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a level marking scheme

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Cambridge International AS & A Level

PSYCHOLOGY 9990/43
Paper 4 Specialist Options: Application October/November 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 24 printed pages.

© UCLES 2023 [Turn over


9990/43 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2023

Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

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9990/43 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2023

Social Science-Specific Marking Principles


(for point-based marking)

1 Components using point-based marking:


• Point marking is often used to reward knowledge, understanding and application of skills.
We give credit where the candidate’s answer shows relevant knowledge, understanding
and application of skills in answering the question. We do not give credit where the answer
shows confusion.

From this it follows that we:

a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)

2 Presentation of mark scheme:


• Slashes (/) or the word ‘or’ separate alternative ways of making the same point.
• Semi colons (;) bullet points (•) or figures in brackets (1) separate different points.
• Content in the answer column in brackets is for examiner information/context to clarify the
marking but is not required to earn the mark (except Accounting syllabuses where they
indicate negative numbers).

3 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.

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Each option has three questions:

Section A: (stimulus) Answer two questions from choice of four: (a) = 2, (b) = 4, (c) = 4 and
(d)=5 [15 total]
Section A: candidates answer two questions from a choice of four, based on the two specialist options
they have studied. Each question is based on stimulus material and is divided into four parts. There
are 2 marks for part (a), 4 marks for part (b), 4 marks for part (c) and 5 marks for part (d).

Section B: (design) Answer one question from choice of four: (a) = 10 marks, (b) = 8 marks
[18 total]
Section B: candidates answer one design-based question from a choice of four, based on either of the
two specialist options they have studied. The question is divided into two parts. There are 10 marks
for part (a) and 8 marks for part (b).

Section C: (e) Answer one question from choice of four 12 marks. TOTAL MARKS = 60
Section C: candidates answer one essay question from a choice of four, based on either of the two
specialist options they have studied. There are 12 marks for this question.

Questions will require candidates to consider approaches, research methods and issues and debates.
The questions will be based on two topic areas (a, b, c, d, e) covered within the chosen specialist
option. The two topic areas for each specialist option will be different to the two topic areas assessed
in Paper 3.

In order to achieve the same standard across all questions in a Section, the same generic mark
schemes are used for each option. These mark schemes are as follows.

Section A: Stimulus (Generic response descriptor)

(a) 0–2 1 mark for basic answer e.g. identification.


1 mark for elaboration/example.

(b) 0–4 Questions have one or two requirements


If 1 mark for one aspect: [1 mark max.] 1 mark for identification or statement.
(c) 0–4 If 2 marks for two aspects: [2 + 2 marks] 1 mark basic answer. 2 marks
elaboration  2.
If 4 marks for one aspect: [4 marks] 1–2 marks basic answer. 3–4 marks detailed
answer/elaboration.
Partial answers score half marks (i.e. 4 to 2 or 2 to 1)

(d) 0–5 Question requires discussion. Question always plural of each argument. Question
always requires conclusion.
1 mark for each for/against argument (however detailed) up to 4 max. 1 mark for
conclusion.
NOTE: If three (or more) arguments for one side, best two credited. If one side only,
max. 2 marks.

0 0 No response worthy of credit.

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Section C: Essay/Evaluate (Generic response descriptor)

Level Marks Level Descriptor

NOTE: Questions are always worded in the same way: ‘to what extent do you agree with this
statement? Use examples of research you have studied to support your answer’. However, the
words ‘research’ must be taken in the widest sense: (i) different examples can be used from the
same piece of research; (ii) examples from different pieces of research; (iii) examples from
methodology, such as a specific method or technique; (iv) examples from methodological issues
such as ethics, generalisations, quantitative/qualitative data; psychological versus physiological,
etc. (v) examples of debates and issues such as reductionism and holism; individual and
situational, etc.

4 10–12 • Both sides of the argument are considered and are relevant to the question.
• Appropriate examples are included which fully support both sides.
• Discussion is detailed with good understanding and clear expression.
• A conclusion is drawn with appropriate justification.

