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VITEEE 2008 Question Paper

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VITEEE 2008 Question Paper

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lvarshaa4
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VITEEE 2008 Question Paper

Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination

Download more VITEEE Previous Year Question Papers: Click Here


VITEEE
SOLVED PAPER 2008
PART - I (PHYSICS) 6. An electron microscope is used to probe the
atomic arrangements to a resolution of 5Å. What
should be the electric potential to which the
1. Two beams of light will not give rise to an
electrons need to be accelerated ?
interference patern, if
(a) 2.5 V (b) 5 V
(a) they are coherent
(c) 2.5 kV (d) 5 kV
(b) they have the same wavelength
7. Which phenomenon best supports the theory
(c) they are linearly polarized perpendicular to
that matter has a wave nature ?
each other
(a) Electron momentum
(d) they are not monochromatic (b) Electron diffraction
2. A slit of width 'a' is illuminated with a (c) Photon momentum
monochromatic light of wavelength from a (d) Photon diffraction
distant source and the diffraction pattern is 8. The radioactivity of a certain material drops to
observed on a screen placed at a distance 'D'
from the slit. To increase the width of the central 1
of the initial value in 2 hours. The half life of
maximum one should 16
(a) decrease D this radionuclide is
(b) decrease a (a) 10 min (b) 20 min
(c) decrease (c) 30 min (d) 40 min
(d) the width cannot be changed 9. An observer 'A' sees an asteroid with a
3. A thin film of soap solution (n = 1.4) lies on the radioactive element moving by at a speed = 0.3 c
top of a glass plate (n = 1.5). When visible light and measures the radioactivity decay time to be
TA. Another observer 'B' is moving with the
is incident almost normal to the plate, two
asteroid and measures its decay time as TB. Then
adjacent reflection maxima are observed at two
TA and TB are related as below
wavelengths 420 and 630 nm. The minimum
(a) TB < TA
thickness of the soap solution is
(b) TA = TB
(a) 420 nm (b) 450 nm (c) TB > TA
(c) 630 nm (d) 1260 nm (d) Either (A) or (C) depending on whether the
4. If the speed of a wave doubles as it passes from asteroid is approaching or moving away
shallow water into deeper water, its wavelength from A
will be 10. 234U has 92 protons and 234 nucleons total in its
(a) unchanged (b) halved nucleus. It decays by emitting an alpha particle.
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled After the decay it becomes
5. A light whose frequency is equal to 6 × 1014 Hz (a) 232U (b) 232Pa
is incident on a metal whose work function is (c) 230 Th (d) 230Ra
34 19 11. K and K x-rays are emitted when there is a
2eV. h 6.63 10 Js 1eV 1.6 10 J transition of electron between the levels
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 and n = 3 to n = 1 respectively
The maximum energy of the electrons emitted
(b) n = 2 to n = 1 and n = 3 to n = 2 respectively
will be
(c) n = 3 to n = 2 and n = 4 to n = 2 respectively
(a) 2.49 eV (b) 4.49 eV
(d) n = 3 to n = 2 and n = 4 to n = 3 respectively
(c) 0.49 eV (d) 5.49 eV
12. A certain radioactive material ZXA starts emitting 18. The reverse saturation of p-n diode
and particles successively such that the end (a) depends on doping concentrations
product is Z 3 Y A 8 . The number of and (b) depends on diffusion lengths of carriers
particles emitted are (c) depends on the doping concentrations and
(a) 4 and 3 respectively diffusion lengths
(b) 2 and 1 respectively (d) depends on the doping concentrations,
(c) 3 and 4 respectively diffusion length and device temperature
(d) 3 and 8 respectively 19. A radio station has two channels. One is AM at
13. 10k 1020 kHz and the other FM at 89.5 MHz. For
good results you will use
1k
– (a) longer antenna for the AM channel and
+1 V A Vout shorter for the FM
+
(b) shorter antenna for the AM channel and
longer for the FM
In the circuit shown above, an input of 1V is fed
(c) same length antenna will work for both
into the inverting input of an ideal Op-amp A.
