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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
68 views56 pages

Question A To J

api 510 exam

Uploaded by

khalleefasalem
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Professional Training and Consultation

SET - A
API-510 Preparatory Course

1.Following combination of Base metal and welding electrode was qualified by a certain PQR.
Impact testing is not required. Base Metal = SA 285 Grc Plates, 3/4" thk, Welding electrode
= AWS E 6015, 1/8" dia. This PQR will qualify which of the following combinations of Base
Metal – Welding electrodes.

a.1" thk SA 515gr 60 plates, E 6013 electrodes, 5/32 " dia.


b.1 ¾ " thk SA 285 grc plates, E 6013 electrodes, 5/32" dia.
c.1 ¼ thk plates plates SA516gr70, E 7018 electrodes, 3/32 dia
d.None of above

2.A pressure vessel is to be constructed to with MDMT = + 20 0F , M.O.C = SA 285 gr


C .Required shell thickness = ¾ , Required dished head thickness = 1 1/8 " thk (torisph)
Determine if this material is suitable for:

a.Both shell as well as Dished head


b.Suitable for head but not for shell
c.Suitable for shell only but not for head
d.Not suitable for either

3.Name plate of a certain pressure vessel has name plate stamping as “ RT 3 “ for the
radiography, All Welds are type 1 welds, Vessel dia. = 72 inch I.D., M.O. C = SA 515 gr 70
Design temp = 600F, Allowable stress at design temp = 20,000 psi
If shell Thickness = 5/8" and C. A = 1/8" The MAWP for the vessel shell will be

a.234 psi
b.168 psi
c.256 psi
d.286psi

4.Following two combinations of nozzle pipe dia and shell thickness are given of reinforcement.
Case 1: vessel wall thk = ½ " and nozzle size NPS 3, Case 2 vessel wall thk = ¾ " Nozzle
size NPS 2 . According to ASME Sec. VIII Div. 1, the reinforcement requirement for which
of above nozzles by should be verified by calculations

a.For both cases


b.For none
c.Calculations required for 1 but not for 2
d.Calculations required for 2 and not for 1

5.Which of the following changes on a pressure vessel could be termed as an alteration?

a.Addition of a reinforced nozzle of size equal to an existing nozzle


b.Addition of a nozzle not requiring reinforcement
c.Addition of a reinforced nozzle of size greater than an existing nozzle, where the thickness of
reinforcement was found to be inadequate for the internal pressure
d.Only “b” and “c”

6.In liquid Penetrant Testing, a procedure is qualified to a temperature of 15 0C. pick up a correct
statement.

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.The same procedure is qualified to the temperature from 10 0C to 52 0C


b.The same procedure is restricted to maximum of 15 0C only
c.The same procedure shall be applied to 5 0C to 10 0C
d.The same procedure is qualified to the temperature from 0 0C to 5 0C

7.In a magnetic particle testing, the operator reported a rounded indication with the following
dimensions. Major dimension is 6.0 mm and Minor dimension is 3.0 mm. But upon using a
powerful magnifier, it was revealed that actual defect is only 4 x 1.5 mm. Based on
Acceptance criteria of ASME Sec. VIII, Div 1, the indication shall be:

a.accepted, as the magnifier shows indication within acceptance standards


b.accepted, as it is not a major defect
c.rejected, as the visual inspection using magnifier shows critical indication
d.rejected, as the dimensions shown by the indication is above acceptance standards

8.A lead letter of B is used in radiography in order to know the scatter in well within the limits

a.By keeping the letter B on source side and image of B on film shall be lighter than the
background
b.By keeping the letter B on source side and image of B on film shall be similar or darker than
the background
c.By keeping the letter B on film side and image of B on film shall be similar or darker than the
background
d.By keeping the letter B on film side and image of B on film shall be lighter than the
background

9.For instrument calibration in Ultrasonic Testing, amplitude control linearity forms an important
factor. The allowable tolerance for amplitude height linearity (of the nominal amplitude
ratio) is:

a.+ 5%
b.+ 10 %
c.+ 15 %
d.+ 20 %

10.Which of the following penetrant system is generally considered least sensitive?

a.Water-washable – visible dye.


b.Solvent removable – visible dye.
c.Water-washable – fluorescent dye.
d.Post-emulsification – visible dye.

11.MPI can not be adopted for which of the following materials?

a.Iron
b.Steel
c.Austenitic Stain less steels
d.All of the above
12.Which of the following is an advantage of magnetic particle testing over penetrant testing?

a.It can detect surface discontinuities with foreign material imbedded in them.
b.It is faster on individual parts.
c.It can detect near-surface discontinuities.
d.All of the above.

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Professional Training and Consultation

13.Which of the following types of discontinuities is not normally detected by radiography?

a.Cracks
b.Incomplete penetration
c. Laminations
d.Slag

14.Double wall Double image technique is used for the radiography of:

a.Plate welds
b.Tubular products with outer diameter up to 3.5 in
c.Large pipes with outer diameter 200 mm and above
d.Heavy castings

15.Visual check shall be carried out.

a.Before welding
b.During welding
c.After welding.
d.At all the above stages

16.Which of the following ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code sections are referenced in API
510?

a.ASME Section V
b.ASME Section VIII Div 1
c.ASME Section IX
d.All of above

17.Corrosion and minimum thickness evaluation may be conducted by?

a.Use of a external micrometer


b.Ultrasonic test
c.All of the above
d.None of above

18.Which of the following are excluded from the scope of application of API 510?

a. Pressure vessels on movable structures covered by other jurisdictional regulations


b. All classes of containers listed for exemption from construction in ASME Section VIII Div. 1
c. Pressure vessels which do not exceed volume of the five cubic feet and pressure of 250 psi
d. All of the above

19.Widely scattered pits may be ignored as long as the following conditions are satisfied:

a.No pit depth is greater than one half the vessel wall thicknesses exclusive of the corrosion
allowance.
b.The total area of the pits does not exceed 7 square inches or 45 square cm within any 8 inch
diameter circle
c.The sum of their dimensions along any straight line within a circle of diameter 8 inches does
not exceed 2 inches ( 5 cm)
d.All of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

20.Each vessel above ground shall be given a visual external inspection preferably while in
operation at a frequency of:

a.At least once in every 5 years


b.Same as that required for internal or on – stream inspection
c.The lesser of “a” or “b”
d.None of the above are applicable

21.An ellipsoidal head has an internal diameter of 76 inches and a depth of 21 inches (including
a straight face of 2 inches). What should its spherical radius be for the crown portion?

a.76.0 inches
b.38.0 inches
c.68.4 inches
d. 60.8 inch

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET - B
API-510 Preparatory Course
1.Re-rating may be done after which of the following requirements are met?

a.Calculations from either the manufacturer or an owner-use pressure vessel engineer


experienced in pressure vessel design, fabrication or inspection shall justify the re-rating.
b.The re-rating is in accordance with the construction code to which the pressure vessel was
originally built or by computations that are determined using the appropriate formulae in
the latest edition of the ASME Code
c.Current inspection records verify that the pressure vessel is satisfactory for the proposed
service conditions and that the corrosion allowance provided is adequate.
d.All of the above

2.Which of the following is / are to be undertaken in case the ownership and location of vessel
are changed?

a.The vessel shall be hydro tested only


b.The vessel shall be internally and externally inspected before it is re-used
c.The allowable conditions of service shall be established and the next period of inspection shall
be established for the new service.
d.Only “b” and “c”

3.A new pressure vessel should be inspected to which of the following codes?

a.API 510
b.API 572
c.ASME Sec. VIII Div. 1
d.All of the above

4.For repairs as per API 510, the welders and welding procedures shall be qualified to the
requirement of:

a.API 1104 code


b.ASME Section V
c.ASME Section IX
d.AWS D 1.1

5.Calculate the remaining life of a vessel given the following data: Actual thickness = 0.955
inch. Minimum thickness required = 0.787 inch Thickness at pervious inspection 5 years
prior to present inspection = 1.015 inch

a.20 years
b. 14 years
c.28 years
d.None of the above

6.The period between the two consecutive internal (or on-stream) inspections shall not exceed?

a.One half of the remaining life of the vessel (based on corrosion rate)
b. 10 years

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Professional Training and Consultation

c.Cases where the safe working life is estimated to be less than 4 years the inspection interval
may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of 2 years
d.The least of above

7. After completion or repairs, a pressure test

a.Must always be conducted


b.Shall be applied if the authorized pressure vessel inspector believes that one is necessary
c.Must never be conducted
d.Shall be conducted only if repair is done on pressure parts.

