Question #1

You execute this command:

Sufficient storage is available in filesystem /u01.

Which two statements are true about the BIG_TBS tablespace? (Choose two.)

A. AUTOEXTEND is possible for the datafileThis is true. The AUTOEXTEND attribute can
be enabled for the datafile in a BIGFILE tablespace, allowing it to grow automatically as
needed.
B. It must be bigger than the largest SMALLFILE tablespace There is no such
requirement.
C. Additional data files may not be added  This is true for a BIGFILE tablespace. BIGFILE
tablespaces can contain only a single data file or tempfile, but that file can be very large.
D. It will be a dictionary-managed tablespace by default Oracle tablespaces are locally
managed by default in modern versions.
E. It will always have a 32K blocksize  The block size of a tablespace is not fixed to 32K;
it can vary.

Answer: A C

Question #2
Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?

A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statementThis is
incorrect. Multiple INTERSECT operators can indeed be used in the same SQL statement
to combine more than two result sets.
B. It processes NULLs in the selected columnsThis is correct. The INTERSECT operator
considers NULL values as equal, so if NULL appears in the same position in both result
sets, it will be included in the output.
C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALLThis is incorrect. The
INTERSECT operator has the same precedence as UNION and UNION ALL in SQL.
D. It ignores NULLsThis is incorrect. The INTERSECT operator does not ignore NULL
values; it processes them just like any other value.

Answer : B
SQL treats NULL = NULL as true in the case of INTERSECT

Question #3
Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle
Net for connection to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three)

A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF) This
is incorrect. Connect Time Failover does not require TAF. TAF is used for session failover
(allows applications to automatically reconnect to a database if the current instance fails)
but is not necessary for connect-time failover, which only needs multiple listener
addresses.
B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server This is incorrect. Source Routing
does not necessitate a name server; it can function without one, using defined routes.
C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables
network traffic to be routed through a firewall  This is true. Source Routing using Oracle
Connection Manager (CMAN) allows network traffic to be routed through a firewall, acting
as a proxy to manage and control connections.
D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a
Shared Server configuration  This is true. Load Balancing in a Shared Server
configuration distributes connections evenly across dispatchers to balance the workload,
ensuring efficient use of resources.
E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server his is incorrect. Load Balancing
does not require a name server. It can operate with multiple addresses specified in the
connect string without relying on a name server.
F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener
addresses configured

Answers: C, D, F
C)CMAN can act as a firewall proxy, allowing secure database access from external
clients.
D)It distributes client connections across multiple servers or dispatchers in a Shared
Server configuration
F)Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener
addresses configured to provide high availability by attempting to connect to an
alternate listener if the primary listener fails so requires at least two listener addresses in
the connect string

Question #4
Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where
NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)

A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional
details of fractional seconds This is incorrect. While both CURRENT_TIMESTAMP and
SYSDATE return the current date and time, CURRENT_TIMESTAMP includes fractional
seconds and time zone information, whereas SYSDATE does not include fractional
seconds or time zone.
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table This is incorrect. While SYSDATE
is often queried from the DUAL table, it can also be used in other queries and functions
without explicitly querying from DUAL.
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone  This
is correct. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time according to the session's
time zone.
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
This is incorrect. SYSDATE can be used in expressions regardless of the default date
format. The format only affects how the date is displayed.
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating
system of the database server This is incorrect. SYSDATE returns the current date and
time set for the operating system of the database server. CURRENT_DATE, on the other
hand, returns the current date and time according to the session's time zone, which may
be different from the server's time zone.
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE  This is correct. Both
CURRENT_TIMESTAMP and CURRENT_DATE return the current date, but
CURRENT_TIMESTAMP includes additional details such as fractional seconds and time
zone information.

Answers: C,F
C)Returns the current date and time in the session's time zone this differs from
SYSDATE, which returns the database server's date and time.
F)CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

Question #5
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo
enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?

A. in the undo tablespace This is incorrect because when temporary undo is enabled,
the undo data for operations on temporary tables is not stored in the undo tablespace.
The undo tablespace is used for permanent tables.
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace This is incorrect. The SYSAUX tablespace is used for
storing auxiliary metadata and other system-related data, not for undo data.
C. in the SGA This is incorrect. The System Global Area (SGA) is a shared memory
region that contains data and control information for the Oracle server, but it does not
store undo data.
D. in the PGA This is incorrect. The Program Global Area (PGA) is a memory region that
contains data and control information for a single server process, and it does not store
undo data.
E. in the temporary tablespace  When temporary undo is enabled, undo data for DML
operations (such as UPDATE) on temporary tables is stored in the temporary tablespace.
This configuration improves performance and reduces the load on the regular undo
tablespace.

Answer: E
When temporary undo is enabled, undo data for DML operations on temporary
tables is stored in the temporary tablespace rather than the undo tablespace.

Question #6
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:

1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions

2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid

Which data type should you use?

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH This data type is used to store intervals in years and
months, which makes it unsuitable for precise day calculations required for interest
calculation on loans.
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND  The INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND data type is used to store
time intervals in days, hours, minutes, and seconds. It is suitable for storing and
performing date arithmetic on durations, such as the number of days a loan remains
unpaid. This meets the requirement of calculating interest for the number of days the
loan is unpaid without needing conversion functions.
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE This data type stores both date and time values,
including the time zone, but is not designed specifically for interval calculations or
duration storage.
D. TIMESTAMP This data type stores date and time values, but it does not inherently
support interval arithmetic for periods like loan durations.
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE Similar to TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE, this data
type includes time zone information but is not suitable for interval calculations required
for this use case.

Answer: B

Question #7
In the spfile of a single instance database, LOCAL_LISTENER is set to LISTENER_1.
The TNSNAMES.ORA file in $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin in the database home
contains:

Which statement is true?

A. Dynamic service registration cannot be used for this database instance This is
incorrect. Dynamic service registration can be used for this database instance if
LISTENER_1 is properly defined and running.
B. The LREG process registers services dynamically with the LISTENER_1 listener While
the LREG process is responsible for dynamic service registration, it can only do so if
LISTENER_1 is properly defined in the LISTENER.ORA file. Without this definition, dynamic
registration won't occur.
C. LISTENER_1 must also be defined in the LISTENER.ORA file to enable dynamic service
registration  For dynamic service registration to work, the listener referenced by the
LOCAL_LISTENER parameter (in this case, LISTENER_1) must be properly configured and
running. This includes defining LISTENER_1 in the LISTENER.ORA file. Dynamic service
registration requires the listener to be aware of the database services it should manage,
which is facilitated through proper configuration.
D. There are two listeners named LISTENER and LISTENER_1 running simultaneously
using port 1521 on the same host as the database instances This is incorrect. The
presence of LOCAL_LISTENER set to LISTENER_1 does not imply there are two listeners
running simultaneously. It only indicates that the database should register with
LISTENER_1.
E. The definition for LISTENER_1 requires a CONNECT_DATA section to enable dynamic
service Registration This is incorrect. The CONNECT_DATA section is not required for
dynamic service registration. What is essential is defining LISTENER_1 properly in the
LISTENER.ORA file to facilitate the registration.

