would typically be weak or lengthened?
A- Serratus Anterior
B- Serratus Posterior
C- Latissimus Dorsi
D- Cervical spine flexors

38. During the pulling assessment (standing row) your clients head migrates forward. Which of
the following muscles would be tight?
A- Cervical Spine flexors
B- Cervical Spine extensors
C- Rhomboids
D- Serratus Anterior

39. Where should you spot your client during an overhead press with dumbbells?
A- Wrists
B- Elbows
C- Do not spot
D- Only spot 1rm’s

40. What is the appropriate strength ratio for the hamstrings to quadriceps?
A- 2:3
B- 3:4
C- 4:5
D- 1:1

41. What is the proper sequence during the T-test speed, agility and quickness assessment?
A- Sprint forward 5-yards

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B- Shuffle to the right cone after initial sprint

C- Touch cone D with the left hand
D- Run backwards for 10-yards to cone A to finish the test

42. Your client wants to lose 10-lbs in 5-days, this isn’t a SMART goal due to...
A- Specific B- Measurable C- Attainable
D- Timely

43. What is not a common barrier for exercise adherence?

A- Lack of social support
B- SMART goals
C- Convenience D- Time

44. During linear periodization, which of the following is the most optimal amount of load
increase per week?
A- 1-3%
B- 3-5%
C- 5-10%
D- 10+%

45. What is the easiest method to determine if your client is below the first ventilatory threshold
or VT1?
A- Talk test
B- HIIT training
C- 80% of HRR
D- RPE of 5-6

46. Performance cardio training has a rating of perceived exertion of what?

A- 3-4
B- 4-5
C- 5-6
D- 7+

47. If you wanted to monitor your clients progress, which of the following would be best?
A- SOAP notes
B- SMART Goals
C- Rapport building
D- Refer your clients to a RD

48. What does the O stand for in SOAP notes?

A- Objective
B- Operant
C- Obsessive
D- Operational

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49. What is a subjective piece of information that you the trainer would document during a
SOAP Notes?
A- Blood Pressure of 140/90
B- A client reporting heart flutters
C- BMI of 32
D- Knee Valgus

50. Your client wants to put on size and muscular strength. What portion of the IFT model would
you want them to be in?
A- Functional
B- Movement
C- Load / Speed
D- Performance

51. What kind of stretch is performed with a passive pre-stretch for 3-6 seconds as the initial
step?
A- Static
B- Ballistic
C- Dynamic
D- Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

52. The hold-relax agonist contraction is the most effective kind of stretch because it utilizes
autogenic & reciprocal inhibition. What kind of stretch is it?
A- PNF
B- Static
C- Ballistic
D- Dynamic

53. A great exercise for a client trying to improve rotation and shoulder strength would be:
A- Standing cable shoulder internal rotation
B- Standing cable wood chop
C- Step-up with dumbbells
D- Seated single-arm overhead press in scapular plane

54. A kneeling ABC’s with stability ball is great for targeting which muscle groups?
A- Latissimus Dorsi and Rectus Abdominis
B- Rectus Abdominis and Biceps Brachii
C- Triceps Brachii and Latissimus Dorsi
D- Quadriceps and Rectus Abdominis

55. A modified curl-up is great at helping clients with which of the following special
considerations?
A- Pregnant

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B- Sciatica
C- Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
D- Low back pain

56. Which of the following is a metabolic disease where the pancreas doesn’t produce any
insulin and usually developed in adolescence?
A- Type 1 Diabetes
B- Type 2 Diabetes
C- Gestational Diabetes
D- Thyroid Diabetes

57. Your client consumed 10g of carbohydrates, 25g of protein and 10g of fat, how many
calories did they consume?
A- 45 calories
B- 230 calories
C- 180 calories
D- Not enough information given

58. What is something a spotter should do when their client is performing a bench press?
A- Only help after failure B- Spot at both ends of the bar C- Determine how many reps should be
performed before starting
D- Spot at the elbows