8.If probable corrosion rates can not be determined, on stream determinations shall be made
after approximately

a.10,000 hours of service


b.1000 hours of service
c.5000 hours of service
d.After 2,500 hours of service

9.Which of the following documents referenced in API 510 addresses recommended inspection
practices for pressure vessels?

a.API 620
b.API 572
c.API Std 526
d.All of the above

10.After completion of alterations a pressure test

a. Normally required
b. Subject to approval of the jurisdiction ( where applicable ) appropriate NDE shall be required
where pressure test is not performed
c. Substituting NDE procedure for a pressure test after an alteration ay be done only after
consulting a pressure vessel engineer experienced in pressure vessel design and the
authorized pressure vessel inspector have been consulted
d. All of above

11.Materials used for making repair by welding in carbon steel vessels shall have the following
limitations?

a.They shall meet the requirements stipulated I NACE MR 0175


b.The carbon content shall not be over 0.35%
c.Welding repair shall be done by using only the GTAW process
d.All of the above

12.Corrosion under insulation (CUI) due to environmental factors like humidity, moisture, will be
more pronounced at temperature

a.Below 250F
b.250F to 2500F
c.More than 2500
d.Other factors being same corrosion in above temperature ranges will be same minimize.

13.During Hydrostatic testing, risk of brittle fracture, which of the following action may be taken

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.Replace Hydro testing by pneumatic testing


b.Recalculate test pressure based on material stress at MDMT
c.Carry out test at temperature more 300F above MDMT
d.None of the above

14.Authorization for which of the following approval from pressure vessel engineer is not
mandatory

a.Repairs for vessels that comply with sec VIII Div 1


b.Alterations for vessels that comply with sec VIII Div 1
c.Repairs for vessels that comply with sec VIII Div 2
d.Alternations for vessels that comply with sec VIII Div 2

15.In WPS PQR documentation, the essential, supplementary essential and Non-essential
variables (EV, SEV, NEV) shall be addressed in these documents. Which document shall
address which of the variables.

a.All EVs , SEVs and NEV s shall be addressed in both WPS and PQR
b.Only EV s and SEVs shall be addressed in both PQR and WPS documents
c.PQR shall address all EVs and SEVs while WPS shall record all EV s , SEV s and NEVs
d.WPS shall address EV s and SEVs while PQR must record all EVs , SEVs and NEVs

16.Corrosion and minimum thickness evaluation may be conducted by?

a.Use of Magnetic particle examination


b.Ultrasonic testing
c.Profile radiography
d.Only “b” and “c”

17.Which of the following is / are to be undertaken in case the ownership or location of vessel
are changed

a.The vessel shall be internally inspected before it is re-used


b.The vessel shall externally inspected before it is re-used.
c.The allowable conditions of service shall be established and the next period of inspection shall
be established for the new service.
d.All of the above

18.Which of the following are essential elements of a Quality control system of a repair
organization?

a.Statement of authority and responsibility


b.Welding procedures
c.The relationship of the QC manager with the owner
d.All of the above
e.Only “a” and “b” above

19.Welders and welding procedures shall be qualified to the requirement of

a.ASME Section VIII Div. 1


b.ASME Section V
c.ASME Section IX

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Professional Training and Consultation

d.None of the above

20.Calculate the remaining life of a vessel given the following data: Actual thickness = 0.955
inch Minimum thickness required = 0.755 inch Thickness at pervious inspection 5 years
prior to present inspection = 1.025 inch

a.20 years
b.14 years
c.28 years
d.Any of the above depending upon ambient conditions

21.The period between internal or on-stream inspections shall not exceed?

a.One half of the remaining life of the vessel (based on corrosion rate)
b.10 years
c.The lesser of “a” and “b”
d.In cases where the safe working life is estimated to be less than 4 years the inspection interval
may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of 2 years
e.“c” and “d” above

22.After completion or repairs a pressure test

a. Must always be conducted


b. Shall be applied if the authorized pressure vessel inspector believes that one is necessary
c. Must never be conducted
d. Only “a’ and “b” above

23.Which of the following changes on a pressure vessel could be termed as an alteration?

a.Addition of a reinforced nozzle of size equal to an existing nozzle


b.Addition of a nozzle not requiring reinforcement
c.Any change that effect the pressure containing capacity of the vessel beyond the scope of
items described in existing data reports
d.All of the above
e.Only “b” and “c”

24.If the bolt shank corrosion is anticipated for foundation bolts, what testing methods are
recommended?

a.Tensile testing of equivalent sized rivets


b.Hammer testing
c.RT at an angle to the shank axis
d.All of the above

25.Which of the following documents referenced in API 510 addresses recommended inspection
practices for pressure vessels?

a.API 620
b.API Recommended practice 572
c.API Std 526
d.All of the above

26.After completion of alterations a pressure test is:

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.Normally required
b.Subject to approval of the jurisdiction (where applicable ) appropriate NDE shall be required
where pressure test is not performed
c.Substituting NDE procedure for a pressure test after an alteration ay be done only after
consulting a pressure vessel engineer experienced in pressure vessel design and the
authorized pressure vessel inspector have been consulted
d.All of the above

27.Which of the following are typical conditions found on the external surfaces of vessels?

a.Blistering
b.Caustic embrittlement
c.CUI
d.Only “b” and “c” above

28.The external surfaces of vessels should be examined not only for corrosion but also for:

a.Leaks
b.Cracks
c.Buckles
d.All of the above

29.Erosion would normally be exhibited at:

a.Wear plates on saddles


b.Baffle plates
c.Impingement plates
d.All of the above except “a”

30.How is hammer testing utilized?

a.As a supplement to visual inspection


b.To be confirmed by subsequent NDT
c.None of above
d.Only “b” and “a” above

31.Shells of vessels adjacent to inlet impingement plates are susceptible to

a.Stress-corrosion cracking
b.Erosion
c.Hydrogen embrittlement
d.Any of the above depending upon ambient conditions

32.Which of the following are common reasons for in- service of shutdown inspection:

a.To determine the physical condition of he equipment


b.To determine the type, rate and causes of deterioration
c.none of the above
d.“a” and “b” above

33.Which of the following may be classified as “internals” of vessels?

a.Catalyst bed supports


b.Cyclone entry nozzles
c.Demister pads
d.“a” and “c”
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Professional Training and Consultation

34.If any setting is noticed on a vessel, which of the following should be done?

a.Conduct RT after 48 hours of observing the defective condition


b.Nozzles and adjacent shell areas should be inspected for distortion and cracking
c.Use acoustic emission monitoring
d.All of the above

35.Which of the following are types of NDT methods?

a.Ultrasonic testing
b.Radiographic testing
c.Hammer testing
d.Both “a” and “b”

36.Which of the following are common reasons for in- service of shutdown inspection?

a.To determine the physical condition of he equipment


b.To determine the type, rate and causes of deterioration
c.none of the above
d.“a” and “b” above

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET-C
API 510 Preparatory Course
1.Which of the following are excluded from the scope of application of API 510?

a.Pressure vessels on movable structures covered by other jurisdictional regulations


b.All classes of containers listed for exemption from construction in ASME Section VIII Div. 1
c.Pressure vessels which do not exceed volume of the five cubic feet and pressure of 250 psi
d.All of the above

2.During Hydrostatic testing, to avoid risk of brittle fracture, which of the following action may be
taken?

a.Recalculate test pressure based on material stress at test temperature


b.Carry out test at temperature more 300F above MDMT
c.The test area is cordoned off and out of bounds for non-essential personnel
d.None of the above

3.Which of the following are essential elements of a Quality control system of a repair
organization?

a.Organizational authority and responsibility


b.Statements about Working (Inspection/repair)Procedures and their documentation
c.Statement of controls to ensure Quality conformance
d.All of the above

4.According to API 510, authorized inspection agency is:

a.Jurisdiction organization
b.Inspection organization of Insurance company which under writes insurance of pressure vessels
c.Inspection organization of owner-user
d.Any of above

5.Repair Organization: According to API 510 is:

a.Holder of ASME certificate & appropriate code symbol stamp.


b.Owner-user
c.Contractor under contract with owner-user
d.Any of above

6.For all repairs and alterations under API 510, the ultimate responsibility rests with:

a.Owner user
b.API Committee
c.API-510 Inspector
d.Jurisdiction authority
7.Identify incorrect statement from following:

a.A welder performing procedure test is also qualified in that position.


b.Supplementary essential variables become essential variables when impact test is specified.

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Professional Training and Consultation

c.For procedure qualification, the test can be performed in any position as the position is not
essential variable for procedure qualification.
d.None of above.