Answer: C

Question #8
Which three statements are true concerning logical and physical database structures?
(Choose three.)

A. All tablespaces may have one or more data files This is False. A big tablespace can
not have more than one datafile
B. The extents of a segment must always reside in the same datafile This is incorrect.
Extents of a segment can span multiple data files within the same tablespace.
C. A smallfile tablespace might be bigger than a bigfile tablespace  This is true. A
smallfile tablespace can have multiple data files and collectively may have a larger total
size than a single large data file in a bigfile tablespace.
D. A segment can span multiple data files in some tablespaces  This is true. In smallfile
tablespaces, segments can span multiple data files, allowing for larger storage capacity.
E. A segment's blocks can be of different sizes This is incorrect. All blocks in a segment
are of the same size, which is determined by the block size of the tablespace.
F. A segment might have only one extent  This is true. A segment can consist of a
single extent, especially when it is small or newly created.
G. Segments can span multiple tablespaces This is incorrect. Segments cannot span
multiple tablespaces; they are contained within a single tablespace.

Answers: C, D,F
C)A smallfile tablespace might be bigger than a bigfile tablespace.
D)Segments (like tables, indexes, etc.) can span multiple data files in some tablespaces.
F) When a segment is initially created, it might occupy only one extent.

Question #9
Which two statements are true regarding a SAVEPOINT? (Choose two.)

A. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a CREATE INDEX statement This is incorrect.
DDL statements like CREATE INDEX are auto-committed in Oracle, meaning they cannot
be undone using a SAVEPOINT.
B. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a TRUNCATE statement This is incorrect. The
TRUNCATE statement is also a DDL operation, and like other DDL statements, it is auto-
committed and cannot be rolled back to a SAVEPOINT.
C. Only one SAVEPOINT may be issued in a transaction This is incorrect. You can issue
multiple SAVEPOINTS within a single transaction, allowing you to roll back to various
points as needed.
D. A SAVEPOINT does not issue a COMMIT  This is correct. A SAVEPOINT allows you to
set a point within a transaction to which you can later roll back. It does not issue a
COMMIT, which means it does not end the transaction.
E. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a DELETE statement  This is correct. When
you roll back to a SAVEPOINT, it undoes all changes made to the database after that
SAVEPOINT, including DELETE statements.

Answers: D, E
D)SAVEPOINT marks a point within a transaction but does not commit it.
E)Rolling back to a savepoint undo any DML (like DELETE, INSERT, or UPDATE) executed
after the savepoint.

Question #10
Which three functions are performed by dispatchers in a shared server configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. writing inbound request to the common request queue from all shared server
connections  Dispatchers write incoming requests from client processes to a common
request queue. This queue is then processed by the shared server processes.
B. checking for outbound shared server responses on the common outbound response
queue This is incorrect. Dispatchers do not check for outbound responses on the
common outbound response queue; this is typically managed within the architecture of
shared server processes.
C. receiving inbound requests from processes using shared server connections 
Dispatchers are responsible for receiving inbound requests from user processes that
connect using shared server connections. These requests are then placed in the common
request queue.
D. sending each connection input request to the appropriate shared server input queue
This is incorrect. Dispatchers write inbound requests to a common request queue, not to
individual shared server input queues.
E. broadcasting shared server session responses back to requesters on all connections
This is incorrect. Dispatchers do not broadcast responses. They send responses back to
the specific requester on the appropriate connection.
F. sending shared server session responses back to requesters on the appropriate
connection  After a shared server process completes the request, the dispatcher sends
the response back to the appropriate user process on the correct connection.

Answers: A,C,F
Dispatchers handle client connections in a shared server configuration take incoming
requests from client connections and place them in a common request queue for shared
servers to process and after shared servers process requests, dispatchers send responses
back to the appropriate client connection.

Question #11
Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used only in SQL*Plus This is incorrect. The command is supported in both
SQL*Plus and SQL Developer.
B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query This is
incorrect. The SET VERIFY ON command displays variable values for all parts of a query,
not just the WHERE clause.
C. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus  This is true. The SET VERIFY ON
command can be used in both SQL*Plus and SQL Developer environments. It enables the
display of old and new variable values in your SQL statements, which helps in debugging
and understanding how variables are being substituted.
D. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command This is incorrect.
While SET VERIFY ON displays values for substitution variables, the DEFINE command is
used to define variables in SQL*Plus. These are distinct from substitution variables
prefixed with & or &&.
E. It displays values for variables prefixed with &&  This is true. When SET VERIFY ON is
enabled, it shows the values for substitution variables prefixed with && (double
ampersand) or & (single ampersand) before and after substitution in the SQL statement.
This makes it easier to verify and debug the script.

Answers: C,E
C)It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus.
E)When a query contains substitution variables prefixed with &&, SQL*Plus will display
the values used for substitution if SET VERIFY ON is enabled.

Question #12
Which three statements are true about a self join? (Choose three.)

A. The ON clause must be used This is incorrect. While the ON clause is commonly
used, it's not mandatory if using the USING clause or other join conditions.
B. The query must use two different aliases for the table  This is true. In a self join, the
same table is joined to itself. To distinguish between the instances of the table, two
different aliases are used.
C. It must be an equijoin This is incorrect. A self join does not have to be an equijoin. It
can be any type of join, including non-equijoins.
D. It must be an inner join This is incorrect. A self join does not have to be an inner join;
it can also be an outer join, as stated in option F.
E. The ON clause can be used  This is true. The ON clause is used to specify the
condition for the join, and it can be used in a self join to define how the table relates to
itself.
F. It can be an outer join  This is true. A self join can be either an inner join or an outer
join. An outer join includes rows from the table even if they don't meet the join condition.

Answers: B,E,F
B)A self join requires the same table to be referenced twice, so we need two aliases to
distinguish between the instances.
E)The ON clause can be used to specify the join condition.
F)Self join can be either an inner or an outer join, depending on the requirement.

