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VITEEE 2012 Question Paper

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VITEEE 2012 Question Paper

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lvarshaa4
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© © All Rights Reserved
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VITEEE 2012 Question Paper

Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination

Download more VITEEE Previous Year Question Papers: Click Here


VITEEE
SOLVED PAPER 2012

(a) In forward biasing the voltage across R is


PART - I (PHYSICS) V
1. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is (b) In forward biasing the voltage across R is
placed in horizontal plane near a long straight 2V
conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a (c) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is V
distance of d from the conductor as shown in (d) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is
figure. The loop will experience 2V
4. If the binding energy per nuclear in Li7 and He4
l1 nuclei are respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV,
then energy of reactor
d l Li7 + P 2 2He4 is
(a) 19.6 MeV (b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
5. The graph between the square root of the
frequency of a specific line of characterstic
spectrum of X-ray and the atomic number of the
l ttarget will be
(a) a net repulsive force away from the
conductor
(b) a net torque acting upward perpencicular
to the horizontal plane V V
(a) (b)
(c) a net torque acting downward normal to
the horizontal plane Z Z
(d) a net attractive force towards the conductor
2. The threshold frequency for a photo-sensitine
metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency
8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off
V
voltage for the photo-electric emission is nearly (c) V (d)
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V
Z
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V Z
3. For the given circuit of p-n junction diode which 6. A resistor R, an inductor L and capacitor C are
of the following is correct connected in series to an oscillator of frequency
R n. If the resonant frequency is nr, then the current
lags behind voltage, when
(a) n = 0 (b) n < nr
(c) n = nr (d) n > nr
7. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C. If it
is equally filled the parallel layers of materials of
dielectric constant K 1 and K2 its capacity
becomes C1. The ratio of C1 and C is
V
(a) anywhere (b) emitter-collector
K1K 2
(a) K1 + K2 (b) (c) collector-base (d) base-emitter
K1 K 2 14 The kinetic energy of an electron get tripled then
the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
K1 K 2 2K1K 2 changes by a factor
(c) K1K 2 (d) K1 K 2
1
8 The potential of the electric field produced by (a) (b) 3
3
point charge at any point (x, y, z) is given by
V = 3x2 + 5, where x, y are in metres and V is in 1
(c) (d) 3
volts. The intensity of the electric field at (–2, 1, 0) 3
is 15 A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei
(a) +17 Vm–1 (b) –17 Vm–1 and its half-life period is 20 days. The number of
(c) +12 Vm –1 (d) –12 Vm–1 nuclei present at the end of 10 days is
9. The potential of a large liquid drop when eight (a) 7070 (b) 9000
liquid drops are combined is 20 V. Then the (c) 8000 (d) 7500
potential of each single drop was 16. A direct X-ray photograph of the intenstines is
(a) 10 V (b) 7.5 V not generally taken by radiologists because
(c) 5 V (d) 2.5 V (a) intenstines would burst an exposure to
10 A an d B are two metals with threshold X-rays
frequencies 1.8 × 1014 Hz and 2.2 × 104 Hz. Two (b) the X-rays would be not pass through the
identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each are intenstines
incident on them. Then photoelectrons are (c) the X-rays will pass through the intenstines
emitted by (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) without causing a good shadow for any
(a) B alone (b) A alone useful diagnosis
(c) Neither A nor B (d) Both A and B (d) a very small exposure of X-rays causes
cancer in the intenstines
11 In the Wheatstone's network given, P = 10 ,
17. Charge passing through a conductor of
Q = 20 , R = 15 , S = 30 , the current passing
crosssection area A = 0.3 m 2 is given by
through the battery (of negligible internal q = 3t2 +5t + 2 in coulomb, where t is in second.
resistance) is What is the value of drift velocity at t = 2s?
(Given, m = 2 × 1025/m3)
P R (a) 0.77 × 10–5 m/s (b) 1.77 × 10–5 m/s
G (c) 2.08 × 10–5 m/s (d) 0.57 × 10–5 m/s
18. Two capacitors of capacities 1 µF and C µF are
Q S connected in series and the combination is
charged to a potential difference of 120 V. If the
charge on the combination is 80 µC, the energy
stored in the capacitor of capacity C in µJ is
+ – (a) 1800 (b) 1600
(c) 14400 (d) 7200
6V 19. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an
(a) 0.36 A (b) Zero electric field produced by a point charg placed
(c) 0.18 A (d) 0.72 A at P as shown in figure. Let VA, VB, VC be the
12 Three resistors 1 , 2 and 3 are connected to potentials at points A, B and C respectively. Then
form a triangle. Across 3 resistor a 3V battery
is connected. The current through 3 resistor
is
(a) 0.75 A (b) 1 A A
(c) 2 A (d) 1.5 A C P
13. In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is
applied across
B
(a) VC > VB (b) VB > VC (a) 25 (b) 26
(c) VA > VB (d) VA = VC (c) 56 (d) 30
20. In a hydrogen discharged tube it is observed 28. Each resistance shown in figure is 2 . The
that through a given cross-section 3.13 × 1015 eqivalent resistance between A and B is
electrons are moving from right to left and
3.12 × 1015 protons are moving from left to right.
2
What is the electric current in the discharge tube
2
and what is its direction?
(a) 1 mA towards right A
2 B
(b) 1 mA towards left
(c) 2 mA towards left 2
(d) 2 mA towards right 2
21. In CuSO4 solution when electric current equal
to 2.5 faraday is passed, the gm equivalent (a) 2 (b) 4
deposited on the cathode is (c) 8 (d) 1
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
29. If in a triode value amplification factor is 20 and
(c) 2 (d) 2.5
plate resistance is 10 k , then its mutual
22. In hydrogen a atom, an electron is revolving in
conductance is
the orbit of radius 0.53 Å with 6.6 × 10 15
(a) 2 milli mho (b) 20 milli mho
radiations/s. Magnetic field produced at the
(c) (1/2) milli mho (d) 200 milli mho
centre of the orbit is
30. The output wave form of full-wave rectifier is
(a) 0.125 Wb/m2 (b) 1.25 Wb/m2
(c) 12.5 Wb/m 2 (d) 125 Wb/m2
23. The dipole moment of the short bar magnet is
(a) (b)
12.5 A-m2. The magnetic field on its axis at a
distance of 0.5 m from the centre of the magnet
is
(a) 1.0 × 10–4 N/A-m (b) 4 × 10–2 N/A-m
(c) 2 × 10–6 N/A-m (d) 6.64 × 10–8 N/A-m (c) (d)
24. The turn ratio of transformers is given as 2:3. If
the current through the primary coil is 3 A, thus 31. Calculate the energy released when three
calculate the current through load resistance -particles combined to form a 12C nucleus, the
(a) 1A (b) 4.5 A mass defect is
(c) 2 A (d) 1.5 A (Atomic mass of 2He4 is 4.002603 u)
25. In an AC circuit, the potential across an (a) 0.007809 u (b) 0.002603 u
inductance and resistance joined in series are (c) 4.002603 u (d) 0.5 u
respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total potential 32. In the figure shown, the magnetic field induction
difference across the circuit is as the point O will be
(a) 20.0 V (b) 25.6 V
(c) 31.9 V (d) 33.6 V
26. If hydrogen atom is its ground state absorbs
O 2r
10.2 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum
is increase by
(a) 1.05 × 10–34 J/s (b) 3.16 × 10–34 J/s
(c) 2.11 × 10–34 J/s (d) 4.22 × 10–34 J/s 0i 0 i
(a) (b) ( 2)
27. Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a 2 r 4 r
target of an element containing 30 neutrons. The
ratio of radii of nucleus to that of Helium nucleus 0 i 0i
(c) ( 1) (d) ( 2)
is (14)1/3. The atomic number of nucleus will be 4 r 4 r
33. In photoelectric emission process from a metal a change in the collector current from 10 mA to
of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of 20 mA. The current gain is
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. Th e (a) 75 (b) 100
corresponding stopping potential is (c) 25 (d) 50
(a) 1.3 V (b) 0.5 V 37. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic
(c) 2.3 V (d) 1.8 V field are acting along the same direction in a
34. A current of 2 A flows through a 2 resistor certain region. If an electron is projected in the
when connected across a battery. The same region such that its velocity is pointed along
battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when the direction of fields, then the electron
connected across a 9 resistor. The internal (a) speed will decrease
resistance of the battery is (b) speed will increase
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/4 (c) will turn towards left of direction of motion
(c) 1 (d) 0.5 (d) will turn towards right of direction a motion
35. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown 38. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of
in the figure. The variation of induced emf with radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a
time would be uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
i magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
0 qf 0q
(a) (b)
t 2R 2fR
0 T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
0q 0 qf
(c) (d)
2 fR 2 R
emf 39. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a
resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in
the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put
(a) 0 T/4 T/2 3T/2 T t in series with the galvanometer is
S2 SG
(a) (b)
emf (S G) (S G)