8.Following two combinations of nozzle pipe dia and shell thickness are given of reinforcement.
Case 1: vessel wall thk = ½ " and nozzle size NPS 3, Case 2 vessel wall thk = ¾ " Nozzle
size NPS 2 ½ According to ASME Sec. VIII reinforcement requirement for which of above
nozzles by should be verified by calculations?

a.For both cases


b.For none
c.Calculations required for 1 but not for 2
d.Calculations required for 2 and not for 1

9.Normally, minimum thickness evaluation may be conducted by?

a.Use of a external micrometer


b.Ultrasonic testing
c.Vernier callipers
d.None of above

10.Which of the following statements is true?

a.All defects are not discontinuities


b.All discontinuities are defects
c.Discontinuities are rejectable defects
d.Defects are rejectable discontinuities

11.A Pressure Vessel is being designed for 0.85 joint efficiency with full penetration welds. RT
requirement for such vessel is

a.Nil
b.Spot
c.100 %
d.Joints radiography

12.Post weld heat treatment is carried out

a.To increase hardness


b.To increase tensile strength
c.To release locked-up stresses in the weld
d.None of above.

13.If all other conditions remain same the design thickness of which dished end (torispherical,
hemispherical, ellipsoidal) will be maximum?

a.Torispherical
b.Hemispherical
c.Ellipsoidal
d.All have same thickness

14.14. In A 516 Gr 70 specification the letter A indicates:

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.That material is ASME material. (A for ASME)


b.That material is Ferrous material
c.That material is Non-Ferrous material
d.None of the above

15.15. Any thickness-offset within the allowable tolerance shall be provided a taper transition
of:

a.3 to 1 min.
b.4 to 1 min.
c.3 to 2 min.
d.All of the above

16.For calculating reinforcement pad requirements for given Design Pressure, which of the
following statement is applicable:

a. Credit can be taken for extra metal in shell


b. Credit can be taken for extra metal in nozzle
c. a and b above are true
d. None of above

17.Choose correct Pneumatic test pressure from given options for a vessel with following data:
Design Pr = 160 psi, Design temp = 675º F, M.O.C = SA 537 Cl. 1, Allow stress (Ambient) =
20000 psi, Allow stress (675ºF) = 19200 psi

a.176.0 psig
b.215.6 psig

c.183.3 psig

d.none of above

18.You are planning for the Hydro-test of a complete vessel with Hydro test pressure 40Kg/cm 2g.
The calibrated test gauges available with you are 0-50 Kg/cm 2g, 0-100 Kg/cm2g, 1-150
Kg/cm2g and 0-200 Kg/cm2g. Which two gauges are acceptable for this test?

a.0-50 Kg/cm2g and 0-100 Kg/cm2g


b.0-100 Kg/cm2g and 0-200 Kg/cm2g
c.0-50 Kg/cm2g and 0-200 Kg/cm2g
d.0-100 Kg/cm2g and 0-150 Kg/cm2g

19.You are checking a plate received for the pressure vessel fabrication. What will be your action
plan?

a.Correlate test certificate with applicable specification


b.Correlate heat marks and identification with the actual plate identification
c.Visual and dimensional inspection
d.All of the above are necessary action before accepting the plate.

20.Qualification of welding procedure as per Section IX is required:

a.For manual welding process

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Professional Training and Consultation

b.For machine welding process


c.For semi automatic welding process
d.For all of the above process

21.Erosion would normally be seen at:

a.Drain nozzles
b.Saddle wear plates
c.Impingement plates
d.a. and c.

22.Temper embrittlement is:


a.Brittleness due to low temperature operation

b.Brittleness due to Hydrogen Sulphide attack at high temperatures (exceeding 700 deg. F)

c.Loss of ductility due to incorrect PWHT and High temperature service

d.None of above.

23.Part MAWP for lower dished head in Vertical vessel will generally be:
a.Lower than top head

b.Lower than shell

c.Higher than both shell and top head

d.Same as both top head and shell

24.Choose correct statement — Allowable External pressure for a vessel:


a.Will depend on weld joint efficiency (E)

b.Depends on Vessel temperature

c.Depends on Internal Corrosion allowance

d.Both b and c

25.PWHT is required for vessels containing products, classified as “lethal” or a thickness


exceeding:
a.1.0 inch

b.0 .5 inch

c.0.0 inch

d.1.5 inch

SET-D
API 510 Preparatory Course
14
Professional Training and Consultation

1.For safe entry in pressure vessels which of the following document is adopted in the API-510
body of knowledge?
a.API – 2015

b.API – 576

c.IRE – Chap II

d.ASME – Sec. V

2.A piping & valve system is described as follows: “closure of a line, duct, or pipe by closing and
locking two in-line valves and by opening and locking a drain or vent valve in the line
between the closed valves” This is designated in API documents as:

a.Double valve single drain “arrangement


b.“On-off” arrangement
c.“Double block and bleed” arrangement
d.“Double in single out” arrangement

3.An individual stationed outside one or more permit spaces who monitors the authorized
entrants and orders the authorized entrants to evacuate the permit space under unsafe
conditions. This individual is referred as:

a. Supervisor
b. A qualified person
c. An attendant
d. None of above

4.HCl is more harmful in refining sour crudes because:

a.In presence of H2S, corrosion of iron by HCl becomes cyclic reaction regenerating HCl
b. HCL forms galvanic cell which causes corrosion cracking
c. HCl causes loss of ductility of steel.
d. None of the above

5.In austenitic stainless steels, in presence of chlorides spontaneous failure may occur under
combined action of corrosion and tensile stress” What type of phenomenon is described by
this statement:

a.Sensitization of stainless steel


b. Stress corrosion cracking
c. Intergranular corrosion of stainless steels
d. Chromium-decay of stainless steels.

6.Sour crude is more corrosive than sweet crude because

a.Sour crude is heavier than is sweet crude


b. Sweet crude has more waxing tendency (compared to sour crude) which forms protective
layer on metallic surfaces hence sweet crudes are less corrosive.
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Professional Training and Consultation

c.Sour crude contains high content H2S and sulpher compared to sweet crude which lead to
several types of corrosion
d. None of the above.

7.The nondestructive examination method to be used for a particular inspection should be


determined by the:
a.Availability of certified NDE examiners

b.Length of time since the last inspection

c.Age of the component to be inspected

d.Type, location, and orientation of the expected flaws

8.In planning for an internal inspection of a vessel that has acidic corrodents, what type of
corrosion would you expect to find on the vessel shell from inside,
a.Hydrogen blistering in the vapor space

b.Uniform corrosion of vessel wall

c.Erosion of vessel walls.

d.None of above.

9.The principal reason for inspecting a pressure relief device is to determine:


a.Condition of pressure relief device and if it is functioning properly

b.The remaining life of pressure relief device.

c.The spring coil diameter.

d.The body thickness.

10.Where (typically) are balanced safety relief valves used in refineries?

a.For pressure control and bypass


b.On steam boiler drums and super heaters
c.When the discharge from the valves must be piped to remote points
d.All of the above

11. Which of the following are possible reasons for improper performance of valves?

a.Corrosion
b.Damaged seating surfaces
c.Failed springs
d.All of the above

12.Which of the following tests must be conducted on a valve as soon as it has been removed
out of a system:

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.Visual Inspection
b.Hydrotesting of valve body
c.Radiographic testing
d.Check set-pressure and leak tightness
13.Which of the following best describes a safety relief valve?

e.A spring – loaded pressure relieving device that is popped open by enough static pressure in
the huddling chamber and kinetic energy of the gas or vapour to overcome the spring force
on the disc as it is lifted to provide full opening and allow minimal overpressure
f.A spring – loaded pressure relieving valve that acts as a safety valve when used in gas or
vapour service and as a relief valve when used in liquid service.
g.A spring – loaded pressure relieving device for liquid service that begins to open when the inlet
pressure reaches set pressure. Overcomes the spring force and begins to lift the disc off the
seat and that continues to open as inlet pressure and the lift of the disc increase allowing
the flow of the liquid to increase
h.All of the above

14.Which of the following are reasons for inspection of pressure relieving devices:

a.To protect personnel and equipment


b.To determine the condition of a device
c.To evaluate inspection frequency
d.All of the above

15.Which of the following could cause flutter/chatter in valves?

a.Improper material of construction


b.Overpressure
c.Erosion
d.Large length piping to the valve inlet from the vessel

16.API 576 does not address:

a.Valve testing on test benches in shop


b.Application of rupture discs
c.Training requirements for mechanics involved in inspection and repair of pressure relieving
devices
d.All of the above

17.If any settling is noticed on a vessel, which of the following should be done:

a.Conduct RT after 48 hours of observing the defective condition


b.Nozzles and adjacent shell areas should be inspected for distortion and cracking
c.Use acoustic emission monitoring
d.All of the above

18.Recommended resistance of electrical grounding connections is:


a.5 ohms
b.50 ohms
c.100 ohms
d.none of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