59. How many bones are in the cervical region of the spine?
A- 7
B- 12
C- 5
D- 33

60. What plane of motion allows for the elbow joint to move anteriorly and posteriorly?
A- Sagittal
B- Frontal
C- Transverse
D- All planes of motion

61. What is the definition of a joint allowing for a joint to move toward each other in the sagittal
plane of motion decreasing the joint angle between them?
A- Sagittal
B- Extension
C- Flexion
D- Abduction

62. Spreading the fingers apart is an example of what action?

A- Flexion

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B- Extension
C- Adduction
D- Abduction

63. A bench press is performed with what kind of hand position?

A- Pronated
B- Supinated
C- Sagittal
D- Neutral

64. A sprinter has primarily what kind of muscle fibers?

A- Slow Twitch
B- Moderate Twitch
C- Fast Twitch
D- No Twitch

65. Which of the following is an example of an isometric muscle action?

A- Wall Sit
B- Abdominal Crunch
C- Biceps Curl
D- Downward portion of a Squat

66. What is the synergist muscle group during an overhead press?

A- Biceps Brachii
B- Anterior Deltoid
C- Latissimus Dorsi
D- Triceps Brachii

67. In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires
administered?
A- Action
B- Rapport
C- Investigation
D- Planning

68. You have your first assessment with Peter today who is a new client. He will most likely be
evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage
of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Peter?
A- Action
B- Rapport
C- Investigation
D- Planning

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69. Kate is in for her second 60-min session and you are conducting the fitness assessments.
While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers
to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?
A- Action
B- Rapport
C- Investigation
D- Planning

70. In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and
live a healthy lifestyle?
A- Precontemplation
B- Contemplation
C- Preparation
D- Action

71. Which of the following is NOT an example of what is generally measured in a physiologic
assessment?
A- Blood Pressure
B- Heart Rate
C- Joint ROM
D- Psychological Mood

72. Which of the following arteries is used to check clients blood pressure?
A- Radial
B- Brachial
C- Carotid
D- Femoral

73. Which of the following is typically considered by clients to be the most important factor in
creating a positive first impression?
A- trainer who is in great shape.
B- A trainer who communicates well.
C- A trainer who offers to listen to his or her home-life problems.
D- A trainer with the most certifications.

74. You have been working with Tyrus for 1 month now. His initial goals were to gain strength
in her lower body and you have been working on body weight squats and lunges. He can perform
3 sets of 15 squats without any struggle. What is the best course of action to continue to increase
his lower body strength significantly?
A- Continue with the program as it is.
B- Increase the number of squats to 20 repetitions per set.
C- Add light resistance to his squats and lunges.
D- Add in more exercises that will target the entire body.

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75. Which of the following movements should be performed first on an upper body day in a
resistance training program?
A- Lateral Raises
B- Step-Ups with a curl
C- Barbell Bench Press
D- Chest Flies

76. Which of the following is a hypertonic muscle seen with kyphosis?

A- Upper Back Extensors
B- Neck Flexors
C- Scapular Stabilizers
D- Anterior Chest / Shoulders

77. Which of the following muscles are lengthened during foot pronation and internal rotation of
the knee?
A- Anterior Tibialis
B- Gastrocnemius
C- Gluteus Maximus
D- Hip Extensors

78. Your client has a goal of increasing their power. How many repetitions should she perform
during the typical set?
A- 1-3 reps 50% of RM
B- 3-5 reps 80% of RM
C- 1-3 reps 100% of RM
D- 6-12 reps 85% of RM

79. What is the limiting ROM that is required during the thoracic spine mobility test?
A- 15 degrees
B- 30 degrees
C- 45 degrees
D- 60+ degrees

80. Your client has had repeated binge & merge episodes 2x per week for the past 3-months,
what is kind of eating disorder are they exhibiting?
A- Anorexia
B- Bulimia
C- Bursitis
D- Overtraining

81. A bronchodilator is used for clients with what sort of special condition?
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Thyroid disease

