English (Language Proficiency) - 10 Questions

1. Which of the following sentences demonstrates the correct use of subject-verb

agreement?

Neither the students nor the teacher are ready for the test.

Either the students or the teacher is responsible for the results.

Both the students and the teacher is late.

Neither the students nor the teacher have completed the assignment.

o Answer: B
2. What is the meaning of the idiomatic expression 'to hit the nail on the head'?

To hurt someone

To say exactly the right thing

To complete a difficult task

To perform poorly

o Answer: B
3. In which sentence is the use of an article incorrect?

She is a university professor.

I bought an umbrella.

He is an honest person.

I met a unique artist at the gallery.

o Answer: D
4. Identify the passive voice in the following sentences: "The teacher graded the tests
quickly."

The tests were graded quickly by the teacher.

Quickly the teacher graded the tests.

The tests were quickly graded by the teacher.

Both A and C are correct.

 o Answer: D
5. What type of clause is underlined in the following sentence? "We will go to the park
when the rain stops."

Adverbial clause

Noun clause

Adjective clause

Independent clause

o Answer: A
6. Choose the sentence with the correct pronoun use:

Everyone brought their books to class.

Neither of the boys brought their notebook.

Each student must bring their homework.

Someone left his or her phone on the table.

o Answer: D
7. Which of the following is an example of a complex sentence?

I studied all night, so I am very tired today.

Although I was tired, I finished my assignment on time.

She studied for the exam, and she passed with flying colors.

I will go to the store and then return home.

o Answer: B
8. Which of the following word pairs contains a synonym?

Happy and Sad

Begin and End

Start and Commence

Big and Small

o Answer: C
 9. Which sentence is correctly punctuated?

The movie was great, however the book was better.

She bought apples, oranges, and bananas for the trip.

He said “I will be there soon.”

Its important to know the rules of the game.

o Answer: B
10. Which of the following is an example of an oxymoron?

Deafening silence

Bitter taste

Warm breeze

Peaceful night

 Answer: A

Filipino (Wika at Kultura) - 10 Questions

1. Alin ang tamang gamit ng pangatnig sa pangungusap na ito? "Pumunta ako sa

tindahan _ upang bumili ng tinapay."

dahil

kasi

upang

habang

o Answer: C
2. Ano ang kahulugan ng salitang "balintataw"?

Likod

Isip

Mata
 Puso

o Answer: C
3. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang pinakatamang kahulugan ng "matayog na pangarap"?

Mababa ang pangarap

Mahirap abutin ang pangarap

. Mataas na pangarap

Simpleng pangarap

o Answer: C
4. Ano ang wastong gamit ng "ng" sa pangungusap na ito? "Bumili ako _ gulay sa
palengke."

ng

nang

sa

kay

o Answer: A
5. Ano ang ibig sabihin ng salitang "agham"?

Sining

Kultura

Siyensya

Teknolohiya

o Answer: C
6. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang kasingkahulugan ng "masalimuot"?

Madali

Magulo

Mabilis

Matatag
 o Answer: B
7. Ano ang tamang anyo ng pandiwa sa pangungusap na ito? "Siya ay _ sa darating na
pista."

sasayaw

sumasayaw

sumayaw

nagsasayaw

o Answer: A
8. Ano ang tamang baybay ng salitang nangangahulugang pag-aaral tungkol sa mga
bagay?

Siyensiya

Agham

Syensya

Siyensya

o Answer: B
9. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang pormal na paraan ng pagpapahayag?

Pre, kumusta ka na?

Malugod ko pong ipinakikilala...

Tara, kain tayo!

Ang saya dito, di ba?

o Answer: B
10. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang halimbawa ng salawikain?

Ang batang makulit, napapalo sa puwit.

Laging nasa huli ang pagsisisi.

Kapag ang puno'y namunga, yumuyuko ito.

Huwag magbilang ng sisiw hangga't hindi pa napipisa ang itlog.

  Answer: D

Mathematics (General Mathematics) - 10 Questions

1. What is the value of 144+246\sqrt{144} + \frac{24}{6}144+624?

12

16

20

18

o Answer: D
2. Solve for xxx in the equation: 2x+5=172x + 5 = 172x+5=17.

o Answer: A
3. If a triangle has angles of 45°, 45°, and 90°, what type of triangle is it?

Equilateral

Isosceles

Scalene

Right Isosceles

o Answer: D
4. Find the slope of a line passing through the points (2, 3) and (5, 7).

43\frac{4}{3}34
 34\frac{3}{4}43

o Answer: D
5. What is the value of 4!4!4! (factorial of 4)?

24

16

32

48

o Answer: A
6. Simplify: 3(x+2)−4x3(x + 2) - 4x3(x+2)−4x.

3x+23x + 23x+2

−x+6-x + 6−x+6

x+6x + 6x+6

−x+4-x + 4−x+4

o Answer: B
7. Find the distance between the points (1, 2) and (4, 6).

o Answer: A
8. What is the product of 2x22x^22x2 and 3x33x^33x3?

5x55x^55x5

6x56x^56x5

6x66x^66x6

5x65x^65x6
 o Answer: B
9. If y=3x−2y = 3x - 2y=3x−2, find yyy when x=4x = 4x=4.

10

12

14

o Answer: B
10. Evaluate (52−32)÷4(5^2 - 3^2) \div 4(52−32)÷4.

 Answer: C

Science (Basic Concepts in Science) - 10 Questions

1. What is the chemical symbol for gold?

Ag

Au

Al

Gd

o Answer: B
2. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

Coal

Natural Gas

Solar Power
 Petroleum

o Answer: C
3. Which planet is known as the 'Red Planet'?

Venus

Mars

Jupiter

Saturn

o Answer: B
4. What is the formula for calculating speed?

Distance ÷\div÷ Time

Mass ÷\div÷ Volume

Force ÷\div÷ Acceleration

Work ÷\div÷ Energy

o Answer: A
5. Which organ in the human body is responsible for pumping blood?

Lungs

Liver

Brain

Heart

o Answer: D
6. What is the boiling point of water in Celsius?

0°C

50°C

100°C

200°C
 o Answer: C
7. Which of the following is a base according to the pH scale?

Lemon juice

Vinegar

Baking soda

Water

o Answer: C
8. What type of organism decomposes dead matter?

Producer

Consumer

Decomposer

Scavenger

o Answer: C
9. Which of the following molecules is responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood?