19.For vessels which are supported on concrete saddles and working in an area where the
humidity is high which areas on them are typically susceptible to external corrosion?

a.At the anchor bolts in the foundation


b.At the Points of contact of the metal surface with the concrete
c.All of the above
d.None of the above

20.H2S is in sour crude is more harmful in presence of:

a.Oxygen
b.Water (i.e. Wet H2S)
c.Sulphur
d.‘a’ and ‘c’ above

21.The leak tightness of the relief valves is tested on the test block at a pressure equal to:

a.Same as set pressure


b.90% of the set pressure
c.Same as reseat pressure
d.None of the above

22.During Hydrostatic testing, risk of brittle fracture, which of the following action may be taken

a.Replace Hydro testing by pneumatic testing


b.Recalculate test pressure based on material stress at MDMT
c.Carry out test at temperature more 300F above MDMT
d.None of the above

23.Which of the following classifications of heat exchangers would have U-tubes incorporated
into it?

a.AES type
b.BEM type
c.AEP type
d.CFU type

24.If any setting is noticed on a vessel, which of the following should be done:

a.Conduct RT after 48 hours of observing the defective condition


b.Nozzles and adjacent shell areas should be inspected for distortion and cracking
c.Use acoustic emission monitoring
d.All of the above

25.Which of the following are typical deterioration that can take place on the external surfaces of
vessels?

a.CUI
b.Caustic embrittlement
c.Erosion
d.All of the above

26.The external surfaces of vessels should be examined not only for corrosion but also for:

a. Leaks

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Professional Training and Consultation

b. Cracks
c. Buckles
d. All of the above

27.Which of the following are commonly used techniques of surface preparation for inspection:
a.Wire brushing
b.Sand – blasting
c.High pressure water blasting
d.All of the above

28.According to API 510, authorized inspection agency is:

a.Jurisdiction organization
b.Insurance company which under writes insurance of pressure vessels
c.Inspection organization of owner-user
d.Any of above

29.Repair Organization: According to API 510 is

a.Holder of ASME certificate & appropriate code symbol stamp


b.Owner-user
c.Contractor under contract with owner-user
d.Any of above

30.For corrosion area of considerable size; thickness averaging along most critical element shall
not exceed following length for 72” ID vessel.

a.20 inches
b.40 inches
c.30 inches
d.None of above

31.According to API 510 for ellipsoidal head, crown portion thickness recalculation:

a.Crown can be taken as spherical portion of radius K1 x D


b.K1 depends on D/2h ratio
c.Crown lies within concentric circle of 80% shell diameter
d.All of above

32.For non-continuous corrosive service with remaining life 25 years, external inspection shall be
performed after:

a.10 years
b.12.5 years
c.5 years
d.None of above

33.Inspection records shall have following information

a.Design & Construction records (permanent)


b.Running inspection records
c.Repair and alteration records
d.All of above

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34.According to API-510, restoration by welding of parent metal loss may be made by using by
electrodes having tensiles strength:

a.Same as parent material


b.Higher than parent material
c. Lower than parent material
d.All of the above

35.35. For all repairs and alterations under API 510, the ultimate responsibility rests with

a.Owner user
b.API Committee
c.API-510 Inspector
d.Jurisdiction authority

36.“Hot tapping” means

a.Light tapping of vessel by ball point hammer to find leakages when the vessel is operating at
working temperature.
b.Cutting the threads in the help of tap and die when material hot so as to make the cutting of
threads easier
c.Act of providing new tapping connection while the vessel is in operation
d.Tapping hot water samples from process plants for analysis purpose

37.Which of the following is an advantage of magnetic particle testing over penetrant testing?

a.can detect surface discontinuities with foreign material imbedded in them


b.It is faster on individual parts
c.It can detect near-surface discontinuities
d.All of the above

38.In an A-scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the screen represents the

a.Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit


b.Distance traveled by the search unit
c.Thickness of material being tested
d.Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

39.The nondestructive examination method to be used for a particular inspection should be


determined by the:

a.Availability of certified NDE examiners.


b.Length of time since the last inspection.
c.Age of the component to be inspected.
d.Type, location, and orientation of the expected flaws.

40.Which of the following statements is true?

a.All defects are not discontinuities.


b.All discontinuities are defects.
c.Discontinuities are rejectable defects.

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d.Defects are rejectable discontinuities.

41.Which of the following search unit would contain the thinnest quartz crystal?

a.A1 megahertz search unit


b.A 5 megahertz search unit
c.A 15 megahertz search unit
d.A 25 megahertz search unit

42.Which of the following can be magnetized?

a.Iron
b.Nickel
c.Cobalt
d.All of the above

43.Why are magnetic particles available in different colors?

a.For color contrast with the part surface.


b.To enhance the detection of indications.
c.Both a and b.
d.Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values.

44.Visual testing is a

a.Nondestructive testing techniques applicable for surface and internal discontinuities


b.Nondestructive testing techniques applicable for surface discontinuities only.
c.Destructive testing techniques applicable for surface and internal discontinuities.
d.Destructive testing techniques applicable for internal discontinuities only.

45.Incase of horizontal insulated vessel most likely location of CUI will be:

a.Under belly areas


b.At the top in lengthwise area
c.In 3 O’clock and 9 o’clock position
d.Uniformly all over

46.The rate of erosion varies as:

a.Square of fluid velocity


b.Linearly with velocity
c.Varies as cube of velocity
d.Varies as square root of velocity

47.For testing relief valves for set pressure:

a.Only air shall be used


b.Only water shall be used
c.The combination may be used
d.Only nitrogen shall be used irrespective of service condition

48.Cracks and laminations look similar from surface however, generally:

a.Cracks run normal to vessels surfaces

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b.Lamination runs slant or parallel to surface


c.a and b above
d.None of above

49.Visual Testing can detect the following weld discontinuities.

a.Undercut
b.Crater crack
c.Excessive reinforcement
d.All of the above

50.What probe would be chosen to detect the smallest defect if steel specimen with a velocity 6
x 106 mm/sec is to be inspected?

a.2 MHz
b.10 MHz
c.5 MHz
d.6 MHz

51.Austenitic S.S. is considered as good Cryogenic material because:

a.Because of its good corrosion resistance


b.Because of its good tensile Strength
c.Because of its good yield Strength
d.Because of its good impact Strength

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SET-E
API 510 Preparatory Course

1.For repairs on vessel walls, which have been subjected to PWHT as a code requirement and
made of P1 or P3 Steels, (for which exemptions exist in ASME Sec. VIII Div 1 code,) which of
the following options may be adopted?

a.Conduct RT after 48 hours of completion of all hot work


b.Pre- heat to al least 3000F as an alternative to PWHT after repair
c.Use acoustic emission monitoring
d.Ultrasonic testing

2.HCl is more corrosive in refining sour crudes because:

a.In presence of H2S, corrosion of iron by Hcl becomes cyclic reaction regenerating Hcl.
b.Hcl liberates chlorine in presence of sulphur which causes stress corrosion cracking
c.Hcl liberates Hydrogen in presence of sulphur causing Hydrogen embrittlement.
d.None of the above

3.“In austenitic stainless steels, in presence of chlorides spontaneous failure may occur under
combined action of corrosion and tensile stress” What type of phenomenon is described by
this statement?

a.Sensitization of stainless steel?


b.Stress corrosion cracking
c.Intergranular corrosion of stainless steels
d.Chromium-decay of stainless steels

4.Sour crude is more corrosive than sweet crude because

a.Sour crude is heavier than sweet crude


b.Sweet crude has more waxing tendency (compared to sour crude) which forms protective layer
on metallic surfaces hence sweet crudes are less corrosive.
c.Sour crude contains high content H2S and sulpher compared to sweet crude which lead to
several types of corrosion
d.None of the above.

5.In planning for an internal inspection of a vessel that has acidic corrodents, what type and
location of corrosion would you expect to find on the vessel shell, away from the welds?
a.Hydrogen induced cracking in the vapor space

b.Hydrogen embrittlement in the vapor space

c.Hydrogen blistering near the liquid level

d.Hydrogen embrittlement below the liquid level

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6.What can be done to extend the life of a vessel with a corroded area in the shell plate 12
inches from the weld, a joint efficiency of less than 1, and a corrosion thickness currently
near the minimum required thickness?
a.Recalculate t minimum for current operating conditions using E < 1.

b.Recalculate t minimum for current operating conditions using E = 1.

c.Recalculate t minimum for design conditions using E = 1.

d.Recalculate t minimum for design conditions using E < 1.

