BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SESSION 202

2024-25
CLASS -11 F.M. 70
SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (044) TIME – 3hrs.
General Instructions:
I. All questions are compulsory.
II. The question
on paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
III. Section-A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section- C
has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section- D has 2 case-based
based questions of 4 marks each; and
Section-E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
IV. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
V. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION: A
1. Group of organisms that closely resemble each other and freely inte
interbreed
rbreed in nature , constitute a
a. Taxon b. Species
c. Genus d. Family
2. A classification based on evolutionary history of organisms is called
a. Artificial system b. Natural system
c. Phylogenetic system d. None of the above

3. Which group of plants have embryo but not vascular tissue ?

a. Pteridophyta b. Thalophyta
c. Bryophyta d. Gymnosperm
4. Armoured cell wall and biflagellated cells are characteristic of
a. Diatoms b. Dinoflagellates
c. Euglena d. BGA
5. Neurospora crassa , which is popularly known as Drosophila of plant kingdom, belongs to
a. Phycomycetes b. Ascomycetes
c. Basidiomycetes d. Deuteromycetes
6. Agar- agar is obtained from
a. Green algae b. Red algae
c. Brown algae d. BGA
7. Match the following group of organisms with their respective distinctive characteristics and select the
correct options
A. Platyhelminthis i. Cylindrical body with no
segmentation
B. Echinoderms ii. Warm blooded animals with
direct development
C. Hemichordates iii. Bilateral symmetry with
incomplete digestive system
D. Aves iv. Radial symmetry with
indirect development
a) A – ii, B – iii, C- iv, D- i b) A – iv, B – i, C- ii, D- iii
c) A – i, B – ii, C- iii, D- iv d) A – iii, B – iv, C- i, D- ii

8. In which plant group sporophyte is parasite on its own gametophyte?

a. Thalophyta b. Bryophyta
c. Gymnosperm d. Pteridophyta

9. Smooth ER is associated with

a. Synthesis of lipid and b. Protein synthesis steroids
c. Detoxification d. Both (a) and (b)
10. Which of the following groups of animals are called pseudocoelomates ?
a. Platyhelminthes b. Nemathelminthes
c. Echinodermates d. Arthropods
11. Which of the following gymnospermic orders resembles with angiosperms?
a. Cycadsles b. Gnetales
c. Coniferales d. Ginkgoales

12. Biradial symmetry is found in

a. Coelenterata b. Echinodermata
c. Ctenophora d. Mollusca

Assertion- Reason Questions:- Direction: - (Q. Nos.13-16)

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by corresponding
statement of (R). Of the statements, mark the correct answer as --
a. If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. If A is true and R is false
d. If both A and R are false
13. A: Ambulacral system plays a major role in locomotion of echinoderm
B: Hydraulic pressure of fluid and contraction of muscle of tube feet make possible movement of
echinoderm
14. A: In bryophytes, sporphytic body multiplies by minute spores formation.
B: All bryophytes are homosporous.
15. A: Malpifhian tubules are excretory organs in most of the insects.
B: These help in Excretion urea and creatinine.
16. A: Prokaryotic cells lack mitochondria
B: Their plasma membrane bears respiratory enzymes.
SECTION: B
17. Differentiate between bacteria and mycoplasmas.
18. a. Name two semi -autonomous cell organelles.
b. Write one important function of Golgi body.
19. Name the following –
a. First tracheophyta b. First spermatophyte
C. Gymnosperm with ciliated male gametes d. The largest ovule in kingdom plantae.
20. What is heterospory ? What is its significance?
21. What are prototherians ? Give one example.
SECTION: C
22. In which group of organisms you find the following structures –
a. Choanocytes b. Nematoblast c. Water vascular system
d.Haemocoel e. Nephridia f. Haemoglobin diffused in blood plasma
23. a. What are the characteristics of Thallophyta?
b. Name the plant groups which have been included in Thallophyta?
24. a. Write four important differences between "Ascomycetes" and "Basidiomycetes ".
b. Name the causal organisms of following diseases: -
a. Late blight of potato b. Black rust of wheat
25. Briefly discuss haplontic, haplo- diplontic and diplontic life cycle with suitable examples.
26. Write four important characteristics of the phylum chordata.
Classify phylum chordata into three sub - phyla.
27. a. Write four important differences between chondrichthyes and osteichthyes.
b. What are viroids and Prions ?
28. a. What are archaebacteria ? What are their types ?
b. How do eubacteria differ from cyanobacteria ?
 ------SECTION: D-------
29. Study the diagram of cell membrane given below carefully and answer the following questions –

a. What is the chemical composition of cell

membrane?
b. Why is cell membrane called selectively
permeable?
c. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of
plasma membrane?
d. What are the functions of integral or
tunnel proteins?

30. Study the figure and answer questions (a) to (d)

with correct options

(a) Where are the lysozomes formed?

i)Over forming face ii)Over

Over maturing face

iii) From tubules iv) Conversion of rough vesicles

(b) Membranes of cisternae are

i) Thin where they are to form vesicles ii)Thick
Thick where they form Golgian vesicles
ii)Thin
Thin in the region forming face
iv)Gradually
Gradually thickening from 4nm on forming face to 7.5nm on maturing face

(c) What is the name of the complex shown in the figure?

i) Golgi apparatus ii) Endoplasmic reticulum
iii) Apparato reticulare iv) Both (i) & (iii)

(d) The structure is generally situated at

i) Base of flagellum ii) Base of microvilli
iii) Near one end of the iv) Anywhere in the cytoplasm
nucleus
SECTION: E
31. a. Briefly discuss the advancement of gymnosperms over Pteridophytes.
b. Write down the sources and uses of the following:
following:-
a. Taxol b. Ephedrine
OR
a. Differentiate between Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae.
b. Which type algae are found in the deepest sea water?
c. Name the following:-
a.Edible
Edible mushroom b. Baker's and bre brewer's
wer's yeast c. Source of LSD d. The richest source of protein
32. Give an outline of classification of the kingdom fungi.
Write important characteristics of each class with examples.
OR
a. Write six important characteristics of the phylum arthropoda.
b. Name the e causal organisms of the following diseases:
a. Kala -azar b. Filaria c. Amoeboid dysentery d. Ascariasis
33. Bacteria are our "friends and foes". Justify the statement.
*********************
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAM– 2024-25
CLASS-XI TIME – 3hrs
SUBJECT - CHEMISTRY (043) F.M : 70

General Instructions
(a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) Section A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 marks each.
(c) Section B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) Section C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) Section D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 Marks each.
(f) Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
____________________________________________________________________________

SECTION- A
Q1. If 500 mL of a 5 M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of the solution
obtained?
(a) 1.5 M (b) 1.6 M (c) 0.017 M (d) 1.59 M

Q2. What is the mass per cent of carbon in carbon dioxide?