Hemoglobin

Insulin

Glucose

ATP

o Answer: A
10. Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

Proton

Neutron

Electron

Photon

 Answer: C
Social Studies (Philippine History, Constitution) - 10 Questions

1. Who was the first Filipino to circumnavigate the globe?

Antonio Pigafetta

Juan Luna

Ferdinand Magellan

Enrique of Malacca

o Answer: D
2. In what year was the Philippine Commonwealth inaugurated?

1935

1946

1937

1898

o Answer: A
3. Which Philippine president declared Martial Law in 1972?

Carlos P. Garcia

Manuel L. Quezon

Ferdinand Marcos

Ramon Magsaysay

o Answer: C
4. Which article of the 1987 Philippine Constitution guarantees the right to education?

Article XIV

Article III

Article XII

Article II
 o Answer: A
5. The Treaty of Paris in 1898 ceded the Philippines to which country?

Spain

Japan

United States

Great Britain

o Answer: C
6. What is the significance of the 'Cry of Pugad Lawin' in Philippine history?

It marked the start of the Philippine-American War.

It signaled the beginning of the Philippine Revolution against Spain.

It commemorates the victory over Japanese forces.

It initiated the Commonwealth government.

o Answer: B
7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Philippine Supreme Court as stated
in the 1987 Constitution?

Rule on the constitutionality of laws

Issue writs of amparo and habeas corpus

Review final decisions of lower courts

Create laws related to the judiciary

o Answer: D
8. What is the primary role of the Senate in the legislative process in the Philippines?

Enacting local ordinances

Ratifying international treaties

Implementing national laws

Vetoing bills passed by Congress

o Answer: B
 9. Who is considered the Father of the Philippine Constitution?

Jose P. Laurel

Apolinario Mabini

Claro M. Recto

Manuel L. Quezon

o Answer: D
10. What is the maximum period that a President of the Philippines can declare Martial
Law without the approval of Congress, according to the 1987 Constitution?

30 days

60 days

90 days

120 days

 Answer: B

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) - 10 Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of computer network?

LAN (Local Area Network)

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

FAN (Field Area Network)

WAN (Wide Area Network)

o Answer: C
2. What is the primary function of a router in a network?

To translate digital signals into analog signals

To store data for future access

To connect multiple networks and direct data traffic

 To secure data with encryption

o Answer: C
3. Which protocol is commonly used to transfer hypertext documents on the World
Wide Web?

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

SSH (Secure Shell)

o Answer: B
4. What is the primary purpose of using firewalls in information systems?

To block all forms of data transmission

To regulate the flow of incoming and outgoing network traffic

To enhance the speed of data processing

To create backups of data files

o Answer: B
5. In cybersecurity, what does 'phishing' refer to?

Unauthorized access to a network

Sending fraudulent emails to steal sensitive information

A type of virus that destroys data files

Using encryption to protect data

o Answer: B
6. What is the difference between RAM and ROM in a computer system?

RAM is non-volatile, while ROM is volatile.

ROM is non-volatile, while RAM is volatile.

RAM is used for long-term storage, while ROM is used for processing.

ROM can be written to multiple times, while RAM cannot.

 o Answer: B
7. Which of the following file extensions is commonly associated with a compressed file
format?

.exe

.docx

.zip

.txt

o Answer: C
8. Which of the following is an example of a cloud storage service?

Microsoft Word

Google Drive

Adobe Photoshop

Mozilla Firefox

o Answer: B
9. What does the term 'bandwidth' refer to in networking?

The time it takes for data to travel from one place to another

The amount of data that can be transmitted in a fixed amount of time

The physical distance between two connected devices

The type of cable used for data transmission

o Answer: B
10. Which of the following is an advantage of using a cloud-based software application?

Requires a large amount of local storage

Allows access to files from any device with internet connection

Is always available offline

Is typically slower than locally installed software

 Answer: B
The Teaching Profession - 10 Questions

1. Which law mandates the continuing professional development (CPD) for teachers in
the Philippines?
o A. RA 9293
o B. RA 10533
o C. RA 10912
o D. RA 7836
o Answer: C
2. What is the main purpose of the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers?
o A. To enhance the teacher's salary and benefits
o B. To serve as a guide for teachers' conduct and responsibilities
o C. To dictate how teachers should prepare lessons
o D. To provide a disciplinary mechanism for erring teachers
o Answer: B
3. Under the Philippine Professional Standards for Teachers (PPST), which domain
emphasizes the importance of learning environments that are responsive to
learners’ diverse needs?
o A. Domain 1: Content Knowledge and Pedagogy
o B. Domain 2: Learning Environment
o C. Domain 3: Diversity of Learners
o D. Domain 7: Personal Growth and Professional Development
o Answer: C
4. The "No Child Left Behind Act" from the United States inspired which Philippine
educational reform?
o A. RA 10157 (Kindergarten Education Act)
o B. RA 10533 (K to 12 Law)
o C. RA 7784 (TESDA Act)
o D. RA 10029 (Guidance and Counseling Act)
o Answer: B
5. Which principle of education emphasizes that learning should be relevant to the
learners' life and culture?
o A. Universalization of Education
o B. Lifelong Learning
o C. Learner-Centered Education
o D. Technology-Driven Learning
o Answer: C
6. What is the role of the Board for Professional Teachers (BPT)?
o A. To promote public and private teacher education institutions
o B. To oversee teacher licensure exams and enforce teaching regulations
o C. To implement lesson plans for public schools
o D. To regulate private schools' curricula
o Answer: B
 7. Which of the following rights is guaranteed to teachers under the Magna Carta for
Public School Teachers (RA 4670)?
o A. Right to administer the school
o B. Right to free housing and medical benefits
o C. Right to academic freedom
o D. Right to engage in tutoring for additional income
o Answer: C
8. According to RA 7836, which body has the authority to revoke a teacher's license?
o A. The Department of Education (DepEd)
o B. The Board for Professional Teachers
o C. The Civil Service Commission (CSC)
o D. The Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
o Answer: B
9. Who is the principal sponsor of RA 10533, or the Enhanced Basic Education Act (K
to 12)?
o A. Benigno Aquino III
o B. Raul Roco
o C. Franklin Drilon
o D. Edgardo Angara
o Answer: D
10. What does "lifelong learning" imply in the teaching profession?

