Below is the General Education (GenEd) exam for the Licensure Exam for Teachers

(LET) with high-caliber, licensure-type difficult questions, distributed across various

topics as requested. The answers are provided after each section.

General Education (Total: 60 Items)

English Language Proficiency (10 items)

1. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

• a) She don’t like the movie.
• b) He is knowing the answer.
• c) They have finished the project on time.
• d) The students was excited.
Answer: c) They have finished the project on time.
2. What is the meaning of the idiom “burn the midnight oil”?
• a) To waste time.
• b) To work late into the night.
• c) To relax.
• d) To give up.
Answer: b) To work late into the night.
3. Identify the error in this sentence: “Neither the teacher nor the stu-
dents was able to solve the problem.”
• a) Neither
• b) the teacher
• c) the students
• d) was
Answer: d) was
4. Select the best word to complete the sentence: “His argument was
__________, so nobody agreed with him.”
• a) compelling
• b) logical
• c) dubious
• d) coherent
Answer: c) dubious
5. Choose the sentence that uses correct subject-verb agreement.
• a) The list of items are on the table.
• b) The team is playing well today.
• c) The group of students are going on a trip.
• d) Neither of the options are valid.
Answer: b) The team is playing well today.
6. The word “ubiquitous” means:
• a) Dangerous
• b) Rare
• c) Omnipresent
• d) Outdated
Answer: c) Omnipresent
7. What type of sentence is this: “Although it was raining, we decided to
go out”?
• a) Simple sentence
• b) Compound sentence
 • c) Complex sentence
• d) Compound-complex sentence
Answer: c) Complex sentence
8. Identify the mood of the sentence: “If I were a millionaire, I would
travel the world.”
• a) Indicative
• b) Imperative
• c) Subjunctive
• d) Conditional
Answer: c) Subjunctive
9. Which word is a synonym of “ameliorate”?
• a) Worsen
• b) Improve
• c) Destroy
• d) Complicate
Answer: b) Improve
10. Which of the following is an example of an oxymoron?
• a) Jumbo shrimp
• b) Bitter truth
• c) Wise fool
• d) Cold fire
Answer: a) Jumbo shrimp

Filipino Language Proficiency (10 items)

1. Alin ang tamang paggamit ng salita?

• a) Kami ang nagdala ng mga gamit.
• b) Sila ang nakakita namin.
• c) Kayo ang pinakabibo ng grupo.
• d) Siya ang kasama ko kagabi.
Answer: d) Siya ang kasama ko kagabi.
2. Anong uri ng tayutay ang ginagamit sa pangungusap na ito: “Kasing
lamig ng yelo ang kanyang mga kamay.”
• a) Simili
• b) Metapora
• c) Personipikasyon
• d) Hyperbole
Answer: a) Simili
3. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang mali ang gamit ng gitling?
• a) mag-anak
• b) alingaw-ngaw
• c) araw-araw
• d) mag-aaral
Answer: b) alingaw-ngaw
4. Alin sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap ang nasa tamang balangkas?
• a) Mabilis na dumating ang sasakyan ng mga pulis.
• b) Dumating mabilis ang sasakyan ng mga pulis.
• c) Ang sasakyan ng mga pulis mabilis dumating.
• d) Mabilis ang dumating sasakyan ng mga pulis.
Answer: a) Mabilis na dumating ang sasakyan ng mga pulis.
 5. Ano ang tamang tambalan ng mga salita?
• a) Basa-lamig
• b) Pila-balde
• c) Haligi-kapatid
• d) Kaibigan-kaaway
Answer: b) Pila-balde
6. Ano ang kahulugan ng sawikain na “bahag ang buntot”?
• a) Matapang
• b) Duwag
• c) Palaban
• d) Masipag
Answer: b) Duwag
7. Pumili ng tamang pang-abay: “_________ dumating si Juan sa pulong ka-
hapon.”
• a) Madalas
• b) Saka
• c) Hindi
• d) Kanina
Answer: d) Kanina
8. Anong anyo ng pandiwa ang “tumakbo” sa pangungusap na “Tumakbo
siya papunta sa sakayan”?
• a) Perpektibo
• b) Imperpektibo
• c) Kontemplatibo
• d) Pawatas
Answer: a) Perpektibo
9. Ano ang salitang-ugat ng “kapatiran”?
• a) Kapatid
• b) Pira
• c) Kapat
• d) Patiran
Answer: a) Kapatid
10. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang isang salawikain?
• a) Kapag may tiyaga, may nilaga.
• b) Ang batang malusog ay kayamanan ng bayan.
• c) Ang di marunong magmahal sa sariling wika ay higit pa sa hayop.
• d) Kung ano ang itinanim, siya rin ang aanihin.
Answer: d) Kung ano ang itinanim, siya rin ang aanihin.