(a) 0.034% (b) 27.27% (c) 3.4% (d) 28.7%

Q3. The correctly reported answer of the addition of 294.406 , 280.208 , and 24 will be

(a) 598.61 (b) 599 (c) 598.6 (d) 598.614

Q4. For which of the following compound , formula mass is preferred instead of molecular mass?
(a) NaCl (b) C2H6 (c) N2 (d) H2O
Q5. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be _______.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) 3

Q6. Two atoms are said to be isobars if

(a) they have same atomic number but different mass number.
(b) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
(c) they are same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
(d) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is different.
Q7. The number of radial node for 2p orbital is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Q8. According to Bohr theory, the angular momentum of electron in 4th orbit is:
(a) 20 h/π(b) 10 h/π (c) 2 h/π(d) h/π
Q9. Which of the following element Predicted by Mendeleev ?
a) Aluminium b) Silicon c) Germanium d) Oxygen
Q10. Which of the following species has the same number of electrons in the outermost as
well as penultimate shell ?
(a) Mg2+ (b) O2- (c) F- (d) Ca2+
Q11. According to Fazan's rule, the covalent bond is favored by :
(a) Large cation and small anion (b) Large cation and large anion
(c) small cation and small anion (d) small cation and large anion
Q12. The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on
its outer shell electrons is
(a) s>p> d>f (b) f> d> p> s (c) p < d < s <f (d) f> p> s> d

Q13. Covalent compounds have low melting point because :

(a) Covalent molecules are held by weak van der waals forces
(b) Covalent bond is less exothermic
(c) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond.
(d) Covalent molecules have definite shape.

Q14. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
(a) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(b) atomic number of any element of the period.
(c) maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(d) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.

Q15. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds e.g., H 20, HF, NH3. The boiling point of such
compounds depends to a large extent on the strength of hydrogen bond and the number of
hydrogen bonds: The correct decreasing order of the boiling points of above compounds is
(a) HF>H20>NH3 (b) H20>HF>NH3 (c) NH3>HF>H20 (d) NH3>H20>HF

Q16. The bond between B and C will be

(a) ionic (b) covalent (c) hydrogen (d) coordinate

SECTION- B

Q17. The following data are obtained when dinitrogen and dioxygen react together to form different
compounds:
Mass of dinitrogen Mass of dioxygen
(i) 14 g 16g
(ii) 14 g 32 g
(iii) 28 g 32 g
(iv) 28 g 80 g
(a) Which law of chemical combination is obeyed by the above experimental data? Give its
statement.

Q18. What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 3000 pm that provide 4J of
energy?
Q19. Write the electronic configurations of the following ions: (a)Na+ (b) Ca 2+ (c) Cr3+ (d) Fe3+

Q20. Which element do you think would have been named by:
(i) Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory (ii) Seaborg’s group
OR
Calculate the number of radial and angular node present in 5p orbital.
Q21. Consider thefollowing species :
O , F , Na , Mg
2– – + 2+

(a)What is common in them?

(b)Arrange them in the order of decreasing ionic radii.
 SECTION - C
Q22. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in moles per litre in a sample which has a density
1.41gmL-1 and the mass percent of nitric acid in it is being 69%.
Q23. The ejection of the photoelectron from the silver metal in the photoelectric effect experiment
can be stopped by applying the voltage of 0.35 V when the radiation 256.7 nm is used. Calculate
the work function for silver metal.

Q24. Using s, p, d notations, describe the orbital with the following quantum numbers. (a) n=1, l=0;
(b) n = 3; l=1 (c) n = 4; l =2; (d) n=4; l=3.
Arrange them according to their increasing energy.
OR

Electrons are emitted with zero velocity from a metal surface when it is exposed to a radiation of
wavelength 5000 Å. Calculate threshold frequency and work function of the metal.

Q25. Sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with chloroform, CHCl 3
supposed to be carcinogenic in nature. The level of contamination was 15 ppm (by mass).
(i) Express this in percent by mass
(ii) Determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.
Q26. Define limiting line. What is the maximum number of emission lines when the excited electron
of a hydrogen atom in n = 6 drops to the ground state ?
Q27. (i)How would you explain the fact that the first ionization enthalpy of sodium is lower
than that of magnesium but its second ionization enthalpy is higher than that of
magnesium?
(ii) Write the general outer electronic configuration of p and d- block elements.
OR
Write the merits and demerits of Mendeleev's periodic table.
Q28. What are the properties of Cathode rays. What is the charge and charge to mass ratio of an
electron, using these values calculate the mass of an electron?
SECTION –D
Q29. Case based questions:
Moseley modified Mendeleev periodic law. He stated "physical and chemical properties of elements
are the periodic function of their atomic numbers." It is known as modern periodic law and
considered as the basis of modern periodic table.
When the elements were arranged in increasing order of atomic numbers, it was observed that the
properties of elements were repeated after certain regular intervals 2, 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32. These
numbers are called magic numbers and cause of periodicity in properties due to repetition of similar
electronic configuration. Long form of periodic table is called Bohr's periodic table. There are 18
groups and seven periods in this periodic table The horizontal rows are called periods.
First period ( H - 2He) contains 2 elements. It is the shortest period. Second period and third period
contains 8 elements. Fourth period and fifth period contain 18 elements each. These are long
periods. Sixth period ( consists of 32 elements and is the longest period. Seventh period starting
with 87 Fr is incomplete and consists of 19 elements. Elements of group 1 are called alkali metals.
Elements of group 2 are called alkaline earth metals. Elements of group 16 are called chalcogens
(ore forming elements). Elements of group 17 are called halogens (sea salt forming). Elements of
group 18 are called noble gases.

Anomalous behaviour of the first element of a group. The first element of a group differs
considerably from its congeners (i.e. the rest of the elements of its group). This is due to (i) small
size (ii) high electronegativity and (iii) non-availability of d-orbitals for bonding. Anomalous
behaviour is observed among the second row elements (i.e. Li to F).

In these questions (17 -20 ) a statement of Assertion followed by a statement of Reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices :
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct
explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but Reason is incorrect statement.
(d) Assertion is incorrect statement but Reason is correct statement.

i). Assertion - Zinc is a d -block element.

Reason - zinc does not form coordination compounds
ii) . Assertion - The first ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater that that of B.
Reason - 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.
iii) . Assertion - Outermost electronic configuration of most electronegative element is
ns²np7
Reason - Most electronegative elements are halogen.
iv) . Assertion - Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
Reason - When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the same principal
quantum level, the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does not
increase very much to compensate for the increased attraction of electrons
to the nucleus.
Q30.Case based question
Kössel and Lewis in 1916 developed an important theory of chemical combination between atoms
known as electronic theory of chemical bonding. According to this,atoms can combine either by
transfer of valence electrons from one atom to another(gaining or losing) or by sharing of valence
electrons in order to have an octet in their valence shells. This is known as octet rule. when two
atoms share one electron pair they are said to be joined bya single covalent bond. In many
compounds we have multiple bonds between atoms. The formation of multiple bonds envisages
sharing of more than one electron pair between two atoms. If two atoms share two pairs of
electrons, the covalent bond between them is called a double bond. For example, in the carbon
dioxide molecule, we have two double bonds between the carbon and oxygen atoms. Similarly in
Ethene molecule the two carbon atoms are joined by double bond. The Lewis dot structures provide
a picture of bonding in molecules and ions in terms of the shared pairs of electrons and the octet
rule. The Lewis dot structures can be written by adopting the following steps:

1. The total number of electrons required for writing the structures are obtained by
adding the valence electrons of the combining atoms. For example, in the
CH4molecule there are eight valence electrons available for bonding.
2. For anions, each negative charge would mean addition of one electron. Formations, each
positive charge would result in subtraction of one electron from the total number of valence
electrons. For example, for the CO32– ion, the two negative charges indicate that there are two
additional electrons than those provided by the neutral atoms.
 3. Knowing the chemical symbols of the combining atoms and having knowledge of the skeletal
structure of the compound, it is easy to distribute the total number of electrons as bonding
shared pairs between the atoms in proportion to the total bonds.
4. In general the least electronegative atom occupies the central position in the molecule/ion.
For example in the NF3 andCO32–, nitrogen and carbon are the central atoms whereas
fluorine and oxygen occupy the terminal positions.
5. After accounting for the shared pairs of electrons for single bonds, the remaining electron
pairs are either utilized for multiple bonding or remain as the lone pairs. The basic
requirement being that each bonded atom gets an octet of electrons.