3 7–9 • Both sides of the argument are considered and are relevant to the question.
They may be imbalanced in terms of quality or quantity.
• Some examples are included, are appropriate and often support both sides.
• The answer shows good discussion with reasonable understanding.
• A basic conclusion is drawn with little or no justification

2 4–6 • Reasons are limited to one side of the argument.


• Limited reference to examples, or lack of detail.
• The answer shows some understanding.
• There is no conclusion.

1 1–3 • Anecdotal discussion, brief detail, minimal relevance. Very limited range.
• Discussion may be inaccurate or incomplete.
• May evaluate topic area studies, making only indirect reference to the
question.

0 0 • No response worthy of credit.

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Section B: Design a study question part (a) (Generic response descriptor)

Level Marks Level Descriptor

4 9–10 • The design is appropriate to the named investigation and is based on


thorough psychological knowledge.
• The design is accurate, coherent and detailed, and it tests the proposed
investigation competently.
• Four or five design features are included. The features are clearly applied to
the design throughout the answer and the candidate clearly understands the
main features involved in designing an investigation.
• The response has proposed an appropriate design, has applied a range of
relevant methodological design features with competence and shown clear
understanding.

3 7–8 • The design is appropriate to the named investigation and is based on good
psychological knowledge.
• The design is accurate, coherent and detailed, and it tests the proposed
investigation competently.
• Two or three design features are included. The features are often applied to
the design and the candidate shows good understanding in places.
• The response has proposed an appropriate design, has applied some
relevant methodological design features and has shown good understanding.

2 4–6 • The design is mostly appropriate to the named investigation and is based on
psychological knowledge.
• The design is mostly accurate, coherent and detailed in places and it tests the
proposed investigation.
• Design features are limited in their understanding.

1 1–3 • The design may not be appropriate to the named investigation and use of
terminology is sparse or absent. Basic psychological understanding is shown.
• The design lacks coherence and is limited in understanding.
• One or two appropriate design features are identified but incorrectly applied.
• The response lacks detail.

0 0 • No response worthy of credit. The candidate describes the study listed on the
syllabus.

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Section B: Explain a study question part (b) (Generic response descriptor)

Level Marks Level Descriptor

3 6–8 • Quality and depth of explanation is thorough.


• Description of knowledge is accurate, coherent and detailed.
• Use of terms is accurate and use of psychological terminology is
comprehensive.
• Understanding of methodology (such as elaboration, use of example, quality
of description) is very good.
• The design is effectively explained in relation to the topic area.
• There is a balance of methodology and topic area/relevant study knowledge.

2 4–5 • Quality of explanation and depth of explanation is competent.


• Description of knowledge is mainly accurate, coherent and reasonably
detailed.
• Use of terms is mainly accurate and use of psychological terminology is
competent.
• Understanding of methodology (such as elaboration, use of example, quality
of description) is good.
• The design is adequately explained in relation to the topic area.
• There is an imbalance of methodology and topic area/relevant study
knowledge.
• Max. 5 marks if only methodological or psychological decisions.

1 1–3 • Quality of explanation and depth of explanation is basic.


• Description of knowledge is often accurate, generally coherent, but lacks
detail.
• Use of terms is basic and use of psychological terminology is adequate.
• Understanding of methodology (such as elaboration, use of example, quality
of description) is limited.
• The design is poorly explained in relation to the topic area.
• There is an imbalance of methodology and topic area/relevant study
knowledge.

0 0 • No response worthy of credit

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Question Answer Marks

Section A: Stimulus question Psychology and abnormality

1 One explanation of bipolar disorder is that it is genetic. The study by


Oruc et al. (1997) selected 42 patients with bipolar disorder. Sixteen of
these patients had a first-degree relative with a history of bipolar
disorder. All patients had a clinical interview and their DNA was
analysed.

1(a) Explain what is meant by the term 'bipolar disorder'. 2

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):


• also known as manic depression (1 mark) characterised by extreme
mood swings from one pole to the other (hence bipolar) (2 marks)
• bipolar disorder (BP) is characterised by episodes of elevated mood
alternating with periods of depression (Oruc et al.) (2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark for basic explanation, 2 marks for elaboration/detail.

