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CompTIA Security+ Exam
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NEW QUESTION 1
Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the
following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?
A. Encrypted
B. Intellectual property
C. Critical
D. Data in transit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law.
Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in
creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the
company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure
they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer’s
CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.
NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
A. Regulatory requirement
B. Organizational change
C. Self-assessment requirement
D. Service-level requirement
Answer: A
Explanation:
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking
environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting.
Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization. References:
? Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507
? Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
A. Host-based firewall
B. System isolation
C. Least privilege
D. Application allow list
Answer: D
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are authorized to run on a system and blocks all other applications. An application
allow list can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system because it prevents the execution of any unauthorized or
malicious software, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, or spyware. An application allow list can also reduce the attack surface and improve the
performance of the
system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 551 1
NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Side loading
C. Buffer overflow
D. SQL injection
Answer: D
Explanation:
= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for
Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can
bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server.
SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application
vulnerabilities. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 8.
NEW QUESTION 5
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following
should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
A. Jump server
B. RADIUS
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C. HSM
D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation:
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be
used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide
audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but
rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34. HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is
a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital
signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside
on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or
capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers.
A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them. References =
? How to access a remote server using a jump host
? Jump server
? RADIUS
? Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
? Hardware Security Module (HSM)
? [What is an HSM?]
? [Load balancing (computing)]
? [What is Load Balancing?]
NEW QUESTION 6
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should
the company provide to the client?
A. MSA
B. SLA
C. BPA
D. SOW
Answer: D
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for
Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An
ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security
assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.
The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to
provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or
ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for
future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the
quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities,
and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and
expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the
objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations
of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s
CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?
A. Risk tolerance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk register
D. Risk analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such
as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help
identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk
tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating
risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to
organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification
Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
A. Rules of engagement
B. Supply chain analysis
C. Right to audit clause
D. Due diligence
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define
the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to
ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include
the following elements:
? The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
? The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
? The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
? The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
? The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
? The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
? The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the
process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives
one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and
addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
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NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the
employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to
prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Permissions assignment
C. Access management
D. Password complexity
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something
the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the
user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the
root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s
role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement
of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more
about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1
? Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2
? Multi-factor Authentication – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43
? TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4
? CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor
Authentication5
NEW QUESTION 10
A technician is opening ports on a firewall for a new system being deployed and supported by a SaaS provider. Which of the following is a risk in the new system?
A. Default credentials
B. Non-segmented network
C. Supply chain vendor
D. Vulnerable software
Answer: C
Explanation:
A supply chain vendor is a third-party entity that provides goods or services to an organization, such as a SaaS provider. A supply chain vendor can pose a risk to
the new system if the vendor has poor security practices, breaches, or compromises that could affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or its
data. The organization should perform due diligence and establish a service level agreement with the vendor to mitigate this risk. The other options are not specific
to the scenario of using a SaaS provider, but rather general risks that could apply to any system.
NEW QUESTION 10
A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following
vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Jailbreaking
D. Side loading
Answer: C
Explanation:
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows
users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security
risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their
mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
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Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2
NEW QUESTION 15
A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes.
Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
A. SPF
B. GPO
C. NAC
D. FIM
Answer: D
Explanation:
FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can
help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert
the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.
Some of the benefits of FIM are:
? It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.
? It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.
? It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.
? It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.
References:
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output
from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A. Tabletop
B. Replication
C. Failover
D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers
who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response
process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the
participants. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1
NEW QUESTION 19
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
A. EAP
B. DHCP
C. IPSec
D. NAT
Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and
authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A
security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
NEW QUESTION 22
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be
used to secure patient data?
A. Private
B. Critical
C. Sensitive
D. Public
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps
to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may
use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include
marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include
employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include
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personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of
critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used
only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems
administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 -
Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
NEW QUESTION 24
After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial
Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?
A. Insider threat
B. Email phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Executive whaling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or
creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card
information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other
topics are not relevant to this
situation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 19 1
NEW QUESTION 26
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
A. Password spraying
B. Account forgery
C. Pass-t he-hash
D. Brute-force
Answer: A
Explanation:
Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that
can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume
attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.
The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same
web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one
they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network
authentication3.
Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no
evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.
Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same
network. Pass- the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4.
The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.
Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or
words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple
accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1:
Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks … - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying -
Baeldung, 3: Brute Force Attack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass- the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? |
Definition, Types &
How It Works - Fortinet
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Select two).
A. Ease of recovery
B. Ability to patch
C. Physical isolation
D. Responsiveness
E. Attack surface
F. Extensible authentication
Answer: AE
Explanation:
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A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve
this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface.
Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should
have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-
availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any
network issue on the organization’s operations and reputation. Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high-
availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization, firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to
protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also
have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps
in the network security. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4:
Architecture and Design, pages 164-1651. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0- 701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Architecture and Design, pages 164-1652.
NEW QUESTION 29
A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
• Provide a secure zone.
• Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
• Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?
A. Zero Trust
B. AAA
C. Non-repudiation
D. CIA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and
permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce
a company- wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can
reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
References:
? 5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.
? 8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.
NEW QUESTION 34
An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following
social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
A. Typosquatting
B. Phishing
C. Impersonation
D. Vishing
E. Smishing
F. Misinformation
Answer: BE
Explanation:
Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or
downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use
urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an
example of smishing.
Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague,
to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits,
and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an
example of impersonation.
* A. Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling
errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or
fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.
* B. Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or
downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use
deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
* D. Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card
numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical
support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
* F. Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of
the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related
to text messages or credential verification.
References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You
Protect Against
Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? |
Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is
Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION 39
After a security incident, a systems administrator asks the company to buy a NAC platform. Which of the following attack surfaces is the systems administrator
trying to protect?
A. Bluetooth
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B. Wired
C. NFC
D. SCADA
Answer: B
Explanation:
A NAC (network access control) platform is a technology that enforces security policies on devices that attempt to access a network. A NAC platform can verify
the identity, role, and compliance of the devices, and grant or deny access based on predefined rules. A NAC platform can protect both wired and wireless
networks, but in this scenario, the systems administrator is trying to protect the wired attack surface, which is the set of vulnerabilities that can be exploited through
a physical connection to the
network12.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 189; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition,
Chapter 5, page 237.
NEW QUESTION 42
After a company was compromised, customers initiated a lawsuit. The company's attorneys have requested that the security team initiate a legal hold in response
to the lawsuit. Which of the following describes the action the security team will most likely be required to take?
A. Retain the emails between the security team and affected customers for 30 days.
B. Retain any communications related to the security breach until further notice.
C. Retain any communications between security members during the breach response.
D. Retain all emails from the company to affected customers for an indefinite period of time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A legal hold (also known as a litigation hold) is a notification sent from an organization’s legal team to employees instructing them not to delete electronically
stored information (ESI) or discard paper documents that may be relevant to a new or imminent legal case. A legal hold is intended to preserve evidence and
prevent spoliation, which is the intentional or negligent destruction of evidence that could harm a party’s case. A legal hold can be triggered by various events,
such as a lawsuit, a regulatory investigation, or a subpoena12 In this scenario, the company’s attorneys have requested that the security team initiate a legal hold
in response to the lawsuit filed by the customers after the company was compromised. This means that the security team will most likely be required to retain any
communications related to the security breach until further notice. This could include emails, instant messages, reports, logs, memos, or any other documents that
could be relevant to the lawsuit. The security team should also inform the relevant custodians (the employees who have access to or control over the ESI) of their
preservation obligations and monitor their compliance. The security team should also document the legal hold process and its scope, as well as take steps to
protect the ESI from alteration, deletion, or loss34
References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 303 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701,
7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 305 3: Legal Hold (Litigation Hold) - The Basics of E-Discovery - Exterro 5 4: The Legal Implications and
Consequences of a Data Breach 6
NEW QUESTION 46
A company’s legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-
risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
A. Data masking
B. Encryption
C. Geolocation policy
D. Data sovereignty regulation
Answer: C
Explanation:
A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can
be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company’s legal department
to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.
The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:
? Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and
confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.
? Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and
confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or
method4.
? Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data
sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can
also vary depending on the country or region.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor
Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.
NEW QUESTION 49
Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
A. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
B. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
D. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The
attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The
attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.
In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display
field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim
that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This
is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.
Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C
describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority.
Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company’s email portal and capture their
credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+
SY0-701 - 2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA
Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy
NEW QUESTION 51
A company is expanding its threat surface program and allowing individuals to security test
the company’s internet-facing application. The company will compensate researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered. Which of the following best
describes the program the company is setting up?
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Bug bounty
C. Red team
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
A bug bounty is a program that rewards security researchers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an application or system. Bug bounties are often used by
companies to improve their security posture and incentivize ethical hacking. A bug bounty program typically defines the scope, rules, and compensation for the
researchers. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 10. CompTIA
Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2.
NEW QUESTION 55
An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following
security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?
A. ACL
B. DLP
C. IDS
D. IPS
Answer: D
Explanation:
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or
signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they
reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.
NEW QUESTION 57
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst
has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the
analyst use as a data source?
A. Application
B. IPS/IDS
C. Network
D. Endpoint
Answer: D
Explanation:
An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or
smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the
files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files
running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or
performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However,
application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion
detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or
malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted,
obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols,
packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not
provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide
the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.
References = https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/
https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging
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NEW QUESTION 60
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a “deny any” policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates
the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?
A. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enablingthe new policy
D. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being
implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production
environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and
performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment
would prevent the issue of the ‘deny any’ policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct
the problem before applying the policy to the production network. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change
management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are
authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy
before implementing it.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the ‘deny any’ policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security
of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic.
Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company
servers.
Including an ‘allow any’ policy above the ‘deny any’ policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the ‘deny any’ policy useless. A firewall policy is
processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An ‘allow any’ policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall,
regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the ‘deny any’ policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of
the previous rules. Moreover, an ‘allow any’ policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204- 205; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1
- Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.
NEW QUESTION 64
An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific
device. The organization has provided basic information about the device. Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test?
A. Partially known environment
B. Unknown environment
C. Integrated
D. Known environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system,
or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray
box test1. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.
NEW QUESTION 65
Which of the following should a systems administrator use to ensure an easy deployment of resources within the cloud provider?
A. Software as a service
B. Infrastructure as code
C. Internet of Things
D. Software-defined networking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and
applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which
integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud
and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.
NEW QUESTION 70
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
A. OCSP
B. CSR
C. CA
D. CRC
Answer: A
Explanation:
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by
sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that
indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists
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(CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). References: CompTIA Security+
Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1
NEW QUESTION 74
Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?
A. Preparation
B. Recovery
C. Lessons learned
D. Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for
handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can
help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.
Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:
? Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the
communications lead, and the legal advisor.
? Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and
reporting mechanisms.
? Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and
the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders.
? Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-
service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.
? Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools,
and communication and collaboration tools.
? Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the
external support.
? Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies,
and the media.
References:
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section 6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network
architecture concepts, Sub-objective: Incident response, p. 16
NEW QUESTION 76
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company’s network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates.
Which of the following should be done next?
A. Conduct an audit.
B. Initiate a penetration test.
C. Rescan the network.
D. Submit a report.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities
have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the
weaknesses and exposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated
tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and
remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities
and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.
Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the
vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit
may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a
mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.
A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration
test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or
cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A
penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.
Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and
recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also
include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm
that the network is secure.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372- 375; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1
- Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 - 8:00.
NEW QUESTION 80
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. Shadow IT
B. Insider threat
C. Data exfiltration
D. Service disruption
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Shadow IT is the term used to describe the use of unauthorized or unapproved IT resources within an organization. The marketing department set up its own
project management software without telling the appropriate departments, such as IT, security, or compliance. This could pose a risk to the organization’s security
posture, data integrity, and regulatory compliance1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 35.
NEW QUESTION 83
A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in
transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
A. Processor
B. Custodian
C. Subject
D. Owner
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored
by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict
their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is
classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf
of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or
entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511
NEW QUESTION 86
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
A. Identify embedded keys
B. Code debugging
C. Input validation
D. Static code analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can
prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application
code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping,
and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the
organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used
to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the
application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.
Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the
policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if
exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or
performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding
standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1
- Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.
NEW QUESTION 89
An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. Which of the following should the organization deploy to
best protect against similar attacks in the future?
A. NGFW
B. WAF
C. TLS
D. SD-WAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data
to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by
an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s
internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should
deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can
detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies
and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from
exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701
– 2.3, Web Application Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition]
NEW QUESTION 91
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP
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address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other
devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to
send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1
? Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2
? TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION 94
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
A. Block access to cloud storage websites.
B. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
C. Apply classifications to the data.
D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss
prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can
define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam
SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page
327.
NEW QUESTION 99
Which of the following would be the best way to handle a critical business application that is running on a legacy server?
A. Segmentation
B. Isolation
C. Hardening
D. Decommissioning
Answer: C
Explanation:
A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical
business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A
legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.
One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and
configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:
? Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available
? Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts
? Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic
? Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage
? Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity
? Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from
unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent
solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to
plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible. References: CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, Section 3.2: Secure System Design, Page 133 1; CompTIA Security+
Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.2: Explain the importance of secure system design, Subobjective: Legacy systems
2
NEW QUESTION 103
A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal. Which of the following should the company request from
the vendor?
A. Certification
B. Inventory list
C. Classification
D. Proof of ownership
Answer: A
Explanation:
The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s
policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and
prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names
and signatures of the personnel
involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441
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NEW QUESTION 107
During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters,
and two special characters. Once the password is created, the company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet
profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites
based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).
A. Federation
B. Identity proofing
C. Password complexity
D. Default password changes
E. Password manager
F. Open authentication
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or
organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without
exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and
uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1
NEW QUESTION 108
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required
access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
A. RBAC
B. ACL
C. SAML
D. GPO
Answer: A
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC
simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce
the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they
either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION 110
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company’s database in an IaaS model for a cloud
environment?