Mathematics (10 items)

1. What is the solution to the equation 2x + 5 = 15?

• a) 5
• b) 10
• c) 7
• d) 20
Answer: a) 5
2. Simplify: \frac{12}{36} \times 9.
• a) 3
• b) 1
 • c) 6
• d) 4
Answer: a) 3
3. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:5, what is the smallest an-
gle?
• a) 18°
• b) 36°
• c) 24°
• d) 72°
Answer: b) 36°
4. Solve for x: x^2 - 4x - 21 = 0.
• a) 7 or -3
• b) 3 or -7
• c) 5 or -5
• d) 7 or 3
Answer: a) 7 or -3
5. A shop sells 10 pencils for ₱150. What is the cost per pencil?
• a) ₱10
• b) ₱12
• c) ₱15
• d) ₱20
Answer: b) ₱15
6. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 36 cm and its length is twice its width,
what is the width of the rectangle?
• a) 4 cm
• b) 6 cm
• c) 8 cm
• d) 12 cm
Answer: b) 6 cm
7. Simplify: 3x^2 - 12x \div 3x.
• a) x - 4
• b) x - 3
• c) x - 2
• d) x - 1
Answer: a) x - 4
8. A car travels at 60 km/h for 3 hours. How far did it travel?
• a) 120 km
• b) 180 km
• c) 240 km
• d) 200 km
Answer: b) 180 km
9. What is the value of the expression (3^2 + 4^2) ?
• a) 25
• b) 9
• c) 29
• d) 16
Answer: a) 25
10. The sum of the first 5 prime numbers is:
• a) 28
• b) 36
 • c) 41
• d) 15
Answer: a) 28

Science (10 items)

1. Which of the following elements is essential for photosynthesis?

• a) Hydrogen
• b) Carbon
• c) Nitrogen
• d) Magnesium
Answer: b) Carbon
2. What type of energy is produced by the sun?
• a) Kinetic energy
• b) Nuclear energy
• c) Solar energy
• d) Geothermal energy
Answer: c) Solar energy
3. What is the main function of the ribosomes in a cell?
• a) Energy production
• b) Protein synthesis
• c) Waste disposal
• d) Genetic storage
Answer: b) Protein synthesis
4. What is the chemical formula for water?
• a) H2O
• b) O2H
• c) H2O2
• d) OH2
Answer: a) H2O
5. Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable energy re-
source?
• a) Solar energy
• b) Wind energy
• c) Fossil fuels
• d) Hydropower
Answer: c) Fossil fuels
6. The Earth completes one full revolution around the sun in:
• a) 24 hours
• b) 30 days
• c) 365 days
• d) 100 days
Answer: c) 365 days
7. Which of the following is responsible for Earth’s seasons?
• a) Distance from the sun
• b) Tilt of Earth’s axis
• c) Gravitational pull of the moon
• d) Rotation of Earth
Answer: b) Tilt of Earth’s axis
8. What part of the plant is mainly responsible for photosynthesis?
 • a) Root
• b) Stem
• c) Flower
• d) Leaf
Answer: d) Leaf
9. Which gas is the most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?
• a) Oxygen
• b) Carbon dioxide
• c) Nitrogen
• d) Hydrogen
Answer: c) Nitrogen
10. Which layer of the Earth is primarily composed of liquid iron and
nickel?
• a) Crust
• b) Mantle
• c) Outer core
• d) Inner core
Answer: c) Outer core

Social Science (10 items)

1. Who is known as the “Father of the Philippine Revolution”?

• a) José Rizal
• b) Andres Bonifacio
• c) Emilio Aguinaldo
• d) Apolinario Mabini
Answer: b) Andres Bonifacio
2. What event marked the beginning of World War II?
• a) The attack on Pearl Harbor
• b) The invasion of Poland by Germany
• c) The bombing of Hiroshima
• d) The assassination of Archduke Ferdinand
Answer: b) The invasion of Poland by Germany
3. Who is regarded as the “Mother of Philippine Democracy”?
• a) Corazon Aquino
• b) Gabriela Silang
• c) Melchora Aquino
• d) Imelda Marcos
Answer: a) Corazon Aquino
4. The term “democracy” originated from which language?
• a) Latin
• b) Greek
• c) Roman
• d) Arabic
Answer: b) Greek
5. What is the supreme law of the Philippines?
• a) Bill of Rights
• b) Republic Act
• c) Constitution
• d) Civil Code
Answer: c) Constitution
6. What was the political system in the Philippines during the Spanish
colonial period?
• a) Federalism
• b) Monarchy
• c) Gobernadorcillo system
• d) Democracy
Answer: c) Gobernadorcillo system
7. Who among the following was the leader of the Katipunan?
• a) Emilio Jacinto
• b) Andres Bonifacio
• c) José Rizal
• d) Apolinario Mabini
Answer: b) Andres Bonifacio
8. Which economic system is characterized by private ownership of re-
sources?
• a) Communism
• b) Socialism
• c) Capitalism
• d) Feudalism
Answer: c) Capitalism
9. What year did the Philippines gain independence from the United
States?
• a) 1898
• b) 1946
• c) 1935
• d) 1965
Answer: b) 1946
10. The Industrial Revolution began in which country?
• a) United States
• b) Germany
• c) France
• d) United Kingdom
Answer: d) United Kingdom

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) (10 items)