G2 G
T/4 T/2 3T/2 T (c) (d)
t (S G) (S G)
(b) 0
40. Three charges, each + q, are placed at the corners
of an isosceles triagle ABC of sides BC and AC,
2a. D and E are the mid-points of BC and CA.
emf
The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E
is
T/2 3T/4 T A
(c) 0 t
T/4
E
emf
B C
T/4 D
(d) 0 t
T/2 3T/4 T eqQ qQ
(a) 8 0a (b) 4 0a
36. A transistor is operated in common emitter
3qQ
configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change in (c) Zero (d)
the base current from 100 µA to 300 µA produces 4 0a
PART - II (CHEMISTRY) (CH3 )2 CH CH 2OC2 H5 Br
41. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15°C The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are
and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to respectively
the surface where the temperature is 25°C and (a) SN1 and SN2 (b) SN1 and SN1
the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the (c) SN2 and SN2 (d) SN2 and SN1
volume of the bubble ? 45. Which of the following complex compounds will
(a) Volume will become greater by a factor of exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?
1.6 (At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)
(b) Volume will become greater by a factor of (a) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
1.1 (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
(c) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 46. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
0.70 (a) SnO2 (b) CaO
(d) Volume will become greater by a factor of (c) SiO2 (d) CO2
2.9 47. The following reactions take place in the blast
42. Match List-I with List-II for the compositions of furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify
substances and select the correct answer using the reaction pertaining to the formation of the
the codes given below the lists. slag.
List-I List-II (a) Fe 2 O3 (s) 3CO(g)
(Substances) (Composition)
A. Plaster of Paris 1. CaSO4.2H2O 2Fe(l) 3CO 2 (g)
1 (b) CaCO 3 (s) CaO(s) CO 2 (g)
B. Epsomite 2. CaSO4 . H 2 O
2 (c) CaO(s) SiO 2 (s) CaSiO 3 (s)
C. Kieserite 3. MgSO4.7H2O (d) 2C(s) O 2 (g) 2CO(g)
D. Gypsum 4. MgSO4.H2O
48. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order
5. CaSO4
of increasing atomic radii is
Codes :
A B C D (a) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (b) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(a) 3 4 1 2 (c) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (d) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
(b) 2 3 4 1 49. The reaction,
(c) 1 2 3 5 2A(g) B(g) 3C(g) D(g)
(d) 4 3 2 1 is begun with the concentrations of A and B
43. The pairs of species of oxygen and their both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When
magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is
the following presents the correct description? measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for
the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given
(a) O 2 , O 22 – Both diamagnetic
by the expression
(b) O , O 22 – Both paramagnetic (a) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00)2 (1.00)]
(b) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)2 (0.75)]
(c) O2 , O2 – Both paramagnetic (c) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)2 (0.25)]
(d) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75)2 (0.25)]
(d) O, O 22 – Both paramagnetic
50. Which of the following expressions correctly
44. Consider the reactions represents the equivalent conductance at infinite
C 2 H5OH dilution of Al2(SO4)3 ? Given that and
(i) (CH3 ) 2 CH CH 2 Br Al3
(CH3 ) 2 CH CH 2OC2 H5 HBr are the equivalent conductances at
SO 24

(ii) C 2 H5 O infinite dilution of the respective ions?


(CH3 ) 2 CH CH 2 Br
List-I List-II
(a) 2 3
Al3 SO 24 (Substances) (Processes)
A. Sulphuric acid 1. Haber's process
(b) B. Steel 2. Bessemer's process
Al3 SO 24
C. Sodium hydroride 3. Leblanc process
D. Ammonia 4. Contact process
(c) 3 6 Codes :
Al3 SO 24
A B C D
1 1 (a) 1 4 2 3
(d) Al3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
3 2 SO4
51. The pressure exerted by 6.0g of methane gas in (c) 4 3 2 1
a0.03 m3 vessel at 129°C is (d) 4 2 3 1
56. When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it
(Atomic masses : C =12.01, H = 1.01 and
produces
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(a) 2-iodopropane (b) allyl iodide
(a) 215216 Pa (b) 13409 Pa
(c) propene (d) glycerol triiodide
(c) 41648 Pa (d) 31684 Pa
57. Some statements about heavy water are given
52. Match List I (Equations) with List II (Types of
below.
process) and select the correct option. (i) Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear
List-I List-II reactors
(Equations) (Types of process) (ii) Heavy water is more associated than
ordinary water
A. KP > Q 1. Non-spontaneous
(iii) Heavy water is more effective solvent than
B. G RT ln Q 2. Equilibrium ordinary water
C. KP = Q 3. Spontaneous and Which of the above statements are correct?
endothermic (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
H
D. T 4. Spontaneous 58. Which one of the following compounds will be
S most readily dehydrated ?
Codes : O
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1 (a) H3C
(c) 4 1 2 3
OH
(d) 2 1 4 3
O
53. Among the following which one has the highest
cation of anion size ratio?
(a) CsI (b) CsF (b) H3C
(c) LiF (d) NaF
54. Which of the following species is not OH
electrophilic in nature? O OH

(a) Cl (b) BH3


(c) H3C
(c) H 3O (d) NO2 OH

55. Match List I (Substances) with List II (Processes


employed in the manufacture of the substances)
(d) H3C
and select the correct option.
O
59. Which one of the following complexes is not (b) Isostructural with same hybridisation for
expected to exhibit isomerism? the central atom
(a) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ (c) Isostructural with different hybridisation for
(b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] the central atom
(c) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (d) Similar in hybridisation for the central atom
(d) [Ni(en)3]2+ with different structures
60. Which of the following conformers for ethylene 64. Following compounds are given
glycol is most stable ? (i) CH3CH2OH (ii) CH3COCH3
OH (iii) CH 3 CHOH (iv) CH3OH
|
H H CH3

