PHYSICS SECTION-A

1. A particle moves from A to D along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with
a speed of 15 ms−1 . Its magnitude of average velocity is :

(a) 15 ms −1
(b) 10 ms−1
(c) 7.5 ms −1
(d) 5 ms−1

5
2. The equation of the trajectory of a projectile is y = 10x − ( ) x 2
9
If we assume g = 10 m s−2 , the range of the projectile (in metres) is
(a) 36
(b) 24
(c) 18
(d) 9

3. The velocity-time graph of a body moving along a straight line is as follows :-

The displacement of the body in 5 s is :-

(a) 5 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 3 m

4. A car is moving with velocity v. If car stop after applying break at a distance of 20 m . If
velocity of car is doubled, then how much distance it will cover (travel) after applying break:
(a) 40 m
(b) 80 m
(c) 160 m
(d) 320 m

5. A projectile is projected with kinetic energy K. If it has the maximum possible horizontal
range, then its kinetic energy at the highest point will be:-
(a) 0.25 K
(b) 0.5 K
(c) 0.75 K
(d) 1.0 K

6. The displacement s of a point moving in a straight line is given by :

s = 8t 2 + 3t − 5
s being in cm and t in s . The initial velocity of the particle is :-
(a) 3 cm/s
(b) 16 cm/s
(c) 19 cm/s
(d) Zero

7. Statement-1: Magnitude of average velocity is equal to average speed.

Statement-2: Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is equal to instantaneous speed.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(d) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

8. Assertion: The trajectory of projectile is linear in y and quadratic in x .

Reason: y component of trajectory is independent of x-component.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

9. A particle has been thrown vertically up with initial speed of 30 m/s. The distance covered
by the particle in last one second of upward motion is (take g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m

10. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity 600 m/s. Calculate distance travelled in
last 2 sec of its upward motion:- [g = 10 ms−2 ]
(a) 20 m
(b) 30 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m

11. Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their
trajectories are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(b) The launch speed is largest for particle C
(c) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(d) All of the above

12. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 km/h drops a food packet while
flying at a height of 490 m . The horizontal range of the packet is:
(a) 180 m
(b) 980 m
(c) 500 m
(d) 670 m

13. Particle is projected with initial velocity at an angle such that it grazes the top of two
poles of same height at time 2 and 6 sec . First pole is at distance 35 m from the point of
projection. Then match the list-I and List-II:

List-I List-II
(p) Time of flight (in sec) (1) 80
(Q) Height of the pole (in m) (2) 70
(R) Maximum height reached by (3) 8
particle (in m)
(S) Distance between two poles (in m) (4) 60
(a) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1
 (b) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(c) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(d) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

14. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u , the distance covered during the last t
second of its ascent is :-
(a) ut −(gt 2 /2)
(b) (𝑢 + 𝑔𝑡)𝑡
(c) ut
1
(d) gt 2
2

15. The velocity time graph of a body moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The
ratio of the average velocities during the time 𝑡1 and 𝑡2 is :-

(a) 1: 1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1: 3

16. A body moving with some initial velocity and having uniform acceleration attains a final
velocity vm/s after travelling x m . If its final velocity is v = √180 − 7x, find the acceleration
of the body.
(a) −3.5 m/s2
(b) −7 m/s2
(c) −15 m/s2
(d) −30 m/s2

17. A man is crossing a river flowing with velocity of 5 m/s. He reaches at points B directly
across at a distance of 60 m in 5 sec . His velocity in still water should be :-
 (a) 12 m/s
(b) 13 m/s
(c) 5 m/s
(d) 10 m/s

18. A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial speed of 20 m/s. Its horizontal speed 3 s
late will be :
(a) 20 m/s
(b) 6.67 m/s
(c) 60 m/s
(d) 29.4 m/s

19. Two bodies are projected at angle 𝜃 and (90 − 𝜃) to the horizontal with the same speed.
The ratio of their times of flight is :
(a) sin 𝜃: 1
(b) cos 𝜃: 1
(c) sin 𝜃: cos 𝜃
(d) cos 𝜃: sin 𝜃

20. Two projectiles A and B are projected with angle of projection 30∘ for the projectile A and
45∘ for the projectile B . If R A and R B are the horizontal ranges for the two projectiles, then :-
(a) 𝑅𝐴 = 𝑅𝐵
(b) 𝑅𝐴 > 𝑅𝐵
(c) R A < R B
(d) The information is insufficient to decide the relation of 𝑅𝐴 and 𝑅𝐵

21. A swimmer has to cross (1) A flowing river and

(2) A still swimming pool of same width. If he goes for minimum time then in which case it
will take less time to cross :-
(a) Same time in both
(b) Swimming pool crossing
(c) River crossing
(d) Data insufficient

22.A man runs along a horizontal road holding his umbrella vertical in order to afford
maximum protection from rain. The rain is actually :-
(a) Falling vertical
(b) Coming from front of the man
(c) Coming from the back of the man
(d) Either of (1), (2) or (3)

23. A man is standing on ground with an umbrella hat as shown. Suddenly rainfall starts at
speed VR = 20 m/s at an angle 30∘ with vertical. The speed and direction in which man
should start running so as to save himself from rain :
 (a) not possible
(b) 10 m/s towards left
(c) 10 m/s towards right
(d) 5 m/s towards right

24. A plane is flying horizontally at 98 m/s and releases an object which reaches the ground
in 10 sec . The angle made by it while hitting the ground is :-
(a) 55∘
(b) 45∘
(c) 60∘
(d) 75∘

25. A bomber moving horizontally with 500 m/s drops a bomb which strikes ground in 10 sec
. The angle at which it strike with horizontal is :-
1
(a) sin−1 ( )
5
(b) tan−1 (1)
1
(c) tan−1 (5)
(d) tan−1 (5)

26. Two buildings 𝐴 and 𝐵 are 50 m apart as shown. With what horizontal velocity ' 𝑢 ' a ball
must be thrown from top of building A so that it enters into window on building B, 25 m
above the ground (𝑔 = 10 m/s2 ) ?