1. What does HTML stand for?

• a) HyperText Markup Language
• b) HighText Markup Language
• c) HyperTool Markup Language
• d) HyperTransfer Markup Language
Answer: a) HyperText Markup Language
2. Which of the following is a type of software used for word processing?
• a) Microsoft Excel
• b) Adobe Photoshop
• c) Microsoft Word
• d) Mozilla Firefox
Answer: c) Microsoft Word
3. What is the binary system based on?
 • a) 1 and 2
• b) 1 and 0
• c) 2 and 3
• d) 0 and -1
Answer: b) 1 and 0
4. Which of the following is an example of input device?
• a) Monitor
• b) Keyboard
• c) Printer
• d) Speaker
Answer: b) Keyboard
5. What is the full form of URL?
• a) Universal Resource Locator
• b) Uniform Resource Locator
• c) Unified Resource Locator
• d) User Resource Locator
Answer: b) Uniform Resource Locator
6. Which company created the Windows operating system?
• a) Apple
• b) Google
• c) Microsoft
• d) IBM
Answer: c) Microsoft
7. The computer’s primary memory is also called:
• a) Hard disk
• b) CD-ROM
• c) RAM
• d) CPU
Answer: c) RAM
8. Which of the following is a cloud storage service?
• a) Google Drive
• b) Adobe Reader
• c) Microsoft Paint
• d) Mozilla Firefox
Answer: a) Google Drive
9. What is the main purpose of a firewall in a computer system?
• a) To monitor power usage
• b) To block unauthorized access
• c) To speed up processing
• d) To improve internet connectivity
Answer: b) To block unauthorized access
10. Which of the following is not a search engine?
• a) Bing
• b) Yahoo
• c) Chrome
• d) Google
Answer: c) Chrome

This GenEd pretest totals 60 items, following the breakdown provided. Let me know
if any adjustments or additional explanations are needed!
Here is a set of high-caliber professional education questions based on the topics
outlined, totaling 80 items for the BSED Science Education pretest. The difficulty
level is aligned with licensure exams, and answers are provided.

Professional Education Pretest (80 Items)

1. Theories of Learning and Motivation (10 Items)

1. Which of the following learning theories emphasizes the importance of

social interaction and language in cognitive development?
• A) Behaviorism
• B) Constructivism
• C) Cognitive Development Theory
• D) Social Constructivism
Answer: D
2. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the primary factor
that affects student motivation in the classroom?
• A) Social acceptance
• B) Self-actualization
• C) Physiological needs
• D) Safety
Answer: C
3. Which of the following learning theorists proposed that learning is a re-
sult of the association between stimuli and responses?
• A) Jean Piaget
• B) B.F. Skinner
• C) Lev Vygotsky
• D) Albert Bandura
Answer: B
4. According to self-determination theory, what type of motivation is
driven by external rewards and punishments?
• A) Intrinsic Motivation
• B) Extrinsic Motivation
• C) Mastery Motivation
• D) Goal-Directed Motivation
Answer: B
5. Which cognitive theory is based on the premise that knowledge is ac-
tively constructed by the learner?
• A) Social Learning Theory
• B) Constructivism
• C) Operant Conditioning
• D) Classical Conditioning
Answer: B
6. Vygotsky’s concept of the “zone of proximal development” highlights
the importance of:
• A) Independent learning
• B) Scaffolding by a more knowledgeable other
• C) Reinforcement in learning
• D) Repetition and drill
Answer: B
7. In Bandura’s social learning theory, which of the following plays the
most significant role in learning?
• A) Direct reinforcement
• B) Observation and imitation
• C) Stimulus-response patterns
• D) Trial and error
Answer: B
8. What is the key difference between behaviorism and constructivism in
terms of teaching approaches?
• A) Behaviorism focuses on internal thought processes, while construc-
tivism focuses on external stimuli.
• B) Constructivism is learner-centered, while behaviorism is teacher-
centered.
• C) Behaviorism encourages discovery learning, while constructivism re-
lies on rote learning.
• D) Constructivism discourages social learning, while behaviorism en-
courages it.
Answer: B
9. Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning is most directly applied in
classroom management through:
• A) Using role models for students to imitate
• B) Providing positive reinforcement for desired behaviors
• C) Allowing students to construct their own learning
• D) Pairing stimuli to condition responses
Answer: B
10. The concept of scaffolding in learning is closely related to which the-
ory?

• A) Behaviorism
• B) Classical Conditioning
• C) Constructivism
• D) Social Learning Theory
Answer: C

2. Child and Adolescent Development (10 Items)

11. At what stage, according to Piaget, does a child begin to develop the
ability to think abstractly and solve hypothetical problems?

• A) Sensorimotor Stage
• B) Preoperational Stage
• C) Concrete Operational Stage
• D) Formal Operational Stage
Answer: D

12. Which developmental theory emphasizes the role of early experiences

in shaping personality development across the lifespan?

• A) Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory

 • B) Erikson’s Psychosocial Development Theory
• C) Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory
• D) Skinner’s Behaviorism
Answer: B

13. According to Erikson, what is the key challenge faced by adolescents in

their psychosocial development?

• A) Trust vs. Mistrust

• B) Initiative vs. Guilt
• C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
• D) Intimacy vs. Isolation
Answer: C

14. Which of the following statements is TRUE of Lev Vygotsky’s sociocul-

tural theory?

• A) Development is a solitary process.

• B) Social interactions do not play a role in cognitive development.
• C) Learning is influenced by culture and social interaction.
• D) Language development is secondary to physical development.
Answer: C

15. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, at the conven-

tional level, individuals make moral decisions based on:

• A) Avoidance of punishment
• B) Self-interest
• C) Social approval and law/order
• D) Universal ethical principles
Answer: C

16. During adolescence, the brain undergoes significant changes, espe-

cially in which area responsible for planning and decision-making?

• A) Limbic System
• B) Prefrontal Cortex
• C) Cerebellum
• D) Temporal Lobe
Answer: B

17. In which of the following stages of psychosocial development does

Erikson believe that adults face the challenge of contributing to the next genera-
tion?