1(b) Outline two findings from the study by Oruc et al. 4

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

• no significant associations were found (1 mark) in the total patient sample


(2 marks) OR between bipolar patients and control group (2 marks)
• polymorphisms in female patients were observed (1 mark) OR these
results suggest an increase in susceptibility for bipolar disorder in women
(1 mark) i.e. serotonin receptor 5-HTR2c and serotonin transporter 5-HTT
genes (2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark basic, 2 marks for detail  2.

1(c) Outline one explanation for depression, other than a biological 4


explanation.

Most likely answer:

• Cognitive (Beck, 1979) proposes that people react differently to aversive


stimuli because of negative automatic thoughts (NATs). Depression
results from the negative cognitive triad, comprising unrealistically
negative views about the self, the world and the future.
• Learned helplessness/attributional style (Seligman, 1988) If a person
makes an internal attribution (they are the cause), and if they believe that
this is stable and global (the cause is consistent and this applies
everywhere), then they may feel helpless and may experience
depression. However, if they make other attributions (e.g. that the cause
is external or situational; or unstable and specific), then helplessness and
depression are unlikely.

Marks: 1 mark basic answer, 2–4 marks outline of increasing detail and
quality.

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Question Answer Marks

1(d) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of using clinical interviews to 5


gather data about the genetic explanation of depression. You should
include a conclusion in your answer.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

Strengths:
• the participant knows their family relationships and health and illness
history, the practitioner does not
• the participant can explain and answer any question that may be asked
• the practitioner can use verbal and non-verbal skills or other tests

• Weaknesses:
• the participant may not tell the truth, exaggerate or underemphasise
details
• a clinical interview is subjective and no objective information is available
• a participant may not know sufficient terminology to answer what is being
asked

Conclusion: any appropriate conclusion drawn from the discussion that has
been presented. 1 mark if appropriate. A conclusion is a ‘decision reached by
reasoning’ and so a summary of points already made scores 0 marks.

Marks: Question requires discussion; always plural of each argument, and


always requires conclusion.
1 mark for each advantage/disadvantage (however detailed) and related to
the question up to 4 max. 2 marks max. for two strengths/weaknesses
unrelated to the question. 1 mark for conclusion.

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PUBLISHED 2023

Question Answer Marks

2 To investigate the topic of retail store architecture, Turley and Milliman


(2000) reviewed sixty studies of atmospheric effects on shoppers. They
referred to five ‘atmospheric variables’, including layout and design
variables, and point-of-purchase and decoration variables.

2(a) Explain what is meant by a 'review of studies' as conducted by Turley 2


and Milliman.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited)


(from the study):

NOTE: A systematic review attempts to gather all available empirical research


by using clearly defined, systematic methods to obtain answers to a specific
question. A meta-analysis is the statistical process of analyzing and
combining results from several similar studies.

• a review collects and analyses multiple research studies or papers (1


mark) related to atmospheric effects on shopping behaviour (2 marks)
• Turley and Milliman (2000): We review the pertinent literature by
constructing a comprehensive table of the empirical studies in this area
that focuses on the various findings associated with these investigations
(2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark for partial explanation; 2 marks for elaboration/explanation

NOTE: including 60 studies and 5 categories receives no credit as it is


repeating the stem.
NOTE: explaining a meta-analysis can be awarded 1 mark max.

2(b)(i) Suggest one ‘point-of-purchase’ variable. 2

Most likely answers (Turley and Milliman):

a Point-of-purchase displays
b Signs and cards (1 mark) signs combined with sale price information
displayed at the point of purchase are effective (2 marks)
c Wall decorations
d Degrees and certificates (1 mark) shows the quality of the
establishment/service and so give people/shoppers confidence (2 marks)
e Pictures
f Artwork
g Product displays
h Usage instructions
i Price displays
j Teletext

Marks: 1 mark identification of any one of the above, 2 marks for explanation
of the identified variable.

