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a level marking scheme

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Cambridge International AS & A Level

PSYCHOLOGY 9990/32
Paper 3 Specialist Options: Theory October/November 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 39 printed pages.

© UCLES 2023 [Turn over


9990/32 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2023
PUBLISHED
Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.

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9990/32 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2023
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GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.

Social Science-Specific Marking Principles


(for point-based marking)

1 Components using point-based marking:


• Point marking is often used to reward knowledge, understanding and application of skills. We give credit where the candidate’s answer
shows relevant knowledge, understanding and application of skills in answering the question. We do not give credit where the answer
shows confusion.

From this it follows that we:

a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)

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2 Presentation of mark scheme:
• Slashes (/) or the word ‘or’ separate alternative ways of making the same point.
• Semi colons (;) bullet points (•) or figures in brackets (1) separate different points.
• Content in the answer column in brackets is for examiner information/context to clarify the marking but is not required to earn the mark
(except Accounting syllabuses where they indicate negative numbers).

3 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.

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benefit of doubt correct point (do not use more than one tick per mark) incorrect point

no benefit of doubt use to bring attention to a key part context

irrelevant Level 1 not answering question

repetition Level 2 seen

analysis Level 3

unclear Level 4

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9990/32 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2023
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Generic levels of response marking grids

Table A
The table should be used to mark the 8 mark part (a) ‘Describe’ questions (2, 4, 6 and 8).

Level Marks Level descriptor Additional guidance to examiners


Annotation – Mark each description
with L1, L2, L3, L4 or NAQ for L0

4 7–8 • Description is accurate, coherent and detailed and use of Highly detailed descriptions of 2 or more of the 3 (or 4)
psychological terminology is accurate and comprehensive. study/theory/technique can achieve up to 8 marks.
• The answer demonstrates excellent understanding of the Two Level 4s = 8 marks (regardless of the levels for the
material and the answer is competently organised. other parts of the answer)
One Level 4 and One Level 3 = 7 marks

3 5–6 • Description is mainly accurate, reasonably coherent and Two Level 3s = 6 marks
reasonably detailed and use of psychological terminology is One Level 3 and One Level 2 = 5 marks
accurate but may not be comprehensive.
• The answer demonstrates good understanding of the material
and the answer has some organisation.

2 3–4 • Description is sometimes accurate and coherent but lacks Two Level 2s = 4 marks
detail and use of psychological terminology is adequate. One Level 2 and One Level 1 = 3 marks
• The answer demonstrates reasonable (sufficient)
understanding but is lacking in organisation.

1 1–2 • Description is largely inaccurate, lacks both detail and Two level 1s = 2 marks
coherence and the use of psychological terminology is limited. One level 1 = 1 mark
• The answer demonstrates limited understanding of the
material and there is little, if any, organisation.

0 0 • No response worthy of credit.

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Table B: The table should be used to mark the 10 mark part (b) ‘Evaluate’ questions (2, 4, 6 and 8).

Level Marks Level descriptor Additional guidance to examiners


Annotation – Mark each evaluation with
L1, L2, L3, L4 or NAQ for L0, AN for analysis

4 9–10 • Evaluation is comprehensive and the range of issues covered If two issues are done (including the named issue) it is
is highly relevant to the question. possible to achieve full marks, although both would have
• The answer demonstrates evidence of careful planning, to be strong L4 responses.
organisation and selection of material. To be considered a level 3 or 4 response the candidate
• There is effective use of appropriate supporting examples needs to do some analysis.
which are explicitly related to the question.
• Analysis (valid conclusions that effectively summarise issues This could be to consider the strengths and/or
and arguments) is evident throughout. weaknesses of the issue under discussion
• The answer demonstrates an excellent understanding of the OR it could be to consider the counterargument for the
material. issue they have raised (e.g. if the candidate argues the
theory is reductionist, they may also argue how it could
be considered holistic)
OR they could discuss the issues the psychologists could
have with trying to achieve good ecological validity,
ethics, etc. (e.g. could get social desirability if ethical)

3 7–8 • Evaluation is good. There is a range of evaluative issues.