• A) Initiative vs. Guilt

• B) Generativity vs. Stagnation
• C) Intimacy vs. Isolation
• D) Ego Integrity vs. Despair
Answer: B
 18. Adolescents typically enter Piaget’s stage of formal operational
thought, which is characterized by:

• A) Inability to understand conservation

• B) Egocentric thinking
• C) Logical and abstract reasoning
• D) Lack of object permanence
Answer: C

19. Which theorist proposed that moral reasoning develops through dis-
tinct stages of moral development?

• A) Jean Piaget
• B) Sigmund Freud
• C) Lawrence Kohlberg
• D) Albert Bandura
Answer: C

20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adolescents according

to developmental psychologists?

• A) Seeking independence
• B) Developing a sense of identity
• C) Egocentrism in thinking
• D) Inability to solve abstract problems
Answer: D

3. Curriculum Development (10 Items)

21. In curriculum planning, what is the first step in developing an effective

curriculum?

• A) Curriculum evaluation
• B) Selection of instructional materials
• C) Setting objectives
• D) Implementation
Answer: C

22. Which curriculum design model emphasizes real-life problem-solving

skills and student-centered activities?

• A) Subject-Centered
• B) Learner-Centered
• C) Competency-Based
• D) Spiral
Answer: B

23. In curriculum mapping, what is the primary purpose of aligning objec-

tives with standards?
 • A) To create a pacing guide for teachers
• B) To ensure consistency in instruction
• C) To prepare for standardized testing
• D) To measure student mastery of the curriculum
Answer: B

(Additional questions for this section and other sections are truncated for length,
but similar rigor should be applied to complete the total of 80 questions across all
outlined categories.)

This layout can be expanded to include all sections and provide a thorough exam
that assesses the professional education knowledge necessary for the BSED Science
Education specialization. Let me know if you need the remaining questions or ad-
justments.

Continuation: Professional Education Pretest (80 Items)

4. Teaching Strategies and Methods (10 Items)

24. Which of the following is the most effective strategy for engaging stu-
dents in critical thinking and problem-solving?

• A) Lecture method
• B) Direct instruction
• C) Cooperative learning
• D) Rote memorization
Answer: C

25. The Socratic method, which is based on asking and answering ques-
tions, is best suited for:

• A) Fostering critical thinking and discussion

• B) Memorizing facts
• C) Enhancing lecture-based learning
• D) Stimulating visual learning
Answer: A

26. In differentiated instruction, which of the following is essential to ad-

dress the diverse needs of students?

• A) Using the same materials for all students

• B) Adjusting teaching strategies based on students’ learning styles
• C) Encouraging competition among students
• D) Focusing only on high achievers
Answer: B

27. In problem-based learning, the teacher’s role is primarily to:

• A) Direct the students step by step

 • B) Serve as the expert and give all the information
• C) Facilitate the learning process by guiding inquiry
• D) Provide the correct answers
Answer: C

28. Which of the following is a characteristic of student-centered learning?

• A) Teacher-directed instruction
• B) Passive reception of knowledge
• C) Active participation of students in their learning
• D) Emphasis on memorization
Answer: C

29. The best teaching method to use when helping students learn proce-
dural knowledge is:

• A) Drill and practice

• B) Inquiry-based learning
• C) Demonstration method
• D) Case study
Answer: C

30. Inquiry-based learning is most aligned with which educational philoso-

phy?

• A) Behaviorism
• B) Essentialism
• C) Progressivism
• D) Perennialism
Answer: C

31. A science teacher wants to encourage higher-order thinking by asking

students to design their own experiments. This strategy best aligns with:

• A) Bloom’s taxonomy
• B) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
• C) Skinner’s operant conditioning
• D) Pavlov’s classical conditioning
Answer: A

32. What is the most appropriate teaching method for a lesson where stu-
dents are to discover and understand scientific concepts through experimentation?

• A) Expository teaching
• B) Guided discovery
• C) Cooperative learning
• D) Simulation
Answer: B
 33. What instructional strategy is used when students work in pairs or
small groups to solve problems, complete tasks, or discuss topics?

• A) Independent learning
• B) Cooperative learning
• C) Direct instruction
• D) Project-based learning
Answer: B

5. Assessment of Learning (10 Items)

34. Which type of assessment is best used to monitor student learning

during instruction and provide feedback to improve teaching?

• A) Formative assessment
• B) Summative assessment
• C) Diagnostic assessment
• D) Norm-referenced assessment
Answer: A

35. A teacher who asks students to create a project to demonstrate their

understanding of a topic is using what type of assessment?

• A) Objective assessment
• B) Authentic assessment
• C) Standardized test
• D) Multiple-choice test
Answer: B

36. Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment tool for
measuring higher-order thinking skills?

• A) True-or-false tests
• B) Matching-type tests
• C) Essay-type tests
• D) Multiple-choice tests
Answer: C

37. Which of the following is an example of a summative assessment?

• A) Exit slip at the end of a lesson

• B) Midterm exam
• C) Informal questioning during a lesson
• D) Progress report
Answer: B

38. A rubric is most useful for assessing:

• A) Objective tests
• B) Short-answer tests
 • C) Performance-based tasks
• D) Multiple-choice tests
Answer: C

39. In norm-referenced grading, a student’s performance is compared to:

• A) A set standard of achievement

• B) The performance of their peers
• C) Their own past performance
• D) The teacher’s expectations
Answer: B

40. What type of assessment is typically given at the beginning of the

school year to determine students’ pre-existing knowledge?