The output signal Vout will be (d) information given is not enough to say
(a) +10 V (b) –10 V which one to use for which
(c) 0 V (d) infinity 20. The communication using optical fibers is based
14. When a solid with a band gap has a donor level on the principle of
just below its empty energy band, the solid is (a) total internal reflection
(a) an insulator (b) Brewster angle
(b) a conductor
(c) polarization
(c) a p-type semiconductor
(d) an n-type semiconductor (d) resonance
15. A p-n junction has acceptor impurity 21. In nature, the electric charge of any system is
concentration of 1017 cm–3 in the p-side and always equal to
donor impurity concentration of 1016 cm–3 in the (a) half integral multiple of the least amount of
n-side. What is the contact potential at the charge
junction (kT = thermal energy, intrinsic carrier
(b) zero
concentration ni = 1.4×1010 cm–3) ?
(a) (kT/e) ln (4×1012) (c) square of the least amount of charge
(b) (kT/e) ln (2.5×1023) (d) integral multiple of the least amount of
(c) (kT/e) ln (1023) charge
(d) (kT/e) ln (109) 22. The energy stored in the capacitor as shown in
16. A Zener diode has a contact potential of 1V in Fig. (a) is 4.5×10–6 J. If the battery is replaced by
the absence of biasing. It undergoes Zener another capacitor of 900 pF as shown in Fig. (b),
breakdown for an electric field of 106 V/m at the
then the total energy of system is
depletion region of p-n junction. If the width of
the depletion region is 2.5 m, what should be
the reverse biased potential for the Zener + – + –
+ – + –
breakdown to occur ? + – + –
+ – + –
(a) 3.5 V (b) 2.5 V + – 900pF 900pF
(c) 1.5 V (d) 0.5 V + ––
+ –
17. In Colpitt oscillator the feedback network +– + –
100V + 900pF
consists of
(a) two inductors and a capacitor Fig. (a) Fig. (b)
(b) two capacitors and an inductor
(c) three pairs of RC circuit (a) 4.5 × 10–6 J (b) 2.25 × 10–6 J
(d) three pairs of RL circuit (c) zero (d) 9×10–6 J
23. Equal amounts of a metal are converted into 28. Three resistances of 4 each are connected
cylindrical wires of different lengths (L) and
as shown in figure. If the point D divides the
cross-sectional area (A). The wire with the
resistance into two equal halves, the resistance
maximum resistance is the one, which has
(a) length = L and area = A between point A and D will be

L A
(b) length = and area = 2A
2
A 4 4
(c) length = 2L and area =
2
(d) all have the same resistance, as the amount
D
of the metal is the same
24. If the force exerted by an electric dipole on a B 4 C
charge q at a distance of 1m is F, the force at a
point 2m away in the same direction will be (a) 12 (b) 6
F F 1
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d)
2 4 3
F F 29. The resistance of a metal increases with
(c) (d) increasing temperature because
6 8
(a) the collisions of the conducting electrons
25. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge
with the electrons increase
0 (b) the collisions of the conducting electrons
density is enclosed by a hollow sphere
r with the lattice consisting of the ions of the
of radius R2 with negative surface charge density metal increase
, such that the total charge in the system is (c) the number of conduction electrons
zero. 0 is a positive constant and r is the decreases
distance from the centre of the sphere. The ratio (d) the number of conduction electrons
R2 increases
30. In the absence of applied potential, the electric
R1 is
current flowing through a metallic wire is zero
because
(a) (b) 2 / 0 (a) the electrons remain stationary
0 (b) the electrons are drifted in random direction
0 with a speed of the order of 10–2 cm/s
(c) 0 / 2 (d)
26. A solid spherical conductor of radius R has a (c) the electrons move in random direction with
spherical cavity of radius a (a < R) at its centre. A a speed of the order close to that of velocity
charge + Q is kept at the centre. The charge at of light
the inner surface, outer surface and at a position (d) electrons and ions move in opposite
r (a < r < R) are respectively direction
(a) + Q, – Q, 0 (b) – Q, + Q, 0 31. A meter bridge is used to determine the resistance
(c) 0, – Q, 0 (d) + Q, 0, 0 of an unknown wire by measuring the balance
27. A cylindrical capacitor has charge Q and length point length l. If the wire is replaced by another