• There is good organisation of evaluative issues (rather than
‘study by study’).
• There is good use of supporting examples which are related
to the question.
• Analysis is often evident.
• The answer demonstrates a good understanding of the
material.

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9990/32 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2023
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Level Marks Level descriptor Additional guidance to examiners
Annotation – Mark each evaluation with
L1, L2, L3, L4 or NAQ for L0, AN for analysis

2 4–6 • Evaluation is mostly accurate but limited. Range of issues Could be where candidate does their discussion by
(which may or may not include the named issue) is limited. study/theory/treatment and therefore each point is not
• The answer may only hint at issues but there is little developed and there may be repetition.
organisation or clarity.
• Supporting examples may not be entirely relevant to the Or one good point. (up to 4 marks)
question.
• Analysis is limited.
• The answer lacks detail and demonstrates a limited
understanding of the material.
Note: If the named issue is not addressed, a maximum of 5
marks can be awarded.
• If only the named issue is addressed, a maximum of 4 marks
can be awarded.

1 1–3 • Evaluation is basic and the range of issues included is


sparse.
• There is little organisation and little, if any, use of supporting
examples.
• Analysis is limited or absent.
• The answer demonstrates little understanding of the material.

0 0 • No response worthy of credit.

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Psychology and abnormality

Question Answer Marks Guidance

1(a) Explain what is meant by ‘mania’. 2 Euphoria, extreme high, over-confidence in one’s own
ability, anger = 1 mark
Award 1 mark for a basic explanation of the term/concept –
one symptom. No credit for happiness, mood is lifted or improved,
Award 2 marks for a detailed explanation of the term/ excitement, bad sleeping habits (as mania is just not
concept – two symptoms. needing to sleep)

For example: Max 1 if candidate states or implies that mania is bi-polar


A condition suffered by those with bipolar disorder, which is disorder but does give symptom(s) of mania in their
the opposite ‘pole’ to depression (1) It is characterised by response.
any of the following – 1 mark per symptom

• Long periods of euphoria (or ‘high’)


• Rage/irritability
• ‘spur of the moment’ decision-making
• Racing thoughts
• Suddenly starting new projects/hobbies
• Extreme confidence
• Having lots of new ideas / heightened creativity
• Speaking quickly
• Not needing to sleep / sleeping much less
• Engaging in risky behaviour (gambling, sexual
promiscuity)

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

1(b) Describe the study on depression and attributional style 4 No credit for just explaining how attributional style and
by Seligman et al. (1988). depression are linked with no mention of the study.

Award 1–2 marks for a basic answer with some No credit for linking learned helpless with depression.
understanding of the topic area. e.g. stating that depression has a pessimistic attribution
Award 3–4 marks for a detailed answer with clear style is not a result. However, stating that the more severe
understanding of the topic area. the depression the more pessimistic the attributional style is
= 1 result
39 patients with unipolar depression and 12 patients with
bipolar disorder (mean age 36 from the same outpatients’ Full marks needs some detail of the sample (e.g. unipolar/
clinic), (together with 10 non-clinical adults acting as a bi-polar), data collection and one result.
control group), were assessed. (1) All completed a short
form of the BDI and the Attributional Style Questionnaire
(ASQ) before their cognitive therapy, after their cognitive
therapy and a year after therapy finished. (1) The ASQ asks
patients to make causal attributions for 12 hypothetical
events (both good and bad). They then rate each cause on
a 7-point scale for internality, stability and globality. (2) The
results were that a pessimistic explanatory style (scoring
highly for internal, stable and global) for negative (bad)
events correlated significantly with severity of depression at
all three time points,(1) Explanatory style improved by the
end of the therapy, as did depressive symptoms for the
unipolar group. (2) The pattern was also seen in bipolar
depressives but the significant results were not as strong.
(1) This suggests that the way we make attributions is an
important mechanism underlying the experience of
depression.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

1(c) Explain the effectiveness of the controls used in the 6 Annotate with levels
study by Seligman et al.
Credit can be given to demand characteristics with reference
Points could include to BDI/ASQ