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 15 m/s
 (c) 20 m/s
(d) 8 m/s

5𝑥 2
27. The equation of projectile is 𝑦 = 16𝑥 − .The horizontal range is :
4
(a) 16 m
(b) 8 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 12.8 m

28. The equation of projectile is 180y = 240x − x 2 . The angle of projection is :-

(a) 37∘
(b) 53∘
(c) 60∘
(d) 45∘

29. The correct statement from the following is :-

(a) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration.
(b) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration.
(c) A body having uniform speed can have uniform acceleration.
(d) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration

30. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn.
This happens because of :-
(a) Outward pull on them
(b) Inertia
(c) Change in momentum
(d) Change in acceleration

31 A gun fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of the
bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 ms −1 . The force required to hold the gun while firing is :
(a) 6 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 24 N
(d) 240 N

32 A ball of mass 𝑚 strikes a rigid wall with speed u and rebounds with the same speed. The
impulse imparted to the ball by the wall is :-
(a) 2 mu
(b) mu
(c) zero
(d) 4 mu

33. A circket player catches a ball of mass 10−1 kg, moving with a velocity of 25 ms −1 . If the
ball is caught in 0.1 s , the force of the blow exerted on the hand of the player is :-
(a) 4 N
(b) 25 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 250 N

34. If force 𝐹 = (3𝑡 2 + 2𝑡)𝑁, then impulse of the force for first 4 seconds is :-
(a) 60 N -sec
(b) 80 N − sec
(c) 100 N − sec
(d) 40 N − sec

35. Gravel is dropped onto a conveyor belt at a rate of 0.5 kg/s. The extra force required in
newton to keep the belt moving at 2 m/s is :-
(a) 1 N
(b) 2 N
(c) 4 N
(d) 0.5 N

PHYSICS SECTION-B
36. A mass 𝑀 is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in figure. Another
rope is tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally with a force 𝐹. If the rope 𝐴𝐵 makes an
angle 𝜃 with the vertical, then the tension in the string AB is:-

(a) Fsin 𝜃
(b) F/sin 𝜃
(c) Fcos 𝜃
(d) F/cos 𝜃

37. If the system is in equilibrium then value of 𝑇1 and T2 is :-

 (a) 5 N, 5 N
(b) 5√3 N, 5√3 N
(c) 5 N, 5√3 N
(d) 5√3 N, 5 N

38. What is the tension T2 in the system in equilibrium shown in fig

(a) 5N
(b) 5 kg wt .
(c) 1N
(d) 19.6 N

39. Find the acceleration of the given system :

(a) 30 m/s2
(b) 15 m/s2
(c) 10 m/s2
(d) 20 m/s2

40. The surfaces are frictionless, the ratio of T1 and T2 is :-

 (a) √3: 2
(b) 1: √3
(c) 1: 5
(d) 5: 1

41. Which FBD is right?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) All of these

 42. A uniform sphere of weight W and radius 3 m is being held by a string of length 2 m
attached to a frictionless wall as shown in the figure. The tension in the string will be :-

(a) 5 W/4
(b) 15 W/4
(c) 15 W/16
(d) None of these

43. In the given figure, Find the value of ' 𝑇 '?

(a) 37.5 N
(b) 75 N
(c) 50 N
(d) 30 N

44. A body is moving under the action of 2 forces 𝐹⃗1 = 2𝑖ˆ − 5𝑗ˆ, 𝐹⃗2 = 3𝑖 − 4𝑗ˆ. Its velocity will
become uniform under a third force 𝐹⃗3 given by : −
(a) 5𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ
(b) −5𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ
(c) 5𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ
(d) −5𝑖ˆ + 9𝑗ˆ

45. Assertion (A) :- The apparent weight of a body in an elevator moving with some down
ward acceleration is less then actual weight of body.
Reason (R) :- The part of the weight is spent in producing downward acceleration,
 when body is in elevator.
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 200 ms−1 . The man holding it
can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can be fire per second at
the most?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Three

47. The figure shows the position-time (𝑥 − 𝑡) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of
mass 0.4 kg . The magnitude of each impulse is :-

(a) 0.2 Ns
(b) 0.4 Ns
(c) 0.8 Ns
(d) 1.6 Ns

48. If force time graph for a particle is shown in figure then impulse provided by force from
𝑡 = 2 to 𝑡 = 8 second is :

(a) 10 N − s
(b) 20 N − s
(c) −10 N − s
(d) Zero
49. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60∘ and gets reflected without loss of speed
as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be :-

mv
(a) 2
mv
(b)
3
(c) mv
(d) 2 mv

[ANS] c
50. A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0.15 kg straight in the direction of the bowler
without changing its initial speed of 10 ms −1 . If the ball moves linearly, then the impulse
imparted on it (in Ns) is :-
(a) 3.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.9

