NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 1

Sample Paper 18
Class XII 2024-25
Chemistry (043)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION-A

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-16) : The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1. The half-life for a first order reaction is 4 minutes. The time after which 99.9% reaction gets completed is:
(a) 32 minutes (b) 40 minutes
(c) 16 minutes (d) 8 minutes

2. Match the following d and f block elements with their properties or reactions:

Column A (Elements/Compounds) Column B (Properties/Reactions)

A Potassium Dichromate 1 Shows +3 and +5 oxidation states
B Manganese (Mn) 2 Used in Breathalyzer test for detecting alcohol
C Lanthanum (La) 3 Shows multiple oxidation states from +2 to +7
D Chromium (Cr) 4 Exhibits +3 oxidation state and is a typical
lanthanoid
(a) A - 2 B - 3 C - 4 D - 1 (b) A - 1 B - 2 C - 4 D - 3
(c) A - 2 B - 1 C - 3 D - 4 (d) A - 3 B - 1 C - 2 D - 4

3. Study the graph showing the solubility of carboxylic acids in water and identify the compounds:
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Chemistry Class 12

(a) 1 = Formic acid, 2 = Acetic acid, 3 = Propionic acid, 4 = Butyric acid

(b) 1 = Acetic acid, 2 = Butyric acid, 3 = Formic acid, 4 = Propionic acid
(c) 1 = Butyric acid, 2 = Propionic acid, 3 = Acetic acid, 4 = Formic acid
(d) 1 = Propionic acid, 2 = Formic acid, 3 = Butyric acid, 4 = Acetic acid

4. Consider the following given compounds :

Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity towards SN2 reaction ?
(a) I > III > II (b) II > I > III
(c) II > III > I (d) III > I > II

5. In the nitration of benzene using a mixture of conc. H2SO4 and conc. HNO3, the species which initiate the
reaction is .............. .
(a) NO+ (b) NO2
(c) NO -2 (d) NO +2

6. The reagent with which acetaldehyde and acetone both react easily is:
(a) Grignard reagent (b) Schiff’s reagent
(c) Tollen’s reagent (d) Fehling solution

7. o-hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives the product as (IUPAC name):
(a) o-hydroxy-benzyl chloride (b) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene
(c) 4-hydroxymethylphenol (d) 2-chloromethylphenol

8. The relationship between rate constant and half-life period for a first order reaction is:
(a) t1/2 = 0.693k (b) t1/2 = k/0.693
t1/2
(c) t1/2 = 0.693 (d) k =
k 0.693

9. The following curve is obtained when molar conductivity λ m (y -axis) is plotted against the square root of
concentration C1/2 (x -axis) for two electrolytes A and B .
NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 3

What can you infer about the nature of the two electrolytes A and B ?
(a) A is weak electrolyte and B is strong electrolyte
(b) A is strong electrolyte and B is weak electrolyte
(c) A and B both are strong electrolytes
(d) A and B both are weak electrolytes

10. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide
ion is oxidised to:
(a) IO– (b) I2
-
(c) lO 4 (d) IO -3

11. The magnitude of CFSE (crystal field splitting energy, T 0 ) can be related to the configuration of d -orbital
in a coordination entity as:
(a) if T 0 < P , the configuration is t 23g e g1 = week field ligand and high spin complex
(b) if T 0 > P , the configuration is t 24g e g0 = strong field ligand and high spin complex
(c) if T 0 > P , the configuration is t 23g e g1 = strong field ligand and low spin complex
(d) if T 0 = P , the configuration is t 24g e g1 = strong field ligand and high spin complex

12. The relationship between rate constant and half-life period for a first order reaction is:
(a) t1/2 = 0.693k (b) t1/2 = k/0.693
t1/2
(c) t1/2 = 0.693 (d) k =
k 0.693

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-16) : Each of the following questions consists of two statements, one is Assertion and the other
is Reason. Give answer :

13. Assertion : Only α -amino acids are obtained on hydrolysis of proteins.

Reason : In zwitter ionic form, amino acids show amphoteric behaviour.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

14. Assertion : Aliphatic amines are weaker bases than ammonia and aromatic amines are stronger bases than
ammonia.
Reason : + / − effect of alkyl groups on aliphatic amines increase the electron density on nitrogen atom.
Aromatic amines are weaker due to electron withdrawing nature of the aryl group.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Page 4 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Chemistry Class 12

15. Assertion : Actinoids form relatively less stable complexes as compared to lanthanides.
Reason : Actinoids can utilise their 5f orbitals along with 6d orbitals in bonding, but lanthanoids do not
use their 4f orbital for bonding.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

16. Assertion : Ethers have specific dipole moment values.

Reason : The C - O bond is polar in nature.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

SECTION-B

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) : This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

17. Give the plausible explanation for the following:

(i) Glucose doesn’t 2, 4-DNP test.
(ii) The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary.