• Make the study more reliable. The same procedure/


treatment was done for all participants in the study. This
meant all experienced exactly the same thing during the
study.
• Reduces individual differences acts as a control as the
study includes both unipolar and bi-polar patients.
• The control group is not a very effective control in the
study as they were just used as a baseline comparison
for BDI and ASQ as the control group did not
experience any therapy (as they had no psychiatric
disorder).
• Increases validity and reliability as scores of depression
and attributional style were administered before and
after treatment so that changes in these could be clearly
measured.
• Enables more objective data rather than reliance on
subjective interpretations (use of same procedure/tests
before and after treatment)
• Relationships are not cause and effect but only
correlational as participants cannot be randomly
assigned to groups (quasi experiment).
• Validity of the DNA collected using automated
equipment in a lab-removes researcher bias.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

1(c) Mark according to the levels of response criteria below:

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


• Candidates will show a clear understanding of the
question and will explain at least two points regarding
controls.
• Candidates will provide a good explanation with clear
detail.

Level 2 (3–4 marks)


• Candidates will show an understanding of the question
and will explain one point about control in detail or two
(or more) in less detail.
• Candidates will provide a good explanation.

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


• Candidates will show a basic understanding of the
question and will attempt an explanation about controls.
• Candidates will provide a limited explanation.

Level 0 (0 marks)
No response worthy of credit.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

2(a) Describe explanations of schizophrenia and delusional 8


disorder.

Explanations of schizophrenia and delusional disorder,


including the following:
• genetic (Gottesman and Shields, 1972)
• biochemical (dopamine hypothesis)
• cognitive (Frith, 1992)

Genetic (Gottesman and Shields, 1972) Schizophrenia


appears to have a genetic cause as shown by Gottesman
and Shields in their review article of studies of adoption,
siblings and twins with schizophrenia. All adoption studies
found an increased incidence of schizophrenia in adopted
children with a schizophrenic biological parent. Biological
siblings of children with schizophrenia showed a much
higher percentage of schizophrenia. All twin studies found a
higher concordance rate for schizophrenia in monozygotic
(MZ) than dizygotic (DZ) twins. In Gottesman and Shield’s
own study the rate was 58% for identical twins, and 12% for
non-identical twins. Conclusion – There is obviously a heavy
genetic input into the onset of schizophrenia.

Biochemical (dopamine hypothesis) The dopamine


hypothesis of schizophrenia states that symptoms may be
caused by an excess of dopamine in the mid-brain and a
reduction in dopamine in the prefrontal cortex.
The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that a
high level of activity of dopamine D2 receptor
neurotransmission in subcortical and limbic brain regions
contributes to positive symptoms of schizophrenia, whereas
negative and cognitive symptoms of the disorder can be
attributed to heightened activity of dopamine D1 receptor
neurotransmission in the prefrontal cortex.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

2(a) Cognitive (Frith, 1992) The symptoms of schizophrenia are


due to faulty thinking processes. The patient fails to
recognise through a central monitoring system that they
thoughts they are having are self-created (such as our inner
voice) and instead believe these are cause by external
factors. The delusions may be a way of explaining the
hallucinations. There may be a cognitive impairment of
patients with schizophrenia which could explain some of the
symptoms such as speech poverty and disorganised
thoughts. The patients may also have a less developed
theory of mind and find it difficult to understand the actions
of others and so may develop delusions as a way of
understanding other people’s behaviours.

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table A.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

2(b) Evaluate explanations of schizophrenia and delusional 10


disorder, including a discussion of nature versus
nurture.

A range of issues could be used for evaluation here. These


include:

• Named issue – nature versus nurture – The biological


explanation (and the Gottesman and Shields study)
support the nature side of the debate as schizophrenia
is inherited. The biochemical explanation is also
supporting nature as the excess of dopamine could be
caused by genetic factors. It could, however, also be
said to support nurture as it may be the overload of
experiences that the schizophrenic person is having that
lead to the excess of dopamine. The cognitive
explanation can be seen to supports the nurture side of
the debate as the cognitions the person is experiencing
are due to experiences. However, Frith/cognitive does
not deny the importance of dopamine and the role of
biochemical processes in the cognitive experiences of
the schizophrenic patient.
• Individual versus situational
• Reductionism
• Application of psychology to everyday life (with
reference to explanations
• Deterministic nature of the explanations
• Evidence to support the explanations

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table B.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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9990/32 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2023
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Psychology and consumer behaviour

Question Answer Marks Guidance

3(a) Outline ‘involvement’ as a marketing theory (Richarme, 2


2005).