A. Client
B. Third-party vendor
C. Cloud provider
D. DBA
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment,
depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as
the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud
infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company’s database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an
application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from
unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model,
but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide,
page 263- 264; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 5:00 - 7:40.
NEW QUESTION 115
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
A. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
B. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
C. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
D. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security
policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing,
malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters,
videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most
likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to
raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other
suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore,
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this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational
tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a
technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any
deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center,
and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational
task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related
to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does
not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that
involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and
employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the
communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Security Awareness and
Training –
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.
NEW QUESTION 117
Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?
A. Automation
B. Compliance checklist
C. Attestation
D. Manual audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using
software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the
efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce
security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security
personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.
The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:
? Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A
compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not
automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.
? Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or
evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur
on a daily basis4.
? Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify
and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be
feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by
Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. :
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.
NEW QUESTION 118
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository?
A. Jailbreaking
B. Memory injection
C. Resource reuse
D. Side loading
Answer: D
Explanation:
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities,
such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the
organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices. References =
Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers –
CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
NEW QUESTION 120
Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email
address.”
Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).
A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
C. Issue a general email warning to the company.
D. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
E. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.
F. Implement mobile device management.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive
information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email
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warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email
warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money.
References = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses
NEW QUESTION 124
An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution
that will allow it to reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center and monitoring of remote employee
internet traffic. Which of the following will help achieve these objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet
C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic
D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE
can help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees.
SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such
as lower costs, improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam
SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457-458 1
NEW QUESTION 126
An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that is not accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the
following should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Segmentation
B. Isolation
C. Patching
D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into smaller and isolated segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation
can help improve network security by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack surface, and enforcing access control policies. Segmentation can also
enhance network performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish the goal of storing customer data on a separate part of the network, the administrator
can use segmentation technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or switches. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition, page 308-309 1
NEW QUESTION 129
The management team notices that new accounts that are set up manually do not always have correct access or permissions.
Which of the following automation techniques should a systems administrator use to streamline account creation?
A. Guard rail script
B. Ticketing workflow
C. Escalation script
D. User provisioning script
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user provisioning script is an automation technique that uses a predefined set of instructions or commands to create, modify, or delete user accounts and assign
appropriate access or permissions. A user provisioning script can help to streamline account creation by reducing manual errors, ensuring consistency and
compliance, and saving time and resources12.
The other options are not automation techniques that can streamline account creation:
? Guard rail script: This is a script that monitors and enforces the security policies and rules on a system or a network. A guard rail script can help to prevent
unauthorized or malicious actions, such as changing security settings, accessing restricted resources, or installing unwanted software3.
? Ticketing workflow: This is a process that tracks and manages the requests, issues, or incidents that are reported by users or customers. A ticketing workflow
can help to improve the communication, collaboration, and resolution of problems, but it does not automate the account creation process4.
? Escalation script: This is a script that triggers an alert or a notification when a certain condition or threshold is met or exceeded. An escalation script can help to
inform the relevant parties or authorities of a critical situation, such as a security breach, a performance degradation, or a service outage.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: User Provisioning – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor
Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1034: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 104. : CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 105.
NEW QUESTION 130
Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent?
A. Detective
B. Compensating
C. Corrective
D. Preventive
Answer: D
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies
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minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects
the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.
An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A
preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent them from exploiting or harming the
system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.
Some examples of preventive controls are:
? Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device
? Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system
? Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees
An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and
proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or
availability of the network or the system, such as:
? Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software
? Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption
? Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes
? Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms
? Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network
By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions
or inactions3.
References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why
You Need A
Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA
NEW QUESTION 134
A penetration tester begins an engagement by performing port and service scans against the client environment according to the rules of engagement. Which of
the following reconnaissance types is the tester performing?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Defensive
D. Offensive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Active reconnaissance is a type of reconnaissance that involves sending packets or requests to a target and analyzing the responses. Active reconnaissance can
reveal information such as open ports, services, operating systems, and vulnerabilities. However, active reconnaissance is also more likely to be detected by the
target or its security devices, such as firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port and service scans are examples of active reconnaissance techniques, as they
involve probing the target for specific information. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1: Given a scenario, conduct
reconnaissance using appropriate techniques and tools. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Reconnaissance and Intelligence Gathering, page
47. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 1.
NEW QUESTION 137
After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
A. Compensating
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Corrective
Answer: B
Explanation:
Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to
discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits,
intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the
ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system
errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.
References:
? Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and
policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
? CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious
activity or anomalies on a system or network.”
? Control Types – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT …, under “Detective Controls”: “Detective controls are security measures that are
designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.”
NEW QUESTION 139
HOTSPOT
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPS Database server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive
KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification
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Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION 142
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