CHEMISTRY SECTION-A
51. (A) : Ionic compounds tend to be non-volatile
(𝑅) : Inter ionic forces in ionic compounds are weak
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

52. The type of overlap present in the bonds of hydrogen sulphide molecule is
(a) 𝜎s − p
(b) 𝜎s − s
(c) 𝜎p − p
(d) 𝜎sp3 − s

53. Which of the following overlap is the strongest?

(a) 2p −2p
 (b) 3𝑝 − 3𝑝
(c) 5p − 5p
(d) 𝜋(5𝑝 − 5𝑝)

54. According to V.B. theory, the bonds in methane are formed due to the overlapping
(a) 1𝜎𝑠 − s, 3𝜎 s − p
(b) 1𝜎 s − p, 3𝜎 s − s
(c) 2𝜎 s − s, 2𝜎 s − p
(d) 4𝜎sp3 − s

55. Largest bond angle is present in

(a) CH4
(b) C2 H 6
(c) C2 H 4
(d) C2 H 2

56. Regarding hybridisation the correct statement is

(a) Orbitals of different atoms hybridize
(b) The angle between any two hybrid orbitals is not the same
(c) Hybrid orbitals always form sigma bonds
(d) Only electrons undergo hybridisation but not orbital

57. Which one of the following is a correct set ?

(a) H2 O, sp3 , angular
(b) H2 O, sp2, linear
(c) NH4+ , dsp 2 , squre planar
(d) CH4 , dsp 2, tetrahedral

58. 𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 1 𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 2

(A) Diamond 1. sp2
(B) Graphite 2. sp3
(C) PCl5 3. sp3 d
(D) CO2 gas 4. sp
5. sp3 d2

The correct match is

𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 𝐷
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 2
59. Predict the correct order among the following
(a) lone pair- lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(b) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(c) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(d) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair

60. Which of the following species in not diamagnetic?

(a) N2
(b) F2
(c) Li2
(d) O2

61. In O2 molecule, the correct order of molecular orbitals is

(a) 𝜋2𝑝𝑦 > 𝜋2𝑝𝑧
(b) 𝜋2𝑝𝑦 ∗ = 𝜋2𝑝𝑧
(c) 𝜎2 s < 𝜎2 s ∗
(d) 𝜎2 s∗ > 𝜎2px

62. Which of the following compounds has zero Dipolemoment?

(a) 1, 4 - Dichlorobenzene
(b) 1, 2 - Dichlorobenzene
(c) 1, 3 - Dichlorobenzene
(d) 1 - chloro - 2 - methyl benzene

63. Among the following, which has the highest

boiling point ?
(a) NH3
(b) PH3
(c) AsH3
(d) CH4

64. The bond dissociation energy ( 𝐸 ) and bond length (R) of O2 , N2 , F2 follow the order
As
(E) (R)
(a) O2 > N2 > F2 F2 > O2 > N2
(b) N2 > F2 > O2 N2 > O2 > F2
(c) N2 > O2 > F2 F2 > O2 > N2
(d) N2 > O2 > F2 N2 > O2 > F2
 65. Regarding hybridisation which is incoreect?
(a) BF3 , C2 H4 , C6 H6 involve sp2 hybridisation
(b) BeF2 , C2 H2 , CO2 involve sp hybridisation
(c) NH3 , H2 O, CClCl4 involve sp3 hybridisation
(d) CH4 , C2 H4 , C2 H2 involve sp2 hybridisation

66. The type of hybridisation present on "S" in SO2 and SO3 molecules respectively
(a) sp, sp2
(b) sp2 , sp2
(c) sp, sp3
(d) sp2 , sp3

67. List I 𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 𝐼𝐼

(Molecule) (𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑃𝑎𝑖𝑟𝑠)
A) NH3 𝐼) 𝑇𝑤𝑜
B) H2 O 𝐼𝐼) 𝑇ℎ𝑟𝑒𝑒
C) XeF2 𝐼𝐼𝐼) 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜
D) CH4 𝐼𝑉) 𝑂𝑛𝑒
𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 𝐷
(a) 𝐼𝑉 𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼
(b) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝑉
(c) 𝐼𝑉 𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼
(d) 𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝑉

68. The correct order of the energy of molecular orbitals in a molecules having 4 electrons is
(a) 𝜎2∗ s > 𝜎2pz > 𝜋2px
∗
(b) 𝜎2𝑠 < 𝜋2𝑝 < 𝜎2𝑝𝑧
∗
(c) 𝜎2 s < 𝜎2pz = 𝜋2px
∗
(d) 𝜎2𝑝𝑧 < 𝜎2𝑠 < 𝜋 2𝑝𝑥

69. Match the following

List − I (molecule) 𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 𝐼𝐼 (𝑏𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠, 𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒)
A) 𝐂2 1. 1, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐
B) O2 2. 1, diamagnetic
C) B2 3. 2, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐
D) Li2 4. 2, 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐
5. 3, 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐
𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 𝐷
(a) 3 5 2 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
 (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 5 4