(a) Which of the above compound(s) on being


H H warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give
OH iodoform?
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) Only (ii)
OH (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
OH 65. Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to
(a) asymmetric carbons
(b) (b) primary alcoholic group
H (c) secondary alcoholic group
H HH
(d) en olisation of fructose followed by
conversion to aldehyde by base
OH 66. In the following reaction,
H
(i) Mg, Ether
C6 H5CH 2Br X,
(ii) H3O
(c)
HO the product 'X' is
H HH (a) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
(b) C6H5CH2OH
OH (c) C6H5CH3
(d) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5
OH
H 67. Which of the following is not a fat soluble
vitamin?
(d)
H (a) Vitamin-B complex
H
H (b) Vitamin-D
(c) Vitamin-E
61. The IUPAC name of the compound (d) Vitamin-A
CH3CH = CHC CH is 68. Which of the statements about 'Denaturation'
(a) pent-4-yn-2-ene (b) pent-3-en-1-yne given below are correct?
(c) pent-2-en-4-yne (d) pent-1-yn-3-ene Statements :
62. Which of the following oxidation states is the (i) denaturation of proteins causes loss of
most common among the lanthanoids? secondary and tertiary structures of the
(a) 4 (b) 2 protein.
(c) 5 (d) 3 (ii) Denaturation leads to the conversion of
63. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3– double strand of DNA into single strand'.
and H3O+ are described below. Which one of (iii) Denaturation affects primary structure
them is correct? which gets destroyed.
(a) Dissimilar in hybridisation for the central (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
atom with different structures (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
69. Which has the maximum number of molecules 75. Consider the following processes
among the following ? H (kJ/mol)
(a) 44 g CO2 (b) 48 g O3
(c) 8 g H2 (d) 64 g SO2 1
A B 150
70. Which of the following compounds undergoes 2
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
Cl 3B 2C D 125

(a) E A 2D 350
NO2
For B D E 2C, H will be
Cl (a) 525 kJ/mol (b) –175 kJ/mol
(c) –325 kJ/mol (d) 325 kJ/mol
76. Match the compounds given in List-I with
(b) List-II and select the suitable option using the
codes given below
CH3
List-I List-II
Cl A. Benzaldehyde 1. Phenolphthalein
B. Phthalic 2. Benzoin
Cl anhydride condensation
(c) (d) C. Phenyl benzoate 3. Oil of wintergreen
D. Methyl 4. Fries rearrangement
OCH3 salicylate
71. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is Codes :
30% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86° C/m, the A B C D
freezing point of the solution will be
(a) 4 1 3 2
(a) –0.18°C (b) –0.54°C
(c) –0.36°C (d) –0.24°C (b) 4 2 3 1
72. Which of the following carbonyls will have the (c) 2 3 4 1
strongest C – O bond? (d) 2 1 4 3
(a) Mn(CO)+6 (b) Cr(CO)6 77. Which of the following compound is the most
(c) V(CO)–6 (d) Fe(CO)5 basic ?
73. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium
bromide (PhMgBr) with the following
compounds (a) O2N NH2

H 3C H 3C Ph
C O C O and C O (b) CH2NH2
H H 3C Ph
(I) (II) (III)
(a) III > II > I (b) II > I > III N COCH3
(c) I > III > II (d) I > II > III (c)
74. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the H
radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the
anion (Y–) will be NH2
(d)
(a) 275.1 pm (b) 322.5 pm
(c) 241.5 pm (d) 165.7 pm
78. Which of the following structures is the most 84. If 3p and 4p are resultant of a force 5p, then the
preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3? angle between 3p and 5p is

O 1 3 1 4
(a) sin (b) sin
S 5 5
(a) S (b) O O (c) 90° (d) None of these
If 2 tan –1(cos x) = tan–1(2 cosec x), then the value
O
O 85.
of x is
O 3
O (a) (b)
4 4
S S
(c) (d)
O
O

(c) (d) None of these


O

O
3
79. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of 86. Let a be any element in a boolean algebra B.
If a + x = 1 and ax = 0, then
Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV ?
(a) x = 1 (b) x = 0
(a) –5.1 eV (b) –10.2 eV
(c) x = a (d) x = a'
(c) +2.55 eV (d) +10.2 eV
87. Dual of (x + y) . (x + 1) = x + x . y + y is
80. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction
(a) (x . y) + (x . 0) = x . (x + y) . y
is (b) (x + y) + (x . 1) = x . (x + y) . y
(a) mol L–1s–1 (b) L mol–1s–1 (c) (x . y) (x . 0) = x . (x + y) . y
2
(c) L mol s –2 –1 (d) s –1 (d) None of the above
PART - III (MATHEMATICS) 88. The function f : R R defined by
f (x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) is
81. The solution of the differential equation (a) one-one but not onto
(b) onto but not one-one
dy 2yx 1
is (c) both one-one and onto
dx 1 x 2 (1 x 2 ) 2 (d) neither one-one nor onto
(a) y (1 + x2) = C + tan–1x 89. If the complex numbers z 1, z2 and z3 are in AP,
then they lie on a
y (a) a circle (b) a parabola
(b) = C + tan–1x
1 x2 (c) line (d) ellipse
(c) y log (1 + x2) = C + tan–1x 90. Let a, b and c be in AP and |a| < 1, |b| < 1, |c| < 1.
(d) y (1 + x2) = C + sin–1x If x = 1 + a + a2 + ... to ,
82. If x, y and z are all distinct and y = 1 + b + b2 + ... to ,
z = 1 + c + c2 + ... to , then x, y and z are in
(a) AP (b) GP
x x 2 1 x3
(c) HP (d) None of these
y y 2 1 y3 0, then the value of xyz is 91. The number of real solutions of the equation
2 3 9
z z 1 z
3 x x 2 is
10
(a) –2 (b) –1 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) –3 (d) None of these (c) 2 (d) None of these
83. The probability that atleast one of the events A 92. The lines 2x – 3y – 5 = 0 and 3x – 4y = 7 are
and B occurs is 0.6. If A and B occur diameters of a circle of area 154 sq units, then
simultaneously with probability 0.2, then the equation of the circle is
P(A) P(B) is (a) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y – 62 = 0
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (b) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y – 47 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y – 47 = 0
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.4
(d) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y – 62 = 0
93. The angle of depressions of the top and the foot (a) independent of
of a chimney as seen from the top of a second (b) independent of
chimney, which is 150 m high and standing on (c) independent of and
the same level as the first are and respectively, (d) None of the above
then the distance between their tops when 100. Themaximum valueof 4 sin2 x – 12 sin x + 7 is
(a) 25 (b) 4
4 5
tan and tan is (c) does not exist (d) None of these
3 2 101. A straight line through the point A(3, 4) is such
150 that its intercept between the axes is bisected at
(a) m (b) 100 3 m A, its equation is
3
(a) 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 (b) 4x + 3y = 24
(c) 150 m (d) 100 m (c) 3x + 4y = 25 (d) x + y = 7
94. If one root is square of the other root of the 102. The tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2 = y – 6
equation x2 + px + q = 0, then the relations touches the circle x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0 at
between p and q is (a) (6, 7) (b) (–6, 7)
(a) p3 – (3p – 1) q + q2 = 0 (c) (6, –7) (d) (–6, –7)
(b) p3 – q (3p + 1) + q2 = 0 103. The equation of straight line through the
(c) p3 + q (3p – 1) + q2 = 0 intersection of the lines x – 2y = 1 and x + 3y = 2
(d) p3 + q (3p + 1) + q2 = 0 and parallel 3x + 4y = 0 is
95. The coefficient of x53 in the following expansions (a) 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 (b) 3x + 4y – 10 = 0
100 (c) 3x + 4y – 5 = 0 (d) 3x + 4y + 6 = 0
100
Cm (x 3)100 m .2 m is
dx
m 0 104. equals to
(a) 100C (b) 100C sin x cos x 2
47 53
(c) –100C 53 (d) –100C 100 1 x
96. If (–3, 2) lies on the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0, (a) tan C
which is concentric with the circle 2 2 8
x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y – 5 = 0, then c is equal to 1 x
(a) 11 (b) –11 (b) tan C
(c) 24 (d) 100 2 2 8
97. If a = i + j + k, b = i + 3j + 5k and c = 7i + 9j + 11k, 1 x
then the area of Parallelogram having diagonals (c) cot C
2 2 8
a + b and b + c is
1 1 x
(a) 4 6 sq. units (b) 21 sq. units (d) cot C
2 2 2 8
1
6 1 x
(c) sq. units (d) 6 sq. units 105. The value of integral dx is
2 1 x
0
1 5 7
98. If A 0 7 9 , then trace of matrix A is (a) 1 (b) 1
2 2
11 8 9 (c) –1 (d) 1
(a) 17 (b) 25 1
1
(c) 3 (d) 12 106. The value of I xx dx is
99. The value of the determinant 2
0

