VELAMMAL KNOWLEDGE PARK - PONNERI

IIT- FOUNDATION COURSE

VISTO SEASON – GRAND TEST - 3
Sub: M.P.C.B Maximum Marks:-
100
Class:- VII Date:12.09.16
MATHEMATICS 40 1 = 40

1. The simplified value of 8.7-[7.6-{6.5-(5.4-4.3-2)}] is …..

a) 2.5 b) 3.5 c) 4.5 d) 5.5

−( 4−6 )2−3 (−4 ) +|10−6|

2. The value of 18−9÷3×5 is…………
a) 20 b) 21 c) 42 d) 9
3. The product of four integers is -432. If three of these integers are -2, -3 and 8, then the
sum of smallest and greatest of these integers is ………
a) -3 b) -1 c) 5 d) 7
4. Which of the following is in descending order?
3 5 11 7 7 11 5 3 11 7 5 3 7 11 3 5
, , , , , , , , , , , ,
a) 16 12 15 8 b) 8 15 12 16 c) 15 8 12 16 d) 8 15 16 12

5. The value of ( 0 . 008×0. 01×0. 072 )÷ ( 0 .12×0. 00004 ) is ……….

a) 1.2 b) 0.12 c) 0.012 d) 1.02
14 35
6. The product of two fractions is 15 and when they divided the resultant is 24 . The larger
among the fraction is
7 7 7 4
a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 d) 5
3 m+1
7. If 8 =128m−3 then the value of m is
a) -12 b) 12 c) 9 d) -9

[{( ) } ( ) ] [( ) ]
2 3 −4 −3 −3 −3

8. The value of
1÷
2
3
×
1
3
−1
×3 ×6 −1
+
1
3
−() ()
1
2
÷
1
4
is ………
181 151 172 147
a) 64 b) 64 c) 21 d) 32

( 16 )2 m+1 ( 64 )5
2
=( 256 )3 m
9. If ( 256 ) ×4 then the value of m is
a) 1 b) 0 c) 4 d) 5

( )( )
−3 2
a−2 a−3
2
10. The value of b b5 is ……….

1 1 a a2
2 4 3
a) b b) b c) b d) b
11. Rani, sudha and sneha divided 11.775 kg of wheat flour equally among themselves. The
quantity of flour that rani got is…………..
a) 4.425 b) 3.925 c) 3.185 d) 4.126
12. Find the number of lines of symmetry of the following figure

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 5
13. Which of the following figures correctly shows a figure and its reflected image about the
dotted line?
a) 6 : 6 b) 6 : 9 c) 6 : d) 6 :
14. What is the order of rotational symmetry of the given figure?
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
15. Statement – I: Division is Associative
Statement – II: Is [(-16) ¿ 4] ÷ (-2) = (-16) ¿ [4¿ (-2)]?
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
a c a c
Paragraph: If b and d are two fractions and on cross multiplication. ad>bc. Then b > d
a c
<
and if ad < bc, then b d
45 3
16. If 60 is equivalent to x then the value of x is ……
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 20
17. Which of the following statements is correct?
3 3 3 3 3 3
a) 4 < 5 b) 4 > 5 c) 4 = 5 d) Cannot be compared
4 4 4 4
, , ,
18. The largest of the fractions 5 7 9 11 is …..
4 4 4 4
a) 11 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
19. Assertion(A): Rectangle has two lines of symmetry
Reason(R): The diagonal of a rectangular can be treated as a line of symmetry
a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation A
b) Both A & R are two but, R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true, R is false d) A is false, R is true
20. Match the following: simplify
Column – I Column – II