 A. Continuous learning until retirement

 B. Focusing only on academic learning during early career
 C. Attaining proficiency and stopping professional development
 D. Engaging in professional development throughout one's career
 Answer: D

Principles of Teaching - 10 Questions

1. What teaching strategy involves giving students immediate feedback on their

performance to reinforce learning?
o A. Problem-based learning
o B. Cooperative learning
o C. Formative assessment
o D. Experiential learning
o Answer: C
2. Which principle of learning emphasizes the importance of connecting new
information to prior knowledge?
o A. Transfer of Learning
o B. Reinforcement
o C. Individual Differences
o D. Active Engagement
o Answer: A
3. In differentiated instruction, how should a teacher handle students with varying
levels of readiness?
o A. Teach all students the same lesson, regardless of their readiness level
o B. Provide tailored tasks and resources that align with their readiness level
o C. Focus only on the students who are struggling
o D. Use standardized tests for all students
o Answer: B
4. Which principle of teaching is demonstrated when students are encouraged to
reflect on their learning experiences?
o A. Learning by Doing
o B. Scaffolding
o C. Metacognition
o D. Rote Learning
o Answer: C
5. What type of learning occurs when students learn by actively engaging in hands-on
experiences?
o A. Rote learning
o B. Observational learning
o C. Experiential learning
o D. Theoretical learning
o Answer: C
6. Which principle emphasizes that teaching should be focused on the needs, interests,
and experiences of students?
o A. Teacher-Centered Learning
o B. Learner-Centered Approach
o C. Subject-Centered Learning
o D. Assessment-Centered Approach
o Answer: B
7. What strategy is best for fostering critical thinking in students?
o A. Memorization of facts
o B. Open-ended questioning and inquiry-based learning
o C. Lecture-based teaching
o D. Frequent testing
o Answer: B
8. Which of the following instructional approaches aligns with Vygotsky’s concept of
the "Zone of Proximal Development"?
o A. Independent Learning
o B. Scaffolding
o C. Collaborative Learning
o D. Direct Instruction
o Answer: B
9. What is the role of formative assessment in teaching?
o A. To assign final grades
o B. To diagnose students’ learning difficulties and guide instruction
o C. To measure how well students learned at the end of the term
 o D. To rank students based on their scores
o Answer: B
10. Which learning principle is demonstrated when students are provided with
materials at varying levels of difficulty?

 A. Universal Design for Learning

 B. Mastery Learning
 C. Differentiation
 D. Spiral Progression
 Answer: C

Assessment of Learning - 10 Questions

1. Which of the following best defines formative assessment?

o A. It is used at the end of instruction to measure achievement.
o B. It is used during instruction to monitor student learning.
o C. It is designed to compare student performance to peers.
o D. It is a standardized test administered annually.
o Answer: B
2. What is the main purpose of summative assessment?
o A. To inform instruction during the learning process
o B. To evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional period
o C. To provide feedback to students on their progress
o D. To compare student performance across schools
o Answer: B
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an authentic assessment?
o A. It requires students to perform real-world tasks.
o B. It emphasizes problem-solving and critical thinking.
o C. It typically involves standardized multiple-choice questions.
o D. It can be used to assess both process and product.
o Answer: C
4. What type of assessment provides detailed feedback to improve student
performance?
o A. Summative assessment
o B. Diagnostic assessment
o C. Formative assessment
o D. Norm-referenced assessment
o Answer: C
5. What is the primary advantage of criterion-referenced assessments?
o A. It compares students to their peers.
o B. It measures how well students meet specific learning objectives.
o C. It ranks students from highest to lowest.
o D. It is not aligned to specific learning outcomes.
o Answer: B
 6. Which of the following refers to a tool used for assessing student performance based
on a set of criteria?
o A. Rubric
o B. Test Blueprint
o C. Rating Scale
o D. Observation Sheet
o Answer: A
7. When a test measures what it is intended to measure, it is said to have high:
o A. Reliability
o B. Validity
o C. Usability
o D. Standardization
o Answer: B
8. Which assessment method is most appropriate for measuring students' practical
skills in a laboratory setting?
o A. Essay tests
o B. Performance-based assessment
o C. Multiple-choice questions
o D. True-false tests
o Answer: B
9. Which type of assessment compares student performance to a pre-determined
standard?
o A. Norm-referenced assessment
o B. Criterion-referenced assessment
o C. Summative assessment
o D. Ipsative assessment
o Answer: B
10. In assessing writing skills, which type of rubric allows for more detailed feedback on
different aspects such as grammar, content, and structure?

 A. Holistic Rubric
 B. Analytical Rubric
 C. Generic Rubric
 D. Task-Specific Rubric
 Answer: B

Educational Technology - 10 Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of synchronous online learning?

o A. Watching pre-recorded video lectures
o B. Attending a live webinar with real-time interaction
o C. Completing a module-based course independently
o D. Accessing an educational blog
o Answer: B
2. What is the primary purpose of using interactive whiteboards in the classroom?
o A. To enhance lecture delivery
o B. To facilitate hands-on learning and student interaction
o C. To replace traditional whiteboards
o D. To track student attendance
o Answer: B
3. What is the role of assistive technology in education?
o A. To provide entertainment during class
o B. To support students with disabilities in accessing the curriculum
o C. To reduce the workload of teachers
o D. To increase student assessment scores
o Answer: B
4. Which of the following technologies is best suited for blended learning
environments?
o A. Tablets
o B. Projectors
o C. Learning Management Systems (LMS)
o D. Printers
o Answer: C
5. What type of software allows students to create and manipulate visual
representations of information?
o A. Word processing software
o B. Spreadsheet software
o C. Mind-mapping software
o D. Database software
o Answer: C
6. Which principle emphasizes the alignment of technology with educational goals?
o A. Technocentrism
o B. Constructivism
o C. Technological Pedagogical Content Knowledge (TPACK)
o D. Educational Realism
o Answer: C
7. Which of the following describes the flipped classroom model?
o A. Students listen to lectures in class and do homework at home.
o B. Students watch video lectures at home and engage in hands-on activities in
class.
o C. Students take all assessments online.
o D. Teachers use technology to teach exclusively in the classroom.
o Answer: B
8. In using technology for assessment, what does the acronym "CBT" stand for?
o A. Computer-Based Testing
o B. Classroom-Based Training
o C. Content-Based Teaching
o D. Curriculum-Based Test
o Answer: A
 9. What is one key benefit of using game-based learning in the classroom?
o A. It improves students’ physical fitness.
o B. It creates a competitive environment.
o C. It increases student engagement and motivation.
o D. It replaces traditional assessments.
o Answer: C
10. Which of the following is an example of adaptive learning technology?