a) Define electrovalent bond. Give example.

b) What is octet rule.
c) Write Lewis dot structure of Sodium and Chlorine.
d) Define covalent bond. Give example.
SECTION – E
Q31 (a)Give the relation between °F and K .
(b) An organic compound on analysis gave the following composition: Carbon = 40%, Hydrogen
= 6.66% and Oxygen = 53.34%. Calculate its molecular formula if its molecular mass is 90.
(c) Define vapour density and write the relationship between vapour density and molecular
mass of a gas.
OR
(a) Define precision.
(b)Define limiting reagent. A reaction mixture for the production of NH 3 gas contains 150
g of N2 gas and 75 g of H2 gas under suitable conditions. Identify the limiting reactant
if any and calculate the mass of NH3 gas produced.

Q32. (a) Write the postulates of Bohr's model for atom and it’s limitations?
(b) Explain Principal and Azimuthal quantum numbers?
OR
(a)Write the important features of quantum mechanical model of atom.
(b) Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the
sodium atom. Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol-1.
Q33.)The IUPAC has made some recommendations to name elements with atomic numbers
above 100. What would be the name for the element with atomic number 104 and 117 ?

b) Electronegativity is the ability of an element to attract shared pair of electrons.

Name a numerical scale of electro negativity of elements.
c) Phosphorus forms PCl5 while nitrogen cannot form NCl5. Why?
d) Why the first ionization enthalpy of oxygen is smaller compared to nitrogen.
OR
Define ionization enthalpy. Discuss the factors affecting ionisation enthalpy of the elements
and its trends in the periodic table.
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL , TUPUDANA RANCHI
Half Yearly Examination -2024-25
CLASS-XI Time : 3:00 Hrs.
Subject : Computer Science Code-083 Marks :70
General Instructions:
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.  The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E
. Section A, is of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each carries 1 Mark.  Section B, is of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each carries 2 Marks.
 Section C, is of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each carries 3 Marks.  Section D, is of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each carries 4 Marks.
 Section E, is of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each carries 5 Marks.
Section A
1. Full form of QR code is ______________
2. Following message is encoded in ASCII code. What is the message?
1001000 1000101 1001100 1010000
3. Which of the following is not an example of System software?
a. Language translator b. Utility software c. Communication software d. Word processors
4. 2.7 GB =__________ Kilobytes.
5. Which smaller unit of CPU direct and coordinates all activities within it and determines the sequence in which instructions
are executed, sending instruction sequence to other smaller units?
a. CU b. ALU c. Processor d. All of these
6. Convert ( EF.B1)16 = ( ?)10
7. The three greater than signs (>>>) are called the Python ____________
a. Cursor b. Command prompt c. Pointer d. Blinking cursor
8. To determine the type of and object we use _______ function.
9. Which statement is used to iterate over a range of values or a sequence.
a. If b. while c. do-while d. for
10. What does the following code print to console?
if True :
print(101)
else :
print(202)
a. 101 b. 202 c. 303 d. 102
11. Find the output of the following code :
x=10
y=0
while x>y:
x=x-4
y +=4
print(x, end=” “)
12. State True/False : Every compound statement of Python has a header and indented body below the header.
13. Find the output of the following code :
a=5
b=10
a += a+b
b*= a+b
print(a,b)
14._______ is the process of breaking down a complex problem into smaller problems so that they can be managed easily.
15 to 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the correct choice as
i. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
Ii. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
iii. A is True but R is False
iv. A is False but R is True
15. Assertion(A): Registers are the components that provide internal storage to the CPU.
Reasoning(R): User has direct access to CPU registers.
16. Assertion(A): The shortcut key to run Python program from script mode is F1.
Reasoning(R): Python programs/scripts are stored in files with .py extension.
 17. Assertion(A): Comments are non-executable statements that are ignored by interpreter.
Reasoning(R): Comments are used to explain the code and to make it more informative for the users. They are basically
statements used to put remarks.
18. Assertion(A): The break and continue statements are known as jump statements.
Reasoning(R): Jump statements are used only with looping constructs and not with conditional constructs.
Section B
19. Find the output of the following code if the input is a. 2000 and b.1971
y=int(input('year :'))
if y%100==0:
if y%400==0:
print('Leap year')
elif y%4==0:
print('Leap year')
20. Evaluate the expression(Show steps) : 12+(3**4 - 6)/2
21. What is Cache memory ? What is use of Cache memory ?
22. Verify the expression using truth table and draw circuit diagram : X + Y.Z = (X + Y).(X+Z)
23. Write a program that asks the user to enter their name and age. Print a message addressed to the user that tells the user
the year in which they will turn 100 years old.
24. Write a program to accept a character from the user and display whether it is vowel or consonant.
25. Convert the Binary numbers into decimals : a. 111010 b. 101011111
Section C
26. Design the following pattern
a. b.
A 4321
AB 432
ABC 43
ABCD 4