NOTE: question does not state ‘Turley and Milliman’ so any appropriate
variable receives credit.

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Question Answer Marks

2(b)(ii) Explain how the variable you suggested in (b)(i) relates to one model of 2
the effects of ambience.

The two main models are as follows:

• The Mehrabian and Russell (1974) pleasure/arousal/dominance


(PAD) model: pleasure (the degree to which a person felt happy or
satisfied in a place), arousal (the degree of stimulation caused by an
atmosphere), and dominance (the degree to which a person feels in
control in a situation) (1 mark for brief explanation) how the variable in (i)
relates to this (2 marks)
• The cognition-emotion model Lazarus (1991). Our appraisal of a
situation (any aspect of the display) causes an emotional response. A
stimulus in the environment/situation can be consciously or unconsciously
processed and this leads us to be aroused and experience emotion
(which both happen at the same time). (1 mark for brief explanation) how
the variable in (i) relates to this (2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark brief explanation of model, 2 marks for explanation of how


model and point-of-purchase variable relate.

2(c) Suggest two ways in which the effect of atmospheric variables on 4


shoppers could be measured.

Most likely answer:

• Observation e.g. covert (1 mark) of the increase or decrease in number of


shoppers entering the store or remaining in the store (2 marks)
• Field experiment conducted in a store (1 mark) with IV of variable v
control of no variable, DV of time in store, number of purchases, etc. (2
marks)
• Questionnaire e.g. with closed questions (1 mark) asking about variables
and how they affect responses such as pleasure, arousal, dominance
(PAD) (2 marks)
• Interview e.g. semi-structured (1 mark) asking about variables and how
they affect responses such as pleasure, arousal, dominance (PAD) (2
marks)
• Also credit ‘sales/purchase behaviour’ (1 mark) in 25/28 studies
atmospheric variables affected consumer sales (2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark outline of method, 2 marks detailed answer/elaboration/use of


example  2.

NOTE: variable does not need to be identified, emphasis is ‘way’/method.


NOTE: identification of method is insufficient for 1 mark (needs to be
technique or format)

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Question Answer Marks

2(d) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of using field experiments to 5


investigate the effect of atmospheric variables on shoppers. You should
include a conclusion in your answer.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

Strengths:
• a field experiment has an IV, DV and controls = cause and effect
• often participants do not know they are taking part in a study and so
behave more naturally
• most consumer behaviour (e.g. shopping) takes place in the real world
and so studies should be conducted in the real world (rather than in a
laboratory)

Weaknesses:
• a field experiment may have variables that are more difficult to control
than a laboratory experiment
• field experiments may gather quantitative data but other methods used in
conjunction may give reason for decision to purchase or not
• It may be reductionist to isolate variables to study (i.e. the IV) when many
other variables that are controlled may contribute to consumer behaviour
as a whole

Conclusion: any appropriate conclusion drawn from the discussion that has
been presented. 1 mark if appropriate. A conclusion is a ‘decision reached by
reasoning’ and so a summary of points already made scores 0 marks.

Marks: Question requires discussion; always plural of each argument, and


always requires conclusion.
1 mark for each advantage/disadvantage (however detailed) and related to
the question up to 4 max. 2 marks max. for two strengths/weaknesses
unrelated to the question. 1 mark for conclusion.

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Question Answer Marks

3 Many people experience chronic pain. Some people use medical


techniques (biochemical) such as drugs, psychological techniques, or
alternative techniques to manage (and/or control) their pain. Medical
techniques can also be used to control acute pain.

3(a) Explain what is meant by chronic pain, using an example. 2

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

Explanation: chronic pain is long lasting / months to years e.g. 3 months or


more (1 mark)
Example: identification of a correct example such as arthritis (+ 1 mark)

Marks: 1 mark for explanation, 1 mark for example.