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D. Asthma

82. Which of the following is an example of a breach of confidentiality with a personal training
client?
A- Canceling on a client within 24-hours
B- Storing your clients information in a folder left on the gym table
C- Having a conversation with another trainer about your clients medical history
D- Answers B & C

83. Which of the following would be an appropriate discussion for a trainer to have with a client
around their diet?
A- Telling your client to consume less than 1,200 calories
B- Selling a food plan for them at 25% discount because of a promotion
C- Suggesting for your client to consume more vitamin B12
D- Recommending that your client switch out fried chicken for grilled chicken

84. The core communication skills of motivational interviewing are:

A- OARS
B- SOAP
C- SMART
D- 4P’s

85. Bethany wants to improve her T-test time to optimize her speed and agility for her high
school basketball team. What is this an example of?
A- SAID Principle
B- Progressive Overload
C- Fartlek Training
D- Vo2 Max

86. During the objective portion of the assessment, your discover that your client is in the
abnormal range of OBESE for their BMI, what is that range?
A- 18-24
B- 25-29
C- 30-35
D- 40-45

87. What are the superior chambers of the heart that hold blood returning from the body?
A- Atriums
B- Ventricles
C- SA Node
D- Semilunar Valves

88. Samantha is a new client who does 20-minutes of cardio 2x per week for the last 3-months.
She wants to lose 25-pounds and get a solid cardiorespiratory training plan from you. Where

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would she be placed according to the IFT model?

A- Base
B- Fitness
C- Performance
D- Dynamic

89. Which one of the following is NOT one of the 5-primary movement training patterns that are
used within the IFT model?
A- Pulling
B- Bend and Lift
C- Single Leg
D- Carry

90. Your client Karen wants to lose 10 lbs. Why is this not a SMART goal?
A- It’s not very specific
B- It’s not measurable
C- It’s not realistic
D- This is a SMART goal

91. What are the three needs identified part of the self-determination theory?
A- Autonomy, Reliance, Concentration
B- Autonomy, Competence, Relatedness
C- Competence, Concentration, Compliance
D- Autonomic, Feedback, Operant

92. Monica is a 38-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long
should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
A- 0-30 seconds
B- 30-60 seconds
C- 1-2 minutes
D- 2-3 minutes

93. What percent of intensity is a 3-rep max on a back squat?

A- 85-100%
B- 75-85%
C- 65-75%
D- <65%

94. During the back squat, what muscle is considered the synergist?
A- Iliopsoas
B- Rectus Femoris
C- Semimembranosus
D- Gastrocnemius

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95. You have just finished setting goals with your client and now in the middle of designing your
one-month resistance training program for your client. Which stage of the client - personal
trainer relationship are you in?
A- Action
B- Planning
C- Investigation
D- Rapport

96. As clients begin to master the basic 5-core movement patterns and ready for more weight to
refine their motor skills, what stage of learning are they in?
A- Cognitive
B- Associative
C- Autonomic
D- Anaerobic

97. During the deadlift exercise, your client lets you know that they “Really felt that in my
glutes.” What kind of learning style did they just indicate?
A- Visual
B- Auditory
C- Kinesthetic
D- Autonomic

98. During a lat pull-down, what muscle group is the antagonist?

A- Latissimus Dorsi
B- Deltoids
C- Biceps Brachii
D- Rhomboids

99. Which of the following return oxygen-poor blood to the heart?

A- Arteries & veins
B- Veins & venues
C- Arteries & arterioles
D- Capillaries & ventricles

100. The heart is comprised of what kind of muscle tissue?

A- Cardiac
B- Smooth
C- Skeletal
D- Enteric

101. When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability,
what exercise modality should come first in the progression?
A- Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor
B- Frontal plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor

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C- Transverse plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor
D- A sequence of movements in alternating planes with contralateral limbs raised off the floor.