27. Write a Program to find the prime numbers between 2 to 50. Program must be well documented.
28. Explain Assembler, interpreter and Compiler.
29. Explain break, continue and pass statement.
30. Draw a flow chart to find the factorial of a number input by user.
Section D
31. State De Morgan’s law and prove it with truth table.
32. Accept Rollno, Name, and marks of 4 subjects (Eng, Maths, Science, Hindi) of a student. Find total, average and also find
Grade based on following condition:
Average Grade
0 to 49 Demoted
50 to 79 Pass
80 to 89 Good
90 to 100 Excellent
<0 or >100 Invalid
Section E
33. Write the following programs :
a. Accept a number from keyboard and print the reverse of that number.
b. Write a program to find the area of a rectangle ( Area= Length * Breadth )
34. Do the following :
A. a. Write short notes: I. Arithmetic and Logical unit II. Random Access Memory (3)
B. Differentiate between General purpose application software and Special purpose/Customized software (2)
35. Do the following :
a. Write a program to input temperature in Celsius and convert it into Fahrenheit. ( F= C * 9 /5 +32)
b. What is the difference between expression and statement in Python?
XXXXXXXXXXXXX
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SESSION 202
2024-25
CLASS -11 F.M. 80
SUBJECT – ENGLISH CORE (301) TIME – 3hrs.
General instructions:
I) This paper is divided into 3 sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory
II) Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these
instructions very carefully and follow them.
III) Do not exceed the prescribed wor
word limit while answering the questions.
SECTION A: Reading Skills (26marks)
1.Read The passage.
1) Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of learning.
They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put a thousand unrelated data in order.
These machines can be put to varied uses. For instance, they can provide information on the best way to
prevent traffic accidents. They work accurately and at high speed. They save research workers' years of
hard work.This entire process, by which machines can be used to work for us, has been
called'automation'. In future, automation may enable human beings to enjoy more leisure than they do
today. 'The coming off automation is bound to have important social consequences.
2)Some
Some years ago, an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit, pointed out that it was a mistake to believe
that these machines could think. There is no possibility that human beings will be controlled
contro by
machines. Though computers are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their
performances, they need detailed instructions from human beings to be able to operate. They can never
lead independent lives or 'rule the world' by taking decisions of their own.
3)Sir
Sir Leon said that, in future, computers would be developed which would be small enough to be carried
in one's pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use them to obtain valuable information.
Computers could be plugged into o a wireless network and could be used like radios. For instance, people
going on a holiday could be informed about weather conditions. Car drivers can be given an alternative
route when there is a traffic jam. It will also be possible to make tiny transla
translating
ting machines. This will
enable people who do not share a common language to talk to each other without any difficulty or to read
foreign publications.
4)It is impossible to assess the importance of a machine of this sort, for many international
misunderstandings are caused simply due to our failure to understand one another. Computers will also
be used in ordinary public hospitals. By providing a machine witwith
h a patient's systems, a doctor will be
able to diagnose the nature of his illness. Similarly, machines could be used to keep a check on a
patient's health record and bring it up to date. Doctors will, therefore, have immediate access to great
many facts which
hich will help them in their work. Bookkeepers and Accountants too, could be relieved of
dull clerical work. For, the tedious task of compiling and checking lists of figures could be done entirely
by machines. Computers are the most efficient servant that man has ever had, and there is no limit to
the way they can be used to improve our lives.
A.Based on your understanding answer the following questions. [1X10=10marks]
1.State the two main capabilities of computers.
(i) varied uses, provide information (ii) complicated work in all branches, put data in order
(iii) work at high speed, prevent traffic accidents (iv) automation, save hard work and time.
2.What is automation?
(i) the thinking machine (ii) machines capable of learning by their mistakes
(iii)
iii) machines that can improve on their performances (iv) the process by which machines can be
used to work for us
3.What benefit can man derive from automation?
autom
(i) human beings may enjoy more leisure (ii)save research workers' years of hard work
(iii) information will be available at high
high-speed (iv) all the above
4. What is the basic limitation of computers?
(i)computers
s cannot think or take independent decisions
(ii)Computers
Computers can take control and rule over human beings
(iii)Computers
Computers cannot improve or learn from their mistakes
(iv)Computers
Computers need detailed instructions from meant to be able to operate.
5.The synonymm of the word difficult in the passage is
(i)Easy (ii)Complex (iii)Heart (iv)Tedious
6.Find the anatomy for the world, disable.
B. Answer the following questions briefly.
(a) what benefits can man derive from automation?
(b)What
What are the basic limitations of computers?
(c)Mention
Mention two areas in which computers can be effectively used
(d)Why are computers called Complex machine?

2. Read the passage and answer the questions given below: [8X1=8marks]
1. The present generation is well updated with the use of internet and computers. The rapid
development in computer technology and increase in accessibility of the internet for academic
purposes has changed the face of education for everyone associated with it.
At present, many schools and universities have been implementing internet
internet--based learning, as it
supplements the conventional tea teaching
ching methods. The internet provides a wide variety of
references and information to academics as well as scientific researchers. Students often turn to
it to do their academic assignments and projects.
2. However, research on Internet et is very different
from traditional library research, and the
differences can cause problems. The Internet is
a tremendous resource, but it must be used
carefully and critically.
3. According to a 2018 Academic Student e e-book
Experience Survey, conducted by LU's
research department and sponsored by
EBSCO, when reading for pleasure, almost
74% of respondents said they preferred print
books for leisure whereas, 45% of printed
versions, for research or assignments.
4. When asked what e-book book features make them
theirr favourite for research, the respondents
were clear. Having page numbers to use in
citations, topped the list (75%); followed by the ability to resize text to fit a device's screen (67%);
the ability to bookmark pages, highlight text, or take notes for la
later
ter reference (60%); downloading
the entire e-book
book (57%); and allowing content to be transferred between devices (43%) were the
varied responses.
5. Let us look at the data arising out of a recent survey that was done to ascertain the time spent on
utilisation
n of the computer and Internet.
(i)The word 'tremendous', as used in paragraph 3, means the same as
1. expensive 2. Renowned 3. Innovative 4. Incredible
(ii) Based on the graphical chart in the passage, choose the option that correctly states the depiction of
internet usage for work and for leisure, for once a month.
1. Option (1) 2 Option (2) 3.Option (3) 4.Option (4)
(iii) Based on the given graphical representation of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the
statements that are TRUE with respect to the usage of email.
1. The everyday usage of email is more than the everyday usage of computer for personal use.
2. About 18% people use email once a week.
3. There are a smaller number of email users using it 2 2-3
3 times a week than the ones using it once a
month.
4. Less than 5% of people never use the email.
1. 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4
(iv) Which of the following statements is NOT substantiated by information in paragraph 4?
1. About three-quarters
quarters of the respondents preferred print books for recreational reading.
2. A little less than a 50% of the respondents voted for ee-books
books for research or assignments.
3. More than 50% respondents stated enjoying both versions of books for leisure reading.
4. The survey was intended for understanding the e-book
e book experience among students.
(v) In the cartoon, the student's reaction reveals that he is
is—————-
1. Indignant 2.apologetic
apologetic 3.obedient 4.inquisitive
inquisitive
(vi) Based on the given graphical chart, pick the option that lists the area of zero response
respo from
respondents.
1. Never using the internet for work and leisure
2. Daily use of the computer for academic activities
3. Writing and receiving emails once a week
(vii) “……...but it must be used carefully and critically." The idea of being careful and critical while using
the internet, is mainly a reference to-
1. hardware malfunction. 2.plagiarism. 3troubleshooting. 4virus threats.
(viii) Arrange the given e-book features preferred for research from the least favourite to the most
favourite-
1. downloading the entire e-book 2.choosing page numbers in citations
3.highlighting text 4.resizing text to fit screen
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4 (C) 2, 4, 3, 1 (D) 4, 1, 2, 3
3. The problem of unemployment is a serious problem in our country. If millions of people are without
any jobs, its effect is very bad. A man without any employment is a burden on others. If he has got to
maintain a family, the situation is worse. Such unemployed persons are reduced to poverty. It
demoralises them and they are forced to do undesirable things. They may commit crimes. They may
create trouble and spread discontent. In fact, they are a source of danger to society and the state.
The causes of unemployment are mainly the rapid growth of population, the prevailing system and
underdevelopment of industry and trade. The population of India is growing very rapidly. It is very
difficult to get jobs for all who are in need of it. The British Government had introduced a system of
education in this country for carrying on administration only. It is being continued in free India also with
very slight changes. The system of education prepares most young men to be clerks. But neither the
Government nor private firms can absorb all the educated unemployed persons in their offices for clerical
work. Industry and trade have not yet properly developed.
Cottage industries in the villages have been ruined owing to the establishment of large mills and factories
in towns.
Consequently, many artisans have been thrown out of employment. There has been great pressure on
agricultural land because of the growth of population; consequently, many cultivators have got no land
for cultivation. All these are mainly responsible for this acute problem of unemployment.
The acute problem of unemployment is a cause of unrest in the country. So, the Government is seriously
thinking over the matter and trying to find out a remedy. The remedy is to find work for the people. The
Government had earlier undertaken five-year plans for the material prosperity of the country. For
carrying out these plans many mills and factories had been set up both by the Government and by
industrialists. Many new offices had been started.
Many educated young men were absorbed in offices as clerks and in mills and factories as skilled
workers. Uneducated and unskilled men were being absorbed in mills and factories as labourers. But
these measures have been proved inadequate.
Our government is now encouraging the revival of cottage industries in the villages. This will help many
villagers to earn a living. Our government is also trying to develop agriculture. But as yet, it has not been
able to cope with the situation fully. The number of unemployed persons is increasing. So, our
government should allow establishment of a large number of large and small technical and vocational
institutions in the country. Only a limited number of bright young men should try to get higher education
in the universities. Most young men try to enter technical or vocational institutions. After coming out of
these, they may find jobs in factories and commercial firms. For this, of course, more factories must be
set up throughout the country. Unskilled labourers should be taught various traits in technical
institutes. They may find jobs in factories as skilled labourers. They may also set up cottage industries in
their villages. Government will have to help them with loans to start their work. It is heartening to find
that our government has already taken some steps in this direction. Nationalised banks are now giving
lump sum loans to intending young persons under self employment schemes.
(a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it using headings and sub-
headings. [5marks]
Use recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Supply an appropriate title to it.
(b) Write a summary of the above passage in up to 50 words. [3marks]