70. Which of the following orders regarding the bond order is correct?

(a) O− +
2 > O2 > O2

(b) O− +
2 < O2 < O2

(c) O− +
2 > O2 < O2

(d) O− +
2 < O2 > O2

71. Molecular electronic configuration of B2 is

(a) KK(𝜎2 s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 2 s)2 (𝜋2p)1x (𝜋2p)1y
(b) KK(𝜎2 s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 2 s)2 (𝜋2p)2x
(c) KK(𝜎2 s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 2 s)2 (𝜋2p)2
(d) KK(𝜎2 s)2 (𝜎 ∗ 2 s)2 (𝜎2p)1 (𝜋2p)1

72. When N2 goes to N2 + , the N − N bond distance ........ and when O2 goes to O2 + , the O − O
bond distance
(a) increases, decreases
(b) decreases, increases
(c) increases, increases
(d) decreases, decreases

73. The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because
(a) NO2 group at para position behaves in a different way from that at ortho position
(b) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
(c) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrophenol
(d) p-nitrophenol has a higher molecular weight than o-nitrophenol

74.Which of the following hydrocarbon has least C - C bond length ?

(a) C2 H6
(b) C2 H4
(c) C6 H6
(d) C2 H2

75. The formal charges on the three oxygen atoms in O3 molecule are
(a) 0,0,0
(b) 0,0, −1
(c) 0,0 + 1
(d) 0, +1, −1
 76. A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which of the following atomic
orbitals ?
(a)𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦 , 𝑑𝑦𝑧
(b)𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦 , 𝑑𝑥 2−𝑦2
(c)𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦 , 𝑑𝑧 2
(d)s, py , p𝑧 , dxy

77. From the following given statements of the order of dipolemoments.

i) HF > H2 O > NH3
ii) CH3 Cl > CH2 Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4

iii)
The correct combination is
(a) all
(b) i and ii
(c) only iii
(d) only i

78. The correct order of increasing C − O bond length of CO, CO2−

3 and CO2
2−
(a) CO3 < CO2 < CO
(b) CO2 < CO2−
3 < CO

(c) CO < CO2−

3 < CO2

(d) CO < CO2 < CO2−

3

79. Tbe group having triangular planar structure is

(a) NCl3 , BCl3 , SO3
(b) CO2− −
3 , NO3 , SO3

(c) NH3 , SO3 , CO2−

3

(d) BF3 , NF3 , CO2−

3

80. Number of short periods in short form of periodic table

 (a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

81. The number of elements present in 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th periods of modern periodic
table respectively are
(a) 2,8,8&18
(b) 8,8,18&32
(c) 8,8,18&18
(d) 8,18,18&32

82. Element with atomic number 15 and mass number 31 is present in

(a) group 5 and period 4
(b) group 5 and period 3
(c) group 15 and period 3
(d) group 15 and period 4

83. Which of the following pairs of atomic numbers represents elements belonging to the
same group?
(a) 11,20
(b) 12,30
(c) 13,31
(d) 14,33

84. If the atomic number of an element is 33 , it will be placed in the periodic table in the
(a) First group
(b) Third group
(c) Fifth group
(d) Seventh group

85. The general electronic configuration of d-block elements is

(a) ns1−2 (n − 1)d1−10

(b) 𝑛𝑠 2 (𝑛 − 1)𝑑1 (𝑛 − 2)𝑓1−14
(c) ns1−2 (n − 1)d1−9
(d) ns1−2 𝑛𝑝6 (n − 1)d1−10
 CHEMISTRY SECTION-B

86. In the isoelectronic species the ionic radii (A∘ ) of N3− , O2− , F − are respectively given by
(a)1.36,1.71,1.40
(b)1.36,1.40,1.71
(c)1.71,1.36,1.40
(d)1.71,1.40,1.36

87. Which of the following order is correct for the size of Fe3+ , Fe and Fe2+ ?
(a)Fe < Fe2+ < Fe3+
(b)Fe2+ < Fe3+ < Fe
(c)Fe < Fe3+ < Fe2+
(d)Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe

88. Which of the following transition involves maximum amount of energy?

−
(a)M(g) → M(g)
+
(b)M(g) → M(g)
+ 2+
(c)M(g) → M(g)
+2 3+
(d)M(g) → M(g)

89. The electron affinity values of elements A , B, C and D are respectively

−135, −60, −200 and −348 kJ mol−1 . The outer electronic configuration of element 𝐵 is
(a)3 s2 3p5
(b)3 s2 3p4
(c)3 s2 3p3
(d)3𝑠 2 3𝑝21

90. An element has electronic configuration 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝 6 3𝑠1 in its +2 oxidation state. The
formula of its sulphide is
(a) M3 S2
(b) MS2
(c) MS3
(d) M2 S3

91. (A) : As2 O3 , Sb2 O3 is amphoteric in nature

(R) : As is an example of metalliods
(a)Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct explanation
(b)Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but 𝑅 is false
 (d)𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

92. A) : Be and Al have similar properties.

(𝑅) : Cations of Be and Al have same polarising power
(a)Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct explanation
(b)Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of A
(c)𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false
(d)𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

93. Which group and period does the element belong if the electronic configuration of an
element in its -2 osidation state is 1 s2 2 s2 2p6 3 s2 3p6 ?
(a)Period 3, group 16
(b)Period 3, group 17
(c)Period 4 , group 16
(d)Period 4 , group 17

94.Match the following.

𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 1 𝐿𝑖𝑠𝑡 − 2
A) Rubedium I) Germanium
B) Platinum II) Radio active chalcogen
C) Ekasilicon III) 8 − block element
D) Polonium IV) Atomic number 78

A B C D
(a) IV III II I
(b) III IV I III
(c) II I IV IIII
(d) IV III II I

95. In which of the following sets, elements have nearly same atomic radii?
(a)Li, Be, B
(b)Mg, Ca, Sr
(c)Fe, Co, Ni
(d)O, S, Se

96. Correct order of atomic radii is

(a) N < C < P < S
(b) C < N < S < P
(c) C < N < P < S
(d) N < C < S < P
97. Which one of the following cannot form an amphoteric oxide ?
(a) A𝑙
(b)Sn
(c)Sb
(d) 𝑃

98. element with 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 electronic arrangement will be forming

(a)Acidic oxide
(b)Basic oxide
(c)Neutral oxide
(d)Amphoteric oxide

99. The order of metalic character is

(a)P < Mg < Si < Na
(b)P < Si < Mg < Na
(c)Mg < Na < Si < P
(d)Si < P < Na < Mg

100. Some oxides are shown in List-I and their nature is shown in List-II

LIST – 1 LIST - 2

A) MgO 1. Amphoteric

B) BeO 2. Acidic

C) P2 O5 3.Neutral

D) CO 4. Basic

The correct match is

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 4 1

BOTANY SECTION-A
101. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by:
(a) Bateson and Punnet
(b) T.H. Morgan
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Sutton and Boveri

102. If a pea plant produces 2560 seeds in F2 during a dihybrid cross between round-yellow
and wrinkled-green plant, then how many seed are wrinkled-yellow, round yellow and
wrinkled-green respectively.
(a) 640, 480, 1280
(b) 480, 1440, 160
(c) 640, 1280, 320
(d) 160, 1440, 480

103.The best example for pleiotropy is:

(a) Phenylketonuria
(b) Colour Blindness
(c) ABO Blood group
(d) Skin colour

104. Read the following statements and find out the correct statement.
A. The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an
individual receive.
B. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or
worker), and an unfertilized egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis.
C. The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid.
D. This is called as haplo-diploid sex-determination system and has special characteristic
features such as the males produce sperms by mitosis they do not have father and thus
cannot have sons, but have a grandfather and can have grandsons.
(a) A and B
(b) B, C and D
(c) A, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D

105. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
(a) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.
(b) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.
(c) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
(d) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
106. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine
development gynaecomastia, and is sterile?
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Edward syndrome
(d) Down’s syndrome

107. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental- type offspring were produced
than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates
(a) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
(b) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
(c) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
(d) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene

108. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in

humans?
A. Dominance
B. Co-dominance
C. Incompete dominance
D. Polygenic inheritance
(a) B, C
(b) A, B
(c) B, D
(d) A, C

109. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was explained by
(a) T.H. Morgan
(b) Gregor J. Mendel
(c) Alfred Sturtevant
(d) Sutton Boveri

110. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) This experiment does not follow the principle of dominance.
(b) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
(c) Ratio of F2 is 1:2:1 due to incomplete Dominanace.
(d) Law of segregation does not apply in this experiment
111. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(a) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(b) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(c) XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
(d) T.H. Morgan : Linkage

112. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome
can be inherited by:
(a) Only daughters
(b) Only sons
(c) Only grandchildren
(d) Both sons and daughters

113. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his
experiments on pea?
(a) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
(b) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
(c) Seed – Green or Yellow
(d) Pod – Inflated or Constricted

114. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of their
children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(a) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(b) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(c) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(d) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes

115. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule
synthesis. Select the correct statement.
(a) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(b) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(c) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(d) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules

116. Select the wrong statement:

(a) Chromosomal Theory of inheritance was proposed by Sutton and boveri
(b) Law of Dominance and Law of independent Assortment were proposed by Mendel
(c) Linkage and recombination were discovered by Sutton
(d) Three scientists independently rediscovered the Mendel’s laws in 1900
117. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the
probability of their son being colour-blind is:
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 0.5

118.Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct
option

(a) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(iii)

(b) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(c) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(d) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(ii)

119. In pumpkins, yellow (Y) is dominant over white; big (B) is dominant over small (b).
What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring when pumpkins, heterozygous for
both traits are crossed?
(a) 9:7
(b) 1:1:1:1
(c) 9:3:4
(d) 9:3:3:1

120.In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals.
Identify the type of given pedigree.
(a) X-linked recessive
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X-linked dominant
(d) Autosomal dominant
121. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour
blindness in her family. What is the probability of their grandson being colour blind?
(a) 1
(b) Nil
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.5

122. A pleiotropic gene:

(a) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene
(b) Controls a trait only in combination with another gene
(c) Controls multiple traits in an individual
(d) Is expressed only in primitive plants

123.If both parents are carriers for Thalassaemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
(a) 100%
(b) No chance
(c) 50%
(d) 25%

124. A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant.
What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
(a) Only red flowered plants
(b) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
(c) Only pink flowered plants
d) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants

125. Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of
Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F2
generation.
C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, C, D and E only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, B, C, D and E

126.Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-
(a)Down’s Syndrome
(b) Turner’s Syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
(d) Thalassemia

127. Choose the correct statements given below regarding Mendelian inheritance.
(i) Mendel’s experiments had small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data.
(ii)A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several
generations.
(iii)In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other.
(iv)A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition.
(v)Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on homologous.
(a) (ii) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v)
(d) (i) and (v)

128. It is well known that Queen Victoria of England was a carrier for haemophilia. Since this
is an X-linked disease, it can be predicted that
(a) all of her sons would have had disease.
(b) all her daugthers would have been carriers.
(c) her father must definitely have had haemophilia.
(d) haemophilia would have occurred in more of her male than her female descendents.