102. Chris is doing a full body functional workout, how long should he typically wait before
training his legs again?
A- 24 hours
B- 36 hours
C- 48 hours
D- 72 hours

103. What is the largest level of a periodized program?

A- Micro
B- Meso
C- Macro
D- Mini

104. Which of the following is appropriate according to the ACE personal trainer's scope of
practice?
A- Diagnosing a client with a torn rotator cuff.
B- Teaching a client self myo-fascial releasing techniques.
C- Designing a calorie restricted diet plan.
D- Massaging a client

105. Which of the following is a form that notifies the client of the risk associated with exercise?
A- Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
B- Health History Questionnaire
C- Limited Liability Waiver
D- Informed Consent form

106. Personal trainers often work as independent contractors. What type of insurance is most
recommended to purchase when working as an independent contractor in the fitness industry and
how much?
A- Liability insurance, $250,000
B- Liability insurance, $1,000,000
C- General insurance, $500,000
D- General insurance, $1,000,000

107. What is an example of non-verbal communication?

A- Facial expression
B- Body language
C- Texting a client you’re late
D- All of the above

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108. What form of communication requires trust, attention, and understanding to be effective?
A- Active Listening
B- Paraphrasing
C- Facial Expressions
D- Rapport

109. Your client consumed 5g of protein, 8g of carbs and 4g of fat, which macronutrient
contributed the most to the clients total calorie intake?
A- Carbs
B- Fat
C- Protein
D- Alcohol

110. What is the suggested percent range of daily intake for carbohydrates?
A- 10-35%
B- 20-45%
C- 45-65%
D- No more than 10%

111. What is the MAX percent of total daily intake of fat that should come from saturated fats?
A- 3%
B- 5%
C- 8%
D- 10%

112. There are 20-amino acids. The BCAA’s are three of them. What are the names of the 3
branched chain amino acids?
A- Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine
B- Lysine, Alanine, Glutamine
C- Valine, Isoleucine, Glutamine
D- Tyrosine, Serine, Tryptophan

113. How many signs or symptoms of coronary artery disease (CAD) does a client need to have
to be considered a high risk?
A- 0
B- 1
C- 2
D- 3+

114. How many positive risk factors must a client have to be considered a moderate risk?
A- 0
B- 1
C- 2

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D- 3+

115. What kind of joint is the elbow & knee?

A- Hinge
B- Ball and Socket
C- Pronation
D- Subtalor

116. What part of the neuron holds the nucleus?

A- Axon
B- Cell Body
C- Myelin Sheath
D- Dendrites

117. Your client has dyslipidemia, what condition is this?

A- Elevated LDL’s & total cholesterol
B- Low LDL’s
C- Low HDL’s
D- High blood pressure

118. How long should a general cool down be?

A- 1-3 minutes
B- 3-5 minutes
C- 5-10 minutes
D- 10+ minutes

119. What is the agonist during a push-up?

A- Pectoralis Minor
B- Pectoralis Major
C- Triceps Brachii
D- Anterior Deltoid

120. What plane of motion are jumping jacks in?

A- Sagittal
B- Frontal
C- Transverse
D- Multiplaner

121. During kyphosis, what muscles are suspected to be tight?

A- Lower Traps
B- Upper Traps
C- Shoulder adductors
D- Lateral trunk flexors

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122. Which of the following is an action of the scapula?

A- Protraction
B- Upward rotation
C- Adduction
D- All of the above

123. There are 5-key postural deviations that personal trainers should pay attention to. Which of
the following is NOT one of them?
A- Hip Adduction
B- Subtalar pronation / supination
C- Anterior & posterior pelvic tilting
D- Thoracic Rotation

124. Which of the following would be the best dynamic balance test?
A- Unipedal Stance Test
B- T-Test
C- McGill’s Torso Test
D- Y balance Test

125. The trunk lateral endurance test is measuring the strength of what main muscle?
A- Gluteus Maximus
B- Erector Spinae
C- Piriformis
D- Quadratus Lumborum

126. Your client is unable to attain 160 degrees of shoulder flexion. What muscle is likely causes
this imbalance at the shoulder?
A- Latissimus Dorsi
B- Pectoralis Major sternal head
C- Serratus Anterior
D- Rectus Abdominals

