Candidate number

Candidate name

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM 2022/9

Listening
TEST MATERIALS
Additional materials: Answer sheet for Listening and Reading

Time Approximately 30 minutes (plus 10 minutes’ transfer time)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.
For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time
for you to check your answers.
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PART 1 Questions 1 – 10

Questions 1-5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

VOLUNTEER’S INFORMATION REPORT

Example Answer

Number of volunteers … 15….

Name 1 .........................................

Phone number 007539984

Area of specialization 2 .........................................

Hobbies Swimming

3 .........................................

Information source found in a 4 .........................................

Available time Weekends

Previous voluntary experience 5 teaching ................................... in a local school.

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Questions 6-10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Project/Position Time Duties Requirement for volunteers

GO ECO 6 ........................ Cleaning up local parks Bring a 7.................................

8 ......................... Saturday evenings Reading books to blind having 9 .............................

people

Helping People In Friday afternoons Supporting 10 Physically fit

Need ...................... in a
hospital

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PART 2 Questions 11 – 20

Questions 11 – 14

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. What time do the new staff work on Monday?

A. 10.15 a.m. – 9.30 p.m.

B. 10.30 a.m. – 9.00 p.m.

C. 9:45 a.m. – 9.30 p.m.

12. When going to work, new staff should not wear ...................................

A. shoes

B. jewelry

C. trousers

13. If the staff are late or ill, they must inform ...................................

A. the manager

B. the head chef

C. the kitchen supervisor

14. According to the manager, what do most people like when working in the kitchen?

A. Friendly working environment

B. The variety of work

C. Promotion opportunities

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Questions 15 and 16

Choose TWO letters, A – E

According to the manager, which are TWO of the main duties of a kitchen assistant?

A. Preparing ingredients before opening.

B. Decorating food.

C. Checking food stocks.

D. Cooking simple dishes.

E. Cleaning the kitchen.

Questions 17 – 20

What is the responsibility of each of the following restaurant staff member?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17 – 20.

Responsibilities

A. Training

B. Food stocks

C. First aid

D. Breakages

E. Timetables

F. Staff payment

17 Laura Thompson ...................................

18 Reed Richards ...................................

19 Miles Morale ...................................

20 Pietro Watson ...................................

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PART 3 Questions 21 – 30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct answers, A, B or C.

21. After giving her first presentation, Lucy felt satisfied mainly because:

A. She managed to handle tough questions quite smoothly.

B. She didn’t run out of time.

C. The audience were very supportive.

22. What is the most valuable skill Lucy learned from her tutor?

A. How to take note effectively

B. Designing presentation slides

C. Be more confident

23. What was Lucy’s first impression of her classmates?

A. They were not very friendly.

B. They worked really hard.

C. They were good at organizing events.

24. What is the most serious problem that Lucy is facing?

A. She finds it hard to make friends with her classmates.

B. She has difficulty maintaining her focus in class.

C. She lives too far from the university.

25. Why did Lucy choose “Herbal tea export” as the topic for her final presentation?

A. She couldn’t find enough data for the other topic.

B. The topic she initially chose was done in the last term by other students.

C. She already had some practical experience.

26. What do the speakers agree about things that Lucy should improve in the final presentation?

A. avoid using weak verbs.

B. look at the audience more often.

C. show more appreciation to people who give questions after her presentation.

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Questions 27-30

What does Ciri decide about each of the following courses?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 27-30.

A. She will take it.

B. She won’t take it.

C. She might take it.

27. Corporate finance ...................................

28. Tariffs and non-tariff barriers ...................................

29. Economic history ...................................

30. Financial asset evaluation ...................................

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PART 4 Questions 31 – 40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

EGYPTIAN PYRAMIDS

Overview:

One of the most long-lasting 31 ................................... of Egyptian art and architecture.

Pyramids were built to 32 ................................... Pharaoh’s body.

Each pyramid contained a variety of paintings, 33 ............................. and sculptures

History:

Old Kingdom era (2686 – 2181 B.C): pyramids constructed during this time were the largest.

Middle Kingdom era (2055 – 1650 B.C): pyramids were smaller and less 34 .............................

New Kingdom era (1550 – 1069 B.C): Egyptians focused on building 35 ......................................
because Pharaohs were no longer buried in pyramids.

Late Egyptian era (664 – 30 B.C): the construction of pyramids was revived.

The construction of pyramids had significant 36 ...................................on other countries.

Characteristics:

Earlier pyramids are different from later ones.

• The core of original pyramids is usually covered by 37 ………… or granite

Pharaohs were buried with numerous 38 .............................

A pyramid was always a part of a 39 .............................

The location of a pyramid is decided based on its 40 ............................. to the west and distance to
Memphis.