129. The experiment shown in the given figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the
phenomenon of linkage and recombination. If in cross A, genes are tightly linked and in
 cross B, genes are loosely linked then what will be the
percentage of recombinants produced in cross A and cross B
respectively?

(a) 98.7% and 62.8%

(b) 1.3% and 37.2%
(c) 37.2 and 1.3%
(d) 62.8% and 98.7%

130. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct
conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

(a) The female parent is heterozygous.

(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
(c) the male parent is dominant
(d) the trait under study could not be haemophilia
131. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two
di-allelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this
person?
(a)AaBB
(b)AABb
(c)AABB
(d)AaBb

132. The following figure shows

(a) Independent segregation of genes

(b) Linkage
(c) Chromosomal theory of sex determination
(d) Independent assortment of chromososmes

133. In a test cross of F1 generation having a genotype AaBb, following progeny were
obtained; AaBb (450), aabb (450), Aabb (50), aaBb (50). How far in centimorgans (cM) are
the a and b genes?
(a) 100
(b) 90
(c) 10
(d) 1

134.A child has blood group O. If father has blood group A and mother has blood group B,
work out the genotypes of the parents.
(a) IAIA and IBi
(b) IAi and IB i
(c) ii and IBIB
(d) IAi and ii
135. Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching.

(a) c – Glu, d – Val, a – normal Hb (A) gene, b – sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(b) c – Glu, d – Val, b – normal Hb (A) gene, a – sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(c) d – Glu, c – Val, a – normal Hb (A) gene, b – sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(d) c – Glu, d – Val, b – normal Hb (A) gene, a – sickle cell Hb (S) gene

BOTANY SECTION-B
136. Which of the following is not a correct dominant- recessive trait pair of Pisum sativum?
(a) Axial-terminal flower position, Tall-dwarf stems Height
(b) Yellow-green pod colour, round-wrinkled seed shape
(c) inflated-constricted pod shape, Yellow-green seed Colour
(d) Violet-white flower colour, Inflated-constricted pod shape

137. A tobacco plant, heterozygous for a recessive character is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds
are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype?
(a) 1250
(b) 600
(c) 300
(d) 2250

138. Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Assertion: A gamete contains a single allele for each trait.
Reason: During gametogenesis, the two alleles of each trait segregate, one passing into each
gamete at random.
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.

139.In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and
genotypes are:
(a) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 16
(b) phenotypes - 9; genotypes - 4
(c) phenotypes - 4; genotypes – 8
(d) phenotypes - 4; genotyps - 9

140. The person with Turner’s syndrome has

(a) 45 autosomes and X sex chromosome
(b) 44 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes
(c) 45 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes
(d) 44 autosomes and X sex chromosome

141. A dihybrid heterozygous for a trait is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual of
its type. The phenotypic ratio is.
(a) 1:2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:1:1:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

142. In four O clock plants, the gene for red flower colour (R) is incompletely dominant over
the gene for white flower colour (r), hence the plants heterozygous for flower colour (Rr)
have pink flowers. What will be the ratio of offspring in a cross between red flowers and pink
flowers?
(a) 75% red flowers, 50% pink flowers
(b) All red flowers
(c) 50% red flowers, 50% pink flowers
(d) Red: pink : white : 1: 2: 1

143. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:

(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) opposite relationship
(d) no relationship

144. Distance between the genes a, b, c and d in map units is a-d = 3.5, b-c = 1, a-b = 6, c-d =
1.5 and a-c = 5. Find out the sequence of the genes.
(a) adcb
(b) acdb
(c) abcd
(d) acbd.

145. Assertion: Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophilla to study genes
that were sex linked.
Reason: Morgan hybridized yellow bodied, white eyed males to brown bodied, red eyed
females and intercrossed their F1 progeny.
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.

146.The production of gametes by parents, formation of zygote, the f1 and f2 plants can be
understood from a diagram called:
(a) Punnett square
(b) Net square
(c) Bullet square
(d) Punch square

147. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood
groups.
(a) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(b) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(c) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar
(d) The gene (I) has three alleles.

148. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
(a) Sutton
(b) Boveri
(c) Morgan
(d) Mendel
149. Select the correct match
(a) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
(b) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome 11
(c) Thalassemia - X linked
(d) Haemophilia - Y linked

150. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were
similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
(a) 2
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 4

ZOOLOGY SECTION-A
151. Clotting of blood, defence mechanism and osmotic balance are the primary activities of
the following respectively

(a) Fibrinogens globulins albumins

(b) Fibrinogens albumins globulins

(c) Globulins albumins fibrinogens

(d) Fibrinogens globulins globulins

152. In atrial systole atrial blood flow increases into ventricles by

(a) About 30% of cardiac output

(b) About 70% of stroke volume

(c) About 30% of stroke volume

(d) About the 50% of stroke volume

153. RH negative person donated blood to RH positive for the second time then

(a) R H negative person will die due to hemolysis

(b) Nothing happens to rh positive person

(c) RH positive antibodies attack rh positive rbc’s

(d) RH positive person will die due to hemolysis

154. Compatible blood types for A group in blood transfusion IS /ARE

(a) A and ab

(b) A and O

(c) A O and AB

(d) O only

155. The left AV valve in The heart is on the same side of

(a) The aortic valve

(b) The opening of coronary sinus

(c) The Superior venacava

(d) the Eustachian valve

156. Statement 1 : Adrenal medullary hormone increase cardiac output

Statement 2 : T Wave represents the return of ventricles from normal to excited state
(a) Both statement one and two are false
(b) Both statement one and two are true
(c) Statement one is true and statement two is false
(d) Statement one is false and statement two is true