L. If both the charge and length of the capacitor wire of same material but with double the length
are doubled, by keeping other parameters fixed, and half the thickness, the balancing point is
the energy stored in the capacitor expected to be
(a) remains same
1 1
(b) increases two times (a) (b)
(c) decreases two times 8 4
(d) increases four times (c) 8 (d) 16
32. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding a (a) both bulbs will glow alternatively
superconducting wire (b) both bulbs will glow with same brightness
(a) transport current flows through its surface
1
(b) transport current flows through the entire provided frequency f
area of cross-section of the wire 2 1/ LC
(c) it exhibits zero electrical resistivity and
(c) bulb b1 will light up initially and goes off,
expels applied magnetic field
bulb b2 will be ON constantly
(d) it is used to produce large magnetic field
(d) bulb b1 will blink and bulb b2 will be ON
33. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field
constantly
3×104 NC–1. The dipole moment of each HCl
molecule is 6×10–30cm. The maximum torque 37. A transformer rated at 10 kW is used to connect
that can act on a molecule is a 5kV transmission line to a 240V circuit. The
(a) 2 × 10–34 C2Nm–1 (b) 2 × 10–34 Nm ratio of turns in the windings of the transformer
(c) 18 × 10–26 Nm (d) 0.5×1034 C–2 Nm–1 is
34. When a metallic plate swings between the poles (a) 5 (b) 20.8
of a magnet (c) 104 (d) 40
(a) no effect on the plate 38. Three solenoid coils of same dimension, same
(b) eddy currents are set up inside the plate number of turns and same number of layers of
and the direction of the current is along the winding are taken. Coil 1 with inductance L1 was
motion of the plate wound using a Mn wire of resistance 11 /m;
(c) eddy currents are set up inside the plate Coil 2 with inductance L2 was wound using the
and the direction of the current oppose the similar wire but the direction of winding was
motion of the plate reversed in each layer; Coil 3 with inductance L3
(d) eddy currents are set up inside the plate was wound using a superconducting wire. The
35. When an electrical appliance is switched on, it self inductance of the coils L1, L2, L3 are
responds almost immediately, because
(a) L1 = L2 = L3 (b) L1 = L2; L3 = 0
(a) the electrons in the connecting wires move
(c) L1 = L3; L2 = 0 (d) L1 > L2 > L3
with the speed of light
39. Light travels with a speed of 2 × 108 m/s in crown
(b) the electrical signal is carried by
glass of refractive index 1.5. What is the speed
electromagnetic waves moving with the
speed of light of light in dense flint glass of refractive index
1.8 ?
(c) the electrons move with the speed which is
close to but less than speed of light (a) 1.33 × 108 m/s (b) 1.67 × 108 m/s
8
(c) 2.0 × 10 m/s (d) 3.0 ×108 m/s
(d) the electrons are stagnant.
36. Two identical incandescent light bulbs are 40. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is
connected as shown in the Figure. When the incident normally on a narrow slit. A screen is
circuit is an AC voltage source of frequency f, placed at a large distance from the slit. If the
which of the following observations will be speed of the electrons is increased, which of the
correct ? following statement is correct ?
(a) diffraction pattern is not observed on the
R R screen in the case of electrons
(b) the angular width of the central maximum
C of the diffraction pattern will increase
L
Bulb b1 (c) the angular width of the central maximum
Bulb b2 will decrease
(d) the angular width of the central maximum
will remain the same
50. Which of the following is ketohexose ?
PART - II (CHEMISTRY) (a) Glucose (b) Sucrose
(c) Fructose (d) Ribose
41. 675 K 51. The oxidation number of oxygen in KO3, Na2O2 is
CH 3CH 3 HNO3
(a) 3, 2 (b) 1, 0
(a) CH3CH2NO2 (c) 0, 1 (d) –0.33, –1
(b) CH3CH2NO2 + CH3NO2 52. Reaction of PCl3 and PhMgBr would give
(c) 2CH3NO2 (a) bromobenzene
(d) CH2 = CH2 (b) chlorobenzene
42. When acetamide is hydrolysed by boiling with (c) triphenylphosphine
acid, the product obtained is : (d) dichlorobenzene
(a) acetic acid (b) ethyl amine 53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
(c) ethanol (d) acetamide transition elements ?