SECTION B : (23 Marks) Grammar and Creative Writing section

GRAMMAR -
4.A. Transformation of sentences. [4marks]
1 I am certain you have made a mistake.(change into compound)
2. .He got a telegram,and immediately left in a taxi.(change into complex)
3.We must do our work well,or our masters will be angry with us.(change into complex)
4..Youth is the time when the seeds of character are sown.(change into simple)
5. Re- arrange the words in sentences [3marks].
1.quantities/water/sweating,/removing/Drinking//results/large/in/thus/of/body/from/poisons/
the/warm/
2. last/ was/ the railway/ Sunday/ particularly/ platform/ busy
3. few/ had/ only been a/ rain/ minutes/ he/ since/ had walked/ It/ outside/ it began to/ when
V.Creative Writing Skills (16marks)
6.(A) You are the General Manager, Bricks n Brick., India Ltd. You want to appoint two sales
representatives for your company. Give an advertisement to be published in the classified columns of a
local daily. [3marks]
OR
(B) You are Ashok/Asha of Sitapur, Lucknow. You have got a foreign Assignment and would be going
abroad soon. You have a television set and a refrigerator. Draft a suitable advertisement to be published
in the classified columns of ‘The Hindustan Times’ Delhi

7. (A) Sarvodaya Vidyalaya school is organising a cultural evening to collect funds for the slum
children.the human resource development minister has consented to be the chief guest. Draft a poster to
be displayed in different areas of your locality. You are the cultural secretary of your school.[3marks]
OR
(B) You are organising a miser to help the victims of earthquake design a poster informing the students
about this play. Invent necessary details.

8.(A)You are Yash/Preeti. You have been asked to deliver a speech in the assembly. Taking reference
from your morning assembly,write a speech on ‘Seven Habits of Highly Effective People’ by Stephen R
Covey. [5marks]
OR
(B) Games play an important role in our lives they are not only the means of entertainment but also keep
us physically fit.Some may like indoor games and others like outdoor. Writer speech in 12 0-150 words
for your school's morning assembly on the topic ‘The importance of games in our life’.

9.Online smart classes are the future of education style”. Write a debate either for or against the motion.
[5marks]
Clues-
 Young generation -not limited to Facebook teaching platform
 various online teaching apps smartphone users have increased need to go paperless

VI.. SECTION C- [31 marks]

Literature Textbook and Supplementary Reading Text
10.. Read the extracts given below an attempt anyone of the two given by answering the questions
that follows: [3X1=3marks]
(A). She said her morning prayer in a monotonous sing-song while she bathed and dressed me in the
hope that I would listen and get to know it by heart; I listened because I loved her voice but never
bothered to learn it. Then she would fetch my wooden slate which she had already washed and plastered
with yellow chalk”
(i) Why did narrator never bothered to learn his grandmother’s morning prayer?
(ii) How does the narrator show his affection for his grandmother in the given extract?
(iii) What was the relationship between the narrator and his grandmother?
OR
(B). In his defence, Carter really had little choice. If he hadn't cut the mummy free, thieves most certainly
would have circumvented the guards and ripped it apart to remove the gold. In Tut's time the royals were
fabulously wealthy, and they thought — or hoped - they could take their riches with them. For his
journey to the great beyond, King Tut was lavished with glittering goods:
(i) Who was Carter and what did he do to Tut’s mummy?
(ii) Why did Carter cut the Mummy free from the coffin?
(iii) Who is the author of the lesson?

11. Read the extracts given below an attempt anyone of the two given by answering the questions
that follow: [3X1=3marks]
(A)."The cardboard shows me how it was When the two girl cousins went paddling, each one holding one
of my mother's hands, And she the big girl — some twelve years or so."
 (i)The poet talks about a particular cardboard. How is it special to her?
(ii)What moment does the photograph depict?
(iii)Comment on the tone of the poem.
OR

(B)` Of chittering, and a tremor of wings, and trilings-the whole tree trembles and thrills.
It is the engine of her family. She stokes it full, then flirts out to a branch-end Showing her barred face
identity mask.’
(i)How is the tree transformed during the words visit?
(ii)what is the engine of the machine? What is its fuel?
(iii)What is the significance of ‘barred identity mask’?

12. Read the extracts given below an attempt anyone of the two given by answering the questions
that follow: [4X1=4]

“And one day I noticed I was curious about all the possessions that must still be at that address. I
wanted to see them, touch, remember.”

(i)What was the narrator’s first impression about Mrs.Dorling?

(ii)Why did Mrs.Dorling refuse to even talk to the narrator?
(iii)Why did the narrator decide to visit Mrs. Dorling’s house second time.
(iv)Why was the narrator oppressed?
OR
B. "A suspicious man would believe his eyes instead of his heart."
(i)Who said these words?
(ii)Why were these words said?
(iii)What was the reaction of John Bryo?
(iv) How did John Biro react when he saw his horse with Murad and Adam?

13.Answer Any Two of the following questions. [3x2=6marks]

(a)’That was the turning point in our friendship’ What was the turning point? Answer with reference to
the chapter, “The Portrait of A lady”.
(b)Why did the narrator and his wife feel that the end was very near? (Ref. We are not Afraid to Die)
(c) Why does the rain become the voice of Earth?
(d)Why does the poet contrast the sea with transient feet? (A Photograph))

14.Answer Any One of the following questions. [3x1=3marks]

(a)What big surprise was given to Aram by Murad one summer morning?
(b) Why did the narrator hesitate for a long time to claim her belongings?

15.Answer anyone question. [6X1=6marks]

(a)The hurdles of life can be challenged if we have confidence to make optimum use of our potential.
Elaborate with reference to the chapter ‘We are not Afraid to Die’

(b)Archaeology has changed substantially in the intervening decades since Howard Carter discovered
king Tut’s mummy. Give reasons in support of this statement. Also highlight the role of science in
investigating and preserving history.

16. Answer any one question. [6X1=6marks]

(a). Betrayal of trust is an evil which may afflict people of any time or any age. Discuss this statement in
the context of the chapter ‘The Address’
(b)To maintain the honesty and integrity of the Garoghlaniam family was the topmost priority of Adam
and Mourad. Explain.

*********************
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SESSION 2024-25
2024
CLASS -11 F.M. 80
SUBJECT – MATHEMATICS (041) TIME – 3hrs.

General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory.
2. Section – A: It comprises of 20 MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section – B: It comprises of 5 VSA type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section – C: It comprises of 6 SA type of questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section – D: It comprises of 4 LA type of questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section – E: It has 3 case studies.. Each case study comprises of 3 case-based
case based questions, where 2 VSA
type questions are of 1 mark each and 1 SA type question is of 2 marks.. Internal choice is provided in
2 marks question in each case-study.
7. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions in Section - B, 2 questions in Section – C, 2 questions in
Section –D.. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.