3(b) Outline two ways in which medical techniques can be used to control 4
acute pain.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):


• peripherally acting analgesics (1 mark): aspirin, paracetamol ‘over the
counter’ medicines for headache, etc. (2 marks)
• local anaesthetics: (1 mark) (i) mild such as rubbing in cream at painful
site; (ii) strong such as injection into local area (for stitching a wound,
extracting a tooth). (2 marks)
• general anaesthetics: (1 mark) work directly on the nervous system,
such as morphine resulting in ‘unconsciousness’ in the patient (2 marks)

Marks: 1 mark for identification. 2 marks for detailed answer/elaboration/


example  2.
0 marks for ways to control chronic pain. 0 marks for any non-medical
technique.

NOTE: credit can also be given to answers explaining how these analgesics/
anaesthetics work.

3(c) Suggest two differences between acupuncture and stimulation therapy/ 4


TENS used to manage pain.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

• acupuncture is usually administered by a qualified practitioner who knows


where to insert the needles. TENS can be administered by the person
themselves, not needing anyone with experience.
• acupuncture relieves pain, TENS distracts the person from the original
pain.
• acupuncture can be used to prevent pain (as an alternative to
anaesthetic). TENS would never be used for this purpose.

Marks: 1 mark for one side, + 1 mark for alternative side  2

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Question Answer Marks

3(d) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of using ‘psychological 5


techniques’ to manage pain. You should include a conclusion in your
answer.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

Strengths
• people control the treatment themselves; people can choose when to
apply attention diversion for example
• people can apply psychological techniques any place, any time
anywhere.

Weaknesses
• people may prefer to have a medical treatment; a medically qualified
person treating them
• people may not be ‘good’ at applying psychological techniques. They
have to be active for the procedure to work and they may prefer to be
passive
• psychological techniques need time to become proficient; they are not a
quick ‘take a drug’ solution

Conclusion: any appropriate conclusion drawn from the discussion that has
been presented. 1 mark if appropriate. A conclusion is a ‘decision reached by
reasoning’ and so a summary of points already made scores 0 marks.

Marks: Question requires discussion; always plural of each argument, and


always requires conclusion.
1 mark for each advantage/disadvantage (however detailed) and related to
the question up to 4 max. 2 marks max. for two strengths/weaknesses
unrelated to the question. 1 mark for conclusion.

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Question Answer Marks

4 Groupthink is what happens when group cohesion causes a group, such


as a management team, to make a decision without any critical
evaluation. Janis (1971) identifies eight ‘symptoms’ (features) of
groupthink.

4(a) Give one real-life example of groupthink. 2

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

• the Bay of Pigs fiasco (this example appears at the beginning of the Janis
paper)
• the attack on Pearl Harbour (also in the Janis paper)
• Other ‘non-published’ examples are creditworthy if they are fully
explained how they relate to groupthink.

Marks: 1 mark basic answer (identification of event), 2 marks detailed


answer/elaboration.

4(b) Explain two ‘symptoms’ of groupthink as identified by Janis. 4

Definitive answers
1 The illusion of invulnerability (1 mark) the belief that nothing can go
wrong (2 marks)
2 Rationale: warning signs ignored and assume everything is fine.
3 Morality: assume group is moral and ignore ethical or moral
consequences (NOTE: text calls this ‘unquestioning beliefs’)
4 Stereotypes: dissenters are in the out-group, where no-one wants to be
5 Pressure (to conform) pressure placed on dissenters
6 Self-censorship: less likely to listen to our doubt if all others are in
agreement
7 The illusion of unanimity (1 mark) the belief that group members who
respect each other will automatically agree (2 marks)
8 Mindguards: ‘self-appointed censors’ who hide problematic information
from the group.

Marks: 1 mark identification of term, 2 marks detailed answer/elaboration (as


above)

4(c) Suggest two strategies that can be used to avoid groupthink. 4

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

• encouraging individual evaluation


• promoting open enquiry
• breaking a full group into sub-groups
• admitting shortcomings
• holding second-chance meetings
• not rushing to a quick solution
• devil’s advocate

Marks: 1 mark basic answer, 2 marks detailed answer/elaboration.