Question #13
You want to write a query that prompts for two column names and the WHERE condition
each time it is executed in a session but only prompts for the table name the first time it
is executed.
The variables used in your query are never undefined in your session.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT &&col1, &&col2 FROM &table WHERE &&condition = &&cond; This option
would prompt for col1, col2, condition, and cond only the first time they are referenced. It
does not meet the requirement of prompting for the column names and condition each
time the query is executed.
B. SELECT &col1, &col2 FROM &&table WHERE &condition;  This query uses single
ampersands (&) for col1, col2, and condition, which means these variables will prompt
the user for input each time the query is executed in the session. The double ampersand
(&&) before table means that the table name will be prompted for only the first time and
will be reused for subsequent executions without prompting again. This behavior
matches the requirement that the table name is prompted only once, while other
variables are prompted each time.
C. SELECT &col1, &col2 FROM ‫ג‬€&table‫ג‬€ WHERE &condition; This option is incorrect
due to the special characters used (‫ג‬€). Also, it would prompt for all variables each time
the query is executed, not just the column names and condition.
D. SELECT '&&col1', '&&col2' FROM &table WHERE '&&condition' = '&cond'; This option
places the variable names inside single quotes, treating them as literal strings rather
than variables to be substituted. This would not prompt for the actual values as required.
E. SELECT &&col1, &&col2 FROM &table WHERE &&condition; This option would prompt
for col1, col2, and condition only once. It does not meet the requirement of prompting for
the column names and condition each time the query is executed.

Answer: B
&&: Prompts for the variable only once during the session
&: Prompts for the variable every time the query is executed.

Question #14
Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table:
You want to display details of all customers who reside in cities starting with the letter D
followed by at least two characters.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE 'D_%';

B. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = '%D_';
C. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE 'D_';
D. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = 'D_%';
Answer: A

Question #15
Examine this command:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DML may be performed on tables with one or more extents in this data file during the
execution of this command.  This is correct. Data Manipulation Language (DML)
operations can still be performed on tables that have extents in the data file during the
rename operation. Oracle allows renaming data files without making the tablespace
READ ONLY or OFFLINE.
B. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered READ ONLY before executing
the command  This is incorrect. The tablespace does not need to be in READ ONLY
mode to rename the data file. It can be renamed while the tablespace is ONLINE.
C. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered OFFLINE before executing the
command.  This is incorrect. The tablespace does not need to be taken OFFLINE to
rename the data file. Renaming can be done while the tablespace is ONLINE.
D. If Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is used, then the file is renamed but moved to
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.  This is incorrect. When Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is used,
data files are automatically managed by Oracle, and their locations are determined by
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST. However, renaming a data file with OMF does not necessarily
move the file to this directory.
E. The file is renamed and stored in the same location  This is correct. The data file is
renamed in the same directory without moving it to a different location. This allows the
file to retain its physical storage characteristics while only its name changes.

Answers: A,E

Question #16
Which three statements are true about dropping and unused columns in an Oracle
database? (Choose three.)
A. A primary key column referenced by another column as a foreign key can be dropped
if using the CASCADE option.  This is true. If a primary key column is referenced by a
foreign key in another table, it can be dropped using the CASCADE option. This option
ensures that all dependent foreign key constraints are also dropped.
B. An UNUSED column's space is reclaimed automatically when the block containing that
column is next queried  This is incorrect. The space for an UNUSED column is not
automatically reclaimed when the block is next queried. Explicit actions such as
reorganization or table maintenance tasks are needed to reclaim the space.
C. An UNUSED column's space is reclaimed automatically when the row containing that
column is next queried.  This is incorrect. Similar to option B, the space for an UNUSED
column is not automatically reclaimed when the row is next queried. Space reclamation
requires additional maintenance actions.
D. Partition key columns cannot be dropped.  This is true. Partition key columns are
integral to the partitioning scheme of a table and cannot be dropped.
E. A DROP COLUMN command can be rolled back  This is incorrect. The DROP COLUMN
command is a DDL (Data Definition Language) operation, which means it is auto-
committed and cannot be rolled back.
F. A column that is set to UNUSED still counts towards the limit of 1000 columns per table
 This is true. When a column is set to UNUSED, it is no longer accessible by queries, but
it still counts towards the maximum number of columns a table can have, which is 1000.

Answers: A,D,F

Question #17
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle database space management within
blocks managed by Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)? (Choose two.)

A. PCTFREE defaults to 10% for all blocks in all segments for all compression methods
This is incorrect. The PCTFREE parameter, which determines the amount of space
reserved in a block for updates to existing rows, does not have a default value of 10% for
all blocks, segments, and compression methods. Its default value can vary and can be
adjusted.
B. ASSM assigns blocks to one of four fullness categories based on what percentage of
the block is allocated for rows  This is correct. Automatic Segment Space Management
(ASSM) categorizes blocks into four fullness categories: FULL, VERY FULL, NEARLY FULL,
and FREE. These categories help the database efficiently manage and allocate space for
rows in the blocks.
C. Update operations always attempt to find blocks with free space appropriate to the
length of the row being updated This is incorrect. Update operations modify existing
rows and do not necessarily search for blocks with free space. If the updated row cannot
fit into its current block due to lack of space, row migration or chaining occurs.
D. Insert operations always attempt to find blocks with free space appropriate to the
length of the row being inserted  This is correct. In ASSM, when an insert operation
occurs, Oracle attempts to find blocks that have enough free space to accommodate the
length of the new row. This helps optimize space usage and minimizes row chaining.
E. A block will always be eligible for inserts if the row is short enough to fit into the
block This is incorrect. Even if a row is short enough to fit into a block, ASSM uses
fullness categories to determine the suitability of a block for new inserts. A block
categorized as FULL or VERY FULL may not be chosen for inserts, depending on space
management settings.

Answers: B,D

Question #18
Evaluate these commands which execute successfully:
Which two statements are true about the ORD_ITEMS table and the ORD_SEQ sequence?
(Choose two.)

A. If sequence ORD_SEQ is dropped then the default value for column ORD_NO will be
NULL for rows
inserted into ORD_ITEMS
B. Any user inserting rows into table ORD_ITEMS must have been granted access to
sequence ORD_SEQ
C. Column ORD_NO gets the next number from sequence ORD_SEQ whenever a row is
inserted into
ORD_ITEMS and no explicit value is given for ORD_NO
D. Sequence ORD_SEQ cycles back to 1 after every 5000 numbers and can cycle 20
times
E. Sequence ORD_SEQ is guaranteed not to generate duplicate numbers

Answers:B,C

Question #19
Which three instance situations are possible with the Oracle Database server without
multi-tenant? (Choose three.)