43. Which will not go for diazotization ? (a) Variable oxidation states
(a) C6H5NH2 (b) C6H5CH2NH2 (b) Formation of colored compounds
(c) H 2N (d) H2N (c) Formation of interstitial compounds
C 6H 4 C6H4 (d) Natural radioactivity
H 3C O2N 54. Cl - P - Cl bond angles in PCl5 molecule are
44. Secondary nitroalkanes can be converted into (a) 120° and 90° (b) 60° and 90°
ketones by using Y. Identify the Y from the (c) 60°and 120° (d) 120° and 30°
following 55. The magnetic moment of a salt containing Zn 2+
R R ion is
CHNO2 + Y C=O (a) 0 (b) 1.87
R R (c) 5.92 (d) 2
(a) Aqueous HCl (b) Aqueous NaOH 56. The number of formula units of calcium flouride
(c) KMnO4 (d) CO CaF2 present in 146.4 g of CaF2 are (molar mass
45. Alkyl cyanides undergo Stephen reduction to of CaF2 is 78.08 g/mol)
produce
(a) aldehyde (b) secondary amine (a) 1.129 1024 CaF2 (b) 1.146 1024 CaF2
(c) primary amine (d) amide
46. The continuous phase contains the dispersed
(c) 7.808 1024 CaF2 (d) 1.877 1024 CaF2
phase throughout, Example is 57. The IUPAC name of the given compound
(a) Water in milk
Co NH3 5
Cl Cl 2 is
(b) Fat in milk
(c) Water droplets in mist (a) pentaamino cobalt chloride chlorate
(d) Oil in water (b) cobalt pentaamine chloro chloride
47. The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 (c) pentaamine chloro cobalt (III) chloride
g of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has a molar mass (d) pentaamino cobalt (III) chlorate
of 342.3 g is 58. When SCN– is added to an aqueous solution
(a) 22 × 1023 (b) 9.91 × 1023 containing Fe(NO3)3,the complex ion produced is
(c) 11 × 10 23 (d) 44 × 1023 2
48. Milk changes after digestion into : (a) Fe OH 2 2 SCN –
(a) cellulose (b) fructose
(c) glucose (d) lactose 2
(b) Fe OH 2 SCN –
49. Which of the following sets consists only of 5
essential amino acids ?
2
(a) Alanine, tyrosine, cystine (c) Fe OH 2 8
SCN –
(b) Leucine, lysine, tryptophane
(c) Alanine, glutamine, lycine 6
(d) Leucine, proline, glycine (d) Fe OH 2 SCN
59. Hair dyes contain 68. The electrochemical cell stops working after
(a) copper nitrate (b) gold chloride sometime because :
(c) silver nitrate (d) copper sulphate (a) electrode potential of both the electrodes
60. Schottky defects occurs mainly in electrovalent becomes zero
compounds where (b) electrode potential of both the electrodes
(a) positive ions and negative ions are of becomes equal
different size (c) one of the electrodes is eaten away
(b) positive ions and negative ions are of same (d) the cell reaction gets reversed
size 69. The amount of electricity required to produce
(c) positive ions are small and negative ions one mole of copper from copper sulphate
are big solution will be
(d) positive ions are big and negative ions are (a) 1 Faraday (b) 2.33 Faraday
small (c) 2 Faraday (d) 1.33 Faraday
61. The number of unpaired electrons calculated in 70. Dipping iron article into a strongly alkaline
3 3 solution of sodium phosphate
Co NH3 6
and Co F6 are (a) does not affect the article
(a) 4 and 4 (b) 0 and 2 (b) forms Fe2O3. xH2O on the surface
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 0 and 4 (c) forms iron phosphate film
62. The standard free energy change of a reaction (d) forms ferric hydroxide
71. Hydroboration oxidation of 4-methyl-octene
is G 115kJ at 298 K. Calculate the would give
equilibrium constant k p in log k p (a) 4-methyl octanol
(b) 2-methyl decane
R 8.314 Jk 1 mol 1 .