()
3
( 3 +2 ) × 1
2 2 19
A) 2 p. 64

( 3 +2 ) ×( 2 )
−3
2 2 −4
B) 3 q. 3

[( ) ( ) ] ( )
−3 −3 −3
1 1 1 13
− ÷
C)
3 2 4 r. 8

(2)
2
( 22 + 32 −4 2 ) ÷ 3 351
D) s. 8
a) A – p, B – q, C – r, D – s b) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r
c) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q d) A – s, B – q, C – r, D - p
o o
21. In figure, three lines p, q and r concurrent at O. If a=50 and b=90 then c, d, e are
respectively.

a) 40 o , 50o , 80o

b) 40 o , 60 o , 90o

c) 40 o , 50o , 90o

d) 90 o , 50o , 40o

22. In the given figure, if PQRS, then …………….

o
a) 75
o
b) 100
o
c) 45
o
d) 60

23. In the given figure CDAB. Then is …………….

o
a) 100
o
b) 80
o
c) 60
o
d) 40

24. In the given figure and . If , then the

value of x is ………….

a)
 b)

c)

d)

25. In the given figure, and . If then the value of

…………..

a)

b)

c)

d)

26. In the given figure ABC is a triangle in which BC is produced to . If is 3 : 2 : 1

and , then is ……………

a)

b)

c)

d)
27. In a triangle ABC, sum of exterior angles at B and C is equal to …………

a)

b)

c)
d) None

28. In ABC, AB = AC, and th of . Then the measure of = ……………..

a) b) c) d)

29. In the given figure, , then ……….

a)

b)

c)

d)

30. and are three angles of a right angled triangle, right angled at C, if ,

then …………
 a) b) c) d)
31. What is the length of the diagonal of a square of side ‘a’ units?

a) units b) units c) units d) units

32. ABC and PQR are congruent under the correspondence ABC  RQP the parts of ABC
which are not correspond to PQ are …………….
a) CB b) AB c) AC d) Both b and c
33. In the figure, AD = AE, BD = EC, then ABC is …………..
a) Scalene triangle b) Isosceles triangle
c) Equilateral triangle d) None

34. In PQR and SQR, and then ………….

a) Δ PQR ~ ΔSRQ b) Δ PQR≃ ΔSRQ c) Δ PQR≠ ΔSRQ d) None

Paragraph questions :
The point of concurrence of medians, altitudes, perpendicular bisectors and internal
angular bisectors are called centroid, orthocenter, circumcentre and incentre
respectively.
35. The centroid divides each median in the ratio is …………
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 1
36. In a right angled triangle, circum centre lies…………….
a) interior of the triangle b) exterior of the triangle
c) midpoint of the hypotenuse d) on a vertex
37. A line passing through ortho centre, centroid and circum centre is called ………….
a) Median line b) Euler’s line c) Straight line d) Pythogorus line
38. In which triangle S, G, O, I are collinear ………………
a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) All of these
39. Statement (A) : If two circles have same radii, they are congruent.
Statement (B) : If two triangles are congruent, then their corresponding parts [i.e.,
angles and sides] that match one another are equal.
a) Both (A) and (B) are true b) Both (A) and (B) are false
c) (A) is true, (B) is false d) (A) is false, (B) is true
40. Match the following :
Column – I Column – II

A) p) S.A.S. rule

B) q) R.H.S. rule

C) r) S.S.S. rule
 D) s) A.A.S. rule

a) A-p B-q C-r D-s b) A-q B-s C-p D-r

c) A-r B-s C-q D-p d) A-s B-r C-p D-q

PHYSICS 20 × 1 = 20
41. The lower fixed point each of the Celsius and the Fahrenheit scale of temperature is

a) 4 o C when the density of water is maximum

b) the boiling point of water
c) the freezing point of water
d) none of these
42. Which of the following group contain only conductors?
a) Copper, Aluminium, Silver and Mercury
b) Copper, Clothes, Aluminium and Silver
c) Wood, Copper, Aluminium and Silver
d) Aluminium, Silver, Mercury and paper
43. The temperature at the centre of the earth is about

a) 4000 o C b) 40000 o C c) 400 o C d) 400000 o C

44. The centre of the cyclone is known as
a) Ear of hurricanes b) Nose of hurricanes
c) Eyes of hurricanes d) Middle of hurricanes
45. The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is found to be xk, when it is measured by