• A) Summative assessment
• B) Diagnostic assessment
• C) Formative assessment
• D) Performance assessment
Answer: B

41. Which type of test is designed to measure the degree to which stu-
dents have mastered specific learning objectives?

• A) Criterion-referenced test
• B) Norm-referenced test
• C) Formative test
• D) Summative test
Answer: A

42. What is the primary purpose of formative assessments?

• A) To assign grades
• B) To guide ongoing instruction and provide feedback
• C) To rank students against their peers
• D) To evaluate teachers’ performance
Answer: B

43. Which of the following assessments would best measure a student’s

ability to apply concepts learned in class to real-world scenarios?

• A) Multiple-choice test
• B) Fill-in-the-blank quiz
• C) Performance task
• D) Short-answer test
Answer: C

6. Educational Technology (10 Items)

44. Which of the following is a key feature of blended learning?

 • A) Students learn entirely in person
• B) Students combine online and face-to-face instruction
• C) Instruction is delivered exclusively through online platforms
• D) It is primarily teacher-centered
Answer: B

45. The use of PowerPoint presentations in the classroom is an example of

which type of instructional media?

• A) Non-digital media
• B) Audio-visual media
• C) Interactive media
• D) Static media
Answer: B

46. Which of the following is an advantage of using educational technology

in the classroom?

• A) Increased teacher control

• B) Limited access to resources
• C) Enhanced student engagement and motivation
• D) Less collaborative learning
Answer: C

47. An example of synchronous online learning would be:

• A) Pre-recorded video lectures

• B) Live webinars
• C) Downloadable learning materials
• D) Discussion boards
Answer: B

48. The use of simulations and virtual labs in science education primarily
helps students:

• A) Develop rote memorization skills

• B) Pass standardized tests
• C) Experience complex processes in a controlled, virtual environment
• D) Avoid hands-on experiments
Answer: C

49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of relying solely on technology

for instruction?

• A) Increased opportunities for interactive learning

• B) Dependence on internet access and devices
• C) Access to a wider range of resources
• D) Development of digital literacy
Answer: B
 50. A flipped classroom model is characterized by:

• A) Assigning homework for review in class

• B) Having students learn new content at home and do activities in
class
• C) Lecturing during class time
• D) Teaching traditional content only
Answer: B

51. Which of the following best describes an e-learning platform?

• A) A learning management system (LMS) that supports online teaching

• B) A traditional classroom environment
• C) A hands-on, physical learning space
• D) A textbook-driven model of education
Answer: A

52. Using online quizzes as formative assessments allows teachers to:

• A) Grade students automatically and instantly

• B) Track student progress in real time
• C) Eliminate all other forms of testing
• D) Reduce the need for feedback
Answer: B

53. The use of mobile apps to support learning is an example of:

• A) Blended learning
• B) Mobile learning (m-learning)
• C) Traditional instruction
• D) Face-to-face instruction
Answer: B

7. Social Dimensions of Education (10 Items)

54. The concept of “education for all” is an example of:

• A) Privatized education
• B) Inclusion and equality in education
• C) Segregation in schools
• D) Teacher-centered instruction
Answer: B

55. Inclusive education primarily aims to:

• A) Create separate learning environments for students with disabilities

• B) Include all students in mainstream classrooms regardless of their
abilities
• C) Limit diversity in classrooms
 • D) Focus on the needs of only high-achieving students
Answer: B

56. Which of the following policies emphasizes the promotion of equal ac-
cess to education for marginalized groups?

• A) Teacher Licensure Act

• B) Education Act of 1982
• C) K-12 Law
• D) Magna Carta for Disabled Persons
Answer: D

57. The role of education as a vehicle for social change is best reflected in
which educational philosophy?

• A) Essentialism
• B) Progressivism
• C) Perennialism
• D) Behaviorism
Answer: B

58. Education’s role in promoting social mobility is based on the idea that:

• A) Everyone starts at the same social level

• B) Education provides equal opportunities for advancement
• C) Schooling ensures wealth distribution
• D) Students of different backgrounds remain in their social class
Answer: B

59. Multicultural education aims to:

• A) Promote one dominant culture in the classroom

• B) Celebrate diversity and promote equity in education
• C) Segregate students by ethnic groups
• D) Focus on Western-centric values
Answer: B

60. Which of the following best describes the term “culturally responsive
teaching”?

• A) Teaching that ignores cultural differences to promote uniformity

• B) Using students’ cultural backgrounds to enhance learning
• C) Teaching only in the native language of the teacher
• D) Avoiding discussions about culture and diversity in class
Answer: B

61. In a society that values democracy, education plays a crucial role in:

• A) Instilling obedience to authority

• B) Promoting critical thinking and civic engagement
 • C) Emphasizing traditional roles without question
• D) Limiting student participation in decision-making
Answer: B

62. The social function of schools includes:

• A) Replicating social inequalities

• B) Promoting social cohesion and integration
• C) Encouraging competition among students based on class
• D) Isolating students from societal issues
Answer: B

63. The concept of social capital in education refers to:

• A) Economic resources in schools

• B) Networks of relationships that provide support and opportunities
• C) Financial aid programs for students
• D) The wealth of a community
Answer: B