O
What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following? Give equation to support your answer.
(i) HI
(ii) HNO3

18. Is the following reaction possible? Explain with reason.

Fe (s) + H 2 SO 4 (aq) $ FeSO 4 + H 2 -

19. A compound (A) on oxidation gives B (C 2 H 4 O 2), (A) reacts with dil. NaOH and on subsequent heating
forms (C). The compound (C) on catalytic hydrogenation gives (D). Identify A, B, C, D and write down
the reaction involved.

20. Write the order of following reactions with reason:

Fe
(i) N 2 + 3H 2 Mo
2NH −3

(ii) CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 + NaOH CH 3 COONa

21. Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt (NH 3) (Br) (Cl) (Py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical
isomers?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 5

Section-C

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-28) : This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

22. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds ?
(i) Chloroform and carbon tetrachloride
(ii) Benzyl chloride and chlorobenzene.

23. Consider a ship that is slowly sinking due to the corrosion of its hull, which is caused by a first-order
chemical reaction between the ship’s metal and seawater. The reaction causes the metal to corrode, and
over time, 99% of the hull will be compromised. Show that the time required for 99% of the ship’s hull to
corrode is twice the time required for 90% of the hull to corrode, based on the principles of a first-order
reaction.

24. Give reasons for the following: (Any three)

(i) Aniline cannot be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal conditions.
(ii) N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8 K. although both are isomeric in
nature.
(iii) Acylation of aniline is carried out in the presence of pyridine.
(iv) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect.

25. (i) Write the IUPAC name of the following complex : K 2 [PdCl 4]
(ii) Using crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of d 5 ion, if T o > P .
(iii) What are homoleptic complexes?

26. How are following conversions carried out?

(i) Ethyl cyanide to ethanoic acid
(ii) Butan-1-ol to butanoic acid
(iii) Benzoic acid to m -bromobenzoic acid.

27. The boiling point of solution obtained by dissolving 6 g urea (NH2CONH2) in 200 g water, is 100.28C.
What will be the freezing point of this solution? For water molal elevation constant and molal depression
constant are respectively 0.52°C molal-1 and 1.86°C molal-1.

28. (i) Identify the chiral molecule in the following pair:

Continue on next page.....

Page 6 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Chemistry Class 12

(ii) Write the structure of the product when chlorobenzene is treated with methyl chloride in the
presence of sodium metal and dry ether.
(iii) Write the structure of the alkene formed by dehydrohalogenation of 1-bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
with alcoholic KOH.

SECTION-D

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-30) : The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice
and carries 4 marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

29. Solubility in Binary Solutions

Binary solutions can be of nine different types depending upon the nature of the solute and solvent
whether solid, liquid or gas. They may be further classified as solid, liquid and gaseous solutions based on
the component which acts as the solvent. However, the liquid solutions are the most important. Both solids
and gases dissolve in liquids resulting in homogeneous mixtures, i.e. solutions. The solubility is governed
by number of factors such as nature of solute and solvent, temperature, pressure etc. The concentrations
of the solutions can be expressed in different ways such as normality, molarity, molality, mole fraction etc.
Out of these, molality and mole fraction are better as they do not change with the change in temperature.
Based on the above passage, answer the .following questions:
(i) Solubility curve of Na 2 SO 4 $ 10H 2 O in water with temperature is given as:

What do you infer about the temperature variation of curve with solubility process?
(ii) On what factor does the maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified
amount of a given liquid solvent not depend upon?
(iii) What is the molality of a sulphuric acid solution in which mole fraction of water is 0.85?


O
How much amount of salt is contained in 1000 g of a 4% solution of salt?