 A. A virtual classroom where teachers deliver lessons in real-time

 B. A Learning Management System (LMS) that personalizes content based on student
performance
 C. An online forum for collaborative group work
 D. A word processing software that corrects grammar errors
 Answer: B

Curriculum Development - 10 Questions

1. Which curriculum design model emphasizes integration of subjects around common

themes and real-life applications?
o A. Subject-Centered Curriculum
o B. Learner-Centered Curriculum
o C. Core Curriculum
o D. Problem-Centered Curriculum
o Answer: D
2. What is the primary concern of Tyler's model of curriculum development?
o A. Evaluation of student performance
o B. Identification of learning objectives
o C. Teacher's professional development
o D. Use of technology in the classroom
o Answer: B
3. Which of the following best represents a "hidden curriculum"?
o A. Math topics that are not covered in the curriculum
o B. Unwritten, unofficial lessons, values, and perspectives students learn in school
o C. Curriculum guides that are not readily available to students
o D. Extracurricular activities that enhance student learning
o Answer: B
4. In curriculum planning, which phase focuses on deciding what content is essential to
achieve learning goals?
o A. Implementation
o B. Evaluation
o C. Curriculum Design
o D. Needs Assessment
o Answer: C
5. Which curriculum development model suggests a cyclical process that starts and
ends with evaluation?
o A. Saylor and Alexander Model
 o B. Taba Model
o C. Tyler's Model
o D. Wheeler’s Model
o Answer: D
6. What is the main purpose of formative evaluation in curriculum development?
o A. To measure student learning at the end of a course
o B. To revise and improve the curriculum while it is being implemented
o C. To compare student outcomes to national standards
o D. To create long-term curriculum changes
o Answer: B
7. Which curriculum approach focuses on equipping students with the skills necessary
for future employment?
o A. Liberal Curriculum
o B. Academic Curriculum
o C. Vocational Curriculum
o D. Core Curriculum
o Answer: C
8. In the context of curriculum evaluation, what does "validity" refer to?
o A. The extent to which the curriculum aligns with student interests
o B. The degree to which the curriculum measures what it is intended to measure
o C. The flexibility of the curriculum
o D. The financial cost of implementing the curriculum
o Answer: B
9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a learner-centered curriculum?
o A. Focuses on the interests and needs of the students
o B. Emphasizes student participation and engagement
o C. Predetermined subject matter and content
o D. Encourages collaboration and inquiry-based learning
o Answer: C
10. Which educational philosophy aligns with a curriculum that is designed to address
societal needs and social justice?

 A. Perennialism
 B. Essentialism
 C. Progressivism
 D. Reconstructionism
 Answer: D

Child and Adolescent Development - 10 Questions

1. According to Jean Piaget, at what stage do children begin to develop logical

thinking but are still limited to concrete objects?
o A. Sensorimotor Stage
o B. Preoperational Stage
 o C. Concrete Operational Stage
o D. Formal Operational Stage
o Answer: C
2. Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes the development of which crucial
aspect during adolescence?
o A. Trust vs. Mistrust
o B. Industry vs. Inferiority
o C. Identity vs. Role Confusion
o D. Intimacy vs. Isolation
o Answer: C
3. Which theory suggests that language development is innate and governed by a
"universal grammar"?
o A. Vygotsky's Social Development Theory
o B. Skinner's Behaviorism
o C. Chomsky's Nativist Theory
o D. Bandura's Social Learning Theory
o Answer: C
4. Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill development in early
childhood?
o A. Writing their name
o B. Tying shoelaces
o C. Climbing stairs with alternating feet
o D. Cutting with scissors
o Answer: C
5. Which stage in Kohlberg’s theory of moral development is characterized by
adherence to rules to avoid punishment?
o A. Pre-conventional Stage
o B. Conventional Stage
o C. Post-conventional Stage
o D. Autonomous Stage
o Answer: A
6. At what stage in Erikson’s psychosocial development are adolescents most
concerned with identity formation?
o A. Autonomy vs. Shame
o B. Industry vs. Inferiority
o C. Identity vs. Role Confusion
o D. Integrity vs. Despair
o Answer: C
7. What is the key developmental task of children during middle childhood according
to Erikson?
o A. Developing initiative
o B. Achieving industry
o C. Forming secure attachments
o D. Establishing autonomy
o Answer: B
 8. Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development emphasizes the importance of
which factor in learning?
o A. Biological maturation
o B. Social interaction and cultural context
o C. Structured environment
o D. Repetition and reinforcement
o Answer: B
9. Which attachment style is associated with children who show distress when their
caregiver leaves but are comforted when the caregiver returns?
o A. Secure attachment
o B. Avoidant attachment
o C. Ambivalent attachment
o D. Disorganized attachment
o Answer: A
10. Which of the following best describes "scaffolding" in Vygotsky’s theory?

 A. Structured testing to measure learning outcomes

 B. Temporary support provided by a teacher or peer to help a child master a task
 C. Independent learning of new concepts
 D. Self-directed learning activities
 Answer: B

Social Dimensions of Education - 10 Questions

1. What is the primary focus of the sociological perspective on education?

o A. The influence of family on education
o B. The role of education in socialization and maintaining social order
o C. The process of teaching and learning
o D. The development of curriculum standards
o Answer: B
2. Which social theory suggests that education reinforces social inequality by
perpetuating class differences?
o A. Functionalism
o B. Symbolic Interactionism
o C. Conflict Theory
o D. Structuralism
o Answer: C
3. Which of the following is an example of cultural capital in the context of education?
o A. Financial aid for tuition fees
o B. Access to digital learning tools
o C. Knowledge of academic norms and language
o D. Sports achievements
o Answer: C
4. Which concept refers to the societal expectation that individuals from higher socio-
economic backgrounds are more likely to succeed in education?
o A. Meritocracy
o B. Social Stratification
o C. Social Mobility
o D. Social Capital
o Answer: B
5. What is the "hidden curriculum" in the social dimensions of education?
o A. The official subjects taught in school
o B. Unintended lessons, values, and perspectives that students learn in school
o C. Supplementary lessons provided outside the regular curriculum
o D. A curriculum designed to promote critical thinking
o Answer: B
6. According to Pierre Bourdieu, which of the following concepts explains how
education serves to reproduce social hierarchies?
o A. Symbolic Interactionism
o B. Capitalism
o C. Cultural Reproduction
o D. Human Capital Theory
o Answer: C
7. In the context of education, what does the term "social mobility" refer to?
o A. The ease with which students can transfer between schools
o B. The movement of individuals or groups within the social hierarchy as a result
of educational attainment
o C. The interaction between teachers and students in a classroom
o D. The ability of teachers to influence student behavior
o Answer: B
8. What role does education play according to Functionalist theory?
o A. It perpetuates class distinctions and inequalities.
o B. It serves to socialize children into societal norms and values.
o C. It promotes individualism and critical thinking.
o D. It undermines the economic structure.
o Answer: B
9. Which of the following represents the influence of globalization on education?
o A. The shift towards community-based education
o B. The integration of global perspectives and skills in the curriculum
o C. Increased focus on local traditions and practices
o D. Decrease in the use of technology in classrooms
o Answer: B
10. How does the term "meritocracy" relate to education?