Fahrenheit thermometer it is found to be x o F . Then ‘x’ is

a) 301.25 b) 574.25 c) 313 d) 40

46. The steam point and ice point of mercury thermometer are wrongly marked as 92o C and
2o C respectively the correct temperature read by this thermometer is

a) 20 o C b) 2o C c) 5o C d) 10o C
47. Temperature of insects can be measured by
a) Gas thermometer b) Thermo electric thermometer
c) Resistance thermometer d) Liquid thermometer
48. Near coastal regions, the sea breeze blows
a) During day time only b) During night time only
c) During day time only d) None of these
49. Statement (A) : For convenience mercury thermometer is used.
Statement (B) : For sensitivity constant gas thermometer is used.
a) Both (A) and (B) are true b) Both (A) and (B) are false
 c) (A) is true, (B) is false d) (A) is false, (B) is true
50. Assertion (A) : The outer side of the outer bottle and the inner side of the inner bottle
in a thermos flask are
highly polish.
Reason (R) : Thermo flask prevents the heat loss
a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true
51. Among the following non-flammable or incombustible substances is/are
a) Iron b) Gold c) Alcohol d) Both (A) and (B)
52. Kitchen utensils are provided with copper base because
a) Copper base increases the durability
b) Copper base makes them attractive
c) Copper is good conductor of heat
d) Copper is bad conductor of heat
53. Mode of transfer of heat which no medium is required is
a) Convection b) Radiation c) Conduction d) All of these
54. A Celsius is a unit of
a) Current b) Heat
c) Equivalent to degree centigrade d) Equivalent to degree Kelvin

55. The normal temperature of a human body is x o above absolute zero. The value of ‘x’ is

a) 310o b) 340o c) 100o C d) 200 o C

56. A balloon when taken near candle bursts because.
a) Balloon melts b) Balloon reduced in size
c) Air inside expands d) Air inside condenses

57. On a hypothetical scale X, the ice point is 40 o and the steam point is 120o . For another

scale Y, the ice point and steam point are −30 o and 130o respectively if x-reads 50o , then
‘Y’ would read.

a) −10o b) −5o c) −8 o d) −12

o

58. The special kind of storm whirling wind, circling around a low pressure centre is
a) Thunderstorms b) Torndo c) Typhoon d) Lightning
59. N.D.R.E. stands for
a) Natural disaster response exercise (b) b) Natural disaster research exercise
c) National defence research exercise d) National diary response exercise
60. Match the following :
Column – I Column – II
a) Winds in coastal regions p) 300o C
b) Increased wind speed q) land and see breezes
c) Calorie r) 4.2 J
 d) 300 K s) Reduced air pressure
.