Award 1 mark for a basic outline of the term/concept.


Award 2 marks for a detailed outline of the term/concept.

For example:

The amount of cognitive effort applied to the decision-


making process (1) is directly related to the level of
importance the consumer places on acquiring the product
(1). For example, low involvement in purchasing a pack of
chewing gum but high involvement in the purchase of a cell
phone (1). It is not necessarily to do with price but more to
do with impact on the quality of life of the consumer (1).

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

3(b) Outline two of the findings from the study by Hall et al. 4
(2010) on choice blindness.

For each finding:

Award 1 marks for a basic answer with some understanding


of the topic area.
Award 2 marks for a detailed answer with clear
understanding of the topic area.

For example:

In the manipulated trials –

Counting across all pairings


• concurrent detection was approx. 14% for both jam and
tea
• retrospective detection was 6–7% for both jam and tea
• sensory change was approx. 12% for both jam and tea
• Different detection types had ratings that were
consistent across jam and tea

In total
• 32–33% total detection rate for both jam and tea
• No difference in ease of distinguishing between the two
samples in either the non-manipulated trials or the non-
detected manipulated trials
• No difference in rated confidence of participant’s ability
to distinguish between the two samples in either the
non-manipulated trials or the non-detected manipulated
trials
• No order defects on any of the measures uses as a
result of the participants choosing the first or second
sample when evaluation the products.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

3(b) Differences
• Significant differences in detection rate between the
most and least similar jam and tea pairs but no
differences between other pairs
• Rated discrepancy of preference within a pair was
higher for detected (as opposed to undetected) jam
trials but not the case for detected tea trials
• Lower detection rate (20%) in those with gift incentive
compared to those without (46%) in tea condition but
not in jam condition

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

3(c) Explain one strength and one weakness of the study by 6 If more than two strengths given, credit the best two.
Hall et al.

Likely strengths could be:

• Highly controlled procedures – same ratings asked for,


same jam and tea flavours, manipulation done in the
same way
• Reasonably large sample size (180 customers)
• High in mundane realism as ‘tasting’ is something
customers in a supermarket are often asked to do and
cover story (quality control) is realistic
• Ethics – debriefing and written consent given at the end.
Regional Swedish Ethics Board approved the study.
• Many IVs (jam, tea, flavour combinations, manipulated
or not) so that results can be seen to be down to
manipulation, increasing validity
• A lot of measures for DV – rating of taste/smell for each
(10-point scale), indication of preference (quantitative
data), why preference (qualitative data), difficulty of
discrimination, confidence and asked if anything was
odd or unusual (to see if manipulation detected)
• Quantitative and qualitative data collected so lots to
analyse and some detail as to why results given.

Likely weakness could be:

• Biased sample (118 f to 62 m) although this is probably


representative of supermarket customers
• With the many IVs, not many participants in each
condition making valid conclusions harder to draw
• Problems with self-reporting particularly in terms of
social desirability (wanting to please experimenters)

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

3(c) • Ethics – deception and informed consent not obtained in


advance (although not possible if study were to be
successful; and written consent was given after the
experiment)
• Only took place in one supermarket in Sweden so
results may not be generalisable outside of this
setting/culture

Mark according to the levels of response criteria below:

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


• Candidates will show a clear understanding of the
question and will explain one strength and one
weakness.
• Candidates will provide a good explanation with clear
detail.

Level 2 (3–4 marks)


• Candidates will show an understanding of the question
and will explain one appropriate weakness in detail or
one appropriate strength in detail.
OR one weakness and one strength in less detail.

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


• Candidates will show a basic understanding of the
question and will attempt an explanation of either a
strength or a weakness. They could include both but
just as an attempt.
• Candidates will provide a limited explanation.

Level 0 (0 marks)
No response worthy of credit.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

4(a) Describe communication and advertising models 8


(changing attitudes and models of communication,
AIDA model, hierarchy of effects model).