A. two or more instances on separate servers all associated with one database  This is
true. Oracle Database supports Real Application Clusters (RAC), which allows multiple
instances on separate servers to be associated with a single database. This provides high
availability and scalability.
B. one instance on one server associated with one database  This is true. This is the
typical single-instance Oracle Database configuration, where one instance on one server
manages one database.
C. one instance on one server associated with two or more databases on the same
server This is incorrect. Without using the multi-tenant architecture, an Oracle instance
cannot manage more than one database. Each instance is tied to a single database.
D. one instance on one server not associated with any database  This is true. An
instance can be started without being associated with a database, often for maintenance
or administrative purposes, such as creating a new database.
E. one instance on one server associated with two or more databases on separate
servers  This is incorrect. Similar to option C, a single instance cannot manage multiple
databases regardless of whether they are on the same or separate servers. Each
instance is dedicated to a single database.
Answers: A,B,D

Question #20
Which two statements are true about the ORDER BY clause when used with a SQL
statement containing a SET operator such as UNION? (Choose two.)

A. Column positions must be used in the ORDER BY clause This is incorrect. While
column positions can be used in the ORDER BY clause, it is not a requirement. Column
names from the first SELECT statement can also be used.
B. Only column names from the first SELECT statement in the compound query are
recognized  This is true. When using a SET operator such as UNION, the ORDER BY
clause can only reference column names from the first SELECT statement in the
compound query. This ensures consistency and avoids ambiguity in column names.
C. The first column in the first SELECT of the compound query with the UNION operator is
used by default to sort output in the absence of an ORDER BY clause  This is true. If an
ORDER BY clause is not specified in a query with a SET operator like UNION, the result set
is sorted by the first column in the first SELECT statement by default.
D. Each SELECT statement in the compound query must have its own ORDER BY clause
This is incorrect. Only a single ORDER BY clause is allowed at the end of the compound
query. Individual SELECT statements in the compound query cannot have their own
ORDER BY clauses.
E. Each SELECT statement in the compound query can have its own ORDER BY clause`
This is incorrect. Similar to option D, only one ORDER BY clause can be used at the end of
the compound query, and it applies to the entire result set of the query.

Answers: B,C

Question #21
Which four account management capabilities can be configured using Oracle profiles?
(Choose four.)
A. the number of hours for which an account is locked after the configured number of
login attempts has been reached This option describes a similar but incorrect time
frame. Oracle profiles typically configure account lock duration in days rather than hours.
B. the number of days for which an account may be inactive before it is locked  Oracle
profiles can be configured to lock an account if it has been inactive for a specified
number of days. This helps in managing and securing unused accounts.
C. the maximum amount of CPU time allowed for a user's sessions before their account is
locked Oracle profiles can limit CPU usage per session, but this does not lock the
account. It rather limits the resources a user can consume.
D. the ability to prevent a password from ever being reused  Oracle profiles include a
feature to prevent the reuse of passwords, enhancing security by ensuring that old
passwords cannot be reused.
E. the number of password changes required within a period of time before a password
can be reused  Profiles can enforce a policy where a specific number of password
changes must occur within a defined period before a previously used password can be
reused.
F. the number of days for which an account is locked after the configured number of login
attempts has been reached  Profiles allow configuration of account lock duration after a
specified number of failed login attempts, helping to mitigate unauthorized access
attempts.
G. the maximum number of sessions permitted for a user before the account is locked
While profiles can limit the number of concurrent sessions for a user, exceeding this limit
does not lock the account; it simply prevents new sessions from being established.

Answers: B,D,E,F

Question #22
Which three statements are true about single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can be used only in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement This is incorrect.
Single-row functions can be used in various parts of a SQL statement, including the
SELECT list, WHERE clause, HAVING clause, and more.
B. The argument can be a column name, variable, literal or an expression  This is true.
Single-row functions can take various types of arguments, including column names,
variables, literals, or complex expressions, making them highly versatile in SQL queries.
C. The data type returned can be different from the data type of the argument  This is
true. Single-row functions can return a data type that is different from the data type of
the argument. For example, the TO_CHAR function converts a date to a string.
D. They can be nested to any level  This is true. Single-row functions can be nested,
meaning you can use the result of one function as the input to another function, allowing
for complex data transformations.
E. They can accept only one argument  This is incorrect. While some single-row
functions accept only one argument, many accept multiple arguments, such as the
CONCAT function, which can concatenate two or more strings.
F. They return a single result row per table This is incorrect. Single-row functions return
a single result per row of the table, not per table. They operate on each row individually.

Answers: B,C,D

Question #23
You want to use table compression suitable for OLTP that will:

1. Compress rows for all DML statements on that table

2. Minimize the overheads associated with compression

Which compression option is best suited for this?

A. COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR QUERY LOW This option is designed for query
performance in data warehousing environments, not for OLTP. It compresses data for
query efficiency rather than for DML operations.
B. ROW STORE COMPRESS BASIC While this provides basic compression, it is not as
optimized for OLTP environments as the advanced option. It may not minimize overheads
as effectively as ROW STORE COMPRESS ADVANCED.
C. COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR ARCHIVE LOW This option is intended for archiving
data with low access frequency. It is not suited for environments with frequent DML
operations, such as OLTP.
D. COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR ARCHIVE HIGH Similar to the low option, this is for
high compression of archived data that is rarely accessed. It is not appropriate for OLTP
scenarios with active DML operations.
E. ROW STORE COMPRESS ADVANCED  The ROW STORE COMPRESS ADVANCED option
(also known as OLTP Compression) is specifically designed for Online Transaction
Processing (OLTP) environments. It is optimized to compress rows for all DML operations
(INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) while minimizing the performance overhead typically
associated with compression. This makes it well-suited for environments where there is a
high volume of transactional operations, as it helps reduce the storage footprint and
improve I/O performance without significantly affecting DML operations.

Answer: E

Question #24
Which two statements are true about space-saving features in an Oracle Database?
(Choose two.)