 A. Education guarantees equal success for all.

 B. Students’ success is based on their abilities and efforts rather than social class.
 C. Students’ success is determined by their family background.
 D. Education provides equal outcomes for students of all abilities.
 Answer: B
Field Study and Practice Teaching - 10 Questions

1. What is the primary purpose of field study courses in teacher education programs?
o A. To provide theoretical knowledge about education
o B. To allow teacher candidates to observe and apply teaching strategies in real
classrooms
o C. To assess students' knowledge through exams
o D. To introduce students to administrative duties in schools
o Answer: B
2. In practice teaching, which strategy should a student teacher use to establish a
conducive learning environment?
o A. Apply strict disciplinary measures
o B. Encourage collaboration and respect among students
o C. Teach content without classroom interaction
o D. Focus only on high-achieving students
o Answer: B
3. Which of the following is a key component of a reflective teaching practice?
o A. Memorizing lesson plans
o B. Regularly reviewing and improving teaching methods based on classroom
experiences
o C. Relying on a standard teaching manual
o D. Assigning more tests to students
o Answer: B
4. During practice teaching, which of the following is an important skill for student
teachers to develop?
o A. Content mastery only
o B. Classroom management and adaptability
o C. Minimal interaction with students
o D. Dependence on cooperating teachers for lesson plans
o Answer: B
5. Which type of classroom assessment is most useful for providing feedback to a
student teacher on their instructional practices?
o A. Diagnostic Assessment
o B. Peer Observation
o C. Summative Assessment
o D. Norm-Referenced Testing
o Answer: B
6. What is one key benefit of using reflective journals in practice teaching?
o A. They allow student teachers to track their professional growth and challenges.
o B. They are used for grading students.
o C. They reduce the need for classroom observations.
o D. They replace formal evaluations from cooperating teachers.
o Answer: A
 7. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for a student teacher to
handle disruptive behavior in the classroom?
o A. Immediately send the student to the principal
o B. Ignore the behavior and continue the lesson
o C. Implement a proactive classroom management plan and address issues calmly
o D. Ask another teacher for assistance
o Answer: C
8. Which component of a lesson plan helps student teachers align their teaching
strategies with learning outcomes?
o A. Objective
o B. Motivation
o C. Evaluation
o D. Assignment
o Answer: A
9. Why is peer feedback important in field study and practice teaching?
o A. It replaces evaluations by the mentor teacher.
o B. It provides an opportunity for collaborative learning and improvement.
o C. It focuses solely on the negative aspects of teaching.
o D. It reduces the need for formal observations.
o Answer: B
10. What is the role of a cooperating teacher during practice teaching?

 A. To monitor student teachers without giving any feedback

 B. To serve as a guide and mentor for student teachers, providing support and feedback
 C. To assess students based on strict criteria without mentoring
 D. To prepare lesson plans for the student teacher
 Answer: B

Algebra - 10 Questions

1. Solve for xxx in the equation: 2x2−3x−5=02x^2 - 3x - 5 = 02x2−3x−5=0.

o A. x=1,x=−52x = 1, x = -\frac{5}{2}x=1,x=−25
o B. x=52,x=−1x = \frac{5}{2}, x = -1x=25,x=−1
o C. x=32,x=−1x = \frac{3}{2}, x = -1x=23,x=−1
o D. x=52,x=1x = \frac{5}{2}, x = 1x=25,x=1
o Answer: A
2. If a×b=12a \times b = 12a×b=12 and a+b=7a + b = 7a+b=7, find the values of aaa
and bbb.
o A. a=3,b=4a = 3, b = 4a=3,b=4
o B. a=2,b=6a = 2, b = 6a=2,b=6
o C. a=1,b=12a = 1, b = 12a=1,b=12
o D. a=5,b=2a = 5, b = 2a=5,b=2
o Answer: A
3. Simplify the expression: 2x2−8x2−4\frac{2x^2 - 8}{x^2 - 4}x2−42x2−8.
o A. 222
o B. 2(x−2)(x−2)\frac{2(x-2)}{(x-2)}(x−2)2(x−2)
 o C. 2(x+2)2(x+2)2(x+2)
o D. 2(x+2x−2)2 \left( \frac{x+2}{x-2} \right)2(x−2x+2)
o Answer: D
4. Find the sum of the solutions of the quadratic equation 3x2−7x+2=03x^2 - 7x + 2 =
03x2−7x+2=0.
o A. 73\frac{7}{3}37
o B. 7
o C. 76\frac{7}{6}67
o D. 79\frac{7}{9}97
o Answer: A
5. If (x−2)(x-2)(x−2) is a factor of x3+ax2+bx−12x^3 + ax^2 + bx - 12x3+ax2+bx−12,
and when divided by (x+1)(x+1)(x+1), the remainder is 5, find aaa and bbb.
o A. a=1,b=6a = 1, b = 6a=1,b=6
o B. a=2,b=−6a = 2, b = -6a=2,b=−6
o C. a=−3,b=5a = -3, b = 5a=−3,b=5
o D. a=1,b=5a = 1, b = 5a=1,b=5
o Answer: D
6. If f(x)=2x+3f(x) = 2x + 3f(x)=2x+3 and g(x)=x2−1g(x) = x^2 - 1g(x)=x2−1, what is
(f∘g)(x)(f \circ g)(x)(f∘g)(x)?
o A. 2(x2−1)+32(x^2 - 1) + 32(x2−1)+3
o B. 2x2−1+32x^2 - 1 + 32x2−1+3
o C. 2x2−2+32x^2 - 2 + 32x2−2+3
o D. 2x2+12x^2 + 12x2+1
o Answer: C
7. Solve for xxx: 32x−1=93^{2x-1} = 932x−1=9.
o A. x=2x = 2x=2
o B. x=1x = 1x=1
o C. x=32x = \frac{3}{2}x=23
o D. x=52x = \frac{5}{2}x=25
o Answer: C
8. If x+1x=5x + \frac{1}{x} = 5x+x1=5, what is the value of x2+1x2x^2 + \frac{1}
{x^2}x2+x21?
o A. 23
o B. 25
o C. 21
o D. 24
o Answer: C
9. Factor completely: x3+3x2−4x−12x^3 + 3x^2 - 4x - 12x3+3x2−4x−12.
o A. (x+3)(x2−4)(x+3)(x^2 - 4)(x+3)(x2−4)
o B. (x+3)(x−2)(x+2)(x+3)(x-2)(x+2)(x+3)(x−2)(x+2)
o C. (x−3)(x+2)2(x-3)(x+2)^2(x−3)(x+2)2
o D. (x+3)(x2+4)(x+3)(x^2+4)(x+3)(x2+4)
o Answer: B
10. Solve the system of equations: 2x+3y=72x + 3y = 72x+3y=7 and 3x−y=43x - y =
43x−y=4.
 o A. x=2,y=1x = 2, y = 1x=2,y=1
o B. x=3,y=−1x = 3, y = -1x=3,y=−1
o C. x=1,y=2x = 1, y = 2x=1,y=2
o D. x=0,y=3x = 0, y = 3x=0,y=3
o Answer: A