SECTION – A
Q1. Let S = { x: x is a positive multiple of 3 less than 100.} P ={ x: x is a prime number less than 20}.
20}
Then n(S) + n(P) is
a). 34 (b) 41 (c) 33 (d) 30
Q2 If set A and B are defined as A = { (x,y) : y = , 0 ≠ x ∈ R } , B = { (x,y) : y = – x, x ∈ R .
(a). A ∩ B = A (b) A ∩ B = B (c) A ∩ B = ∅ (d) A ∪ B = A
Q3Let
Let R be the set of points inside a rectangle of side a and b (a,b> 1) with two sides along the
positive direction of x-axis and y-axis.
axis. Then,
(a). R = { (x,y) : 0≤ x≤ a, 0≤ y≤ b} (b) R = { (x,y) : 0≤ x< a, 0≤ y< b}
(c) R = { (x,y) : 0≤ x≤ a, 0< y< b} (d) R = { (x,y) : 0< x< a, 0< y< b}

Q4 If A = { x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 } , B = { 2,4}, C = {4,5} , then A x (B(B∩C) is

(a).{(2,4),(3,4) (b) { (4,2),(4,3) (c) {(2,4),(3,4),(4,4)} (d) {(2,2),(3,3),(4,4),(5,5)}
| |
Q5Find the domain set of f(x) = | |
(a).( -∞ , ∞) – [-2,2] (b) ( -∞ , ∞)) – [-1,1] (c) [-1,1] ∪ ( -∞ ,2) ∪ (2, ∞) (d)none of these

Q6 If cosec x – cot x = a , then sin x equals

(a). b) c) d)
Q7 If tan ∝ = , tan 𝛽=
(a). b) c) d)
Q8 The value of
(a). b) √3 c) − d)− √3
√ √
Q9 1 + 𝑖 + 𝑖 + 𝑖 + …………+ 𝑖 is
(a). positive (b) Negative (c) 0 (d) cannot be determined
Q10 If ( ) = 1 then for n ∈ N, x =
(a). 2n +1 (b) 4n (c) 2n (d) 4n +1
Q11The
The conjugate of a complex number is . Then that complex number is
(a). − b) c) d)
Q12 The value of ( z + 3) ( 𝑧 + 3) is equal to
(a). |𝑧 + 3| (b) |𝑧 − 3| (c)𝑧 (d)nonee of these
Q13 Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P If the middle term in this G.P is doubled, then
the new numbers are in A.P Then the common ratio of the G.P is
(a). 2 - √3 (b) 2 + √3 (c) √2 + √3 (d) 3 + √2
Q14 If x , 2x + 2 , 3x + 3 are in G.P , then the fourth term is
Q15 If x , 2y, 3z are in AP where the distinct numbers x,y,z are in G.P, then the common ratio of the
G.P is
(a). 3 (b) c) 2 (d)
Q16 The minimum value of the expression 3 + 3 x (1-x) , x ∈ R, is
(a). 0 (b) c) 3 (d) 2 √3
Q17 The total number of terms in the expansion of (x + a) 100 + (x – a) 100 after simplification is
(a). 50 (b) 202 (c) 51 (d)none of these
Q18 If the coefficient of 2nd, 3rd and 4th term in the expansion of (1 + x)n are in A.P then the value of n
is
(a). 2 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 14
Instruction for 19 and 20
(a)Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(b)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(c)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d)statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Q19. Statement I : Let A and B be two sets such that n (A∩B’) = 4 , n( A’ ∩ B) = 12 , n ( A’ ∩ B)

and n( A ∩ B) = 8 , then n ( A x B ) = 240 Statement II: For any two non-empty set A and B , n(A)
and n(B) are divisors of n( A x B).
Q20 Statement I : The largest coefficient in the expansion of ( 1 + x ) 99 is 99C50.
Statement II : If n is odd, then greatest among nC0 , nC1 , nC2 , ……., nCn is (nCn+1 /2)

SECTION – B
Q21If A = { n : is an integer}, then find the number of elements in the set A .
OR
If A = { p ∈ N :p is a prime number and p= for some n ∈ N }, then find the number of
elements in the set A
Q22. Find the value of tan 75o - Cot75o .
Q23 Find the real value of 𝛼 for which the expression lies on real axis.
Q24 Find the amplitude of sin + I ( 1 – cos )
Q25. Find ‘a’ if the 17th and 18th term of the expansion ( 2 + a )50 are equal.
OR
Using binomial theorem , prove that 6n – 5n always leaves remainder 1 when divided by 25.
SECTION – C
Q26Out of 280 students in class 12 of a school ,135 play hockey ,110 play football ,80 play
volleyball 35 of these play hockey and football , 30 play volleyball and Hockey , 20 play football
and volleyball .Also each students play at least one of the three games. How many students play
all the three games ?
Q27. Find the value of tan .
Q28. If Sin x = and Cos y , where x and y both lie in second quadrant , find the value of Sin (x+y).
Q29. The sum of n terms of two AP are in the ratio 5n+4 : 9n +6. Find the ratio of their 18 th term.
OR
Find the sum of the sequence 8 ,88,888,8888,………. to n terms.
Q30 The second, third and fourth terms in the binomial expansion ( x + a ) n are 240,720 and 1080
Respectively. Find x, a and n.
OR
The coefficient of three consecutive terms in the expansion of ( 1 + a ) n are in the ratio 1 : 7 : 42.
Find n
( )
Q31solve for x , -15 ≤ ≤0.
SECTION – D
Q32 Find the Domain and Range of the real function f defined by (i) f(x) =√𝑥 − 1 and (ii) f(x) = |𝑥 − 1|.
Q33 Find the value of Cos ( + x ) Cos ( 2𝜋 + x ) [ Cot ( - x ) Cot ( 2𝜋 + x )
Q34 (i) If A.M and G.M of roots of a quadratic equation are 8 and 5 respectively, then obtain the
roots of quadratic equation. And
 (ii) Find the G.P for which sum of the first two terms is -4 and the fifth term is 4 times the third
term.

Q35. A solution of 8% boric acid is to be diluted by adding a 2% boric acid solution to it .The
resulting mixture is to be more than 4% but less than 6% boric acid if we have 640 lt of the 8%
solution. How many litres of the 2% solution will have to be added?

SECTION – E

Q36. We can easily visualize a function as a machine which produce a new element y = f(x) , if an
element ‘x’ was put in it. Based on the given data answer the following question
(i).what will be the output for √−1 if the machine function is f(x) = x2.
(ii)what will be the output 3.5 if the function of machine is f(x) = [x].
(iii) what was the input of the machine f(x) = √𝑥 , if the output is 2.5 .
OR
(iii) If ordered pair in a relation are (1,2) (1,3) (2,3) and (3,4) can we say that it belong to any such
machine?

Q37. After striking a Floor a certain ball rebounds (4/5) th of the height from it has fallen. The ball is
gently dropped from height of 100 m. Based on this information answer the following questions
(i). Find the height to which the ball rebounds in third rebound
(ii). Find the height to which the ball rebounds in 5th rebound.
(iii) Find the total distance travelled by the ball in first five rebounds.
OR
(iii)find the total distance travelled by the ball before coming to rest.

Q38

Based on this information answer the following questions

(i). Find the number of terms in the expansion of (a + b + c)6.