A. Private Temporary Tables (PTTS) store metadata in memory only This is correct.
Private Temporary Tables (PTTs) are designed to store their metadata in memory only,
which helps save space and provides faster access. They are session-specific and are
automatically dropped at the end of the session.
B. An index created with the UNUSABLE attribute has no segment This is correct. When
an index is created with the UNUSABLE attribute, it does not have a segment allocated to
it. This means that the index cannot be used until it is rebuilt, but in the meantime, it
saves space because no storage is allocated.
C. If they exist for a session, Private Temporary Tables (PTTs) are always dropped at the
next COMMIT OR ROLLBACK statementThis is incorrect. Private Temporary Tables (PTTs)
are dropped automatically at the end of the session, not necessarily at the next COMMIT
or ROLLBACK statement.
D. An index that is altered to be UNUSABLE will retain its segmentThis is incorrect.
When an index is altered to be UNUSABLE, it does not retain its segment. The segment is
deallocated, making the index unusable until it is rebuilt.
E. A table that is truncated will always have its segment removedThis is incorrect.
When a table is truncated, its data is removed, and the high-water mark is reset, but the
segment itself is not necessarily removed. The segment can still exist and be reused for
new data.

Answer: A,B

Question #25
Which two statements are true about the PMON background process? (Choose two.)

A. It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the
database instanceThis is incorrect. Registering database services with listeners is
typically handled by the Listener Registration (LREG) process, not PMON.
B. It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes This is true. The Process
Monitor (PMON) background process is responsible for cleaning up after failed processes
by freeing resources that were being held. This includes releasing locks and other
resources held by abnormally terminated processes, helping maintain the stability and
availability of the database.
C. It records checkpoint information in the control fileThis is incorrect. The process
responsible for recording checkpoint information in the control file is the Checkpoint
(CKPT) process, not PMON.
D. It frees unused temporary segmentsThis is true. PMON also cleans up temporary
segments that are no longer in use, ensuring that these resources are available for future
operations.
E. It kills sessions that exceed idle time This is incorrect. PMON does not kill sessions
that exceed idle time. Idle session management is usually handled by user profile
settings and resource management configurations.

Answer: D,E

Question #26
In which three situations does a new transaction always start? (Choose three.)

A. when issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT
statement was issued in the same session  A new transaction starts when a SELECT
FOR UPDATE statement is issued. This locks the selected rows for update, and since it
modifies the database state, it starts a new transaction if none is already active.
B. when issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the
same session The TRUNCATE statement is a DDL operation that implicitly commits the
current transaction and does not necessarily start a new one.
C. when issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the
same session Similar to TRUNCATE, CREATE TABLE is a DDL statement that commits
the current transaction but does not inherently start a new one.
D. when issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (DML) statement after a COMMIT
OR ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session  A new transaction always
begins with the first DML statement (INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) after a previous
transaction has ended with a COMMIT or ROLLBACK. This marks the start of a new
sequence of operations that can be committed or rolled back as a unit.
E. when issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed
successfully in the same session A CREATE INDEX statement is a DDL operation and will
commit the current transaction if one is active but will not necessarily start a new
transaction.
F. when issuing a DML statement after a DML statement failed in the same session  If a
DML statement fails, the transaction is rolled back. Issuing a new DML statement after
this failure will start a new transaction, as the previous one would have been terminated.
Answer: A,D,F

Question #27
Examine the description of the SALES1 table:

SALES2 is a table with the same description as SALES1.

Some sales data is duplicated in both tables.
You want to display the rows from the SALES1 table which are not present in the SALES2
table.

Which set operator generates the required output?

A. INTERSECT The INTERSECT set operator returns only the rows that are common to
both queries. This is not suitable for finding rows that exist in SALES1 but not in SALES2.
B. UNION ALL The UNION ALL set operator combines the results of both queries,
including duplicates. This does not help in identifying rows unique to SALES1.
C. UNION The UNION set operator also combines the results of both queries but
removes duplicates. However, it still does not isolate rows that are unique to SALES1.
D. SUBTRACT SUBTRACT is not a valid SQL set operator. The correct operator for this
purpose is MINUS.
E. MINUS  The MINUS set operator is used in SQL to return the rows from the first query
that are not present in the result of the second query. In this case, using MINUS will
display the rows from the SALES1 table that are not present in the SALES2 table. This is
exactly what you need to identify the non-duplicated sales data in SALES1.

Answer: E

Question #28
Your database instance is started with a PFILE.
Examine these parameters:

You want to increase the size of the buffer cache.

Free memory is available to increase the size of the buffer cache.
You execute the command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=1024M;

What is the outcome?

A. The value is changed only in the PFILE and takes effect at the next instance startup
This is incorrect. The PFILE is not automatically updated by the ALTER SYSTEM command.
You must manually edit the PFILE for changes to take effect upon the next startup.
B. The value is changed for the current instance and in the PFILE This is incorrect. The
change is applied only to the current instance and not to the PFILE. The PFILE must be
manually updated to make the change permanent.
C. It fails because the SCOPE clause is missing This is incorrect. The SCOPE clause is
optional and relevant only when using SPFILE. Since the instance is started with a PFILE,
the absence of the SCOPE clause does not cause the command to fail.
D. Change is applied to the current instance, but does not persist after instance restart 
When using a PFILE (Parameter File) to start your Oracle database instance, changes
made using the ALTER SYSTEM command affect only the current instance. These changes
are not persistent because PFILE is a static text file. The updated parameter value is
applied to the current instance but will be lost after the instance is restarted unless the
PFILE is manually updated.

Answer: D

Question #29
Which three Oracle database space management features will work with both Dictionary
and Locally managed tablespaces? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle Managed Files (OMF)  Oracle Managed Files (OMF) simplifies the
administration of Oracle database files by allowing Oracle to manage the naming and
location of database files. This feature works with both Dictionary-managed and Locally
managed tablespaces.
B. Online table segment shrink Online table segment shrink operations are generally
associated with Locally managed tablespaces and not Dictionary-managed tablespaces.
C. Online index segment shrink Similar to online table segment shrink, online index
segment shrink operations are typically supported in Locally managed tablespaces and
not Dictionary-managed tablespaces.
D. Automatic data file extension (AUTOEXTEND)  The AUTOEXTEND feature allows
Oracle to automatically increase the size of a data file when it runs out of space. This
feature is applicable to both Dictionary-managed and Locally managed tablespaces,
providing flexibility and ease of storage management.
E. Capacity planning growth reports based on historical data in the Automatic Workload
Repository (AWR)  AWR collects, processes, and maintains performance statistics for
problem detection and self-tuning purposes. Capacity planning growth reports generated
from AWR data help in understanding the space usage trends and planning for future
storage needs. This feature works regardless of whether the tablespaces are Dictionary-
managed or Locally managed.