• Changing attitudes and models of communication


(source, message, etc.)
• AIDA model (and updates of it)
• Hierarchy of effects model

Changing attitudes and models of communication


(source, message, etc.)
This model explains how advertisements attempt to change
and influence consumers so they purchase their product.

• Source – where the message is coming from and how


trustworthy and credible this source is to the consumer.
− It could be presented by an expert or by a celebrity.
If celebrity is used too many times they may lose
their trustworthiness.
− If advertising something that could make a person
more attractive then the attractiveness of the ‘source’
should be high.
− Someone similar to the target customers is more
persuasive.
− Men more credible than women.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

4(a) • Message – how the information in the advertisement is


presented to the consumer
− Two-sided argument is better when the product is
familiar e.g. comparison made to competition. One-
sided argument when product unfamiliar. Customers
can view one-sided argument as more truthful.
− Have to be careful with level of persuasiveness in
advert and can lower sales if the advert seems to be
trying too hard.
− Repetition is good and helps aid recall
• Audience/receiver – what type of consumers may
purchase the product. The advertisement needs to be
tailored to them.
− If it is young or old consumers.
− does the customers all have a similar set of attitudes
(difficult if customers all have different sets of
attitudes)
− women easier to persuade than men.
− Difficult to change someone with very high / very low
self-esteem and easier for moderate self-esteem.

Credit can also be given to the Yale Model of


Communication so long as it is linked to advertising.
(attention, comprehension and acceptance)

AIDA model (and updates of it)


Behavioural model of advertising. Four stages including
• Attention (or awareness) – must attract the attention of
the consumer.
• Interest – to make the advertisement get the viewers to
want to know more about the product.
• Desire – to maintain or increase a feeling of need for the
product.
• Action – for the consumer to go out and purchase the
product.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

4(a) Updates – CAB model (Cognition, Affect and Behaviour);


TIREA scale (Thought, Interest, Risk, Engagement and
Action); REAN model (Reach, Engage, Activate and
Nurture); NAITDASE (Need, Attention and Interest, Trust,
Desire and Action of purchase); DAGMAR (Defining
Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results)

Hierarchy of effects model

Six stages –
• Awareness – becomes aware of the product through
advertising.
• Knowledge – Information about the product that the
consumer needs to become aware of (simple for some
products such as food and more complex for other
products such as a car)
• Liking – Makes sure the consumer likes the product and
also more than similar products.
• Preference – similar to liking. Likes the product more
than the competitions.
• Conviction – Strengthens desire to purchase (e.g.
through a discount or free offer)
• Purchase – Go and buy the product.

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table A.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

4(b) Evaluate what psychologists have discovered about 10


communication and advertising models (changing
attitudes and models of communication, AIDA model,
hierarchy of effects model), including a discussion of
reductionism versus holism.

A range of issues could be used for evaluation here.

These include:

• Named issue – Reductionism versus holism – These


models do offer some complex explanations of the
effects of advertising on consumer decision to purchase
a product. For example, the models of communication
do recognise that the company has to consider many
aspects of the advertising medium and message (not
just the content of the advertisement). This could
include things such as the medium to consider where is
best to advertise to potential and existing consumers.
The hierarchy of affects model and the AIDA model are
also fairly complex as they do suggest there are a
number of different stages that consumers pass through
when seeing an advertisement and then eventually
going and buying the product. Do also credit any
argument that the models are more simplistic so long as
it is well argued by the candidate with some examples
of what might be missing from the model (e.g. how
much disposable income the consumer might have to
go and purchase the product)

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

4(b) • Applications to everyday life


• Cultural bias
• Reductionism
• Theoretical/lack of research support
• Determinism
• Individual differences

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table B.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

Psychology and health

Question Answer Marks Guidance

5(a) Outline one behavioural technique used to improve 2 1 mark for technique, 1 mark for reference to adherence
adherence to medical advice.
Names of researchers not needed
Award 1 mark for a basic outline of the term/concept.
Award 2 marks for a detailed outline of the term/concept. Any appropriate behavioural technique is creditworthy so
long as it (a) is practical (b) would improve adherence to
Most likely answers: medication. It does not need to be in the syllabus but needs
to be clearly behavioural (e.g. a reward is given to
• Use of positive reinforcement in whistle and/or spinner encourage adherence).
for correct use of Funhaler (Watt et al). Improved uptake
of asthma medication in children. Do not credit
• Mail prompt for immunisation in children in addition to Formal attire
either free clinic access or childcare during additional Avoid jargon
clinic time enabling parents to go out or monetary
incentive (entering into lottery to win a possible £175
prize or telephone call reminder (Yokley and Glenwick)