7.A pressure vessel constructed according to ASME Sec VIII Div 1 with shell thickness 7/8’’
(Material of Construction is classified as P no 4 Gr. 1), repaired by using insert plates.
The requirement of radiography to be incorporated in repair procedure shall be:

a.Full radiography
b.Spot radiography
c.May be a, or b depending on joint efficiency
d.Data is not adequate

8.SA 516 Gr 70 specification the number 70 indicates:

a.Minimum yield strength


b.Minimum ultimate tensile strength
c.Minimum % elongation
d.None of the above

9.Which of the following are reasons for inspection of pressure - relieving devices:

a.To protect personnel and equipment


b.To determine the condition of a device
c.To evaluate inspection frequency
d.All of the above

10.Shells of vessels adjacent to inlet impingement plates are susceptible to:

a.Stress-corrosion cracking
b.Erosion
c.Hydrogen embrittlement
d.Any of the above depending upon ambient conditions

11.H2S is in sour crude is more harmful in presence of:

a.Oxygen
b.Water (i.e. Wet H2S)
c.Sulphur
d.‘a’ and ‘c’ above

12.The leak tightness of the relief valves is tested on the test block at a pressure equal to:

a.Same as set pressure


b.90% of the set pressure
c.Same as reseat pressure
d.None of the above
13.Which statement is correct?

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a.ASME Section II B deals with consumables for welding


b.ASME Section V gives acceptance standards for NDT examinations
c.PWHT can be carried out after Hydro test as a good engineering practice
d.Lower the Carbon content, better the weldability

14.The symbol which indicates ASME code stamping for vessels manufactured to ASME Section
VIII Div. 1 is:

a.U1
b.U2
c.U3
d. U

15.Which of the following is essential variable for procedure qualification?

a.Welder used for welding


b.Weld edge preparation
c.Welding process
d.All of the above

16.Presence of hydrogen can cause which of the following defects at welds?

a.Slag
b.Under-bead Cracking
c.Lamination
d.All of the above

17.Which of the following method is most suitable for detecting lamination in 25mm thick C.S.
plate?

a.RT
b.UT
c.MT
d.PT

18.A stainless steel weld has a crack open to the surface. Which NDT method will reveal it
effectively ?

a. Liquid Penetrant.
b. Magnetic particle.
c. Radiography.
d. All of above.

19.Procedure Qualification Record is a document which can be revised time to time?

a.True
b.False
c.Depends on company policy
d.Depends on client of the company
20.Which of the following are areas on pressure vessel which are susceptible to CUI?

a.All the area which is below insulation


b.Insulated areas below steam vents
c.Insulated piping exposed to cooling tower mist

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d.“b” and “c” above

21.Calculate the remaining life of a vessel subjected to unoform rate of corrosion given the
following data: Actual thickness = 0.955 inch, Minimum thickness required = 0.755 inch
Thickness at pervious inspection 5 years prior to present inspection = 1.025 inch

a.20 years
b.14 years
c.28 years
d.None of the above

22.Corrosion under insulation (CUI) due to environmental factors like humidity, moisture, will be
more pronounced at temperature:

a.250F to 2500F
b.More than 2500F
c.Other factors being same corrosion in above temperature ranges will be same
d.None of above

23.Vessel MAWP for vertical vessel is measured at:

a.Top most point of vessel


b.Bottom most point of vessel
c.At the mid point between top & bottom
d.None of above

24.Hot tapping is best described by statement:


a.It is technique of preheating the part of vessel to specified temperature and tapping with 1lb.
rainded hammer to detect wall thinning

b.It is technique of providing a tapping connection while pipe system is in operation

c.It is technique of fixing a water tap on hot water lines for use during winter

d.It is act of using the tap and die for threading when the part is hot

25.25. “CUI” is API 510 means:


a.Corrosion under inspection

b.Components under inspection

c.Corrosion under investigation

d.Corrosion under insulation

26.Inspection records contain the following information for a particular thickness measurement
location (TML) on a dished head.(Thickness in inches)

Thickness Year

0.500 0
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0.425 5

0.400 10

On the basis of the information above, the long-term corrosion rate for the location is:

a.1 ½ mils per year


b.5 mils per year

c.10 mils per year

d.100 mils per year

27.A certain Weld in vessel (P1 material with exemptions in ASME –VIII-Div. 1) was required to
have PWHT initially according to code requirement. After 10 years when repaired by
welding is to be carried out. Performing PWHT is found to be impracticable. What solution
(according to API-510) would you offer?

a.PWHT may be exempted, if proper NDE is carried out


b.Carry out Temper-bead welding as on alternative PWHT.
c.Carry out both Hydro-testing and Pneumatic Testing in lieu of the PWHT
d.None of above would be acceptable solution

28.Double wall Single image technique is used for the radiography of:

a.Plate welds
b.Tubular products with outer diameter more than 3.5 inch.
c.Heavy castings
d.None of above

29.Which of the following is a description of an “indication”?

a.A response or evidence resulting from the application of a nondestructive evaluation technique
b.A defect if it is of size greater than 3 mm
c.The light which is emitted from a signal
d.All of the above

30.Welders carrying out repair/alteration according to API 510 shall be qualified according to:

a.API 1104 welding qualification code


b.ASME Sec. IX code
c.Any one of a or b above
d.None of a or b above

31.Which of the following represent grouping of weld-metals in ASME IX?

a.P – Nos
b.F – Nos
c.S – Nos
d.A - Nos
32.A PQR was qualified in 5G position using a new welder. But production welding is to be done
in 2G position. Which of the following are applicable as a minimum?

a.Both procedure and welder shall be re-qualified in 2G position.


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Professional Training and Consultation

b.The qualified procedure can be used ,only welder needs to be re-qualified


c.The welder is qualified, but the procedure needs re-qualification
d.Both procedure and welder need not be re-qualified.

33.For a vessel, estimated remaining life is estimated as 7 years from now, next planned
inspection shall not be later than:
a.7 Years

b.3.5 Years

c.5 Years

d.6 Years

34.Calculate the remaining life and external insp. interval of a vessel given the following data:
Actual thickness = 0.955 inch, Minimum thickness required = 0.755 inch, Thickness at
previous inspection 5 years prior to present inspection = 1.025 inch

a.20 years, 10 years


b.14 years,5years
c.28 years, 10 years
d.None of the above

35.ASME Sec VIII Div. 1 specifies different acceptance level for weld reinforcement, which of the
following statements are true in your opinion:

a.Permitted reinforcement for long. seems is higher than circ. seems


b.Permitted reinforcement for long. seems is lower than circ. seems
c.Permitted reinforcement for long. seems is same as circ. seems
d.Permitted reinforcement does not depend on location of seems.

36.While deciding the governing thickness for crown portion for corroded 2:1 ellipsoidal head,
API 510 stipulates that & crown thickness shall be calculated:
a.According to relevant ellipsoidal dished head formula

b.According to code formula for spherical heads with head radius equal to 0.9 D, where D is shell
dia meter.

c.Thickness of crown shall be same as knuckle thickness

d.None of the above.

37.37. For instrument calibration (check Instrument response to energy input in dB) in
Ultrasonic Testing dB, amplitude control linearity forms an important factor. The allowable
tolerance for amplitude height linearity (of the nominal amplitude ratio) is:

a.+ 5%
b.+ 10 %
c.+ 15 %
d.+ 20 %

38.Which of the following ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code sections are referenced in API
510?

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Professional Training and Consultation

a.ASME Section V
b.ASME Section VIII
c.ASME Section IX
d.All of above

39.Which of the following is / are to be undertaken in case the Service conditions of vessel are
changed?

a.The vessel shall be hydro tested only.


b.The vessel shall be internally and externally inspected before it is re-used.
c.The allowable conditions (MAWP, Temp. rating) for new service shall be established and the
next period of inspection shall be established for the new service.
d.None of above

40.The period between External inspections for vessels (remaining life > 4 years) shall not
exceed which of following:

a.Smaller of: One half of the remaining life of the vessel and 10 years
b.5 years
c.The lesser of “a” and “b”
d.The higher of a. and b.