(ii) Find the number of terms in the expansion of (a + b + c + d ) 13.

(iii) Find the number of terms in the expansion of (a + b) 69 + (a - b)69

OR

(iii) Find the number of terms in the expansion of (a + b)68 + (a - b)68

********************
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SESSION 2024-25
CLASS -11 F.M. 30
SUBJECT – PAINTING (049) TIME – 3hrs.
ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.

A. One word answer type questions: (8 marks)

1.Where was the great bath found?

2.Who discovered 'Harappa'?

3.What is the maximum thickness of seals?

4.In which medium the 'Dancing Girl' is made?

5.Write the name of any famous terracotta of Mohenjodaro?

6.What is the shape of 'Seal'?

7.Where is the statue of the 'Dancing Girl' kept?

8.By which process utensils/wares were made?

B. Short answer type questions:(10marks)

9.Write a short note on the compositional arrangements of 'Bull Seal' of Indus Valley Civilization.

10.Write about 'painted earthen ware'.

11.Explain the typical features of 'Male torso' of I. V. C.

12.Write the compositional arrangements along with subject matter of 'Dancing Girl'.

13.Explain the artwork of 'Mother Goddess'.

C. Long answer type questions: (12marks)

14.Write a general introduction of Indus Valley Civilization. Point out its main features with reference to
(a) city life (b) Arts (c) Religion.

15.How are the legends expressed on the seals? What are the themes of the Seals?

*********************
 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
Half yearly exam (2024 – 2025)

Sub: Physical Education (048) F.M: 70

Class: XI Time: 3hrs

General Instructions:
All questions are compulsory .
Section A consists of questions 1-18
18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions.
Sections B consist of questions 19-23
23 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types
questions should not exceed 60-90
90 words.
Sections C consist of Questions 24-28
28 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types
questions should not exceed 100-150
150 words.
Section D consist of questions 29-31
31 Carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is
internal choice available
Section E consist of questions 32-34
34 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and
should not exceed 200-300 words.

____________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION-A

1. What is Physical Education’s primary focus?

A. Skill development in only one sport B.Academic learning in science subjects. C.Promoting
C.Prom
physical fitness and well-being D.History and cultural studies

2. What is the purpose of the Khelo-India

India Program?

A. Promoting traditional Indian dance forms B. Encouraging excellence in academic subjects

C. Supporting andd nurturing sports talent in India D. Promotinginternational trade agreements

3. How have technological advancements in fluenced sports?

A. They have led to a decrease in sports popularity.
B. They have not impacted sports in anyway.
C. They have improved ved sports equipment and performance analysis.
D. They have only affected the entertainment aspect of sports.
4. The Fit India movement was launched on the birth anniversary of
A. Major Dhyan Chand B. Subhash Chandra Bose C. Flying Sikh , Milkha Singh
D. None of these
5. Given below are the two statements
Assertion: Nowadays, people have become more health conscious.
Reason: People want to develop immunity so that they may not fall prey to diseases.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6 .Which one of the following is not a core Olympic value?
A. Excellence B.Fair play C.Respect D. Friendship
7. Who is known as the father of Modern Olympics?
A. Sir Dorab Ji Tata B. Robert Bach C. Antonio Samaranch D. Baron de Coubertin
8. In which Olympics, Olympic torch relay was introduced?
A. 1936 Berlin B.1932 Los Angeles C.1920 Antwerp D.1924
1924 Paris
9. Where will the 2032 Olympic Games be held?
A. Paris B. Los Angeles C. Brisb D.London

10. The word yoga is derived from the Sanskrit word:

A. Yog B.Yuj C.Yoj D. Yug
11. What is the primary goal of Yoga?
A. To build physical strength B. To achieve inner peace and self-realization
C. To win competitions D. To become a professional athlete
12. Pranayama in Yoga refers to:
A.Physical exercises B. Relaxation techniques C.Breathing exercises
D. Chanting mantras
13. What does the term “disability” refers to?
A. A temporary physical condition B. A state of complete health
C. A long-lasting impairment that affects a person’s life. D. A common cold or flu
14. Who is concerned with the gross motor skills and mobility of children with special needs?
A. Physical education teacher B. Physiotherapist C. Speech therapist
D. Special educator
15. World Disability Day is celebrated on
A. 2nd April B. 29th August C.21st June D.3rdDecember
16. What is the significance of physical fitness in maintaining a healthy lifestyle?
A. Physical fitness only focuses on strength.
B. Physical fitness has no impact on overall health.
C. Physical fitness helps improve overall well-being and health.
D. Physical fitness is only important for athletes.
17. What is the meaning of Purka?
A. Inhalation B. Exhalation C.Retaining the breath D.None of these
18. Which type of disability creates hindrance for an individual to store, process and produce information?
A. Intellectual disability B.Cognitive disability C.Physical disability D.None of these

SECTION -B
19. What do you mean by health-related careers?
20. Discuss the objectives of the Fit India Movement
21. Explain the term ‘pranayama’ in detail.
22. Discuss about any two objectives adaptive physical education.
23. Explain the term; Non-violence and Truthfulness.
SECTION-C
24. What is the role of a physiotherapist for children with special needs?
25. Write a short note on the Olympic Flag.
26. Briefly explain about the International Olympic Committee.
27. What do you mean by disability? Discuss the types of disability
28. Discuss about teaching careers in physical education in brief

SECTION- D
29. Ramesh had been suffering from stress, tension and anxiety for the last three years. Now, along
with these problems, he is also facing severe depression. He has already consulted many doctors but
has not found an appropriate solution. Ultimately, he met our yoga instructor. The yoga instructor
taught him to perform yogic asanas, pranayamas and yoganidra. After about three months of regular
practice, he was feeling well.
Based on the above passage, answer the following questions:
i. Yognidra is performed in..............
ii. Yognidra is known as ………… sleep.
iii. Yognindra is helpful in reducing stress and ……………… .
iv. Name any three pranayamas used to alleviate stress and tension.
Or
v. Name any three asana to relieve stress.
30. Mainly, there are two types of career options in the field of Physical Education. The first type of
career option is related to teaching and coaching in physical education. These are called traditional
careers in physical education. The second type of career is related to emerging careers in physical
education i.e., health-related careers, administration-related careers, sports performance-related
careers and media-related careers.
i. Sports Department is related to ……………. related career.
ii. Sports Journalism is related to career in ……………….
iii. Coaching career is related to …………….. Career.
iv. …………….. is a career for those who have a keen interest in photography.

Or
Health and weight control clubs are related to …………… career.
31. Michael Phelps, the American swimmer, used to take 8000-10,000 calories daily. He used to
practice five hours a day for six days in a week. He was a man on mission, with no other activities
than eating, sleeping and swimming. If you want to achieve something great, this type of intense focus
and dedication to your goals is what is required to get there. He did not disappoint and came back
with eight gold medals, the most won by any athlete in the Olympics.
Answer the following questions based on the above passage.
i. Michael Phelps used to take ……… calories.
ii. Michael Phelps used to practice.............. Day for six days in a week.
iii. His mission was to …………….. .
iv. How many gold medals did he win in a single Olympics?
Or
He won a record of gold medals in single Olympics in …………. Olympic Game.

SECTION-E
32. What do you mean by Ashtanga yoga? Discuss any four constituents of Ashtanga yoga
33. Describe the objectives of Physical Education in brief.
34. Explain the origin of the Ancient Olympic Games.