157. Which of the following statement is incorrect

(a) All vertebrates have muscular heart

(b) All vertebrates have myogenic heart
(c) All vertebrates have closed blood circulation

(d) All vertebrates have nucleated RBC in their blood

158.Position of pacemaker

(a) Right upper corner of left atrium

 (b) Lower left corner of right atrium
(c) Right upper corner of right atrium
(d) Lower left corner of left atrium

159.Heart tissue orderly associates with events of action potential passage are

A. SA NODE B. BUNDLE OF HIS C. AV NODE D. VENTRICLE MUSCLES E.

PURKINJE FIBRES

(a) A C B D E

(b) A C B E D

(c) A E B C D

(d) A D E B C

160. Statement 1: normal activities of the heart are auto regulated

Statement 2: the special nervous centre in the medulla oblongata moderates the cardiac
function through ANS
(a) Both the statement are true and statement two explains the statement I
(b) Both the statements are false
(c) Both the statements are true but statement two does not explain statement one
(d) Statement one is true but statement two is false

161. Statement 1: The valves in the heart allows unidirectional flow of blood
Statement 2: Opening of pre-caval vein shows bidirectional flow blood because these are
non-valvular
(a)Statement one is correct statement two is wrong
(b)Statement one is wrong statement two is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong

162.Assertion(A) : the heart rate of a six month old baby is much higher than that of normal
adult person

Reason ® : Smaller the organism higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
163. Assertion bicuspid and tricuspid valves get closed during ventricular systole
Reason these walls in heart allow blood to flow in one direction and prevent backward flow
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

164. Assertion: Thrombin is essential for blood clotting

Reason: calcium plays an important role in blood clotting
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

165.Assertion : SA node malfunctioning leads to disturbance of heart rate

Reason : SA NODE is the pacemaker of heart producing electrical impulse for heart
contraction
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

166. Assertion: That end of T wave marks the end of ventricular system
Reason: The T wave represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state which is
repolarisation
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

167.Which would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 litre blood volume in
the ventricles at the end of the diastole is 100 ml and at the end of the ventricular systole is
50ml
(a) 50 beats per minute
(b) 75 beats per minute
 (c) Hundred beats per minute
(d) 125 beats per minute

168.The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

(a) Stomach
(b)Kidneys
(c) Intestine
(d) Heart

169. Match column one with column 2

Column one Column two

A. P Wave 1.Depolarisation of ventricles

B. Qrs complex 2.Repolarisation of ventricles

C.T wave 3. Coronary ischemia

D.Reduction in the size of T Wave 4.Depolarisation of Atria

5.Repolarisation of Atria

(a) 4123
(b) 4125
(c) 2153
(d) 2354

170. Name the blood cells whose reduction in the number can cause clotting disorder leading
to excessive loss of blood from body
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Thrombocytes

171.How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of heart

(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(d) The heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
172. Statement 1:Increased osmolarity towards inner medullary interstitial is maintained by
proximity of Vasareta and Henleys loop and countercurrent in them is
Statement 2: osmolarity gradient is mainly caused by Nacl and urea

(a) Both one and two statements are correct

(b) Both one and two statements are incorrect
(c) Statement one is incorrect but statement two is correct
(d) Statement one is correct and statement two is incorrect

173. Match the following

Column one Column two

A. Glomerulonephritis 1.Accumulation of uric acid in JIONTS

B. Renal calculi 2.Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
C.Uremia 3.Accumulation of urea in blood
D.Gout 4.Formation of insoluble mass of crystallised
salts in kidney

(a) 2413
(b) 2431
(c) 4231
(d) 4213

174. Select correct set of labelling of the given diagram

 (a) A.Effrent arterioleB.Bowmans capsule C.pct D.Descending limb of loop of henle
(b) A.pct B.DCT C.loop of henleD.VASA RECTA
(c) A.PCT B.VASA RECTAC.BOUMANSCAPSULE D. Glomerulas
(d) A.pct B.DCT.c.loop of henle D .Collecting Duct

175. In the kidney chronicle masses projecting into the calyces are
(a) cortical pyramids
(b) Medullary pyramids
(c) Columns of bertini
(d) Cortical extensions

176. Glomerular filtration is

(a) Non selective process and uses glomerular capillary blood pressure
(b) Selective process and uses glomerular capillary blood pressure
(c) Non selective process and usual capsular hydrostatic pressure
(d) Selective process and occurs actively with energy expenditure

177. Read the following

Identify A B C and D
A B C D
(a) Renal pelvis renal capsule medullary pyramid calyx
(b) Renal capsule renal cortex renal medulla renal pelvis
(c) Renal pelvis renal capsule renal cortex renal medulla
(d) Renal calyx renal cortex renal capsule renal pelvis