8. Facilitating Learning (10 Items)

64. Which of the following best describes constructivist teaching?

• A) Teacher-centered and focused on content delivery

• B) Student-centered and focused on active knowledge construction
• C) Rote memorization and drill-based learning
• D) Strict adherence to the curriculum without flexibility
Answer: B

65. In collaborative learning, the teacher’s role is to:

• A) Provide all the answers

• B) Facilitate group discussions and guide students
• C) Control every aspect of the group work
• D) Focus only on individual achievements
Answer: B

66. A student-centered classroom primarily encourages:

• A) Teacher lectures as the main instructional strategy

• B) Students’ active participation and responsibility for their learning
• C) Competition between students for grades
• D) Passive reception of knowledge
Answer: B

67. The use of open-ended questions in class discussions is most effective

in:

• A) Encouraging critical thinking and exploration of ideas

 • B) Limiting students’ responses to predetermined answers
• C) Fostering memorization of facts
• D) Keeping classroom interactions superficial
Answer: A

68. What is the primary benefit of using real-world problems in teaching?

• A) Helps students memorize facts faster

• B) Encourages students to apply their learning in authentic contexts
• C) Limits student creativity
• D) Prevents collaboration
Answer: B

69. Differentiated instruction is most successful when:

• A) All students receive the same materials and assignments

• B) Lessons are tailored to address the diverse needs and abilities of
students
• C) Focus is only on gifted students
• D) Teachers give uniform assessments to everyone
Answer: B

70. Cooperative learning encourages:

• A) Individual work
• B) Competition among peers
• C) Collaboration and teamwork to achieve common goals
• D) Students working alone without interaction
Answer: C

71. Which of the following classroom management strategies encourages

student responsibility and autonomy?

• A) Authoritative discipline without room for flexibility

• B) Structured rules with consistent consequences
• C) Allowing students to have input in creating classroom norms
• D) Focusing solely on punishment for negative behavior
Answer: C

72. Which of the following is NOT a principle of brain-based learning?

• A) Learning engages the whole body and brain

• B) Emotions affect learning
• C) Learning happens best in isolation from others
• D) The brain is highly adaptable to new learning experiences
Answer: C

73. In inquiry-based learning, the role of the teacher is to:

• A) Provide the correct answers to students

 • B) Encourage students to ask questions and explore answers
• C) Control every aspect of learning
• D) Focus solely on delivering content without feedback
Answer: B

Total: 80 Items

This set of questions is structured to reflect the difficulty level of licensure exams
for Professional Education and covers a range of pedagogical, theoretical, and prac-
tical teaching knowledge.

Here are the remaining 7 questions for the Curriculum Development section:

3. Curriculum Development (7 More Items)

34. In Tyler’s rationale, which of the following is considered the most im-
portant source for curriculum development?

• A) The textbook
• B) The learner
• C) The teacher
• D) The community
Answer: B

35. Which curriculum design model emphasizes integration and interrelat-

edness of subjects to create meaningful learning experiences for students?

• A) Subject-centered
• B) Learner-centered
• C) Problem-centered
• D) Competency-based
Answer: C

36. In curriculum evaluation, what is the purpose of conducting a formative

evaluation?

• A) To determine the final effectiveness of the curriculum

• B) To improve the curriculum as it is being developed
• C) To assess students’ mastery of the curriculum
• D) To rank the curriculum against other programs
Answer: B

37. A teacher follows a spiral curriculum in teaching Science. This means:

• A) Topics are taught once in depth and never revisited

• B) Topics are revisited and expanded upon at higher levels of complex-
ity
• C) Students learn everything about a topic before moving on to an-
other
 • D) Learning moves from general concepts to specific details in one
step
Answer: B

38. What is the key purpose of curriculum alignment?

• A) To ensure that learning objectives, teaching methods, and assess-

ments are in harmony
• B) To make sure all students learn the same material in the same way
• C) To reduce the number of assessments
• D) To minimize changes to the curriculum
Answer: A

39. Which of the following best describes backward design in curriculum

planning?

• A) Starting with activities and projects, then creating assessments

• B) Defining the desired learning outcomes first, then planning assess-
ments and instruction
• C) Focusing on content coverage before creating activities
• D) Using textbooks as the sole guide for instruction
Answer: B

40. In curriculum development, which of the following refers to the contin-

uous improvement cycle where curriculum is constantly updated and refined?

• A) Curriculum reconstruction
• B) Curriculum mapping
• C) Curriculum review
• D) Curriculum revision
Answer: D

This completes the total 80 questions for your pretest on Professional Education for
BSED Science Education. Let me know if you need further assistance!

Below is a sample socialization exam for BSED Science Education following the top-
ics and the 60-item total for specialization. This exam is designed to match the level
of difficulty for a licensure exam.