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Question Answer Marks

4(d) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of using observations to assess 5


groupthink in a management team. You should include a conclusion in
your answer.

Most likely answer (other appropriate responses to be credited):

Strengths:
• a covert observation means the person is unaware they are being
observed and so behaves naturally which can give accurate information
about how people behave when part of a team
• observation can be recorded on CCTV allowing observers to check/re-run
• observations can have more than one observer so reliability of
observations can be checked confirming how people behave when part of
a team

Weaknesses:
• if an overt observation is conducted by a member of the team behaviours
might be missed
• if a participant observation is conducted by a member of the team
behaviours might be missed
• a structured observation may not account for new or unexpected
behaviour and so some features of groupthink might be missed

Conclusion: any appropriate conclusion drawn from the discussion that has
been presented. 1 mark if appropriate. A conclusion is a ‘decision reached by
reasoning’ and so a summary of points already made scores 0 marks.

Marks: Question requires discussion; always plural of each argument, and


always requires conclusion.
1 mark for each advantage/disadvantage (however detailed) and related to
the question up to 4 max. 2 marks max. for two strengths/weaknesses
unrelated to the question. 1 mark for conclusion.

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Question Answer Marks

Section B

5(a) Design a study to investigate the long-term effectiveness of systematic 10


desensitisation in the treatment of anxiety disorders.

Marks: use generic levels of response Design a study question part (a).
Additional: Candidates should design the study showing evidence of design
features appropriate to the named method. The named method is: any
appropriate method

Specific features:
• Experiments: type, IV, DV, controls, experimental design.
• Observations: type, setting, response categories, sampling frame,
number of observers.
• Questionnaires/Interviews: type, setting, example questions.
Scoring/rating scale, analysis of responses.

General features of research methodology: sampling technique and


sample, type of data, ethics, reliability, validity, data analysis.

5(b) Explain the psychological and methodological evidence on which your 8


study is based.

Marks: use generic levels of response ‘Design a study’ question part (b).
NOTE: If only methodological or psychological explanation is provided max. 5
marks
Candidates are expected to explain the reasons for the suggested design in
part (a). Explanation should be both psychological and methodological.
Psychological to include appropriate theory or research.

Additional: candidates are expected to justify their decisions or evidence


presented regarding the design made in answer to question part (a).

Syllabus: treatment and management of anxiety disorders: systematic


desensitisation (Wolpe, 1958)

Psychological:
An anxiety hierarchy is constructed – a range of situations or events with
which the fear is associated, arranged from least fearful (e.g. imagining
exposure) to the most fearful (e.g. in vivo). The patient is trained in deep
muscle relaxation and deep breathing techniques. The patient then thinks
about, or is brought into contact with, the least fearful item and applies
relaxation techniques. When relaxed, the next item in the hierarchy is
presented. This continues until the person is desensitised.

Methodological: explanation of method using general and specific features


as above.

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Question Answer Marks

6(a) McCarthy's marketing mix model includes four concepts related to 10


advertising: product, price, place, promotion (The 4 Ps).

Design a study using a questionnaire to investigate which of these four


concepts has most effect on consumer behaviour.

Marks: use generic levels of response Design a study question part (a).
Additional: Candidates should design the study showing evidence of design
features appropriate to the named method. The named method is:
questionnaire.

Specific features: Questionnaires/Interviews: type, setting, example


questions. Scoring/rating scale, analysis of responses.

General features of research methodology: sampling technique and sample,


type of data, ethics, reliability, validity, data analysis.

6(b) Explain the psychological and methodological evidence on which your 8


study is based.

Marks: use generic levels of response ‘Design a study’ question part (b).
NOTE: If only methodological or psychological explanation is provided max. 5
marks
Candidates are expected to explain the reasons for the suggested design in
part (a). Explanation should be both psychological and methodological.
Psychological to include appropriate theory or research.

Additional: candidates are expected to justify their decisions or evidence


presented regarding the design made in answer to question part (a).