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

5(b) Describe the study on repeat prescriptions by Sherman 4 For full marks – either objective or result – filling of
et al. (2000). prescription is a better measure of adherence than what the
doctor reports. Also needs how data was collected (must
Award 1–2 marks for a basic answer with some mention that they contacted pharmacies).
understanding of the topic area.
Award 3–4 marks for a detailed answer with clear
understanding of the topic area.

For example:

116 children with asthma (medicated). (1) Clinician


interviewed patients, carers or both to obtain adherence
level (using checklist). (1) Nurse asked carers where they
obtained the prescribed medication and then telephoned the
66 pharmacies who supplied the patients to obtain number
of repeat prescriptions filled.(1) Data recorded as a
percentage of possible adherence over a mean time of 163
days (~5 months).(1) Accuracy of refill info checked using
Medicaid records.(1) Info provided by pharmacies 92%
accurate.(1) Adherence rates for the various prescribed
asthma drugs varied from 38% to 72%.(1) 49% of patients
had less than 50% adherence rate to longer-term
(preventative) medications (1). Researchers concluded that
physicians were unable to identify which patients had poor
adherence. Checking prescription refills is an accurate and
practical method of identifying these patients.(1)

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

5(c) Explain two strengths of the study by Sherman et al. 6 Good population validity for sample size (116)
Good ethics eg informed consent, no harm
Strengths could include:
• High validity as both adherence levels recorded and
compared with those obtained by pharmacy phone call.
• High accuracy of records from pharmacy (checked
against Medicaid records) – 92% accurate.
• Three types of drugs compared; all of a preventative
type; allowing for comparison. Results might suggest
that some medications are more appropriate to
dispense (because they are more likely to be adhered
to) increasing the application of the results.
• High ecological validity. The results from this study are
important as non-adherence to medication in asthma
patients is very problematic. All of the children had
asthma that required the administration of preventative
drugs, not just relievers.
• Practical application – the results show that clinicians
are not good judges of whether or not adherence rates
are high or not. This allows a different (more accurate)
method to find adherence rate, allowing practitioners to
target strategies to improve adherence to the patients
most in need.
• Results gathered over a long period of time (on average
5 months, but up to a year) – in other words a number
of potential refills (prescriptions were for a month’s
worth of medication) enabling one-off missed
prescriptions to be evened-out amongst sample.
• Use of controls – patients who had received free
samples were excluded from the sample to ensure only
the refilled medication prescribed by the doctor and
filled by the pharmacy were taken into account.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

5(c) Mark according to the levels of response criteria below:

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


• Candidates will show a clear understanding of the
question and will explain two strengths.
• Candidates will provide a good explanation with clear
detail.

Level 2 (3–4 marks)


• Candidates will show an understanding of the question
and will explain one appropriate strength in detail.
OR two strengths in less detail.

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


• Candidates will show a basic understanding of the
question and will attempt an explanation of a strength.
They could include two strengths but just as an attempt.
• Candidates will provide a limited explanation.

Level 0 (0 marks)
No response worthy of credit.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

6(a) Describe what psychologists have discovered about 8


types and theories of pain.

• Definitions of pain – acute and chronic organic pain,


psychogenic pain (phantom limb pain)
• Theories of pain – Specificity theory (Descartes, 1664),
gate control theory (Melzack, 1965).

Acute and chronic organic pain


Acute pain is of short duration. It can be mild or severe and
last anywhere from a moment to several months.
Chronic organic pain is of a longer duration and is caused by
tissue damage. It can also be mild or severe but lasts for
more than 6 months up to years.
Acute pain can become chronic pain.

Psychogenic pain (phantom limb pain)


Pain perceived by the body of a limb no longer present. It is
psychogenetic as the pain is imagined by the mind.
Credit can be given to examples/case studies.