Answer: A,D,E

Question #30
You execute this command:

During the export operation, you detach from the job by using CTRL+C and then execute
this command:

Export> STOP_JOB=immediate -
Are you sure you wish to stop the job ([yes]/no): yes
Which two statements are true about the job? (Choose two.)

A. You can no longer monitor it

B. You can reattach to it and monitor it
C. It is paused and can be resumed
D. It continues to run in the background
E. It terminates

Answer: B,C

Question #31
In one of your databases, you create a user, HR, and then execute this command:
GRANT CREATE SESSION TO hr WITH ADMIN OPTION;

Which four actions can HR perform? (Choose four.)

A. Revoke the CREATE SESSION privilege from other users  Because HR has been
granted the CREATE SESSION privilege with the ADMIN OPTION, HR can not only grant
this privilege to other users but also revoke it from them.
B. Revoke the CREATE SESSION privilege from user HR  HR can revoke the CREATE
SESSION privilege from itself because it was granted with ADMIN OPTION, giving HR the
ability to manage this privilege fully.
C. Log in to the database instance  The CREATE SESSION privilege allows HR to log in to
the database instance. This privilege is required for a user to establish a session in the
database.
D. Grant the CREATE SESSION privilege with ADMIN OPTION to other users  With the
ADMIN OPTION, HR can grant the CREATE SESSION privilege to other users, also allowing
those users to grant it further. This capability cascades the administrative control of the
privilege.
E. Execute DDL statements in the HR schema The CREATE SESSION privilege does not
permit the execution of DDL (Data Definition Language) statements such as CREATE,
ALTER, or DROP within the HR schema or any other schema. Specific privileges or roles
are required for executing DDL statements.
F. Execute DML statements in the HR schema Similarly, the CREATE SESSION privilege
does not allow the execution of DML (Data Manipulation Language) statements such as
INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or SELECT within the HR schema or any other schema.
Appropriate object-level privileges are needed for DML operations.

Answer: A,B,C,D

Question #32
Which two statements are true about the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SELECT
statement? (Choose two.)

A. Aggregating functions and columns used in HAVING clauses must be specified in the
SELECT list of a query This is incorrect. While the HAVING clause often refers to
aggregate functions and columns in the SELECT list, it is not strictly required. You can use
HAVING to filter groups based on conditions involving aggregate functions not necessarily
present in the SELECT list.
B. WHERE and HAVING clauses can be used in the same statement only if applied to
different table columns This is incorrect. The WHERE clause and HAVING clause can be
used in the same statement regardless of whether they are applied to the same or
different columns. The WHERE clause filters rows before grouping, while the HAVING
clause filters groups after aggregation.
C. The HAVING clause can be used with aggregating functions in subqueries  This is
true. The HAVING clause is used to filter groups of rows based on the result of aggregate
functions like SUM, AVG, COUNT, etc. It can be applied in subqueries to further filter the
results of grouped data.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows before dividing them into groups 
This is true. The WHERE clause filters rows before any grouping takes place. This means
that it applies the filter criteria to individual rows and excludes those that do not meet
the condition before the grouping operation is performed by GROUP BY.
E. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows after dividing them into groups This
is incorrect. The WHERE clause cannot be used to exclude rows after they have been
grouped. Instead, the HAVING clause serves this purpose by filtering groups after the
GROUP BY operation.

Answer: C,D

Question #33
Which two statements are true about UNDO and REDO? (Choose two.)

A. The generation of UNDO generates REDO  This is true. When a transaction

generates UNDO data to record the before-images of modified data, the changes to the
UNDO segments themselves generate REDO entries. This ensures that the changes made
to the UNDO segments can be recovered if necessary
B. DML modifies Oracle database objects and only generates UNDO This is incorrect.
DML operations generate both UNDO and REDO, not just UNDO.
C. The generation of REDO generates UNDO This is incorrect. While REDO is generated
for changes made to the database, it does not generate UNDO. Instead, UNDO is
generated as a result of changes made by DML operations to allow for transaction
rollback.
D. DML modifies Oracle database objects and only generates REDO This is incorrect.
DML operations generate both UNDO and REDO, not just REDO.
E. DML modifies Oracle database objects and generates UNDO and REDO This is true.
Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations such as INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE
modify database objects, which results in the generation of both UNDO and REDO. The
UNDO data captures the previous state of the data to allow for rollback if necessary,
while the REDO data captures the new state to ensure the changes can be reapplied
during recovery.

Answer: A,E

Question #34
The SCOTT/TIGER user exists in two databases, BOSTON_DB and DALLAS_DB, in two
different locations.
Each database has a tnsnames.ora file defining DALLAS_DB as a service name.
Examine this command:
CREATE DATABASE LINK dblink1 CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING
'dallas_db';

How do you execute the command so that only SCOTT in BOSTON_DB can access the
SCOTT schema in DALLAS_DB?

A. as SCOTT in DALLAS_DB Creating the database link as SCOTT in DALLAS_DB would

not achieve the desired outcome of allowing SCOTT in BOSTON_DB to access the SCOTT
schema in DALLAS_DB.
B. as SCOTT in BOSTON_DB  To create a database link that allows only the SCOTT user
in the BOSTON_DB database to access the SCOTT schema in the DALLAS_DB database,
you should execute the CREATE DATABASE LINK command as the SCOTT user in
BOSTON_DB. This ensures that the database link is associated with the SCOTT user in
BOSTON_DB, and only SCOTT in BOSTON_DB can use this link to connect to the SCOTT
schema in DALLAS_DB.
C. as SCOTT in BOSTON_DB and SYS in DALLAS_DB This is unnecessary. The database
link should be created by SCOTT in BOSTON_DB to restrict access to SCOTT in
BOSTON_DB only.
D. as SYS in both the databases Creating the link as SYS in both databases is not
required and would not ensure the link is specifically for SCOTT in BOSTON_DB.
E. as SCOTT in both the databases This is incorrect. The database link should be
created by SCOTT in BOSTON_DB only to ensure that only this user can access the
remote schema.

Answer: B

Question #35
Which three statements are true about the DESCRIBE command? (Choose three.)

A. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that
constraint This is incorrect. The DESCRIBE command does not display detailed
constraint information such as primary keys.
B. It can be used from SQL Developer  This is true. The DESCRIBE command can be
used in various Oracle database tools, including SQL*Plus and SQL Developer, to display
the structure of database objects.
C. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint  This is
true. The DESCRIBE command provides details about the structure of a table, including
information about whether columns have the NOT NULL constraint.
D. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view  This is true. The
DESCRIBE command can be used to display the structure of both tables and views,
showing details about the columns within these objects.
E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column This is incorrect. The
DESCRIBE command does not list all constraints. It primarily provides information about
column names, data types, and whether they are nullable.
F. It can be used only from SQL*Plus This is incorrect. The DESCRIBE command is
versatile and can be used in multiple Oracle tools, including SQL Developer.

Answer: C,D,F

Question #36
Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table:

For customers whose income level has a value, you want to display the first name and
due amount as 5% of their credit limit. Customers whose due amount is null should not
be displayed.

Which query should be used?

A. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers

WHERE
cust_income_level IS NOT NULL AND due_amount IS NOT NULL;  This option is
incorrect because it checks due_amount for IS NOT NULL, but due_amount is not a
column in the table. The correct column to check is cust_credit_limit.
B. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers
WHERE
cust_income_level != NULL AND cust_credit_level !=NULL;  This option uses the !=
NULL condition, which is incorrect. The correct syntax to check for non-null values is IS
NOT NULL.
C. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers
WHERE
cust_income_level <> NULL AND due_amount <> NULL;  Similar to option B, this
uses the incorrect <> NULL syntax instead of IS NOT NULL.
D. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers
WHERE
cust_income_level != NULL AND due_amount != NULL;  Again, this uses the incorrect
!= NULL syntax and checks the wrong column due_amount instead of cust_credit_limit.
E. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers
WHERE
 cust_income_level IS NOT NULL AND cust_credit_limit IS NOT NULL;  This query
correctly identifies customers whose cust_income_level is not null and whose
cust_credit_limit is also not null. The cust_credit_limit * .05 calculation is used to
determine the DUE_AMOUNT for each customer. Using IS NOT NULL ensures that the
query only returns customers with values in both columns, meeting the requirement to
exclude rows with null values in due_amount.

Answer: E

Question #37
The INVOICE table has a QTY_SOLD column of data type NUMBER and an INVOICE_DATE
column of data type DATE.
NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-RR.

Which two are true about data type conversions involving these columns in query
expressions? (Choose two.)

A. CONCAT (qty_sold, invoice_date) : requires explicit conversion  The CONCAT function

requires both arguments to be strings. Since qty_sold is a number and invoice_date is a
date, explicit conversion using TO_CHAR would be needed.
B. invoice_date = ‘15-march-2019’ : uses implicit conversion  When a date literal is
provided as a string in a format that matches the NLS_DATE_FORMAT, Oracle
automatically converts it to a date type. In this case, '15-march-2019' matches the DD-
MON-RR format, so the conversion is implicit.
C. invoie_date > ‘01-02-2019’ : uses implicit conversion  This is incorrect because the
date literal '01-02-2019' is not in the DD-MON-RR format. Oracle expects dates in the
specified NLS_DATE_FORMAT, so this would not work as intended.
D. qty_sold BETWEEN ‘101’ AND ‘110’ : uses implicit conversion  While implicit
conversion might occur, this statement is ambiguous. BETWEEN should be used with
numeric comparisons, and providing strings for qty_sold can lead to unexpected
behavior. Explicit conversion is better practice here.
E. qty_sold = ‘0554982’ uses implicit conversion When comparing a number column
(qty_sold) with a string, Oracle implicitly converts the string to a number. This means
'0554982' is automatically converted to the numeric value 554982 for the comparison.

Answer: B,D
B)The INVOICE_DATE column is of type DATE, and the value '15-MARCH-2019' is a string
literal and because the NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-RR, Oracle can implicitly
convert the string '15-MARCH-2019' into a DATE type.
D) The QTY_SOLD column is of type NUMBER, and the values '101' and '110' are string
literals so Oracle will implicitly convert these string values to NUMBER when performing
the BETWEEN operation.

Question #38
Which three are types of segments in an Oracle Database? (Choose three.)

A. undo  Undo segments are used in Oracle Database to store the before-images of
data that has been modified by a transaction. These segments are critical for database
recovery and for providing the ability to roll back transactions.
B. index  Index segments store the index data, which is used to improve the
performance of query operations. Indexes help speed up data retrieval by providing a
faster way to access rows in a table.
C. stored procedures  Stored procedures are database objects that contain PL/SQL or
SQL code. They are not considered segments, but rather objects that reside in the data
dictionary.
D. sequences  Sequences are database objects that generate unique numbers. They
are not segments, but rather metadata objects used for numbering.
E. tables  Table segments store the actual table data in the database. They hold the
rows and columns that make up the table, and are one of the primary storage structures
in an Oracle Database.
F. clusters  Clusters are a method of storing related tables together to improve
performance and reduce I/O operations. However, in the context of segments, they are
not individually classified as segments but involve clustered tables and indexes.

Answer: A, E, F

Question #39
Which two statements are true about the results of using the INTERSECT operator in
compound queries? (Choose two.)

A. Column names in each SELECT in the compound query can be different  This is true.
The INTERSECT operator in SQL does not require that the column names in each SELECT
statement be the same. What matters is that the columns being intersected have
compatible data types.
B. The number of columns in each SELECT in the compound query can be different This
is incorrect. The number of columns must be the same in each SELECT statement when
using the INTERSECT operator.
C. Reversing the order of the intersected tables can sometimes affect the output This is
incorrect. The order of the tables does not affect the result of the INTERSECT operation.
The output will be the same regardless of the order of the SELECT statements.
D. INTERSECT returns rows common to both sides of the compound query  This is true.
The INTERSECT operator returns only those rows that are present in the result sets of
both SELECT statements. Essentially, it finds the common rows between the two queries.
E. INTERSECT ignores NULLs This is incorrect. The INTERSECT operator does not ignore
NULLs; it includes rows with NULL values if they exist in both result sets.

Answers: A,D

Question #40
Which two statements are true about single row functions? (Choose two.)

A. MOD : returns the quotient of a division operation This is incorrect. The MOD
function returns the remainder of a division operation, not the quotient.
B. FLOOR : returns the smallest integer greater than or equal to a specified number
This is incorrect. The FLOOR function actually returns the largest integer less than or
equal to a specified number.
C. TRUNC : can be used with NUMBER and DATE values  The TRUNC function can
truncate a number to a specified number of decimal places. Additionally, when used with
DATE values, it can truncate the date to a specified component, such as year, month, or
day.
D. CONCAT : can be used to combine any number of values  This is incorrect. The
CONCAT function in Oracle SQL is used to combine exactly two strings into one. To
concatenate more than two strings, the || operator or multiple CONCAT functions can be
used.
E. CEIL : can be used for positive and negative numbers  The CEIL (ceiling) function
returns the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to a specified number. This
function works for both positive and negative numbers, effectively rounding them up to
the nearest integer.