30. The basic chemical formula of DNA is now well established. As shown in figure, it consists of a very long
chain, the backbone of which is made up of alternate sugar and phosphate groups, joined together in
regular 3l5l phosphate di-ester linkages. To each sugar is attached a nitrogenous base, only four different
kinds of which are commonly found in DNA.

Continue on next page.....

NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 7

Two of these–adenine and guanine are purines, and the other two thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines.
A fifth base, 5-methyl cytosine, occurs in smaller amounts in certain organisms, and a sixth, 5-hydroxy-
methyl-cytosine, is found instead of cytosine in the T even phages. It should be noted that the chain is
unbranched, a consequence of the regular intemucleotide linkage. On the other hand the sequence of the
different nucleotides is, as far as can be ascertained, completely irregular. Thus, DNA has some features
which are regular, and some which are irregular. A similar conception of the DNA molecule as a long
thin fibre is obtained from physicochemical analysis involving sedimentation, diffusion, light scattering,
and viscosity measurements. These techniques indicated that DNA is a very asymmetrical structure
approximately 20. A wide and many thousands of angstorms long. Estimates of its molecular weight
currently center between 5 # 106 and 107 (approximately 3 # 10 4 nucleotides). Surprisingly each of these
measurements tend to suggest that the DNA is relatively rigid, a puzzling finding in view of the large
number of single bonds (5 per nucleotide) in the phosphate-sugar back bone. Recently these indirect
inferences have been confirmed by electron microscopy.
Based on the above passage answer the following questions:
(i) A nitorgenous based is attached to each sugar and only four of its kinds are commonly found in
DNA. Name the purines present in DNA.
(ii) Which of the four kinds of nitrogenous bases commonly found in DNA has been replaced in some
organisms?
(iii) As shown in figure, DNA has a long chain. What is the backbone of DNA made up of and how is it
joined?


O
As given, DNA has some regular and some irregular features. Which features of DNA are regular and
which are irregular? Which analysis provide the same concept of DNA?

SECTION-E

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) : The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions have
an internal choice.

31. Explain the following observations:

(i) d -block elements exhibit more oxidation states as compared to elements of f -block.
(ii) Cu+ salts are colourless, whereas Cu2+ salts are coloured. (Atomic number of Cu = 29).
(iii) Mn2+ ion is more stable than Mn3+ ion.
(iv) Transition elements form several complex compounds.
(v) Zn2+ salts are white whereas Cu2+ salts are blue.
Page 8 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Chemistry Class 12

O
(a) Draw the geometrical isomers of [Cο ^enh2 Cl 2] 2+ .

Which geometrical isomer of 8Cο ^enh2 Cl 2B2+ is not optically active and why ?

(b) Write the hybridisation and magnetic behaviour of 6CοF6@3 − .

[Given : Atomic number of Co = 27]

32. A, B and C are three non-cyclic functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular formula
C 4 H 8 O . Isomers A and C give positive Tollen’s test whereas isomer B does not give Tollen’s test but
gives positive iodoform test. Isomers A and B on reduction with Zn (Hg)/Conc. HCl give the same
product D .
(i) Write the structure of A, B , C and D .
(ii) Out of A, B and C isomers, which one is least reactive towards addition of HCN?


O
An alkene ‘A’ (Mol. formula C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound
‘B’ gives positive Fehling’s test and also forms iodoform on treatment with I2 and NaOH. Compound ‘C’
does not give Fehling’s test but forms iodoform.
(i) Identify the compounds A, B and C.
(ii) Write the reaction for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C.

33. (i) Write the cell reaction and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K :
Sn (s) y Sn2+ (0.004 M) z H+ (0.020 M) y H 2 (g) (1 bar) y Pt (s)

(Given: EcSn /Sn =− 0.14 V )

2+

(ii) Give reasons :

(a) On the basis of Ec values, O2 gas should be liberated at anode but it is Cl2 gas which is liberated
in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.
(b) Conductivity of CH3COOH decreases on dilution.


O
(i) Out of the following pairs, predict with reason which pair will allow greater conduction of electricity:
(a) Silver wire at 30°C or silver wire at 60°C.
(b) 0.1 M CH3COOH solution or 1 M CH3COOH solution.
(c) KCl solution at 20°C or KCl solution at 50°C.
(ii) Give two points of differences between electrochemical and electrolytic cells.

******