(c) 4-methyl heptanol
(a) 20.16 (b) 2.303 (d) 4-methyl-2-octanone
(c) 2.016 (d) 13.83 72. When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4,
63. If an endothermic reaction occurs spontaneously the product obtained is :
at constant temperature T and P, then which of (a) CH3COOC2H5 (b) C2H2
the following is true ? (c) C2H6 (d) C2H4
(a) G>0 (b) H<0 73. Anisole is the product obtained from phenol by
(c) S>0 (d) S<0 the reaction known as
64. If a plot of log10C versus t gives a straight line (a) coupling (b) etherification
for a given reaction, then the reaction is (c) oxidation (d) esterification
(a) zero order (b) first order 74. Ethylene glycol gives oxalic acid on oxidation
(c) second order (d) third order with
65. A spontaneous process is one in which the
(a) acidified K2Cr2O7
system suffers :
(b) acidified KMnO4
(a) no energy change
(c) alkaline KMnO4
(b) a lowering of free energy
(d) periodic acid
(c) a lowering of entropy
75. Diamond is hard because
(d) an increase in internal energy
(a) all the four valence electrons are bonded to
66. The half life period of a first order reaction is 1
each carbon atoms by covalent bonds
min 40 secs. Calculate its rate constant.
(b) it is a giant molecule
(a) 6.93 × 10–3 min–1 (b) 6.93 × 10–3 sec–1
(c) it is made up of carbon atoms
(c) 6.93 × 10–3 sec (d) 6.93 × 103 sec
67. The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO3 (d) it cannot be burnt
are 152, 128 and 111 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. 76. A wittig reaction with an aldehyde gives
What is the molar conductivity of NaNO3? (a) ketone compound
(a) 101 S cm2 mol–1 (b) 87 S cm2 mol–1 (b) a long chain fatty acid
(c) –101 S cm2 mol–1 (d) –391 S cm2 mol–1 (c) olefin compound
(d) epoxide
77. Cannizaro reaction is given by
1 3i
(a) HCHO (b) CH3COCH3 85. Argument of the complex number is
(c) CH3CHO (d) CH3CH2OH 2 i
(a) 45° (b) 135°
CHO
(c) 225° (d) 240°
AlCl3 86. In a triangle ABC, the sides b and c are the roots
78. + ? of the equation x2 – 61x + 820 = 0 and
HCl
4
Identify the reactant A = tan–1 , then a2 is equal to
(a) H2O (b) HCHO 3
(c) CO (d) CH3CHO (a) 1098 (b) 1096
79. Maleic acid and Fumaric acids are (c) 1097 (d) 1095
(a) Position Isomers (b) Geometric Isomers 87. The shortest distance between the straight lines
(c) Enentiomers (d) Functional Isomers through the points A1 = (6, 2, 2) and
80. The gas evolved on heating alkali formate with A2 = (–4, 0, –1), in the directions of (1, –2, 2) and
soda-lime is (3, –2, –2) is
(a) CO (b) CO2 (a) 6 (b) 8
(c) Hydrogen (d) water vapor (c) 12 (d) 9
88. The center and radius of the sphere
PART - III (MATHEMATICS) x2 + y2 + z2 + 3x – 4z + 1 = 0 are
3 21
81. If a, b, c be three unit vectors such that (a) , 0, 2 ;
2 2
1
a (b c) b, b and c being non-parallel. If 3
2 (b) , 0, 2 ; 21
2
1 is the angle between a and b and 2 is the
angle between a and c , then 3 21
(c) , 0, 2 ;
2 2
(a) 1 , 2 (b) 1 , 2
6 3 3 6 3 21
(d) , 2, 0 ;
, 2 , 2 2 2
(c) 1 (d) 1
2 3 3 2 89. Let A and B are two fixed points in a plane then
2 locus of another point C on the same plane such
82. The equation r 2r.c h 0, c h,