cos sin 1 1 1
(a) (b)
sin cos 1 is 3 4
cos( ) sin( ) 1 1
(c) (d) None of these
8
107. The eccentricity of the ellipse, which meets the 114. Area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by
x y the circle x2 + y2 = 4, the line x 3y and x-axis
straight line 1 on the axis of x and the
7 2 is
x y (a) sq units (b) sq units
straight line 1 on the axis of y and whose
3 5 2
axes lie along the axes of coordinates, is
(c) sq units (d) None of these
3 2 2 6 3
(a) (b) 1x
7 7 1
115. The value of lim tan x is
3 x 2
(c) (d) None of there
7 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) –1 (d) e
x2 y2
108. If 1 (a b) and x2 – y2 = c2 cut at
a 2 b2 mx 1, x
2
right angles, then 116. If f (x) is continuous at
(a) a2 + b2 = 2c 2 (b) b2 – a2 = 2c 2 sin x n, x
2 2
(c) a – b = 2c 2 (d) a2b2 = 2c 2 2
109. The equation of the conic with focus at (1, –1)
directrix along x – y + 1 = 0 and with eccentricity x , then
2
2 is n
(a) x2 – y2 = 1 (a) m = 1, n = 0 (b) m 1
2
(b) xy = 1
(c) 2xy – 4x + 4y + 1 = 0 n m m n
(c) (d)
(d) 2xy + 4x – 4y – 1 = 0 2 2
110. There are 5 letters and 5 different envelopes.
The number of ways in which all the letters can 4 x2
be put in wrong envelope, is 117. The domain of the function f (x)
sin 1 (2 x)
(a) 119 (b) 44
(c) 59 (d) 40 is
111. The sum of the series (a) [0, 2] (b) [0, 2)
(c) [1, 2) (d) [1, 2]
12 22 12 22 32 12 22 32 42 118. The general solution of the differential equation
1 ...
2! 3! 4! (1 + y2) dx + (1 + x2) dy = 0 is
is (a) x – y = C (1 – xy) (b) x – y = C (1 + xy)
17 13 19 (c) x + y = C (1 – xy) (d) x + y = C (1 + xy)
(a) 3e e (c)
(b) e (d) e 119. The order and degree of the differential equation
6 6 6
n
112. The coefficient of x in the expansion of 2 32
loga(1 + x) is dy
1
( 1)n 1
( 1)n 1 dx
are, respectively
(a) (b) log a e 2
n n d y
n 1 n
( 1) ( 1) dx 2
(c) log e a (d) log a e
n n (a) 2, 2 (b) 2, 3
113. If a plane meets the coordinate axes at A, B and (c) 2, 1 (d) None of these
C in such a way that the centroid of ABC is at 120. The relation R defined on the set of natural
the point (1, 2, 3), then equation of the plane is numbers as {(a, b) : a differs from b by 3} is
x y z x y z given
(a) 1 (b) 1 (a) {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6),... }
1 2 3 3 6 9 (b) {(4, 1), (5, 2), (6, 3),... }
x y z 1 (c) {(1, 3), (2, 6), (3, 9),... }
(c) (d) None of these (d) None of the above
1 2 3 3
SOLUTIONS
PART - I (PHYSICS) 6. (d) When reactance of inductance is mroe than
the reactance of cndenser, the current will
I1 lag behind the voltage.
1. (d)
F1 1 1
d Thus L or
c LC
I
F4 1
or n or n > nr
2 LC
nr = resonant frequency
F2
K1 0 A K2 0A
I 7. (c) Capacitance, CA = , CB
d d
F3 2 2

F2 = – F4 C1 2K1K 2
Ceq = C K1 K 2
0 I1Il 2
F1 =
2 dl CACB 2K1K2 0A 0A
= e
0 I1I CA CB K1 K2 d d
F2 =
2 (d l)
dV
F1 > F3 8. (d) Intensity of the electric field, E = = 6x
Fnet = F1 – F3 dx
So, wire attract loop. Potential (v) = 3x2 + 5
E at x = –2
E V h(v v0 ) = 6 (–2) = – 12V/m
2. (a) Here, V0 =
e e 9. (c) Volume of 8 small drops = Volume of big
34 drop
6.62 10 (8.2 1014 3.3 1014 )
= 19 4 3 4 3
1.6 10 r 8 R
3 3
34
6.62 10 2r = R
= 4.9 1033
1.6 ...(i)
According to charge conservation
6.62 4.9 10 1 8q = Q
=
1.6 ...(ii)
V0 = 2 volt q
3. (a) In forward biasing, resistance of p–n junctin Potential of one small drop (V ) = 4
diode is zero, so whole voltage appears 0r
across the resistance. Q
4. (d) BE of Li7 = 39.20 MeV Similarly, potential of big drop (V) = 4
and He4 = 28.24 MeV 0R
Hence binding energy of 2He4 = 56.84 MeV V q R V 9 2r
Energy of reaction = 56.84 – 39.20 Now,
V Q r 20 8q r
= 17.28 MeV
V = 5V
5. (b) v (Z b)
10. (b) Threshold energy of A EA = hvA
= 6.6 × 10–34 × 1.8 × 1014
= 11.88 × 10–20 J 2
1
20 I2 I2 = 1A
11.88 10 3
= 19
eV = 0.74 eV
1.6 10
Similarly, EB = 0.91eV I1 = 1A I1 + I2 = 2A
As the incident photons have energy
greater than EA but less than EB
So, photoelectrons will be emitted from
metal A only. Current in the circuit,
11. (a) Balanced wheatstone bridge condition 3
I= = 2A
P R (3/ 2)
Q S I
No, current flows through galvanometer = IA
Current in 3 resistor =
2
Now, P and R are in series, so 13. (b) In CE amplifier, the input signal is applied
Resistance R1 = P + R across base–emitter junction.
= 10 + 15 = 25 C
Similarly, Q and S are in series, so C1
B C2
Resistance R2 = R + S O
= 20 + 30 = 50 E Output
Input
Net resistance of the network as R1 and R2 RB RC
are in parallel
V1 O V0
1 1 1 RBB VCC
R R1 R2
25 50 50
R = 25 50 3 14. (c) de–Broglie wavelength of an electron
V 6 h h 1
Hence, current, I = = 0.36A = or
R 50 / 3 mv 2mK K
12. (b) The arrangement is shown in figure.
1 K 1
B
3K 1 3
1
2

or =
3
A C
3 i.e. de–Broglie wavelength will change by
1
factor .
3V 3
15. (a) We know,
Here, two reisistance of 1 and 2 are in
series, which form 3 which is in parallel 10
t/T
N 1 N 1 20
with 3 resistance.
Therefore, the effective resistance N0 2 10000 2
(1 2) 3 3 10000 10000
(1 2) 3 2 N= = 7070
2 1.414
16. (c) As X-rays pass through the intestine
0 2N
without casting a clear shadow. 23. (c) The magnetic field, B = .
17. (b) Given : A = 0.3 m2 n = 2 × 1025/m3 4 d3
q = 3t2 + 5t + 2 2 1.25
= 10–7 × = 2 × 10–6 N/A–m
dq (0.5)3
i= = 6t + 5 = 17
dt
IP nS
i 24. (c) Transformation ratio, I
Drift velocity, vd = S nS
neA
17 3 3
= i.e. I 2 or, IS = 2A
2 10 25 1.6 10 19 0.3 S
25. (b) Voltage
17
= = 1.77 × 10–5 m/s V= VR2 VC2 = (20)2 (16)2
0.96 106
18. (b) Capacitance 1 F and C F are connected = 25.6V
in series, 26. (a) Electron goes to its first excited state
(n = 2) from ground state (n = 1) after
C
Ceq = absorbing 10.2 eV energy
1 C
Given, V = 120 V and q = 80 C h
Increase in momentum =
q = CeqV 2