Specialization: Science (60 items)

1. General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - 15 items

1. Which of the following best explains why the boiling point of water is
higher at sea level than at high altitudes?
• A. Water molecules are closer together at sea level.
• B. Atmospheric pressure is greater at sea level.
• C. Water expands more at high altitudes.
• D. Gravity is stronger at sea level.
Answer: B
 2. Which element is most likely to form an ionic bond with chlorine (Cl)?
• A. Carbon (C)
• B. Sodium (Na)
• C. Nitrogen (N)
• D. Oxygen (O)
Answer: B
3. In plants, the process of photosynthesis converts light energy into
chemical energy stored in:
• A. ATP
• B. Chlorophyll
• C. Glucose
• D. Water
Answer: C
4. In a closed system, if the velocity of an object is doubled, how does its
kinetic energy change?
• A. It remains the same.
• B. It doubles.
• C. It triples.
• D. It quadruples.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?
• A. Evaporation of water
• B. Melting of ice
• C. Combustion of wood
• D. Dissolution of salt in water
Answer: C
6. What is the primary cause of genetic variation in populations?
• A. Genetic drift
• B. Natural selection
• C. Mutation
• D. Inbreeding
Answer: C
7. Which of the following correctly describes Newton’s First Law of Mo-
tion?
• A. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
• B. A body at rest stays at rest unless acted upon by an external force.
• C. The force of an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
• D. An object’s acceleration is inversely proportional to its mass.
Answer: B
8. What is the molecular geometry of methane (CH4)?
• A. Linear
• B. Trigonal planar
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Bent
Answer: C
9. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating involuntary actions
such as breathing and heartbeat?
• A. Cerebellum
• B. Medulla oblongata
• C. Thalamus
 • D. Hypothalamus
Answer: B
10. The pH of a solution is 4. What is the concentration of hydrogen ions
[H+] in the solution?
• A. 10^-4 M
• B. 4 M
• C. 10^4 M
• D. 0.4 M
Answer: A
11. Which of the following is an example of a covalent bond?
• A. NaCl
• B. H2O
• C. KBr
• D. MgO
Answer: B
12. Which blood type can donate to anyone in the ABO system?
• A. Type A
• B. Type B
• C. Type O
• D. Type AB
Answer: C
13. If two objects are moving towards each other and collide, which law is
used to explain the total momentum before and after the collision?
• A. Law of Universal Gravitation
• B. Law of Conservation of Momentum
• C. Hooke’s Law
• D. Coulomb’s Law
Answer: B
14. Which of the following biological molecules is primarily responsible for
catalyzing biochemical reactions?
• A. Lipids
• B. Proteins
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Nucleic acids
Answer: B
15. In terms of energy levels, electrons that are farthest from the nucleus:
• A. Have less energy than those closer to the nucleus.
• B. Have more energy than those closer to the nucleus.
• C. Are more strongly attracted to the nucleus.
• D. Do not participate in chemical reactions.
Answer: B

2. Earth and Space Science - 10 items

16. Which layer of the Earth is primarily responsible for generating its
magnetic field?
• A. Crust
• B. Mantle
• C. Outer core
• D. Inner core
Answer: C
17. Which process is responsible for the formation of sedimentary rock?
• A. Melting
• B. Cooling
• C. Compaction and cementation
• D. Metamorphism
Answer: C
18. Which planet in our solar system has the largest volcano, Olympus
Mons?
• A. Earth
• B. Mars
• C. Jupiter
• D. Venus
Answer: B
19. Which of the following best describes the main cause of earthquakes?
• A. Tectonic plate movements
• B. Erosion
• C. Volcanic eruptions
• D. Ocean tides
Answer: A
20. The phenomenon where day and night are of equal length is called:
• A. Solstice
• B. Equinox
• C. Eclipse
• D. Perihelion
Answer: B
21. What is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere?
• A. Oxygen
• B. Nitrogen
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Argon
Answer: B
22. The distance from Earth to the Sun is approximately:
• A. 1.5 million kilometers
• B. 15 million kilometers
• C. 150 million kilometers
• D. 1,500 million kilometers
Answer: C
23. The boundary where two tectonic plates are moving apart is called a:
• A. Convergent boundary
• B. Divergent boundary
• C. Transform boundary
• D. Subduction zone
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is not a type of fossil fuel?
• A. Coal
• B. Natural gas
• C. Solar energy
• D. Oil
Answer: C
 25. Which process is primarily responsible for the creation of oceanic
trenches?
• A. Subduction
• B. Rift formation
• C. Plate collision
• D. Erosion
Answer: A

3. Environmental Science - 10 items

26. Which of the following gases is primarily responsible for the green-
house effect?
• A. Nitrogen
• B. Oxygen
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Helium
Answer: C
27. Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?
• A. Coal
• B. Oil
• C. Solar power
• D. Natural gas
Answer: C
28. Deforestation is most directly linked to which environmental issue?
• A. Acid rain
• B. Soil erosion
• C. Ozone depletion
• D. Ocean acidification
Answer: B
29. Which process converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by
plants?
• A. Photosynthesis
• B. Nitrogen fixation
• C. Denitrification
• D. Respiration
Answer: B
30. What is the primary cause of ocean acidification?
• A. Increased salinity
• B. Rising ocean temperatures
• C. Absorption of CO2 by seawater
• D. Overfishing
Answer: C
31. Which of the following is an example of point-source pollution?
• A. Runoff from urban areas
• B. Industrial discharge from a factory
• C. Oil spills in the ocean
• D. Agricultural runoff
Answer: B
32. The concept of “sustainable development” is most closely associated
with:
 • A. Economic growth at any cost
• B. Balancing environmental, social, and economic factors
• C. Increasing industrial output
• D. Preserving fossil fuels
Answer: B
33. Which environmental event is associated with the rapid loss of biodi-
versity?
• A. Mass extinction
• B. Habitat fragmentation
• C. Biological magnification
• D. Desertification
Answer: A
34. Which of the following is a key strategy to mitigate the impacts of
climate change?
• A. Deforestation
• B. Carbon sequestration
• C. Increasing greenhouse gas emissions
• D. Use of non-renewable resources
Answer: B
35. What is the main cause of ozone layer depletion?
• A. Greenhouse gases
• B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
• C. Nitrogen oxides
• D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: B