127. During the passive straight-leg raise, the personal trainers hand position should be?
A- Supinated and inferior to the glutes
B- Supinated and under the low back
C- Pronated and superior to the glutes
D- Pronated and inferior to the glutes

128. Which of the following muscles are suspected to be tight if the clients knees move inward?
A- Tensor Fascia Latae
B- Gluteus Medius
C- Rectus Abdominis
D- Lack of plantar flexion

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129. You check your clients blood pressure for the second time and they have a systolic Blood
Pressure of 145 and diastolic of 75, what is this called?
A- Hypertension
B- Only hypertension if both numbers are above 140/90
C- Normal Blood Pressure
D- Trainers shouldn’t be checking Blood Pressure

130. During the push-up, what muscles are controlling the eccentric portion of the movement?
A- Biceps Brachii
B- Latissimus Dorsi
C- Deltoids
D- Pectoralis Major

131. What muscles would be overactive during a push-up if the clients head moves forward?
A- Lower traps
B- Upper traps
C- Rhomboids
D- Deep spinal stabilizers

132. Your client’s lumbar spine hyperextends during a cable row, what muscles would be
underactive and that you’d want to strengthen?
A- Hip Flexors
B- Upper Traps
C- Gluteus Maximus
D- Rhomboids

133. Which of the following should be avoided for clients with hypertension?
A- Breathing out during the concentric portion of the exercise
B- Valsalva Maneuver
C- Breathing in during the eccentric portion of the exercise
D- Clients with hypertension shouldn’t be exercising

134. During a bench press, what are the hand positions for the spotter?
A- Pronated
B- Supinated
C- Neutral
D- Alternating

135. During the squat, you notice your clients foot position begins to compensate via subtalor
pronation, what cue can you give to fix this?
A- Drive your knees out and push through your heels.
B- Push through the toes to drive the knees forward.
C- Optimize knee valgus and the stretch shortening cycle.
D- Lift your toes up so you focus on driving through your heels.

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136. What amount of weight is suggested to increase per set during the back squat assessment?
A- 1-3%
B- 3-5%
C- 5-10%
D- 10-20%

137. 15 reps is roughly what percent of your clients 1rm?

A- 80%
B- 75%
C- 70%
D- 65%

138. What is the definition of power?

A- Force x Acceleration
B- Work / Time
C- Work x Velocity
D- A & B

139. Which of the following is a catabolic hormone?

A- Insulin
B- Cortisol
C- HGH
D- Testosterone

140. How many calories are in 1g of Carbs?

A- 4
B- 7
C- 9
D- 14

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STUDY GUIDE ANSWERS 1-140

1- D 51. D 101. A
2- A 52. A 102. C
3- C 53. B 103. C
4- A 54. A 104. B
5- A 55. D 105. D
6- B 56. A 106. B
7- B 57. B 107. D
8- B 58. C 108. A
9- D 59. A 109. B
10- C 60. A 110. C
11- A 61. C 111. D
12- B 62. D 112. A
13- A 63. A 113. B
14- C 64. C 114. C
15- B 65. A 115. A
16- D 66. D 116. B
17- A 67. C 117. A
18- B 68. B 118.C
19- B 69. D 119. B
20- A 70. C 120. B
21- C 71. D 121. C
22- A 72. B 122. D
23- B 73. B 123. D
24- C 74. C 124. D
25- A 75. C 125. D
26- D 76. D 126. A
27- C 77. A 127. B
28- B 78. B 128. A
29- A 79. C 129. A
30- B 80. B 130. D
31- B 81. D 131. B
32- C 82. D 132. C
33- B 83. D 133. B
34- A 84. A 134. D
35- B 85. A 135. A
36- D 86. C 136. D
37- A 87. A 137. D
38- B 88. A 138. B
39- A 89. D 139. B
40- A 90. A 140 A
41- D 91. B
42- D 92. D
43- B 93. A
44- C 94. C
45- A 95. B
46- D 96. B
47- B 97. C
48- A 98. B
49- B 99. B
50- C 100. A

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