178.urine formation in the kidneys involves

(a) Glomerular filtration –[tubular reabsorption + tubular secretion ]
(b) Glomerular filtration + [tubular reabsorption – tubular secretion]
(c) Glomerular filtration - [tubular reabsorption – tubular secretion ]
(d) Glomerular filtration + [tubular reabsorption +tubular secretion]

179. JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modification in

(a) Collecting duct
(b) PCT
(c) DCT
(d) Loop of henle

180. Statement 1: the urine in the descending limb of loop of henle is hypotonic and it is
hypertonic in the ascending limb
Statement 2 : This is the descending limb is almost impermeable to sodium while ascending
limb is impermeable to water
(a) Statement one is correct statement two is wrong
(b) Statement one is wrong statement two is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong

181. hyperosmolarity of the medullary interstitial fluid is maintained by retaining

 (a) H20 and solutes
(b) Urea and Nacl
(c) Uric acid
(d) K+ and Na+

182. Match the items given in column one with those in column 2 and set the correct option
given below
Column one Column two
A. Ultra filtration I.henle Loop
B Concentration of urine II Ureter
C. Transport of urine III. Urinary bladder
D.Storage of urine IV.Malpighian Corpuscle
V.PCT
(a) iv v ii iii
(b) iv i ii iii
(c) v iv i ii
(d) v iv i iii

183.Which one of the following is not a part of renal pyramid

(a)Peritubular capillaries
(b)Convoluted tubules
(c)Collecting duct
(d)Lope of Henley

184. A decrease in blood pressure or volume will not cause the release of
(a)Atrial natriuretic factor
(b)Aldosterone
(c)A D H
(d)Renin

185.The part of nephron involved in active re absorption of sodium

(a) D C T
(b) PCT
(c) Bowman’s capsule
(d) Descending limb of Henleys Loop
 ZOOLOGY SECTION-A
186.Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs
(a)Four chambered heart
(b)Internal fertilisation
(c)Nucleated R B C’s
(d) Ureotelic mode of excretion

187. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of human
nephron
(a)Podocytes -create minute spaces for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsules
(b)henles loop- most re absorption of the major substances from glomerular filtrate
(c)Distal convoluted tubule – Rea absorption of potassium ions into the surrounding
blood
capillaries
(d)Afferent arteriole – carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein

188. Assertion : some ureotelic organisms retain some amount of urea in their kidney matrix
Reason : by retaining some urea ureotelic organism maintain desired osmolarity
(a)A is correct R is correct and R is the correct explaination of A
(b)A and R are Correct R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)R is false and A is true

189. Assertion : Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in most of insects

Reason : They help in excretion of Urea and creatinine
(a)A and R both are correct R is the correct explaination of A
(b)A and R true R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)R is true but A is false

190. Assertion : Birds are uricotelic animals

Reason : The excrete nitrogenous waste as uric acid
(a)A and R are true R is correct explaination of A
(b)A and R are true R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true R is false
(d)R is true A is false
191. Assertion: Hilum is a part of Human Excretory System
Reason: It helpful in collection of urine
(a)A and R are true R is the correct explaination of A
(b)A and R are true R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)R is true but A is false

192. Assertion :Vasa Recta is a minute vessel running parallel to the loop of Henley
Reason : it plays a very important role in concentrating the urine
(a)A and R are true R is the correct explaination of A
(b)A and R are true R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)R is true but A is false

193.Assertion dialytic fluid or solution is isosmotic to blood plasma

Reason: the fluid used during dialysis procedure contains urea glucose and ions
(a)Aand R are true R is the correct explaination of A
(b)A And R are true R is not the correct explaination of A
(c)A is true R is false
(d)R is true A is false

194. Which one of the following statement is correct with respect to kidney function
regulation
(a)When someone drink lots of water adh release is stopped
(b)Exposure to cold temperature stimulates A D H release
(c)An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin II
(d)During summer when body loses lots of water by evaporation the release of ADH is
Suppressed

195. Select the incorrect statement regarding collecting duct

(a)Collecting duct helps to produce concentrated urine by reabsorbing water
(b)It does not allow the passage of urea across it
(c)It selectively secrets H and K ions into the medullar interstitium
 (d) All of the above

196. Identify the correct statements and choose the appropriate option accordingly
(a)Bowmans capsule is single layered structure at the end of Henley LOOP
(b)Vasa recta peritubular cortical cells and glomerulus all have blood
(c)Glomerular filtration rate is amount of filtrate rate formed by the kidneys per second
(d)Vasa recta runs parallel to the henle’s loop in the Juxta medullary nephron

197.Consider the following statements

A.Filtration slits are minute spaces between podocytes of Bowman’s capsule
B.All the constituents of plasma except proteins can pass through filtration slits into the
lumen of bowman’s capsule
(a)I is true II is false
(b)I and II are true
(c)II is true and I is false
(d)Bothe I and II are false

198. Given Below are the four system

i Arteries are thick walled and have narrow lumen
ii Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to brain is reduced
iii persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person
iv calcium ions play a very imp role in blood clotting
How many are correct
(a)I and IV
(b)I and II
(c)II and III
(d)III and IV

199. which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure
(a)110/90 is hypertension and required immediate treatment
(b)100/55 is ideal BP
(c)105/50 can make person very active
(d)190/110 may harm vital organs like Brian and kidney
200. SELECT the correct option

(a)B -capillary layer

(b)C- Vein
(c)D- Pulmonary vein
(d)A artery thin walled