a) a-q b-s c-r d-p b) a-p b-q c-r d-s

c) a-s b-r c-q d-p d) a-r b-s c-p d-q
CHEMISTRY 20 × 1 = 20
61. The characteristic properties of an acid is due to presence of …………..
a) Hydride ions b) Hydroxyl ions
c) Hydronium ions d) Oxide ions
62. Which of the following is tri basic?
a) nitric acid b) acetic acid c) phosphoric acid d) phosphorous acid
63. Correct order of wool processing is
a) sorting, dying, shearing and scouring b) shearing, scouring, sorting and dying
c) shearing, scouring, dying and sorting d) shearing, sorting, scoring and dying
64. Which group of change included only chemical change?
a) Dissolving of sugar, burning of paper and rusting of Iron
b) Burning of paper, rusting of iron and ripening of fruits
c) Melting of ice, burning of paper and rusting of Iron
d) Burning of paper, melting of ice and rusting of Iron
65. Which pair of metals react with conc. NaOH solution to liberate hydrogen gas?
a) Zinc and aluminium b) Zinc and Iron
c) Iron and copper d) Aluminium and copper
66. Identify the correct statement :
a) Heating of sugar is a permanent change
b) Crystallisation of sugar is a chemical change
c) Sugar decomposes to form charcoal which is a form of carbon
d) Both a and c
67. Caterpillar completely covers itself by silk fibre and turns into pupa. This is known as
a) Cocoon b) Larva c) Silk worm d) Silk
68. Which of the following is “queen of fibres”?
a) Wool b) Silk c) Jute d) Coir
69. Which of the following requires heat energy to bring out change?
a) stretching of rubber b) magnetisation of Iron
c) cooking of food d) rusting of Iron
70. While preparing a dilute solution of a mineral acid.
a) always add a given amount of acid in water and stir
b) always add a given amount of water in the acid and stir
c) always add a given acid drop by drop to water by continuous stirring
d) none of the above
71. In the following reactions identify the products,
Na2 CO 3 ( aq ) +2 HCl ( aq ) ⃗ ____________
 a) Sodium chloride and water b) Water and carfondioxide
c) Sodium carbonate, carbondioxide and water
d) Sodium chloride, carbondioxide and water
72. On washing with soap, a turmeric stain on the cloth turns to red because
A) Soap solution is basic B) soap solution is acidic
C) Turmeric contains a natural indicator
D) Turmeric contains litmus select the correct alternative
a) A and C b) B and D c) C and B d) A and D
73. The eggs of silk worm hatch in ……………weeks.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
74. When an iron rod is heated it expands and when cooled contracts. This expansion on
heating and contraction on cooling can be classified as a
a) Chemical change b) Physical change
c) Irreversible change d) Periodic change
75. The metal used for galvanisation is
a) Tin b) Zinc c) Lead d) Copper
76. Statement – I : The oxides and hydroxides of sodium and potassium are
strong bases.
Statement – II : All basis which are soluble in water are called alkalies.
a) Both statements (I) and (II) are true b) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
c) Statement (I) is true, statement (II) is false d) Statement (I) is false, Statement (II) is
true
77. Jagdish took a few pieces of Zinc in a test tube and added dilute sulphuric acid to it. He
will observe that
a) Zinc dissolves and produces carbondioxide and it is a chemical change
b) Zinc dissolves and it is a physical change
c) Zinc dissolves and produces H 2 gas and it is a chemical change
d) H2 gas is evolved and it is a physical change
78. Assertion : Metallic oxides react with mineral acids to form their respective metallic
salts.
Reason : Strength of acidic depends on the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true
79. Matrix matching type :
Source Name of the acid
a) Lemon 1) Formic acid
b) Grapes 2) Acetic acid
c) Vinegar 3) Citric acid
d) Brown ants 4) Tartaric acid
.

a) a-2 b-1 c-3 d-4 b) a-3 b-4 c-2 d-1

 c) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4 d) a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1
80. Matrix matching type :
Column – I Column – II
a) Blackening of silver ware 1) Physical change
b) Shaping of glass by heat 2) Chemical change
c) Phases of moon 3) Periodic change
d) Respiration in humans 4) Irreversible change
.