41.Materials used for making repair by welding in carbon steel vessels shall have the following
limitations?

a.They shall meet the requirements stipulated in NACE MR 0175


b.The carbon content shall not be over 0.35%
c.The Carbon Equivalent shall not be over 0.35%
d.All of the above

42.For carrying out temper – bead welding technique in lieu of PWHT, which of the following is
applicable?

a.The weld shall be deposited by GTAW process, with Argon gas shielding
b.Weld metal shall be deposited by SMAW process using low-Hydrogen electrodes
c.After depositing each layers of the weld, The weld shall be DP checked
d.None of the above

43.The period between internal or on-stream inspections shall not exceed?

a.One half of the remaining life of the vessel (based on corrosion rate)
b.10 years
c.In cases where the safe working life is estimated to be less than 4 years the inspection interval
may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of 2 years
d.Least of all above

44.If rivet shank corrosion is anticipated for riveted vessels what testing methods are
recommended?

a.Tensile testing of equivalent sized revets


b.Hammer testing
c.RT at an angle to the shank axis

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Professional Training and Consultation

d.Only “b” and “c”

45.Which of the following classifications of heat exchangers would have U-tubes incorporated
into it?

a.AES type
b.BEM type
c.AEP type
d.CFU type

46.Which of the following are typical conditions found on the external surfaces of vessels?

a.Hydrogen Blistering
b.Hydrogen embrittlement
c.CUI
d.All of the above

47.The external surfaces of vessels should be examined for:

a.CUI
b.settlement
c.distortions
d.All of the above

48.Which of the following are types of NDT methods?

a.Ultrasonic testing
b.Radiographic testing
c.Hammer testing
d.All of the above

49.How many tube sheets would a heat exchanger have which incorporates U-tubes in it?

a.One
b.Two
c.Three
d.None of the above

50.Scheduling of refinery shutdowns for maintenance or inspection is usually arranged through


the collaboration of:

a.Process group
b.Maintenance group
c.Inspection group
d.All of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET-F
API 510 Preparatory Course

1.An ellipsoidal head has an internal diameter of 76 inches and depth of 21 inches (including a
straight face dimension of 2 inches). What should its spherical (crown) radius be?

a.76.9 inches
b.15.6 inches
c.68.4 inches
d.all of the above

2.A lead letter of B is kept between cassette and film in order to know:

a.The scatter in well within the limits- When B is darker


b.The scatter isn well within the limits- When B is lighter
c.For the purpose of measuring the intensification factor
d.As standard marking on radiographs.

3.Which of the following penetrant system is generally considered least sensitive?

a.Water-washable
b.Solvent removable
c.All equally sensitive
d.Post-emulsification

4.Which of the following is an advantage of magnetic particle testing over penetrant testing?

a.It can detect surface discontinuities with foreign material.


b.Imbedded in them
c.It is faster on individual parts.
d.It can detect near-surface discontinuities.
e.All of the above.

5.Which of the following types of discontinuities is not normally detected by radiography?


a.Cracks
b.Incomplete penetration
c.Laminations
d.Slag

6.Double wall Double image technique is used for the radiography of:

a.Plate welds
b.Tubular products with outer diameter less than 87.5 mm
c.Large pipes with outer diameter 200 mm and above
d.Heavy castings

7.The temperature measured at a weld layer is around 130 0C during multipass welding. It is
decided to carryout a surface NDT method. Choose a best combination.

a.Penetrant testing with dry developer


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Professional Training and Consultation

b.Penetrant testing with fluorent penetrant


c.Magnetic particle testing with wet particles
d.Magnetic particle testing with dry particles

8.In a magnetic particle testing, an operator reported a surface indication with the following
dimensions. Major dimension is 6.0 mm and Minor dimension is 2.0 mm. But upon using a
powerful magnifier, later it was revealed that it is only 4 x 1.5 mm. The indication shall be:

a.accepted, as the magnifier shows indication within acceptance standards


b.accepted, as it is not a major defect
c.rejected, as the visual inspection using magnifier shows critical indication
d.rejected, as the dimensions shown by the indication is above acceptance standards

9.In ultrasonic testing, during scanning, each pass of the search unit shall overlap a minimum
of:

a.10 % of the transducer dimension parallel to the direction of the scan


b.10 % of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the scan
c.100 % of the transducer dimension parallel to the direction of the scan
d.100 % of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the scan

10.In the radiography, penetrameter is put on the job to:

a.Evaluate the image quality of the radiograph.


b.Measure the strength of the penetrating radiation.
c.Check the density of the radiograph.
d.All of above

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET G
API 510 Preparatory Course

1.The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

a.the welder is qualified


b.the base metals are strong enough
c.the weldment has the desired properties
d.the skill of the welder

2.The WPS lists:

a.Nonessential variables.
b.Essential variables
c.Ranges of 1 & 2 above
d.All of the above

3.The PQR must list:

a.essential variables
b.qualification test & examination results
c.supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is required )

4.What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition?

a.1958
b.1992
c.1987
d.1962

5.New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
a.1962
b.current
c.1986
d.1995

6.Each _______ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the
construction, alteration, or repair.

a.Welder or welding operator


b.Manufacturer or contractor
c.Inspector
d.All of the above

7.The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the

a.Manufacturer
b.Welder
c.Authorized Inspector
d.Foreman
8.A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove welds in
plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.

a.Vertical

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Professional Training and Consultation

b.Flat & horizontal


c.Flat & overhead
d.Horizontal

9.A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f positions is qualified to weld groove welds
in plate in the _____________ positions.

a.Flat only
b.Flat and horizontal
c.Flat and vertical
d.None of the above

10.A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is
qualified to weld groove welds in:

a.½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position


b.6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
c.¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
d.None of the above

11.In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make:

a.Stud welds
b.Overhand welds
c.Fillet welds
d.All of the above

12.Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s:

a.Tensile strength
b.Ductility
c.Notch toughness
d.All of above

13.A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using
radiography.

a.True
b.False
14.When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength
recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.

a.3.5%
b.0.5%
c.5%
d.All of the above

15.Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding
____ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.

a.1/16”
b.3/32”
c.1/8”
d.None of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

16.When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in:

a.ASME Section V
b.ASME Section IX
c.ASME Section VII
d.The referencing code

17.A WPS must describe:

a.Essential variables
b.Nonessential variables
c.Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
d.All of the above

18.A PQR must describe:

a.Nonessential variables
b.Essential variables
c.Results of Welder Qualification tests
d.Project description & NDE methods

19.The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

a.Inspector
b.Manufacturer or contractor
c.Welder
d.All of the above

20.For the SMAW process ______ is an essential variable for the WPS.

a.Groove design
b.Post Weld Heat Treatment
c.Root spacing
d.Method of cleaning
21.For the SAW process ___________ is an essential variable for the WPS.

a.Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)


b.Filler metal diameter
c.Preheat maintenance
d.Addition or deletion of peening

22.The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s ________.

a.Knowledge of welding requirements


b.Ability to deposit sound weld metal
c.Mechanical ability to operate equipment
d.General attitude toward welding inspectors

23.The record of a welder’s performance test is called a ____________.

a.PQR
b.WQR
c.WPS

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Professional Training and Consultation

d.WPQ

24.If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1, 1994 and last welded with SMAW on March
15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?

a.Yes
b.No.

25.A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld.

a.Without backing
b.With all base metals
c.With backing only
d.With P1 backing only

26.Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

a.Must use the same method


b.May use any method
c.Are not allowed
d.Require Inspector approval

27.Welder performance qualification records must describe all the ____ variables specified.

a.Essential & nonessential


b.Nonessential
c.Essential
d.Brazing

28.A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to _____ of
weld metal.

a.8”
b.Max to be welded
c. 1”
d.½”

29.“P” numbers are used to designate groups of:


a.Electrodes
b.Flux
c.Base metals
d.Joints

30.A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld:

a.P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11


b.P-8 – P8
c.P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
d.P21 to P21 only

31.Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

a.AWS class

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Professional Training and Consultation

b.ASME specification
c.SFA
d.“F” number

32.Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using:

a.“P” number
b.Welder I.D.
c.“A” number
d.Page number

33.For welder qualifications with the SMAW process _______ is an essential variable.

a.Base metal thickness


b.Peening
c.P-number
d.Electrode diameter

34.Each welder must be assigned a(n):

a.P number
b.Unique identifier
c.Hood & gloves
d.Inspector

35.May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter
pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information provided
d.Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36.What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?

a.GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode
b.The SFA specification of the filler metal
c.The F-number of the filler metal
d.GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37.A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718”
nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a
2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information provided
d.Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.

38.May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without
backing?

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a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information provided
d.Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39.May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22
material and the production welds will be P-22 also.

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information provided
d.Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40.Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?

a.The Inspector
b.The A.I
c.The Shop Foreman
d.The Manufacturer of Contractor

41.A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates:

a.Flat position only


b.Horizontal position only
c.All positions
d.Only good for heat treated welds

42.May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?

a.Yes, welder can be used


b.No welder cannot be used
c.Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
d.Yes, if welder is qualified with backing
43.A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.

True Or False (circle one)

44.What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a 6G
position?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3

45.What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?

a.3G and 4G
b.2G and 5G
c.3G and 1G

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Professional Training and Consultation

d.4G and 5G

46.What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?

a.ASME IX
b.ASME VIII
c.ASME B31.1
d.ASME II Part C

47.A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with
either E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS,
states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is
the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information given
d.Yes, if properly heat treated

48.May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonic?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information given
d.Yes, provided bend tests are done.