80 =
C
20 6.6 10 34
C 1 =
6.28
or C = 2 F = 1.05 × 10–34 J–s
Energy stored in the capacitor of capicity C 27. (b) Using R = R0 A1/3
1q 1/3
U= R1 A1
2 C
R2 A2
1 (80 10 6 )2
= 6
1
2 2 10 R A 3
R He 4
1 80 10 6 80 10 6
=
2 2 10 6 1
U = 1600 J A 3
(14)1/3 = A = 56
19. (d) Conducting surface behaves as 4
equipotential surface.
So, = 56 – 30 = 26
20. (a) I = neqe + npqE = 1 mA (towards right)
28. (a) Given circuit is a balanced Wheatstone
21. (a) 1 faraday deposited 1 g equivalent
bridge.
22. (c) The magnetic field
0 2 (qv) 2
B= . 2
4 r
19
2 3.14 (1.6 10 1.6 1015 ) A B
= 10–7 × 10 2
0.53 10
2
= 12.5 Wb/m3
2

Equivalent resistance of upper arms


=2+2=4 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
Equivalent resistance of lowre arms 2 9 r 9 r
=2+2=4 4=
0.5 2 r 2 r
4 4
RAB = =2 1
4 4 3r = 1 r=
3
35. (d) We know, induced emf
29. (a) Mutual conductance gm = R
P di
e=–L
20 dt
= = 2 × 10–3 = 2 milli mho
10 103 During 0 to
T di
, = constant
30. (c) Full-wave rectifier output wave form 4 dt
So, e = –ve
T T di
For to , =0
4 2 dt
31. (c) Mass defect
i.e., e = 0
m = Total mass of –particles
– mass of 12C nucleus T 3T di
For to , = constant
= 3 × 4.002603 – 12 = 12.007809 – 12 4 4 dt
= 0.007809 unit i.e., e = +ve
32. (a) Field due to a straight wire of infinite length
IC (20 100)mA
0i 36. (d) Current gain, = IB (300 100)mA
is if the point is on a line perpendicular
4 r
to its length while at the centre of a 3
10 10
= = 50
i 0 200 10 6
semicurcular coil is 37. (a) Field B not applied only force. Field E will
4 r
apply a force opposite to velocity of the
a electron hence, speed will decreases.
38. (a) We know magnetic field
r
b 0i
O =
2R
c q
q = it i= = qf
B = Ba + Bb + Bc t
i 0 i 0 i 0 qf
=
0
. . =
4 r 4 r 4 r 2R
39. (c) If resistance remains same so current will
0 i be unchanged.
= ( 2) out of the phase
4 r R
33. (b) Stopping potential = Maximum KE G G
eV = KEmax
E
34. (d) Current i = S
R r
GS GS
E G= R R=G–
2= ... (i) G S G S
2 r
G2
E or, R =
0.5 = ...(ii) G S
9 r
40. (c) Here, AC = BC
* *
O2 1s 2 , 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 pz2 , 2 px2
C
q
* *
2 p 2y , 2 p1x 2 p1y
and the electronic configuration of O and
E D O+ are
O = 1s 2 ,2s 2 , 2 p2x , 2 p1y ,2 p1z
q q
A B O+ = 1s 2 ,2s 2 , 2 p1x , 2 p1y , 2 p1z
D
VD = VE = V As O2 , O2 ,O 2 ,O and O+ have unpaired
W = Q[VE – VD] electrons, hence are paramagnetic.
W = Q [V – V] 44. (a) C2H5OH being a weaker nucleopbile, when
W= 0 used as a solvent in case of hindered 1°
halide, favours SN1 mechanism while
PART - II (CHEMISTRY) C2H5O–being a strong nucleophile in this
p1V1 p2V2 (By ideal gas equation) reaction favours SN2 mechanism.
41. (a)
T1 T2 45. (b) (a) Electronic configuration of Ti 3+ in
[Ti(NH3)6]3+
1.5 V1 1 V2 Ti3+ = 3d1;
or
288 298 3d 4s 4p
V2 = 1.55 V1
i.e, volume of bubble will be almost 1.6 times
to initial volume of bubble.
2
1 d sp3 hybridisation
42. (b) (A) Plaster or Paris = CaSO4 HO
2 2 (b) Electronic configuration of Cr 3+ in
(B) Epsomite = MgSO4 · 7H2O [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(C) Kieserite = MgSO4 · H2O
Cr3+ = 3d3;
(D) Gypsum= CaSO4 · 2H2O
43. (c) The molecular orbital configurations of 3d 4s 4p
O2 , O2 , O 22 and O2 are

* *
O2 1s 2 , 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 p 2z , 2 px2 2
d sp3 hybridisation
* * (c) Electronic configuration of Co3+ in
2 p 2y , 2 p1x 2 p 0y [Co(NH3 )6]3+;
Co3+ = 3d6.
* * 3d 4s 4p
O2 1s 2 , 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 pz2 , 2 px2

* *
2 p 2y , 2 p x2 2 p1y In the presence of strong field ligand
NH3, pairing of electrons takes place
* * and hence, octahedral complex,
O22 1s 2 , 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2s 2 , 2 pz2 , 2 px2
[Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic.
* * inner orbital or
2 p 2y , 2 p 2x 2 p 2y
[Co(NH3)6]3+ low spin complex

(6NH3 molecles)
On the other hand, on increasing the
number of electron in the same shell, the
3d 4s 4p
atomic radii decreases because effective
×× ×× ×× ×× ×× ×× nuclear charge is increases.
In Mg, P and C1, the number of electrons
are increasing in the same shell, thus the
order of their atomic radii is
d 2sp3 hybridisation C1 < P < Mg
In case of Ca, the electron is entering in
(d) Electronic configuration of Zn2+ in [Zn higher shell. So, its atomic radii is highest.
(NH3)6]2+ Thus, the order of radii is
3d Cl < P < Mg < Ca
Zn2+ = 3d10; 49. (b) The reaction-
2 A(g) B (g) 3C (g) D(g)
4s 4p 4d Initial 1 1 0 0
At equil 1 0.50 1 0.25 0.75 0.25

3
(0.75)3 (0.25)
sp d 2 hybridisation K=
(0.50)2 (0.75)