Syllabus: types of advertising and advertising techniques: marketing mix


models: The 4 Ps (McCarthy)

Psychological:
Product: this could include the basic product or extensive product, the
product with added qualities such as its packaging, brand name, service and
guarantee.
Price: the amount a customer pays for the product (and includes all aspects
such as discount, special offer, sale price, etc.)
Place: the location of where the product is sold (retail park, shopping mall,
online)
Promotion: includes all the communications the company makes about the
product, such as advertising.

Methodological: explanation of method using general and specific features


as above.

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Question Answer Marks

7(a) Design a study to investigate age differences in stages of delay, as 10


proposed by Safer, before seeking medical treatment.

Marks: use generic levels of response Design a study question part (a).
Additional: Candidates should design the study showing evidence of design
features appropriate to the named method. The named method is: any
appropriate method

Specific features:
• Experiments: type, IV, DV, controls, experimental design.
• Observations: type, setting, response categories, sampling frame,
number of observers.
• Questionnaires/Interviews: type, setting, example questions.
Scoring/rating scale, analysis of responses.

General features of research methodology: sampling technique and


sample, type of data, ethics, reliability, validity, data analysis.

7(b) Explain the psychological and methodological evidence on which your 8


study is based.

Marks: use generic levels of response ‘Design a study’ question part (b).
NOTE: If only methodological or psychological explanation is provided max. 5
marks
Candidates are expected to explain the reasons for the suggested design in
part (a). Explanation should be both psychological and methodological.
Psychological to include appropriate theory or research.

Additional: candidates are expected to justify their decisions or evidence


presented regarding the design made in answer to question part (a).

Syllabus: misusing health services: delay in seeking treatment (Safer et


al.,1979)

Psychological:
Safer (1979) interviewed patient about delay in seeking help. Three delay
reasons were identified:
(i) appraisal delay – number of days from the first symptom to the patient
deciding they were ill
(ii) illness delay – number of days from deciding they were ill until deciding to
seek medical attention
(iii) utilisation delay – number of days from deciding to seek medical attention
until actual appointment.

Methodological: explanation of method using general and specific features


as above.

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Question Answer Marks

8(a) Design an experiment to investigate levels of concentration in workers 10


in different types of office design.

Marks: use generic levels of response Design a study question part (a).

Additional: Candidates should design the study showing evidence of design


features appropriate to the named method. The named method is:
experiment.

Specific features: Experiments: type, IV, DV, controls, experimental design.

General features of research methodology: sampling technique and sample,


type of data, ethics, reliability, validity, data analysis.

8(b) Explain the psychological and methodological evidence on which your 8


experiment is based.

Marks: use generic levels of response ‘Design a study’ question part (b).
NOTE: If only methodological or psychological explanation is provided max. 5
marks
Candidates are expected to explain the reasons for the suggested design in
part (a). Explanation should be both psychological and methodological.
Psychological to include appropriate theory or research.

Additional: candidates are expected to justify their decisions or evidence


presented regarding the design made in answer to question part (a).

Syllabus: Physical and psychological work conditions: open plan offices


(Oldham and Brass, 1979)

Psychological:
Oldham and Brass (1979) looked at a number of measures when moving to a
different type of office. Findings: there was a decrease in work satisfaction,
interpersonal satisfaction and internal work motivation. Also, participants were
interviewed. The new office was described as a ‘fishbowl,’ ‘cage,’ or
‘warehouse’, reflecting on an inability to concentrate, to develop close
friendships, and to complete a job.

Methodological: explanation of method using general and specific features


as above.

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Question Answer Marks

Section C

9 ‘Psychometric measures used to assess anxiety disorders, such as the 12


Generalised Anxiety Disorder assessment (GAD-7), provide therapists
with no useful information.’

To what extent do you agree with this statement? Use examples of


research you have studied to support your answer.

Marks: use generic levels of response in table C.