49.Three arc-welding processes are :


a.BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
b.FCAW, SAW, ESW
c.SMAW, GTAW, PAW
d.PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50.A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder weld
P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4 procedure
using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information provided
d.None of the above

51.Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?

a.Yes
b.No, must be re-qualified
c.Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
d.Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52.What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?

a.1G
b.3G
c.4G
d.All of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

53.You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe
(TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following:

No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld


No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory

Will these tests qualify the welder?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Not enough information given
d.Tension test is acceptable but No. 1 is unacceptable

54.What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?

a.Side and Transverse


b.Face and Root
c.Transverse and Longitudinal
d.Side and Face

55.A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?

a.F,H,OH
b.F,V,OH
c.V,OH,SP
d.H,V,OH

56.Which of the following is a covered electrode?

a.E6010
b.E7018
c.E9028
d.All of the above

57.Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

a.The WPS
b.The PQR
c.The WPQ
d.All of the above

58.In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than
two guided bend specimens for qualification?

a.5G and 6G
b.2G and 4F
c.4G and 5G
d.None of the above

59.Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?

a.Porosity, underfill

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Professional Training and Consultation

b.Lack of penetration/fusion
c.Slag, overlap
d.Any of the above

60.A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is
called a:

a.Essential variable
b.Non-essential variable
c.Supplementary essential variable
d.All of the above

61.The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:

a.Notch Toughness Test


b.Tension Test
c.Fillet Weld Test
d.Guided-Bend Test

62.The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

a.The skill of the welder


b.That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties
c.The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
d.None of the above

63.A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification, when notch-toughness is a


consideration. True Or False (circle one)

64.When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks
when magnified at:

a.5X
b.2X
c.10X
d.No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

65.A non-essential variable may be changes without re-qualification because:

a.Nobody cares about non-essential variables


b.The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
c.Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
d.Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

66.A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.
True Or False (circle one)

67.The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided:

a.The AI approves
b.The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only editorial
information can be changed on a PQR.
c.The API 510 inspector approves
d.The date of the WPS is changed

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Professional Training and Consultation

68.Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators. .
True Or False (circle one)

69.A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures
exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
a.Pass
b.Fail

70.Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding


procedure for all positions. True Or False (circle one)

71.The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound
production welds. True Or False (circle one)

72.Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True Or False (circle one)


73.It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.
True Or False (circle one)

74.Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a _____________ variable.

a.Essential
b.Non-essential
c.Supplemental essential
d.None of the above

75.Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an ______________variable.

a.Essnetial
b.Non-Essential
c.Supplemental essential
d.None of the above

76.Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true
and correct. True Or False (circle one)

77.Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a ___ variable.

a.Essential
b.Non-essential
c.Supplemental essential
d.None of the above

78.The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction is
capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.
True Or False (circle one)

79.A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.
True Or False (circle one)

80.A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.


True Or False (circle one)

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Professional Training and Consultation

81.Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.
True Or False (circle one)

82.A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable
construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1. True Or False (circle one)

83.A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the
additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?

a.1G
b.2G
c.5G
d.6G
e.All of the above
84.The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-qualification of a GMAW groove
weld procedure is:

a.500F
b.1000F
c.1250F
d.1500F
e.None of the above

85.A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when :

a.The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch


b.The test thickness was ½ inch
c.The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
d.The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

86.What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test
after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?

a.¼ inch
b.1/8 inch
c.1/16 inch
d.3/16 inch
e.No defects are allowed
87.What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that
process?

a.3 months
b.6 months
c.9 months
d.12 months
e.As stated by the AI

88.Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

a.For heat treated metals


b.For quenched and tempered metals
c.For hardened and tempered metals
d.For annealed and tempered metals
e.When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

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Professional Training and Consultation

89.A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:

a.E7015
b.E6011
c.E6010
d.E7024
e.All of the above

90.Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if the
examination shows:

a.Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the
root.
b.Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
c.Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
d.All of the above
e.Both B and C above

91.Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization.
Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include:

a.Designer or architect
b.Designer or installer
c.Architect or installer
d.Installer or assembler
e.Assembler or designer

92.For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses ________ shall be prepared by thermal processes,
when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.

a.Less than 5/8 inch


b.5/8 inch
c.1 inch
d.11/4 inches
e.None of the above

93.A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

a.approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor


b.allowed by ASME V
c.one test coupon is tension tested per Article V
d.compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

94.A change in a non-essential variable requires re-certification of the PQR. True or False.

95.Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses
of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:

a.2 inches
b.21/2 inches
c.3 inches
d.31/2 inches
e.4 inches

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Professional Training and Consultation

96.Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used for
evaluation?

a.Only bend tests


b.Only radiography
c.Both radiography and bend tests
d.Either bend tests or radiography
e.None of the above
97.Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?

a.A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
b.A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld
c.A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
d.None of the above

98.Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics
of each specimen are as follows :

Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi

What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?

a.51,668 & 46,445


b.67,453 & 56,443
c.78,524 & 77,654
d.None of the above

99.Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as
referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?

a.GMAW
b.SAW
c.PAW
d.All of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET H
API 510 Preparatory Course

1.In the Barlow formula for determining pipe thickness, the term S stands for:

a.internal design gage pressure of the pipe in psi.


b.pressure design strength for internal pressure, in inches
c.allowable unit stress at the design temperature, in psi
d.maximum strain at the average operating temperature, in psi

2.At low pressures and temperatures, the thickness determined by the Barlow formula may be so small
that the pipe would have _______ structural strength.

a.adequate
b.insufficient
c.ample
d.good

3.A seamless NPS 12, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress
is 16000 psi. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions.

a.0.375”
b.0.750”
c.0.353”
d.0.706”

4.A seamless NPS6, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is
16000 psi. The owner-user specified that the pipe must have 0.1” allowed for corrosion
allowance. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions

a.0.295”
b.0.195”
c.0.277”
d.0.706”

5.A seamless NPS 8, A-53 Grade B pipe operators at 700 degrees F and 700 psi. The allowable stress is
16500 psi. The pipe has been in service for 6 years. The original wall thickness of the pipe was
0.375”. The pipe wall now measures 0.30”. Considering no structural requirements, estimate how
long the piping can continue to operate and not be below the minimum thickness.

a.4.68 years
b.9.8 years
c.0 years; pipe now below minimum
d.10.42 years

6.An Inspector finds a thin area in the body of a NPS 8 (8.625” O.D.) 600# gate valve. The valve’s body
is made from ASTM A216 WCB material. The system operates at 700 psi and 750 degrees F.
Using a corrosion allowance of 0.125”, what thickness must be present in order to continue to
safely operate? Round to nearest hundredth.

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a.0.48”
b.0.38”
c.0.51”
d.0.43”

7.If corrosion or erosion is anticipated for a valve, what should be done prior to installing the valve?

a.Severance thickness determinations should be made when the valves are installed so that the
fretting rate and metal ruination can be determined
b.Retirement thickness measurements should be made after installation so that the fatigue rate and
metal loss can be determined
c.Reference thickness measurements should be made when the valves are installed so that the
corrosion rate and metal loss can be determined
d.Retina measurements of the macula should be made when the iris’ are installed so the optical rate
and losses of perception can be determined

8.Which of the items listed below would NOT normally be contained in inspection records or piping?

a.Original date of installation, the specifications and strength levels of the materials used.
b.Original vessel hydrotest pressures and conditions that the tests were performed under
c.Original thickness measurements and the locations and dates of all subsequent readings
d.Calculated retirement thicknesses

9.Accurate records of a piping system make possible an evaluation of __________ on any piping, valve or
fitting

a.Computerization
b.Security and continuity
c.Cost and competency
d.Service life

10.You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of
piping in non-corrosive or very low corrosive service, you find the initial thickness reading of an
inspection point to be 0.432” and marked nominal on a NPS 6 pipe. At the next inspection 12
months later you find a reading by ultrasonics of 0.378” at the same point. Twelve months later
UT readings were taken and the thickness at the point was still 0.378”. what would this mean to
you?

a.No measurement was taken originally, the nominal thickness was listed and the piping probably had
an under-tolerance of 12.5”.
b.There was an error made by the inspector at the installation or the inspector who UT’d the piping at
the next inspection made an error.
c.The UT machine that the inspector used during the 12 month inspection after installation was
defective and not reading correctly.
d.The pipe contractor or the installer put the wrong schedule piping in service.

11.You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of
piping, you find the letter “C” marked under a column headed by the word METHOD. What does
the “C” indicate?

a.The inspection temperature of the pipe was COLD.


b.The thickness measurement was made by an inspector with the I.D. OF “C”
c.The thickness measurement was taken with calipers.
d.The thickness measurement was CONFIRMED by a second party.