a) a-1 b-4 c-2 d-1 b) a-3 b-2 c-4 d-1,4

c) a-2,4 b-1 c-3 d-2,4 d) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

BIOLOGY 20 × 1 = 20
81. The association in which both the partners are benefitted ……………
a) Commensalism b) Mutualism c) Parasitism d) Ammensalism
82. Read the following and find out which are True (T) and False (F).
a) Organisms living on dead and decaying organic matter are called parasites
b) Insectivorous plants lack photosynthesis
c) Lichen is the combination of an alga and fungus
d) Rhizobium is nitrogen fixing bacterium
A B C D A B C D
a) F F T T b) F T F T
c) F F T F d) T F F T
83. Which of the following statement is not True?
a) Dodder is an example of parasitic plant
b) Monotropa is a parasite, that depends viscum plant for their nutrition
c) Pulses and beans are legumes
d) Photosynthesis occurs in stems in cactus plant
84. Plenty of boiled water mixed with a pinch of salt and sugar dissolved in it is called
…………
a) a acid b) a base c) an indicator d) oral rehydration solution
85. Which of the following is a nocturnal organism?
a) Butterfly b) Cockroach c) Fish d) Earthworm
86. Which term describes the wave of muscular contraction that moves food material
through the Gastro intestinal tract towards the anus?
a) Assimilation b) Peristalsis c) Cirrhosis d) Diffusion
87. Food travels through these organs in the following order in digestive tract. Find the
correct order.
a) mouth, gullet, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
b) mouth, small intestine, gullet, large intestine, rectum
c) mouth, caecum, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
d) gullet, mouth, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
88. Only enzyme that acts on proteins in acidic medium is …………..
a) Trypsin b) Chymotrypsin c) Pepsin d) Tripeptidase
89. Which of these is not the 3 pairs of extrinsic salivary gland?
a) parotid b) palatine c) submandibular d) sub maxillary
90. A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to
be found in ………….
a) Polar regions b) Desert c) Ocean d) Tropical rain forest
91. Statement – I : In ruminants, caecum lies between the stomach and the small
intestine.
 Statement – II : Molars are not formed in the milk teeth or temporary teeth.
a) Both (I) and (II) are true b) Both (I) and (II) are false
c) (I) is true, (II) is false d) (I) is false, (II) is true
92. The process of remaining inactive or dormant during winter is called ………….
a) Chill coma b) Hibernation c) Heat coma d) Aestivation
93. Assertion (A): Amarbel is an example of partial parasite.
Reason (R): It does not have chlorophyll, and it takes readymade food from the plant on
which it is climbing.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true
94. The soil containing same amount of large and fine particles is called …………
a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Bricks

95. The type of soil suitable for growing masoor dal is …………..
a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Bricks
96. Match the following :
Column – I Column – II
a) Clay soil p) Absorbs water
b) Sandy loam q) Difficult to dig with spade
c) Silt r) Making toys, pots
d) Kutcha road s) Cotton
e) Bedrock t) Between sand and clay
.

a) a-r b-s c-t d-p e–q b) a-s b-r c-p d-t e-q
c) a-r b-t c-s d-q e-p d) a-p b-q c-s d-r e-t
97. Identify the incorrect statement.
a) Sandy soil has higher water holding capacity
b) Exotherms obtain energy from external sources
c) Mammals, birds are endotherms, regulate constant body temperature.
d) The earthy fragrance of soil after the first rain is always refreshing.
Paragraph :
The primary difference between a ruminant and non-ruminant is that ruminant
have a four compartment stomach, rumen, reticulam, omasum and abomasums. In the
first 2 chambers the food is mixed with saliva and separates into layers of solid and liquid
material. In omasum, water and many of the inorganic mineral elements are absorbed
into the blood stream. In abomasums, digesta is digested here.
98. The true stomach of numinant is ……………
a) Omasum b) Abomasum c) Rumen d) Reticulam
99. Ruminant mammals does not include………….
a) sheep, goat, giraffe b) deer, antelope, cattle
c) cattle, sheep, deer d) marsupials, goat, sheep
100. The remnant of the caesum in humans is …………
a) anus b) appendix c) ileum d) duodenum
 VELAMMAL KNOWLEDGE PARK - PONNERI
IIT- FOUNDATION COURSE
VISTO SEASON – GRAND TEST - 3
Sub: M.P.C.B Maximum Marks:-
100
Class:- VII Date: 12.09.2016

KEY
MATHEMATICS
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Key
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Key
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key
PHYSICS
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Key
Q.No 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key

CHEMISTRY
Q.No 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Key
Q.No 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Key
BIOLOGY
Q.No 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Key
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Key