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 BRIDGEFORD SCHOOL, TUPUDANA, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SESSION 202
2024-25
CLASS -11 F.M. 70
SUBJECT – PHYSICS (042) TIME – 3hrs.
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains three secti
sections A, B, C, D and E of 35 questions.
2. Section A has 18 questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 7 questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 5 questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 2 questions of 4 marks each.
SECTION A
1. Compute the following with regard to significant figures 4.6 x 0.128
(a) 0.5888 (b) 0.59 (c) 0.60 (d) 5.9
2. Cross product of two vectors is maximum in magnitude when angle between them is
(a) 00 (b) 1800 (c) 900 (d) 450
3. A force of 5N changes the velocity of a body from 10m/s to 20 m/s in 5 s. How much force is required to
bring about the same change in 2 s.
(a)2880m (b) 1440m (c) 400m (c) 20m
4 Momentum per unit volume has dimensions
(a) [MLT-2] (b) [MLT-¹] (c) [ML-²T-¹] (d) [ML²T-¹]
5. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have same dimensional formula?
(a) Work and torque (b) Tension and surface tension
(c) Impulse and linear momentum (d) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
6. If a vector 2i+3j+8k is perpendicular to the vector 4i
4i-4j+ak, then the value of a is
(a) -1 (b) 1/2 (c) -1/2 (d) 1
7. Two balls are thrown from the top of a tower simultaneously in horizontal and vertical directions
respectively. The two balls will reach the earth
(a) Simultaneously (b) depending upon their masses
(c) at different time (d) information is incomplete.
8. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equati
equation v=20+ 0.1t2. The body is undergoing
(a) uniform acceleration (b) uniform retardation (c) zero acceleration (d) non-uniform
uniform acceleration.

9 If external force on a body is zero its

(a) Displacement is zero (b) Velocity is zero (c) None of these. (d) Acceleration is zero
10. A man travels 4 m due east and then turns by 90° and travels 3 m due north. The magnitude of
displacement of the man is
(a) 1m (b) 5m (c) 7m (d) zero.
11. Dimensional formula of stress is
(a) (MLT2 ) (b) (ML-1T-2) (c) (LT-2) (d) (ML2T-1)
12. . The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is
(a) 60o (b) 15o (c) 30o (d) 45o
13. Change in momentum is given by
(a) Force × time (b) Force x velocity (c) Force × mass (d) Force Distance
14. Action and Reaction
(a) Act on same bodies (b) Cancel each other (c) are equal and act in same direction
(d) act on two different bodies
15. Draw velocity time graph for freely falling of an object.
ASSERTION REASON MCQ
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). While answering a question, choose the correct one and mark it as
(a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
assertion (A).
(b) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion (A).
(c) If Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (d) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
16. Assertion-The driver in a vehicle moving with a constant speed on a straight road is a non-inertial
frame of reference.
Reason- A reference frame in which Newton's laws of motion are applicable is non-inertial
17. Assertion-Frictional forces are conservative forces.
Reason- Potential energy can be associated with frictional force.

18. Assertion-Use of ball-bearings between two moving parts of a machine is a common practice.
Reason- Ball-bearings reduce vibrations and provide good stability
SECTION B
19. State impulse momentum theorem and derive the relation.

20. A body covers 12m in 2s and 20m in 4s. How much distance will it cover in
4s after the 5th s.

21. For what angle of projection is the horizontal range double of the maximum
height of a projectile?

22. Find the scalar and vector product of two vectors

A = (3i - 4ĵ + 5 k) and B = (-2i +Ĵ+3k)

23. Prove that there are two angle of projection for same horizontal range in projectile motion.

24. Find the projection of vector A on vector B in vector form.

A = (3 i j - 4ĵ + 5 k) and B = (-21 +Ĵ+3k)

25. Two cars A and B are at positions 100 m and 200 m from the origin at time t = 0. They start
simultaneously with velocities 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. At what distance car A will overtake the car B.
SECTION C
26. . Derive an expression for the centripetal acceleration of a body moving with uniform speed v along a
circular path of radius r. Explain how it act along the radius towards centre of the circular path.
27. A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity 100m/s. After how much time will it return? Draw
velocity time graph for the ball and find the graph.
(i) Maximum height attained by the ball (ii) Height of the ball after 15s.

28. State and prove the parallelogram law of vector addition and find the magnitude and resultant of two
vectors P and Q and inclined to each other at angle Ф.

29. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28m/s in a direction 30 0 above the horizontal. Calculate
(i) the maximum height
(ii) the time taken by the ball to return to the same level
(iii) the distance from the thrower to the point, where the ball return to the same level.
30 Find the value of 60J/min on a system that has 100g, 100cm, 1 min as the base units.
 SECTION D
31. Derive first three equations for uniformly accelerated motion along a straight line by using calculus
method.

32. A projectile is projected at an angle Ф with horizontal with velocity u, show that its trajectory is parabolic.
And obtain expression for (i) Time of flight (ii) Horizontal Range (iii) Velocity at any time t.

33. Show that Newton's second law of motion is real law of motion.
SECTION E
34. Projectile motion is a form of motion in which an object or particle is thrown with some initial velocity
near the earth's surface and it moves along a curved path under the action of gravity alone. The path
followed by a projectile is called its trajectory, which is shown below. When a projectile is projected obliquely,
then its trajectory is as shown in the figure below
Here velocity u is resolved into two components, we get (a) u cos Ф along OX and (b) u sin Ф along OY.

(i). The example of such type of motion is

(a) motion of car on a banked road (b) motion of boat in sea (c) a javelin thrown by an athlete
(d) motion of ball thrown vertically upward

(ii) The acceleration of the object in horizontal direction is.

(a) Constant (b) Decreasing (c) Increasing (d) zero

(iii) The vertical component of velocity at point H is

(a) maximum (b) zero (c) double to that at O (d) equal to horizontal component

(iv). A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 m/s in a direction 30° with the horizontal.
(a) 2s (b) 4s (c) 5s (d) 3s

35. Speed of an object, in general, changes during its course of motion. Initially, at the time of Galileo, it was
thought that, this change could be described by the rate of change of velocity with distance. But, through his
studies of motion of freely falling objects and motion of objects on an inclined plane, Galileo concluded that,
the rate of change of velocity with time is a constant of motion for all objects in free fall.
This led to the concept of acceleration as the rate of change of velocity with time.
The motion in which the acceleration remains constant is known as to be uniformly accelerated motion.
There are certain equations which are used to relate the displacement (x), time taken (t), initial velocity (u),
final velocity (v) and acceleration (a) for such a motion and are known as kinematics equations for uniformly
accelerated motion.
(i). The displacement of a body in 8s starting from rest with an acceleration of 20cms -2 is
(a) 64 m (b) 64 cm (c) 640 m (d) 0.064 m
(ii). A particle starts with a velocity of 2 m/s and moves in a straight line with a retardation of 0.1 ms -2. The
first time at which the particle is 15 m from the starting point is
(a) 10 s (b) 20s (c) 30s (d) 40 s
(iii). If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm in 6th second, then what is its acceleration?
(a) 0.027 ms-1 (b) 0.20 m/s (c) 0.03 ms-2 (d) 0.218 ms-2
(iv). A body travelling with uniform acceleration crosses two points A and B with velocities 20 ms¹ and 30 ms¹
respectively. The speed of the body at mid-point of A and B is
(a) 25 ms-¹ (b) 24 ms-¹ (c) 25.5 ms-¹ (d) 10√6 ms- 1
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