Specificity theory (Descartes, 1664)


The theory that moved the centre of pain sensation away
from the heart to the brain. It assumes the body was more
similar to a machine, and that pain was a disturbance that
passed down along nerve fibres until the disturbance
reached the brain.
We have a sensory system that is dedicated to sense pain.
The neurons form a pathway that is connected to a pain
centre in the brain.
When the body feels pain via one of the sense (e.g. on the
skin), this then travels down the neural fibres to the brain
where pain is registered in the brain.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

6(a) Gate control theory (Melzack, 1965)


The nervous system is made up of the central nervous
system (the spinal cord and the brain) and the peripheral
nervous system (nerves outside of the brain and spinal
cord. In the gate control theory, the experience of pain
depends on an interplay of these two systems as they each
process pain signals in their own way. Upon injury, pain
messages originate in nerves associated with the damaged
tissue and flow along the peripheral nerves to the spinal
cord and on up to the brain. Before the pain messages can
reach the brain these pain messages encounter "nerve
gates" in the spinal cord that open or close depending upon
a number of factors (possibly including instructions coming
down from the brain). When the gates are opening, pain
messages "get through" more or less easily and pain can be
intense. When the gates close, pain messages are
prevented from reaching the brain and may not even be
experienced.

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table A.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

6(b) Evaluate what psychologists have discovered about 10


types and theories of pain, including a discussion of
practical applications.

A range of issues could be used for evaluation here. These


include:
• Named issue – practical applications – it is useful for
doctors, patients and anyone working with people in
pain to understand the types of pain and also the
theories of pain in order to better explain the pain to the
patients. However, nothing is mentioned about how to
reduce pain in these theories, which makes them less
practical. Candidates could provide specific applications
e.g. it may help those experiencing pain to have the
mechanism explained to them. This knowledge could
make the experience of pain easier to deal with. It may
also inform potential pain-killing solutions.
• Reductionism
• Individual Differences
• Generalisability/cultural bias
• Comparison of the two theories
• Free will and determinism

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.


Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in
Table B.

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Psychology and organisations

Question Answer Marks Guidance

7(a) Identify two ways that workers compare themselves to 2 Inputs and outcomes
other workers, according to equity theory (Adams, Performance
1963).

Award 1 mark for each way in which workers can be


compared.

For example:
Pay
Recognition
Status
What they bring to the job e.g. skills, competence,
knowledge
Inputs
Outputs

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

7(b) Describe the need theory of achievement motivation 4


(McClelland, 1965).

Award 1–2 marks for a basic answer with some


understanding of the topic area.
Award 3–4 marks for a detailed answer with clear
understanding of the topic area.

Example 4 mark response.


This theory has three needs – need for achievement,
affiliation and power. (2) The need for achievement is where
the workers want to be successful based on their hard work
rather than on the basis of luck. (1) The need for affiliation is
the need to be liked and accepted by others / to be a part of
a group of workers. (1)

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

7(c) Explain two differences between achievement 6 If more than two differences are given credit the best two.
motivation (McClelland, 1965) and hierarchy of needs
(Maslow, 1970).

Likely differences
• Achievement motivation (AM) is not based on a
hierarchy whereas hierarchy of needs (HN) is. People
have to work through the HN from bottom to top, but in
AM the 3 needs are discrete and non-hierarchical.
• There is far greater emphasis on needs within an
organisation/workplace for AM compared to HN
(although Maslow did derive his theory from reference
to the workplace). AM far more focused on work
compared to HN.
• Determinism – HN is more deterministic compared to
AM. For example a worker will not be able to be creative
in the workplace without their safety needs being met
first. On the other hand, a worker could score low for
power and achievement, but highly for affiliation.
• Individual differences – Everyone has to have their
physiological needs met before safety and these needs
will be universal. However, not all workers need to have
high power needs or high affiliation needs allowing a
great many more individual differences.
• Ease of assessment – specific criteria exist allowing
organisations to measure the needs in each category
for AM. Need for affiliation, for example, can be
measured using a Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) –
a projective test using a series of ambiguous images the
worker is asked to interpret. Tests for HN are not used
in the workplace.