[Zn(NH3 ) 6 ] 2+ is an outer orbital 50. (b) Al2 (SO4 )3 2Al3 3SO24


complex and is diamagnetic. We can calculate th e equivalent
46. (a) SnO2 reacts with acids as well as bases to conductance only for ions, so the
form corresponding salts. So it is an equivalent conductance at infinite dilution,
amphoteric oxide.
SnO2 + 4HCl SnCl4 + 2H2O eq Al3 SO24
SnO2 + 2NaOH Na 2SnO3 + H2O 51. (c)
sod.stannate
w(given mass of methane) = 6g
47. (c) A slag is an easily fusible material which is
formed when gangue still present in the temperature, T = 129 + 273 = 402 K
roasted or the calcined ore combines with mol mass of methane, M = 12. 01 + 4 1.01
the flux. For example, in the metallurgy of =16.05
iron, CaO (flux) combines with silica gangue
to form easily fusible calcium silicate From, ideal gas equation,
(CaSiO3) slag. nRT
CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3 (slag) pV = nRT P
v
48. (b) Atomic radii increases, as the number of
shells increases. Thus, on moving down a 6 8.314 402
p= = 41648 Pa
group atomic radii increases. 16.05 0.03
The electronic configuration of the given 52. (c) (A) If kp > Q and goes in forward direction
element is than reaction is spontaneous
Mg12 = [Ne] 3s2 (B) Given, G°< RT ln Q,
Ca20 =[Ar] 4s2 thus, G° = + ve
p15 = [Ne] 3s23p3 and hence, the reaction is non–
Cl17 = [Ne]3s23p5 spontaneous.
(C) At equilibrium, Kp = Q 57. (a) In nuclear reactors heavy water is used as
a moderator. It has higher boiling point as
H
(D) T > compared to the ordinary water. Thus, it is
S more associated as compared to ordinary
or T S = H water. The dielectric constant is however
This is valid condition for higher for H2O, thus, H2O is a more effective
spontaneous endothermic reactions solvent as compare to heavy water (D2O).
(as G H – T S) 58. (c) Dehydration of alcohols involve formation
53. (b) The size of cation is in order of- of carbocation intermediate. Higher the
Li+ < Na+ < Cs+ stability of carbocation, higher is the ease
and the size of anions in the order of- of dehydration. The order of stability of
I– > F – carbocation, is
Thus, when the cation is largest and anion
O O
is smallest, the ratio of their sizes is
maximum. < H3C
H3C
Hence, cation to anion size ratio is maximum
for CsF. (b) and (d) (a)
54. (c) Electron deficient species are known as
electrophiles. O
+
Among the given, H3 O has lone pair of < H3C
electrons for donation, so it is not electron (c)
deficient and hence, not an electrophile.
55. (d) Contact process is used for sulphuric acid, Hence, compound given in option (c)
steel is manufactured by Bessemer's readily undergoes dehydration.
process, Leblanc process is used for the 59. (c) Compounds having tetrahedral geometry
production of NaOH while Haber's process does not exhibit isomerism due to presence
is used for NH3 production. of symmetry elements. Here, [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
56. (a) has tetrated ral geometry.
60. (d)

OH H-bonding
CH2OH CH2I CH2

3HI H OH
CHOH CHI CH
–3H 2O –I2

CH2OH CH2I CH2I


(highly unstable) allyl iodide
H H
CH3 CH3
H
(HI (excess)
CHI CH This conformation is most stable due to
–I2
intramolecular H-bonding.
CH2I CH2 5 4 3 2 1
(unstable) 61. (b) C H3 — C H CH — C CH
pent-3-en-1-yne
CH3
62. (d) The most common oxidation state exhibited
HI by lanthanoids is +3.
CHI
63. (a) In NO3 ,
CH3
2-iodopropane 1
H = [5 + 0 – 0 + 1] = 3. So, sp3
2
hybridization. 67. (a) Fat soluble vitamins are A, D and E.
Thus, it has trigonal planar geometry. Whereas vitamin-B complex is soluble in
O water.
68. (c) In the process denaturation secondary and
tertiary structures of protein destroyed but
N primary structure remains undisturbed.
– Heat, acid and alkali denature DNA molecule
O O
and double strand of DNA converts into
In H3O+, single strand.
1 69. (c) 44 g CO2 = 1 mol CO2 = NA molecules of
H = [6 + 3 – 1 + 0] = 4; So, sp3 CO2
2
hybridization and it has pyramidal geometry 48g O3 = 1 mol O3 = NA molecules of O3
due to the presence of one lone pair of 8 g H2 = 4 mol H2 = 4 × NA molecules of H2
electrons. 64 g SO2 = 1 mol SO2 = NA molecules of SO2
NA = 6.023 × 1023
70. (a)
Cl
O+ H
NO2
H H
It has electron withdrawing group — NO2
O which reduces the double bond character
|| between carbon of benzene ring and
64. (c) Compoun ds having eith er CH3 C—
chlorine. Hence, the correct order of
group or CH3CHOH— group, give iodoform nucleophilic substitution reactions are,
when warmed with I2 and NaOH.
Thus, compounds Cl Cl Cl

O Cl
||
CH3 C HOH,CH3 — C— CH 3 , CH 3 — CHOH > > >
| |
H CH3
NO2 CH3 OCH3
give iodoform when heated with I2 and
NaOH. (Note : NaOI oxidises CH3CH2OH 71. (d) Freezing point depression ( Tf) = iKf m
to CH3CHO, and gives positive iodoform HA H+ + A–
test.) 1–
65. (d) In aqueous medium, fructose is enolised 1 – 0.3 0.3 0.3
and converted into aldehyde in basic i = 1 – 0.3 + 0.3 + 0.3
medium. Generally all aldehydes reduce i = 1.3
Tollen's reagent, thus fructose can also Tf = 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1 = 0.2418°C
reduces Tollen's reagent. Tf = 0 – 0.2418°C
Mg,Ether = – 0.2418°C
66. (c) C6H5CH2Br C6H5CH2MgBr 72. (a) As positive charge on the central metal atom
Grignard reagent increases, the less readily the metal can
Br donate electron density into the anti–
bonding –orbitals of C–O ligand to
H3O /H
C6 H5CH3 Mg weaken the C—O bond. Thus, the C–O
toluene
bond would be strongest in Mn(CO)6+
OH
73. (d) Since alkyl group has +I–effect and aryl OH OH
group has + R–effect, Hence greater the
number of alkyl and aryl groups attached
to the carbonyl group, its reactivity towards
nucleophilic addition reaction. Secondly, as
the steric crowding on carbonyl group
conc. H2SO4/
increases, the r eactivity decreases H H
accordingly. O –H2O
Correct reactivity order for reaction with
PhMgBr is C
H3C H3C Ph O OH OH
C O > C O > C O
C
H H3C Ph
(I) (II) (III) O
phthalic anhydride
C
r
74. (c) Radius ratio of NaCl like crystal =
r O

100 C
= 0.414 or r – = = 241.5 pm
0.414
O
1 phenolphthalein
75. (b) A B ; H = 150 kJ/mol ...(i) (c) Fries rearrangement Phenyl benzoate
2
3B 2C + D; H = – 125 kJ/mol ...(ii) heated with anhydrous AlCI 3 in the
presence of inert solvent gives ortho–and
E + A 2D; H = + 350 kJ/mol ...(iii)
Para–hydroxybenzophenone. In this
By [2 × (i) + (ii)] – (iii), we have rearrangement, there is only a benzoyl
B + D E + 2C group migration from the phenolic oxygen
H = 150 × 2 + (–125) – 350 to an ortho–and para–position.
= –175 kJ/mol
76. (d) (a) Benzoin condensation : Heating
O
ethanolic solution with strong alkali
like KCN or NaCN, benzoin is obtained. O—C—C6H5 OH
C—C6H5
O AlCl3/
– O
CN
2C6H5 — C — H