Geometry - 10 Questions

1. In a triangle, the lengths of two sides are 5 and 12. If the angle between them is
90∘90^\circ90∘, what is the length of the third side?
o A. 10
o B. 13
o C. 17
o D. 15
o Answer: B
2. What is the area of a sector of a circle with a radius of 6 cm and a central angle of
60∘60^\circ60∘?
o A. 6π cm²
o B. 12π cm²
o C. 3π cm²
o D. 2π cm²
o Answer: C
3. What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 cm and height of 10 cm?
o A. 30π cm³
o B. 60π cm³
o C. 90π cm³
o D. 180π cm³
o Answer: C
4. If two triangles are similar, and the sides of one triangle are 3, 4, and 5, what is the
ratio of the areas of the two triangles if the sides of the second triangle are 6, 8, and
10?
o A. 1:2
o B. 1:4
o C. 1:3
o D. 1:6
o Answer: B
5. Find the length of the diagonal of a rectangle with dimensions 8 cm and 15 cm.
o A. 17 cm
o B. 20 cm
o C. 13 cm
o D. 25 cm
o Answer: A
 6. The interior angles of a polygon sum to 1440∘1440^\circ1440∘. How many sides does
the polygon have?
o A. 8
o B. 10
o C. 12
o D. 9
o Answer: C
7. In a parallelogram, one angle measures 60∘60^\circ60∘. What is the measure of the
adjacent angle?
o A. 60∘60^\circ60∘
o B. 90∘90^\circ90∘
o C. 120∘120^\circ120∘
o D. 150∘150^\circ150∘
o Answer: C
8. A circle is inscribed in a square. If the side of the square is 10 cm, what is the area of
the circle?
o A. 25π25\pi25π cm²
o B. 50π50\pi50π cm²
o C. 75π75\pi75π cm²
o D. 100π100\pi100π cm²
o Answer: A
9. Find the radius of a circle with an area of 64π64\pi64π cm².
o A. 8 cm
o B. 4 cm
o C. 6 cm
o D. 10 cm
o Answer: A
10. What is the perimeter of a regular hexagon with a side length of 7 cm?
o A. 42 cm
o B. 30 cm
o C. 35 cm
o D. 21 cm
o Answer: A

Trigonometry - 10 Questions

1. What is the value of sin⁡30∘\sin 30^\circsin30∘?

o A. 32\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}23
o B. 12\frac{1}{2}21
o C. 1
o D. 0
o Answer: B
2. Solve for θ\thetaθ if cos⁡θ=12\cos \theta = \frac{1}{2}cosθ=21.
 o A. 30∘30^\circ30∘
o B. 60∘60^\circ60∘
o C. 45∘45^\circ45∘
o D. 90∘90^\circ90∘
o Answer: B
3. Simplify sin⁡2θ+cos⁡2θ\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \thetasin2θ+cos2θ.
o A. tan⁡θ\tan \thetatanθ
o B. 1
o C. 0
o D. sec⁡θ\sec \thetasecθ
o Answer: B
4. If tan⁡θ=3\tan \theta = 3tanθ=3, find sin⁡θ\sin \thetasinθ given that θ\thetaθ is in the
first quadrant.
o A. 310\frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}103
o B. 110\frac{1}{\sqrt{10}}101
o C. 35\frac{3}{5}53
o D. 15\frac{1}{5}51
o Answer: A
5. Which of the following is the correct value of tan⁡45∘\tan 45^\circtan45∘?
o A. 1
o B. 0
o C. 22\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}22
o D. 3\sqrt{3}3
o Answer: A
6. Convert 120∘120^\circ120∘ to radians.
o A. 3π2\frac{3\pi}{2}23π
o B. 2π3\frac{2\pi}{3}32π
o C. π\piπ
o D. π3\frac{\pi}{3}3π
o Answer: B
7. Find the exact value of cos⁡60∘\cos 60^\circcos60∘.
o A. 12\frac{1}{2}21
o B. 32\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}23
o C. 0
o D. 1
o Answer: A
8. If sin⁡θ=513\sin \theta = \frac{5}{13}sinθ=135 and θ\thetaθ is in the first quadrant,
find cos⁡θ\cos \thetacosθ.
o A. 1213\frac{12}{13}1312
o B. 513\frac{5}{13}135
o C. 813\frac{8}{13}138
o D. 913\frac{9}{13}139
o Answer: A
9. Simplify the expression 1sin⁡θ\frac{1}{\sin \theta}sinθ1.
o A. cos⁡θ\cos \thetacosθ
 o B. sec⁡θ\sec \thetasecθ
o C. csc⁡θ\csc \thetacscθ
o D. tan⁡θ\tan \thetatanθ
o Answer: C
10. What is the period of the function f(x)=sin⁡(2x)f(x) = \sin(2x)f(x)=sin(2x)?
o A. π\piπ
o B. 2π2\pi2π
o C. π2\frac{\pi}{2}2π
o D. π4\frac{\pi}{4}4π
o Answer: A