© UCLES 2023 Page 34 of 39


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Question Answer Marks Guidance

7(c) Mark according to the levels of response criteria below:

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


• Candidates will show a clear understanding of the
question and will explain two differences.
• Candidates will provide a good explanation with clear
detail.

Level 2 (3–4 marks)


• Candidates will show an understanding of the question
and will explain one difference in detail.
• OR two differences in less detail.

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


• Candidates will show a basic understanding of the
question and will attempt an explanation of a difference.
They could include both but just as an attempt.
• Candidates will provide a limited explanation.

Level 0 (0 marks)
No response worthy of credit.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

8(a) Describe what psychologists have discovered about 8


physical and psychological work conditions (the
Hawthorne studies, bullying at work, open plan offices).

Physical and psychological work conditions in organisations,


including the following:
• Physical: the Hawthorne studies (Wikstrom and Bendix,
2000)
• Psychological: bullying at work (Einarsen, 1999)
• Open plan offices (Oldham and Brass, 1979)

Hawthorne studies (Wikstrom and Bendix, 2000)


This study reviews the Hawthorne studies conducted in the
1920s.
The original was done at the Hawthorne Plant in Chicago to
test the effect of changes in the environment on productivity.
Researchers changed many aspects of the working
environment (e.g. lighting and work structures) but found
regardless of what they did the productivity increased in both
the experimental group where changes were made as well
as a control group which had no changes. It was concluded
that it could be due to the special privileges received by
those involved in the study as well as the improved
relationships the workers formed with each other and
management.
They also found that further research has not replicated
these findings and this could be due to a number of factors
including that the workers in the Hawthorne Plant may have
received higher income, positive attention from their work,
etc.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

8(a) Bullying at work (Einarsen, 1999)


This is a review article of many pieces of previous research.
A summary of one or more of these pieces of research can
also be given credit.
Four stages are also identified in the article including –
aggressive behaviour, bullying, stigmatisation and finally
severe trauma.
Five types of bullying behaviour identified – physical, verbal,
social isolation, personal attack (e.g. ridicule/gossip), work-
related (e.g. making tasks harder to perform)

Open plan offices (Oldham and Brass, 1979)


Employees of a newspaper in the Midwest, USA. 123
Participants. 76 in experimental group who experienced all
three waves of the move to the open plan office design.
5 were a control group (office design did not change) and
26 experienced two of the waves. Three questionnaire items
were used to measure each of the following job
characteristics: autonomy, skill variety, task identity, task
significance, and task feedback. Also asked questions about
how easy it was to interact with others, perception of conflict,
concentration, etc. Found employees’ internal motivation
and satisfaction with work and colleagues decreased after
the move to the open plan office. Found it difficult to
concentrate/complete tasks.

Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table A.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

© UCLES 2023 Page 37 of 39


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Question Answer Marks Guidance

8(b) Evaluate what psychologists have discovered about 10


physical and psychological work conditions (the
Hawthorne studies, bullying at work, open plan offices),
including a discussion of experiments.

A range of issues could be used for evaluation here. These


include:

• Named issue – experiments: Experiments can be high


in validity due controls including control group. Oldham
and Brass could be described as a quasi experiment
(even a natural experiment) so open to issues of lack of
randomisation to conditions (those left behind could
have been more satisfied people in the first place rather
than due to staying in the original office). Both the
Hawthorne studies and the Oldham and Brass studies
are field experiments. Field experiments have high
ecological validity as they are carried out in the
participants working environment, lending results
application to the real world. However, this means
controls are less likely to have occurred. In particular
the Hawthorne studies are prone to validity issues (see
validity evaluation). Einarsen did not carry out an
experiment so validity is in question with the lack of
controls.
• Validity
• Reductionism and holism
• Individual and situational explanations
• Any research methods issues that are applied to the
Hawthorne study and/or Oldham and Brass study (e.g.
generalisability, ecological validity, type of data)
• Deterministic nature of the conclusions.
• Usefulness/application to everyday life.

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Question Answer Marks Guidance

8(b) Mark according to the levels of response descriptors in


Table B.

Other appropriate responses should also be credited.

© UCLES 2023 Page 39 of 39

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