O phenyl p-hydroxy-
benzoate benzophenone
C6H5 — C — CH — C6H5 OH

OH
benzoin +
(b) Formation of phenolphthalein phenol is
treated with phthalic anhydride in the
presence of conc. H 2 SO 4 , it gives O C — C6H5
phenolphthalein, an indicator. p-hydroxy-
benzophenone
(d) Methylsalicylate
PART - III (MATHEMATICS)
OH
dy 2yx 1
COOCH3 81. (a) 2
dx 1 x (1 x 2 ) 2
which is a linear differential equation.
2x 1
Here, P = ,Q
2
(A chief constituent of oil of wintergreen) 1 x (1 x 2 ) 2
77. (b) Now, IF = e P dx
CH2NH2
2x 2
= dx 2 = (1 + x )
2
Compound is most basic due to localised e1 x elog(1 x )
lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom Solution of differential equation is
While in other compounds, because of
resonance, the lone pair of electrons on 1
y. (1 + x2) = .(1 x 2 )dx C
nitrogen atom gets delocalised over (1 x 2 ) 2
benzene ring and thus is less easily
available for donation. 1
78. (d) Formal charges help in selection of the y (1 + x2) = dx C
1 x2
lowest energy structure from a number of
possible Lewis structures for a given y (1 + x2) = tan–1 x + C
species. Generally the lowest energy
structure is the one with the smallest formal x x 2 1 x3
charges on the atoms. 82. (b) y y2 1 y3 = 0
Formal charge on an atom
= total no. of valence electrons – non -bonding z z2 1 z3
1
electrons – × bonding electrons.
2 x x2 1 x x2 x3
For Lewis structure of SO3
y y2 1 y y2 y3 = 0
..
..

O
z z2 1 z z2 z3
S
.O... ..O.. x x2 1 1 x x2
Formal charge on S atom y y2 1 xyz 1 y y 2
=0
1 z z2 1 1 z z2
=6–0– × 12 = 0
2
Formal charge on three O atoms
1 x x2 1
6 4 4 0
2 y y2 1
79. (a) IE1 of Na = – Electron gain enthalpy of Na+ ion (1 + xyz) =0
= –5.1eV. z z2 1
80. (a) For zero order reaction,
Rate = k [Reactants]° (1 + xyz) [x(y2 – z2) –y (x2 – z2)
Rate = k + z (x2 – y2)] = 0
and unit of k = mol L–1 s –1 (1 + xyz) (x – y) (y – z) (z – x) = 0
1 + xyz = 0 xyz = –1
83. (c) P (A B) = 0.6 and P (A B) = 0.2 87. (a) (x + y) . (x + 1) = x + x.y + y
we know that Replace ‘.’ by ‘+’, ‘+’ by ‘.’, ‘1’ by ‘0’, we
P (A B) = P (A) + P(B) – P(A B) get (x . y) + (x . 0) = x.(x + y) . y
0.6 = P(A) + P(B) – 0.2 88. (b) f (x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3)
P(A) + P(B) = 0.8 f(1) = f(2) = f (3) = 0
1 – P( A ) + 1 – P ( B ) = 0.8 f(x) is not one–one.
For each y R, there exists x R such that
– [P( A ) + P( B )] = 0.8 – 2 f (x) = y.
P( A ) + P( B ) = 1.2 f is onto.
Note that if a continuous function has more
R sin than one roots, then the function is always
84. (b) Q =
sin( ) many–one.
Also, (5P) = (4P)2 + (3P)2
2 89. (c) Let z1, z2 and z3 be affixes of points A, B
+ 2 (4P) (3P) cos ( + ) and C, respectively. Since, z1, z2 and z3 are
25P2 = 16p2 + 9P2 + 24P2 cos ( + ) in AP, therefore
24P2 cos ( + ) = 0 2z2 = z1 + z3
cos ( + ) = 0 = cos90° z1 z 3
+ = 90° z2 =
2
4P So, B is the mid–point of the line AC.
A, B and C are collinear.
z1, z2 and z3 lie on a line.
R 1
5P 90. (c) x = 1 + a+ a2 + ... =
1 a
1
3P y = 1 + b + b2 + .... =
1 b
5P sin 1
Now, 4P = and z = 1 + c + c2 + .... =
sin 90 1 c
Since, a, b and c are in AP.
4
sin = 1 – a, 1 – b and 1 – c are also in AP.
5
1 1 1
4 , and are in HP..
= sin–1 1 a 1 b 1 c
5
x, y and z are in HP.
85. (b) 2 tan–1 (cos x) = tan –1 (2 cosec x) Note that if the common ratio of a GP is not
less than 1, then we do not determined the
2 cos x
tan–1 = tan–1 (2 cosec x) sum of an infinite GP that series.
1 cos 2 x 91. (a) Let f(x) = – 3 + x – x2
Then, f(x) < 0 for all x because coefficient of
2cos x x2 < 0 and disc < 0. Thus, LHS of the given
= 2 cosec x
1 cos 2 x equation is always positive whereas the
RHS is always less than zero.
2 cos x
= 2 cosec x Hence, the given equation has no solution.
sin 2 x Alternate Solution :
Given, equation is
sinx = cos x x= 9
4
= –3 + x – x2
86. (d) Given conditions are a + x = 1 and ax = 0. 10
These two conditions will be true, if x = a .
In ABE,
Y
150
tan =
d
d = 150 cot
y= 9
10 2
= 150 × = 60 m
X X 5
In DCE,
h
y = – 3 + x – x2 tan =
d
4 h 4
Y h 60 h = 80 m
3 d 3
Now in DCE,
9 DE2 = DC2 + CE2
Let y = , therefore
10 x2 = 602 + 802 = 10000
y = –3 + x – x2 x = 100 m
94. (a) Given equation x2 + px + q = 0 has roots
1 1
y= x2 x 3 and 2.
4 4 Sum = + 2 = –p and Product = 3 = q
2 ( + 1) = –p
11 1 3 [ 3 + 1 + 3 ( + 1)] = – p3
y+ x
4 2 q (q + 1 – 3p) = –p3
It is clear from the graph that two curves do p3 – (3p – 1) q + q2 = 0
not intersect. Hence, no solution exists. 100
100
92. (c) The centre of the required circle lies at the 95. (c) C m (x 3)100 m
.2m
intersection of 2x – 3y – 5 = 0 and 3x – 4y – m 0
7 = 0. Thus, the coordinates of the centre Above expansion can be rewritten as
are (1, –1). [(x – 3) + 2]100 = (x – 1)100 = (1 – x)100
Let r be the radius of the circle. x53 will occur in T54.
r2 = 154 T54 = 100C53 (–x)53
22 2 Required coefficient is – 100C53.
r = 154 r = 7 96. (b) Equation of family of concentric circles to
7
the circle x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y – 5 = 0 is
Hence, the equation of required circle is
x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y + = 0
(x –1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 72
which is similar to
x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y – 47 = 0
x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
4 5 Thus, the point (–3, 2) lies on the cirlce
93. (d) Given : tan = and tan = x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y + c = 0
3 2
(–3)2 + (2)2 + 6(–3) + 8 (2) + c = 0
E 9 + 4 – 18 + 16 + c = 0 c = –11
97. (a) a = i + j + k, b = i + 3j + 5k
and c = 7i + 9j + 11k
x h Let A = a + b
= (i + j + k) + (i + 3j + 5k)
150 m = 2i + 4j + 6k
D
d C and B = b + c
= (i + 3j +5k) + (7i + 9j + 11k)
= 8i + 12j + 16k
A d B Area of parallelogram
1 We know that, –1 sin x 1
= |A B|
2 5 3 1
– sin x
( A and B are diagonals) 2 2 2
2
i j k 1 3 25
1 sin x
= 2 4 6 4 2 4
2
8 12 16 2
3
1 4 sin x 25
1 2
= |i (64 – 72) – j (32 – 48) + k (24 – 32)|
2 2
3
1 1 4 sin x 2 23
= |–8i + 16j – 8k| 2
2 101. (b) A is mid point of line PQ.
= ( 4)2 (8)2 ( 4)2 a 0
3= a=6
2
= 96 = 4 6 sq units
0 b
n and 4 = b=8
a ii 2
98. (a) We know that, tr (A) =
i 1 Y
1 5 7
If A = 0 7 9 , then P(0, b)
11 8 9
tr (A) = 1 + 7 + 9 = 17 A(3, 4)
cos sin 1
sin cos 1 Q(a, 0)
99. (a) Given, X
O
cos( ) sin( ) 1
[Applying R3 R3 – R1(cos ) + R2 (sin )] Thus, equation of line is
x y
cos sin 1 =1
6 8
= sin cos 1 4x + 3y = 24
0 0 1 sin cos 102. (d) The tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2 = y – 6
is
= (1 + sin – cos ) (cos2
+ sin2 )
= 1 + sin – cos , which is independent of . 1
x= (y + 7) – 6
100. (d) 4 sin 2 x – 12sin x + 7 2
= 4 (sin2x – 3 sin x) + 7 2x = y + 7 – 12
2 y = 2x + 5
3 9 which is also tangent to the circle
=4 sin x 7
2 4 x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0
i.e., x2 + (2x +5)2 + 16x + 12 (2x + 5) + c = 0
2 5x2 + 60x + 85 + c = 0, which must have
3
= 4 sin x 9 7 equal roots.
2 Let and are the roots of the equation.
2 Then + = – 12 = –6
3 ( = )
= 4 sin x 2
2 x = – 6, y = 2x + 5 = – 7
Point of contact is (–6, –7).
103. (c) The intersection point of lines x – 2y = 1
1 1 x
7 1 105. (b) Let I = dx
0 1 x
and x + 3y = 2 is ,
5 5
Since, required line is parallel to 3x + 4y = 0. 1 1 x
= 0 dx
3 1 x2
Therefore, the slope of required line is .
4
1 1 1 x
Equation of required line which passes = dx dx
0 0
1 x2 1 x2
7 1
through , is given by
5 5 1 x
= [sin 1 x]10 dx
0
1 3 7 1 x2
y x
5 4 5 Put t2 = 1 – x2 2t dt = – 2x dx
3x 21 1 t dt = –x dx
y
4 20 5 0t
3x + 4y – 5 = 0 I = (sin–1 1 – sin–1 0) + 1
dt
t
dx
104. (c) Let I = = [t]10 1
sin x cos x 2 2 2
dx 1 1
106. (c) Let I = 0 x x dx
2 sin x sin cos x cos 1 2
4 4
1/ 2 1 1 1
1 dx =– x x dx x x dx
0 2 1/ 2 2
=
2
1 cos x
4 1/ 2 x 1 x
= 0 x 2 dx x x2 dx
2 1/ 2 2
1 dx
=
2 x 1/2 1
2 sin 2 x2 x3 x3 x2
2 8
= 4 3 3 4
0 1/2
1 2 x
= cosec dx
2 2 8 1 1 1 1 1 1
=
16 24 3 4 24 16
x
cot
1 2 8 6 4 32 24 4 6
= . C =
2 2 1 96 96
2
12 1
1 x =
= cot C 96 8
2 2 8
[using eq. (i)]
x2 y2 On substituting these values in x2 –y2 =
107. (b) Let the equation of the ellipse be
a2 b2 c2, we get
= 1.
a2 b2
It is given that it passes through (7, 0) and = c2
(0, –5). 2 2
Therefore, a2 = 49 and b2 = 25 a2 – b2 = 2c2
The eccentricity of the ellipse is given by 109. (c) Let P (x, y) be any point on the conic. Then,
x y 1
b2 (x 1) 2 (y 1) 2 2
e= 1 2
a2
(x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = (x – y + 1)2
25 24 2 6 2xy – 4x + 4y + 1 = 0
= 1 = 110. (b) Required numbers
49 49 7
1 1 1 1 1
x2 y2 = 5! 1 = 44
108. (c) =1 1! 2! 3! 4! 5!
a 2 b2 Note that if r (0 r n) objects occupy the
...(i) original places and none of the remaining
On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get (n – r) objects occupies its original places
then the number of such arrangements
2x 2y dy
2
. =0 = nCr. (n – r)!
a b 2 dx
1 1 1 1
1 .... ( 1) n 2
dy xb 2 1! 2! 3! (n r)!
and
dx a2y
12 22 32 ... n 2
x2 – y2 = c2 111. (b) Tn =
On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get n!