Calculus - 10 Questions

1. Find the derivative of f(x)=3x2−4x+1f(x) = 3x^2 - 4x + 1f(x)=3x2−4x+1.

o A. 6x−46x - 46x−4
o B. 6x+46x + 46x+4
o C. 6x−16x - 16x−1
o D. 3x2−43x^2 - 43x2−4
o Answer: A
2. Evaluate ∫x2dx\int x^2 dx∫x2dx.
o A. x33+C\frac{x^3}{3} + C3x3+C
o B. 2x+C2x + C2x+C
o C. x3+Cx^3 + Cx3+C
o D. 2x33+C\frac{2x^3}{3} + C32x3+C
o Answer: A
3. Find the limit: lim⁡x→0sin⁡xx\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}limx→0xsinx.
o A. 1
o B. 0
o C. 12\frac{1}{2}21
o D. Undefined
o Answer: A
4. What is the second derivative of f(x)=2x3+3x2−5x+7f(x) = 2x^3 + 3x^2 - 5x +
7f(x)=2x3+3x2−5x+7?
o A. 12x+612x + 612x+6
o B. 6x+36x + 36x+3
o C. 6x2+6x6x^2 + 6x6x2+6x
o D. 12x2−512x^2 - 512x2−5
o Answer: A
5. Find the area under the curve y=4xy = 4xy=4x from x=1x = 1x=1 to x=3x = 3x=3.
o A. 16
o B. 12
o C. 8
o D. 10
 o Answer: A
6. Evaluate lim⁡x→∞1x\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{x}limx→∞x1.
o A. 0
o B. 1
o C. ∞\infty∞
o D. Undefined
o Answer: A
7. Find the derivative of f(x)=exf(x) = e^xf(x)=ex.
o A. exe^xex
o B. ex+1e^{x+1}ex+1
o C. xex^exe
o D. xexxe^xxex
o Answer: A
8. If f′(x)=2x+3f'(x) = 2x + 3f′(x)=2x+3, find f(x)f(x)f(x).
o A. x2+3x+Cx^2 + 3x + Cx2+3x+C
o B. x2+3x−1x^2 + 3x - 1x2+3x−1
o C. x2+3x+1x^2 + 3x + 1x2+3x+1
o D. 2x2+3x2x^2 + 3x2x2+3x
o Answer: A
9. Find the critical points of the function f(x)=x3−3x2−9x+1f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 - 9x +
1f(x)=x3−3x2−9x+1.
o A. x=−1,x=3x = -1, x = 3x=−1,x=3
o B. x=1,x=−3x = 1, x = -3x=1,x=−3
o C. x=0,x=2x = 0, x = 2x=0,x=2
o D. x=2,x=−2x = 2, x = -2x=2,x=−2
o Answer: A
10. Find the definite integral ∫12(2x+1)dx\int_1^2 (2x + 1) dx∫12(2x+1)dx.
o A. 5
o B. 7
o C. 8
o D. 10
o Answer: B

Statistics and Probability - 10 Questions

1. A jar contains 3 red, 5 blue, and 7 green balls. If a ball is chosen at random, what is
the probability that it is either blue or green?
o A. 715\frac{7}{15}157
o B. 815\frac{8}{15}158
o C. 1215\frac{12}{15}1512
o D. 1015\frac{10}{15}1510
o Answer: C
2. The mean of a set of data is 20, and the standard deviation is 5. According to the
Empirical Rule, what percentage of the data falls between 10 and 30?
o A. 95%
 o B. 68%
o C. 99.7%
o D. 50%
o Answer: A
3. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most affected by extreme
values in a dataset?
o A. Mean
o B. Median
o C. Mode
o D. Range
o Answer: A
4. In a normal distribution, what is the z-score corresponding to a value that is 2
standard deviations above the mean?
o A. 0
o B. 2
o C. -2
o D. 1
o Answer: B
5. The probability of two independent events, A and B, occurring together is
P(A)×P(B)P(A) \times P(B)P(A)×P(B). If P(A)=0.5P(A) = 0.5P(A)=0.5 and
P(B)=0.4P(B) = 0.4P(B)=0.4, what is the probability of both events occurring?
o A. 0.9
o B. 0.1
o C. 0.3
o D. 0.2
o Answer: D
6. A data set has a skewness of 0.75. Which direction is the data skewed?
o A. Symmetrical
o B. Skewed to the right
o C. Skewed to the left
o D. No skew
o Answer: B
7. A company claims that the average weight of its product is 500 grams. A sample of
50 products has a mean of 490 grams with a standard deviation of 20 grams. What
is the test statistic for testing the claim at a 0.05 significance level?
o A. z=−2.24z = -2.24z=−2.24
o B. z=1.96z = 1.96z=1.96
o C. t=−1.98t = -1.98t=−1.98
o D. t=−2.83t = -2.83t=−2.83
o Answer: A
8. What is the probability of rolling a sum of 7 with two six-sided dice?
o A. 16\frac{1}{6}61
o B. 536\frac{5}{36}365
o C. 112\frac{1}{12}121
o D. 736\frac{7}{36}367
 o Answer: D
9. In a survey of 500 people, 60% prefer product A. What is the 95% confidence
interval for the proportion of people who prefer product A?
o A. (0.56,0.64)(0.56, 0.64)(0.56,0.64)
o B. (0.52,0.68)(0.52, 0.68)(0.52,0.68)
o C. (0.58,0.62)(0.58, 0.62)(0.58,0.62)
o D. (0.55,0.65)(0.55, 0.65)(0.55,0.65)
o Answer: A
10. If the correlation coefficient between two variables is -0.85, what can you conclude
about their relationship?
o A. They have a weak negative linear relationship.
o B. They have a strong positive linear relationship.
o C. They have a strong negative linear relationship.
o D. They are not related.
o Answer: C