Answer: C,E

Question #41
The EMPLOYEES table contains columns EMP_ID of data type NUMBER and HIRE_DATE of
data type DATE.
You want to display the date of the first Monday after the completion of six months since
hiring.
The NLS_TERRITORY parameter is set to AMERICA in the session and, therefore, Sunday is
the first day on the week.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT emp_id, ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), NEXT_DAY('MONDAY') FROM
employees; This query incorrectly uses NEXT_DAY('MONDAY') without reference to the
calculated date. It does not achieve the desired result.
B. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY(ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), 'MONDAY') FROM employees;
 This query correctly calculates the date six months after the hiring date using the
ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6) function. Then, it finds the first Monday after this date using the
NEXT_DAY function with 'MONDAY' as the argument. The NLS_TERRITORY parameter is set to
AMERICA, so Sunday is the first day of the week, making Monday the second day.
C. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY(MONTHS_BETWEEN(hire_date, SYSDATE), 6) FROM
employees; This query incorrectly uses MONTHS_BETWEEN and does not appropriately
calculate the date six months after hiring, nor does it find the next Monday.
D. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY(ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), 1) FROM employees; This
query uses 1 instead of 'MONDAY' as the argument for NEXT_DAY. While 1 can refer to
Monday in some contexts, it is less clear and less conventional than explicitly using
'MONDAY'.

Answer: B
ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6) function adds 6 months to the HIRE_DATE. NEXT_DAY(date,
'MONDAY') function returns the date of the first Monday that occurs after the provided
date. NLS_TERRITORY parameter is set to AMERICA, Sunday is considered the first day of
the week, and the NEXT_DAY function correctly calculates the first Monday after the six
months.

Question #42
The ORCL database has RESUMABLE__TIMEOUT = 7200 and
DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION = FALSE
User U1 has a 1 MB quota in tablespace DATA.
U1 executes this command:

SQL> CREATE TABLE t1 AS -

(SELECT object_name, sharing, created
FROM dba_objects);
U1 complains that the command is taking too long to execute.
In the alert log, the database administrator (DBA) finds this:
2017-03-06T12:15:17.183438+05:30
statement in resumable session 'User U1(136), Session 1, Instance 1' was suspended due
to ORA-01536: space quota exceeded for tablespace 'DATA'

Which are three actions any one of which the DBA could take to resume the session?
(Choose three.)

A. Add a data file to DATA Adding a data file increases the total space available in the
tablespace, but it does not affect the quota set for user U1. The quota limit would still be
exceeded without adjusting U1's specific quota.
B. Drop other U1 objects in DATA  By dropping other objects owned by user U1 in the
DATA tablespace, you free up space within U1's quota. This allows the suspended
operation to resume without exceeding the quota limit.
C. Increase U1's quota sufficiently in DATA  Increasing U1's quota in the DATA
tablespace will provide additional space for the table creation operation to complete. The
DBA can adjust the quota to accommodate the required space.
D. Set DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION to TRUE Changing the
DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION parameter affects the creation of future segments, not
the current operation. It does not provide immediate relief for the quota issue that has
caused the suspension.
E. Grant UNLIMITED TABLESPACE to U1  Granting the UNLIMITED TABLESPACE privilege
to U1 removes the quota restriction entirely, allowing U1 to use as much space as
needed in the DATA tablespace. This will enable the suspended operation to continue
without hitting quota limits.
F. Set AUTOEXTEND ON for data files in DATA Enabling AUTOEXTEND allows data files
to grow automatically when they reach their size limit. However, this does not address
the user-specific quota issue that caused the suspension.
Answer: B, C, E

Question #43
Which three statements are true about the Oracle Data Dictionary? (Choose three.)

A. Data dictionary views are created by joins of dictionary base tables and DBA-defined
tablesThis is incorrect. Data dictionary views are generally created from the base
tables maintained by the Oracle database itself and not by joining DBA-defined tables.
B. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administratorThis is
incorrect. The data dictionary is created and maintained by Oracle automatically as part
of the database management system, not manually by the database administrator.
C. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as CDB, DBA, ALL and USER,
reference the same base tables from the data dictionary This is true. In Oracle
databases, data dictionary views with different prefixes (such as CDB_, DBA_, ALL_, and
USER_) often reference the same base tables, providing different levels of access and
information based on user privileges
D. Base tables can be queried directly This is incorrect. Direct access to base tables in
the data dictionary is restricted for security and integrity reasons. Instead, access is
provided through predefined views.
E. It is owned by the SYSTEM userThis is true. The Oracle data dictionary is owned by
the SYSTEM user. The dictionary contains metadata about the database and its objects,
which are essential for database operation and management.
F. Usernames of all users including database administrators are stored in the data
dictionary This is true. The data dictionary stores information about all users, including
their usernames, privileges, and other related details.

Answer: C,D,F

Question #44
In one of your databases, the user HR has the password HRMGR.
You want to connect to a database instance whose listener listens on port 1531 by using
this statement:

CONNECT HR/HRMGR@orcl -
No name server is used.

Which statement is true about ORCL?

A. It must be the value of the SERVICE_NAMES parameter on the client side The
SERVICE_NAMES parameter is typically configured on the server side to define the
service names that the database instance will respond to. It is not used on the client side
for resolving the service name.
B. It must resolve to a valid connect descriptor in the server's tnsnames.ora file The
tnsnames.ora file on the server side is not used for client connections. The client uses its
own tnsnames.ora file to resolve service names.
C. It must resolve to a valid connect descriptor in the client's tnsnames.ora file  When
you use the CONNECT statement with a service name (like ORCL in this case), the client
needs to resolve that service name to a connect descriptor. This resolution is typically
done using the tnsnames.ora file on the client side. The tnsnames.ora file contains the
mapping of service names to connect descriptors, allowing the client to locate and
connect to the appropriate database instance.
D. It must be the name of the database to whose instance HR wishes to connect The
service name used in the CONNECT statement does not have to be the same as the
actual database name. It can be an alias defined in the tnsnames.ora file.
E. It must be the name of the server running the database to whose instance HR wishes
to connect The service name does not need to be the name of the server. It is an alias
used in the tnsnames.ora file to identify the connect descriptor.

Answer: c