dy n2 n(n 1)(2n 1)
2x – 2y =0 = =
dx n! 6n!
dy x
= 1 2n 3 3n 2 n
dx y =
6 n!
The two curves will cut at right angles, if
dy dy 1 n3 3n 2 n
= –1 = 2.
dx c1 dx c2 6 n! n! n!
Sum of the series
b2 x x
. = –1
a2y y 1 n3 n2 n
= 2 3
6 n 1 n! n 1 n! n 1
n!
x2 y2
a2 b2 1
= (2 5e 3 2e e)
6
x2 y2 1
1 17
a 2
b 2 2 = (10e 6e e) e
6 6
112. (b) loga (1 + x) = loge (1 + x) logae
3 1 1 3 1
n = 2 sin 2 sin 0
n 1 x 2 2 2
= logae ( 1)
n 1
n
3 3
So, the coefficient of xn in loga (1 + x) is = 2 = sq units
2 6 2 3
( 1) n 1
log a e. 1
n 115. (b) Let y = lim tan x
x 2
113. (b) Let the equation of the required plane be
Taking log on both sides, we get
x y z
= 1. 1
a b c 1
log y = lim log tan x form
This meets the coordinate axes at A, B and x x 2
C, the coordinates of the centroid of ABC
a b c form
are , ,
3 3 3

a b c 1
1, 2, 3
3 3 3 1 x2
= lim
a = 3, b = 6, c = 9 x 1
tan x
Hence, the equation of the plane is 2

x y z
=1 (using L ‘Hospitals’ rule)
3 6 9
114. (c) Required area 2x
(1 x 2 )2
Y = lim
x 1
x = 3y 1 x2
(using L Hospital’s rule)
X X 2x
O
= lim =0 y = e° = 1
2 2
x 1 x2
x +y =4
116. (c) f(x) is continuous at x = .
2
Y
So, lim f (x) lim f (x)
1 x x
= (x 2 x1 )dy 2 2
0

1
= ( 4 y2 3y) dy m 1 sin n
0 2 2
1 m
1 2 1 1 y 3y 2 m 1 1 n =n
= 2y 4 y 2
(4)sin
2 2
2 2
0
4 x2 3
117. (c) f(x) = 2 2
dy
sin 1 (2 x) 1
dx
2
4 x 2 is defined for 4 – x 0. 119. (a) =
d2 y
x2 4
–2 x 2 dx 2
and sin–1 (2 – x) is defined for –1 2 – x 1
2 3/ 2
–3 – x – 1 d2 y dy
1 x 3 1
Also, sin–1 (2 – x) = 0 for x = 2 dx 2 dx
Domain of f (x) = [–2 , 2] [1, 3] – {2} On squaring both sides, we get
= [1, 2)
118. (c) (1 + y2) dx + (1 + x2) dy = 0
2 2 3
2 d2y dy
1
dx dy dx 2 dx
=0
1 x 2 1 y2 Clearly, it is a second order differential
On integrating, we get equation of degree 2.
tan–1 x + tan–1 y = tan –1 C Note that the higher order derivative is in
x y the transcendental, then we do not
=C determined the degree of that equation.
1 xy 120. (b) Let R = {(a, b) : a, b N, a – b = 3}
x + y = C (1 – xy) = [{(n + 3), n} : n N]
= {(4, 1), (5, 2), (6, 3), ...}

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