Advanced Algebra - 10 Questions

1. Solve for xxx in the equation x3−4x2+5x−2=0x^3 - 4x^2 + 5x - 2 = 0x3−4x2+5x−2=0.

o A. x=1,2,−1x = 1, 2, -1x=1,2,−1
o B. x=2,−1,−2x = 2, -1, -2x=2,−1,−2
o C. x=3,0,−2x = 3, 0, -2x=3,0,−2
o D. x=1,−1,−2x = 1, -1, -2x=1,−1,−2
o Answer: A
2. Factor the polynomial x4−16x^4 - 16x4−16.
o A. (x2−4)(x2+4)(x^2 - 4)(x^2 + 4)(x2−4)(x2+4)
o B. (x−2)(x+2)(x2+4)(x - 2)(x + 2)(x^2 + 4)(x−2)(x+2)(x2+4)
o C. (x2−16)(x^2 - 16)(x2−16)
o D. (x−4)(x+4)(x - 4)(x + 4)(x−4)(x+4)
o Answer: A
3. Simplify the expression x2+4x+4x+2\frac{x^2 + 4x + 4}{x + 2}x+2x2+4x+4.
o A. x+2x + 2x+2
o B. x+4x + 4x+4
o C. x+1x + 1x+1
o D. x2−2x+2x^2 - 2x + 2x2−2x+2
o Answer: A
4. What are the roots of the equation 2x2−3x−2=02x^2 - 3x - 2 = 02x2−3x−2=0?
o A. x=2,x=−1x = 2, x = -1x=2,x=−1
o B. x=1,x=−12x = 1, x = -\frac{1}{2}x=1,x=−21
o C. x=32,x=1x = \frac{3}{2}, x = 1x=23,x=1
o D. x=−1,x=32x = -1, x = \frac{3}{2}x=−1,x=23
o Answer: D
5. If a+b+c=0a + b + c = 0a+b+c=0, solve for a3+b3+c3a^3 + b^3 + c^3a3+b3+c3.
 o A. 3abc3abc3abc
o B. 0
o C. a2+b2+c2a^2 + b^2 + c^2a2+b2+c2
o D. abcabcabc
o Answer: A
6. Solve the system of equations: 3x+2y=123x + 2y = 123x+2y=12 and x−y=4x - y =
4x−y=4.
o A. x=4,y=1x = 4, y = 1x=4,y=1
o B. x=2,y=−3x = 2, y = -3x=2,y=−3
o C. x=3,y=0x = 3, y = 0x=3,y=0
o D. x=5,y=2x = 5, y = 2x=5,y=2
o Answer: A
7. What is the inverse of the function f(x)=2x+3f(x) = 2x + 3f(x)=2x+3?
o A. f−1(x)=x−32f^{-1}(x) = \frac{x-3}{2}f−1(x)=2x−3
o B. f−1(x)=x+32f^{-1}(x) = \frac{x+3}{2}f−1(x)=2x+3
o C. f−1(x)=2x−3f^{-1}(x) = 2x - 3f−1(x)=2x−3
o D. f−1(x)=2x+3xf^{-1}(x) = \frac{2x+3}{x}f−1(x)=x2x+3
o Answer: A
8. Find the determinant of the matrix (2345)\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 3 \\ 4 & 5 \
end{pmatrix}(2435).
o A. 7
o B. -2
o C. -7
o D. 1
o Answer: C
9. Simplify the expression (3x2−2x+1)−(x2+x−2)(3x^2 - 2x + 1) - (x^2 + x - 2)
(3x2−2x+1)−(x2+x−2).
o A. 2x2−3x+32x^2 - 3x + 32x2−3x+3
o B. 2x2+3x+32x^2 + 3x + 32x2+3x+3
o C. 4x2−3x−14x^2 - 3x - 14x2−3x−1
o D. 3x2+3x+13x^2 + 3x + 13x2+3x+1
o Answer: A
10. If f(x)=2x3−5x2+3x−7f(x) = 2x^3 - 5x^2 + 3x - 7f(x)=2x3−5x2+3x−7, what is f′
(x)f'(x)f′(x)?
o A. 6x2−10x+36x^2 - 10x + 36x2−10x+3
o B. 2x2−10x+12x^2 - 10x + 12x2−10x+1
o C. 6x2+10x−16x^2 + 10x - 16x2+10x−1
o D. 5x3−6x2+35x^3 - 6x^2 + 35x3−6x2+3
o Answer: A

Number Theory - 5 Questions

1. What is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 48 and 180?

 o A. 12
o B. 24
o C. 6
o D. 18
o Answer: A
2. If 7x≡1(mod10)7x \equiv 1 \pmod{10}7x≡1(mod10), find the value of xxx.
o A. 3
o B. 7
o C. 9
o D. 8
o Answer: C
3. Find the least common multiple (LCM) of 12 and 15.
o A. 180
o B. 60
o C. 120
o D. 30
o Answer: B
4. Which of the following is a prime number?
o A. 15
o B. 49
o C. 37
o D. 21
o Answer: C
5. Solve for xxx in the Diophantine equation 3x+7y=13x + 7y = 13x+7y=1.
o A. x=−2,y=1x = -2, y = 1x=−2,y=1
o B. x=1,y=0x = 1, y = 0x=1,y=0
o C. x=3,y=−2x = 3, y = -2x=3,y=−2
o D. x=2,y=−3x = 2, y = -3x=2,y=−3
o Answer: A

Linear Algebra - 5 Questions

1. Find the eigenvalues of the matrix (4123)\begin{pmatrix} 4 & 1 \\ 2 & 3 \

end{pmatrix}(4213).
o A. 5,25, 25,2
o B. 4,−14, -14,−1
o C. 3,23, 23,2
o D. 6,−26, -26,−2
o Answer: A
2. What is the rank of the matrix (123456789)\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 4 & 5 & 6 \\
7 & 8 & 9 \end{pmatrix}147258369?
o A. 3
o B. 2
 o C. 1
o D. 0
o Answer: B
3. If AAA is a 3×33 \times 33×3 matrix, what is the dimension of its null space if
rank(A)=2\text{rank}(A) = 2rank(A)=2?
o A. 1
o B. 2
o C. 3
o D. 0
o Answer: A
4. Find the inverse of the matrix (1234)\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4 \end{pmatrix}
(1324).
o A. (−211.5−0.5)\begin{pmatrix} -2 & 1 \\ 1.5 & -0.5 \end{pmatrix}(−21.51−0.5)
o B. (−423−1)\begin{pmatrix} -4 & 2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{pmatrix}(−432−1)
o C. (−432−1)\begin{pmatrix} -4 & 3 \\ 2 & -1 \end{pmatrix}(−423−1)
o D. (−123−4)\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 2 \\ 3 & -4 \end{pmatrix}(−132−4)
o Answer: A
5. Solve the system of linear equations using matrix inversion:

2x+3y=74x+6y=142x + 3y = 7 \\ 4x + 6y = 142x+3y=74x+6y=14

o A. No solution
o B. Infinite solutions
o C. x=1,y=0x = 1, y = 0x=1,y=0
o D. x=0,y=1x = 0, y = 1x=0,y=1
o Answer: B