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Professional Training and Consultation

12.Which of the following is not an important function of an accurate sketch?

a.assist in determining future locations that urgently require examinations


b.identifying systems and circuits in terms of location, size, materials etc.
c.serve as field data sheets
d.none of the above

13.As soon as possible after completing an inspection, the Inspector should:

a.review the inspection records and schedule the next inspection


b.always require a hydrotest
c.sign all RT records
d.notify the Piping Engineer, so he can wake up and go home

14. The Wenner 4-Pin methods, the soil bar, and the soil box do not represent methods of determining:

a.holidays
b.pipe-to-soil potentials
c.cathodic protection acceptability
d.all of the above

15.The total resistivity for a Wenner 4-Pin test that utilizes pins spaced 2 feet apart and a 6 “R” factor
is:

a.2298 ohm/cm
b.3500 ohm/cm
c.6000 ohm/cm
d.8000 ohm/cm

16.Which of the following is not a consideration when using a soil bar?

a.using a standard prod bar


b.avoiding the addition of water
c.applying pressure on the soil bar after injection
d.none of the above

17.Which of the following is a consideration when using a soil box:

a.depth of Pins less than 4% of spacing


b.ensuring the soil has dried out before testing
c.avoiding contamination of the sample during handling and storage
d.all of the above

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET I
API 510 Preparatory Course
1.The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection (deeper than the bottom of the
serration) on a NPS 14 raised face flange is:

a.0.31”
b.0.018”
c.0.18”
d.0.25”

2.On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange (minimum) is:

a.4 ½”
b.3.00”
c.6.0”
d.4.0”

3.The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 100 0F, Class 150 8” flange made from A-182 Grade F2 material
is:

a.170
b.290
c.300
d.400

4.If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless steel and will be used at 280 psig with
a carbon content of .09%, at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?

a.10000F
b.13000F
c.11800F
d.20000F

5.What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is NPS 16?

a.1.56”
b.6”
c. 2”
d.1”

6.What is the rated working pressure of a flanged fitting that is a 400 Class with a material stress value
of 16,200 psi?

a.1000 psig
b.1500 psig
c.800 psig
d.740 psig

7.What is the minimum wall thickness of a NPS 5 Class 1500 fitting?

a.0.091”

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Professional Training and Consultation

b.0.91”
c.1.00”
d.1.15”

8.What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 300 flange that is made
from Group 1.10 material?

a.1125 psig
b.450 psig
c.1000 psig
d.None of the above

9.A local area has been thinned on the wall thickness of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 8 Class
400, and the local area has been thinned to 0.400”. Is this corrosion acceptable per ASME B 16.5?

a.Yes
b.No
c.Cannot be calculated from information given
d.Wall thicknesses may not be less than that shown in B16.5

10.In question No.9, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum thickness allowed, in square
inches?

a.2.75
b.0.74
c.1.85
d.0.431

11.From problem No.9 and No.10 above, if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the
fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a.a. 3.0”
b.2.70”
c.8.0”
d.3.70”

12.What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 600 flange in a flanged
joint made from Group 3.5 material?

a.2250 psi
b.1500 psi
c.1000 psi
d.None of the above

13.A local area has been thinned on the wall of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 12 Class 900, and
the local area has been thinned to 0.945”. What is the minimum acceptable thickness for this
thinned area per ASME B 16.5?

a.0.9375”
b.1.250”
c.1.750”
d.Cannot be calculated from information given

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Professional Training and Consultation

14.From the information in Question No.13, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum
thickness allowed in square inches?

a.2.75”
b.1.33”
c.1.85”
d.0.431”

15.Using the information in questions No.13, 14, if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed
on the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?

a.3.0”
b.2.70”
c.6.52”
d.4.70”

16.What would be the calculated thickness of a new NPS 14 flanged fitting with a 900 psi class
designation?

a.0.830”
b.1.28”
c.1.112”
d.None of the above

17.A NPS flanged fitting is operating at a temperature of 650 0F and has a pressure class rating of 600
psi. Using a stress value of 17,400 psi, what would be the maximum permitted rated working
pressure?

a.2000 psi
b.1193 psi
c.1175 psi
d.1500 psi

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Professional Training and Consultation

SET – J
API 510 Preparatory Course

1.A filmside penetrameter can be used for:

a.inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter)


b.all welds
c.all castings at any time
d.an alternative to a source-side wire penetrameter

2.A dark image of the "B" on a lighter background is:

a.Acceptable
b.Rejectable
c.Sometimes rejectable
d.None of the above

3.One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing


details for:

a.Post-examination cleaning
b.Pre-examination cleaning
c.Apply the penetrant
d.All of the above

4.Non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.

True or False (circle one)

5.The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an


ammeter shall be verified:

a.Each year
b.Each two years
c.When possible
d.Every 6 months

6.When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at
least ________ minutes prior to performing the examination.

a. 7
b.10
c. 9
d. 1

7.A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.
True of False (circle one)

8.A field indicator is composed of _______low carbon steel pie sections, furnace brazed
together.

a. 2
b. 6
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c.10
d. 8

9.The type and amperage of magnetizing current must be identified on the written
MT procedure. True of False (circle one)

10.Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on:

a.Carbon steels
b.Ferritic stainless steels
c.Austenitic stainless steels
d.None of the above
11.Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______ when conducting fluorescent
PT.
a.Dark room meter
b.Photo-meter
c.Black light meter
d.None of the above

12.When should a densitometer be calibrated as a minimum?

a.Annually
b.Every 90 days
c.Whenever it is turned on
d.As required by the Examiner

13.The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as radiographic


images. True or False (circle one)

14.D.C.yokers may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?

True or False (circle one)

15.When coatings are applied to enhance contrast, the procedure must be


demonstrated that indications can be detected through the coating.

True or False (circle one)

16.How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 1

17.Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____"
of the area to be examined.
a. 1
b.1.5
c. 2
d. 3

18.Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60
psi and 1000F.

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True or False (circle one)

19.The maximum emulsification time shall be :

a.5 minutes
b.10 minutes
c.15 minutes
d.none of the above

20.Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:

a.Densitometer
b.Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c.Light Meter
d.Transmission monitor

21.When using a hydrophillic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and


intermediate step that must be taken is:

a.pre-flooding with emulisifier


b.pre-cleaning with solvent
c.pre-rinsing with water
d.pre-washing with detergent

22.A welded part is to be radiographed and is 1" thick, with 1/8" reinforcement. What
ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side
technique is used :

a.Set A
b.Set B
c.Set C
d.Set D

23.When a PT test cannot be conducted between 500-1250F, what must be done, per
ASME V?

a.The procedure must be qualified.


b.The surface must be re-cleaned
c.The test cannot be conducted
d.None of the above
24.The sulphur content of a penetrant is measured to be less than 0.0025g. This
material is acceptable for use on:

a.Nickel-base alloys
b.Carbon steel
c.Ferritic steel
d.All of the above

25. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with:

a.ASME VIII
b.ASME V
c.The referencing Code section
d.The written procedure

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26.The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes:

a.NDE acceptance crtieria


b.How to perform NDE to achieve a desired result
c.Where to do NDE (i.e. what welds to examine)
d.Who can be the Authorised Inspector

27.UT equipment is calibrated?


a.Before heat-treatment
b.AFter completing the examination
c.Prior to visual examination
d.Prior to PT examination

28.What finished surface is required of butt welds for PT examination?

a.Smooth surface prepared by grinding


b.Cosmetically clean acid etched surface
c.A near white blast surface
d.None of the above

29.A penetrameter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetrameter selection is based on:

a.The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement


b.Both wall thicknesses
c.The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
d.None of the above

30.A suitable means for applying penetrant.

a.Dipping
b.Brushing
c.Spraying
d.Any or all of the above

31.What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the
contaminants in the penetrant?

a.Nickel alloys
b.Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c.Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
d.Both a and b, above

32.How shall indications be evaluated, i.e. acceptance standards for RT?


a.To ASME V
b.To ASME VIII
c.To B31.3
d.To the referencing Code section

33.Thickness readings may be displayed on?

a.SRT
b.PRT
c.CRT

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d.Strip chart recorder

34.How many copies of a procedure must be available to the Manufacturers NDE


Personnel?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

35.How shall Non-destructive Examination Personnel be qualified?

a.To SNT-TC 1A
b.To CP-189
c.To referencing code requirements
d.To ACCP rules

36.Which NDE methods are considered "surface" methods?

a.PT
b.RT
c.MT
d.Both A & C above

37.What designation is used to indicate the penetrameter is on the film side?

a.An "F"
b.An " E"
c.A " D"
d.An "FS"

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