Syllabus: characteristics of anxiety disorders: measures: the blood injection


phobia inventory (BIPI); Generalised Anxiety Disorder assessment (GAD-7)

Most likely (any other appropriate responses should be credited):

Useful:
• measures such as BIPI and GAD-7 indicate the severity of a disorder.
• these measures can highlight specific features of the disorder.
• these measures can be used as comparisons with others with the same
disorder.
• these measures provide quantitative data.

Not useful:
• talking to a therapist in a clinical interview can reveal perhaps more than
any test.
• the measure can use scales (5 or 7 point) which may not represent what
the person thinks: they could take a neutral option.
• people answering the questionnaires may not be honest about
everything.
• measures assume people have similarities; they are less individualistic.

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Question Answer Marks

10 ‘If playing one type of music at one open air market stall increases the 12
amount of money spent, this finding can be generalised to all open air
market stalls.’

To what extent do you agree with this statement? Use examples of


research you have studied to support your answer.

Marks: use generic levels of response in table C.

Syllabus: sound and consumer behaviour: music in open air markets


(Guéguen et al., 2007)

Most likely (any other appropriate responses should be credited):

Can generalise:
• large numbers of people shop at a large number of open-air markets
where music is played.
• playing music is a common way to relax people, to entertain them and to
advertise – all over the world.
• the findings of field experiments, being experiments have manipulated
and controlled variables; such studies can be replicated anywhere.
• other evidence shows playing music increases sales: North et al. found
that classical music increased spending.

Cannot generalise:
• the location of the study (e.g. a town in France) might not generalise to all
other locations.
• the type of music (joyful, samba) played might also be specific to that
location and not liked in other places/countries.
• the type of music was ‘used for its appropriateness for sale of toys and
trinkets’ and so would not generalise to sales of other items.

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Question Answer Marks

11 ‘Practitioner style (doctor or patient-centred) is irrelevant. What is 12


important is the way in which a practitioner is dressed.’

To what extent do you agree with this statement? Use examples of


research you have studied to support your answer.

Marks: use generic levels of response in table C.

Syllabus: practitioner style: doctor and patient-centred (Byrne and Long,


1976, Savage and Armstrong, 1990). Also relevant: non-verbal
communications (McKinstry and Wang, 1991) and verbal communications
(McKinlay, 1975; Ley, 1988)

Most likely (any other appropriate responses should be credited):

Agree:
• if the patient understands medical terminology then they understand their
illness and their treatment programme. Practitioner style is irrelevant.
• if the practitioner is dressed appropriately then the patient will have
confidence in what is being said. Practitioner style is irrelevant.
• a chatty practitioner style is unimportant. Present symptoms, get
diagnosed, treatment and leave.

Disagree:
• studies have shown that some people prefer a patient-centred approach/
doctor-centred approach – dress and terminology are irrelevant.
• the practitioner may use complex words and the patient may not
understand. A patient-centred approach would help the patient to
understand.
• the way the doctor dresses is unimportant; their knowledge and skills are
what is important and the way they interact with the patient. Style is
crucial.

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Question Answer Marks

12 ‘All accidents at work are caused by errors in operator-machine systems 12


(system errors); not by other factors, such as human error.’

To what extent do you agree with this statement? Use examples of


research you have studied to support your answer.

Marks: use generic levels of response in table C.

Syllabus: Health and safety: accidents at work: errors and accidents in


operator-machine systems.

Most likely (any other appropriate responses should be credited):

Human error:
• Riggio (1990) outlines four type of human error (omission, commission,
sequence errors and timing errors).
• human error can be due to tiredness/fatigue, use of alcohol and/or drugs
or because of accident proneness (accident prone personality).
• more errors happen during the 8pm–6am ‘graveyard’ shift because
humans are vulnerable.
• humans make substitution errors and apply motion stereotypes when an
emergency happens.

Systems errors:
• sometimes there are systems errors: the Three Mile Island incident is
commonly quoted where the poorly designed system was unmanageable.
• sometimes machines are poorly designed where lights are too dim,
buzzers too quiet, controls not user-friendly.
• most accidents are a combination of both human and system errors: the
machine-operator system does not work flawlessly.

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