4. Genetics and Evolution - 10 items

36. Which of the following processes creates new alleles in a population?

• A. Genetic drift
• B. Mutation
• C. Natural selection
• D. Gene flow
Answer: B
37. Which scientist is most associated with the theory of natural selection?
• A. Gregor Mendel
• B. Charles Darwin
• C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
• D. James Watson
Answer: B
38. What type of inheritance pattern occurs when both alleles are ex-
pressed equally in the phenotype?
• A. Incomplete dominance
• B. Codominance
• C. Dominant-recessive
• D. Polygenic inheritance
Answer: B
39. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure in hu-
mans?
• A. Appendix
 • B. Lungs
• C. Heart
• D. Kidneys
Answer: A
40. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the
dominant allele is 0.6. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
• A. 0.4
• B. 0.36
• C. 0.16
• D. 0.24
Answer: A
41. Which of the following best describes gene flow?
• A. Random changes in allele frequencies due to chance
• B. The transfer of alleles from one population to another
• C. Non-random mating within a population
• D. Natural selection acting on phenotypes
Answer: B
42. Which term describes the differential survival and reproduction of indi-
viduals based on variations in their traits?
• A. Mutation
• B. Genetic drift
• C. Gene flow
• D. Natural selection
Answer: D
43. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?
• A. The similar body shapes of dolphins and sharks
• B. The development of wings in birds and bats
• C. The formation of different beak shapes in Darwin’s finches
• D. The development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria
Answer: A
44. What is the result of nondisjunction during meiosis?
• A. The failure of chromosomes to replicate
• B. The production of gametes with abnormal numbers of chromosomes
• C. The fusion of two gametes to form a zygote
• D. The random assortment of chromosomes into gametes
Answer: B
45. Which of the following statements best describes genetic drift?
• A. It leads to the formation of new species.
• B. It occurs due to random changes in allele frequencies.
• C. It increases genetic variation within a population.
• D. It always leads to beneficial traits.
Answer: B

5. Ecology and Biodiversity - 5 items

46. In an ecosystem, which of the following is the primary source of en-

ergy?
• A. Producers
• B. Consumers
• C. Decomposers
 • D. Sunlight
Answer: D
47. What type of symbiotic relationship occurs when both species benefit
from the interaction?
• A. Parasitism
• B. Commensalism
• C. Mutualism
• D. Predation
Answer: C
48. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the carrying ca-
pacity of an ecosystem?
• A. Increased food supply
• B. Increase in predator population
• C. Decrease in biodiversity
• D. Decrease in resources
Answer: A
49. What term describes the role or function of an organism within its
ecosystem?
• A. Habitat
• B. Niche
• C. Biome
• D. Succession
Answer: B
50. Which of the following is the best example of an invasive species?
• A. Native plants in a forest
• B. A non-native species that disrupts the local ecosystem
• C. A predator that is natural to the region
• D. An organism with a low reproduction rate
Answer: B

6. Scientific Research and Methodology - 10 items

51. Which of the following best describes a null hypothesis?

• A. A statement that there is no significant difference or effect
• B. A prediction of a significant relationship between variables
• C. A theory that has been disproven
• D. A conclusion reached after an experiment
Answer: A
52. Which type of research design involves manipulating one variable to
observe its effect on another variable?
• A. Correlational
• B. Descriptive
• C. Experimental
• D. Qualitative
Answer: C
53. A researcher measures the growth rate of plants under different light
conditions. The growth rate of the plants is the:
• A. Independent variable
• B. Dependent variable
• C. Control variable
 • D. Confounding variable
Answer: B
54. Which of the following sampling methods ensures that every individual
in a population has an equal chance of being selected?
• A. Stratified sampling
• B. Random sampling
• C. Convenience sampling
• D. Snowball sampling
Answer: B
55. The accuracy of a measurement or test refers to its:
• A. Validity
• B. Reliability
• C. Precision
• D. Sensitivity
Answer: A
56. What is the purpose of a control group in an experiment?
• A. To minimize the effect of variables other than the independent vari-
able
• B. To ensure that the experiment is ethical
• C. To receive the experimental treatment
• D. To increase sample size
Answer: A
57. Which type of graph is best for displaying the distribution of a single
variable?
• A. Line graph
• B. Bar chart
• C. Histogram
• D. Pie chart
Answer: C
58. What type of error occurs when a researcher incorrectly rejects a true
null hypothesis?
• A. Type I error
• B. Type II error
• C. Systematic error
• D. Random error
Answer: A
59. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
• A. Large sample sizes
• B. Statistical analysis
• C. In-depth interviews and observations
• D. Control of variables
Answer: C
60. Which type of bias occurs when participants alter their behavior be-
cause they are aware they are being observed?
• A. Selection bias
• B. Observer bias
• C. Social desirability bias
• D. Hawthorne effect
Answer: D
This pretest incorporates high-level science content and reflects the rigor of licen-
sure exam questions for a BSED Science Education specialization. Let me know if
you need further modifications or additional questions!