that CA +CB = constant, (> AB) is
represents
(a) circle (b) ellipse (a) circle (b) ellipse
(c) cone (d) sphere (c) parabola (d) hyperbola
83. The simplified expression of sin (tan–1 x), for any 90. The directrix of the parabola y2 + 4x + 3 = 0 is
real number x is given by 4 1
(a) x 0 (b) x 0
1 x 3 4
(a) (b)
1 x2 1 x2 3 1
(c) x 0 (d) x 0
1 x 4 4
(c) (d) 91. If g (x) is a polynomial satisfying
1 x2 1 x2 g (x) g(y) = g(x) + g(y) + g(xy) – 2
z 25 for all real x and y and g (2) = 5 then Lt g(x) is
84. If 5 , the value of |z| x 3
z 1
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 25 (d) 20
97. Area enclosed by the curve
( ex 2x )
92. The value of f(0) so that may be 2
x 4 x 2 y2 8 is
continuous at x = 0 is
(a) (b) 2
1 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) log (b) 0
2
a
(c) 4 (d) – 1 + log 2 a x
98. The value of dx is
93. Let [ ] denote the greatest integer function and x
0
f (x) = [tan2 x]. Then
a a
(a) lim f (x) does not exist (a) (b)
x 0 2 4
(b) f (x) is continuous at x = 0 a a
(c) f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0 (c) (d)
2 4
(d) f (x) = 1
99. Let y be the number of people in a village at time
94. A spherical balloon is expanding. If the radius is
t. Assume that the rate of change of the
increasing at the rate of 2 centimeters per minute,
population is proportional to the number of
the rate at which the volume increases (in cubic people in the village at any time and further
centimeters per minute) when the radius is 5 assume that the population never increases in
centimetres is time. Then the population of the village at any
(a) 10 (b) 100 fixed time t is given by
(c) 200 (d) 50 (a) y = ekt + c, for some constants c < 0 and k>0
95. The length of the parabola y2 = 12x cut off by (b) y = cekt, for some constants c > 0 and k < 0
the latus-rectum is (c) y = ect + k, for some constants c < 0 and k>0
(d) y = kect, for some constants c > 0 and k < 0
(a) 6 2 log(1 2)
100. The differential equation of all straight lines
touching the circle x2 + y2 = a2 is
(b) 3 2 log(1 2)
2 2
dy dy
6 2 log(1 2) (a) y a2 1
(c) dx dx

(d) 3 2 log(1 2) 2 2
dy dy
(b) y x a2 1
dx dx
x5
96. If I dx , then I is equal to
1 x3 dy dy
(c) y x a2 1
5 3
dx dx
2 2
(a) (1 x 3 ) 2 (1 x3 ) 2 C dy dy
9 3 (d) y a2 1
dx dx
(b) log x 1 x3 C
dy
101. The differential equation y 3 0
dx
(c) log x 1 x3 C admits
(a) infinite number of solutions
3 1 (b) no solution
2 2
(d) (1 x 3 ) 2 (1 x3 ) 2 C (c) a unique solution
9 3 (d) many solutions
102. Solution of the differential equation 109. Mean and standard deviation of marks obtained
in some particular subject by four classes are
xdy ydx x2 y2 dx 0 is given below. Report the class with best
performance
(a) y x2 y2 C x2
(a) 80, 18 (b) 75, 5
(c) 80, 21 (d) 76, 7
(b) y x2 y2 C x2
110. A random variable X follows binomial
(c) x x2 y2 C y2 distribution with mean and variance . Then
(a) 0 < < (b) 0 < <
(d) x x 2 y2 C y 2 (c) <0< (d) <0<
103. Let P, Q, R and S be statements and suppose 111. The system of equations
x + y+ z = 0
that P Q R P. if ~ S R , then
2x + 3y + z = 0
(a) S ~ Q (b) ~ Q S x + 2y = 0
(c) ~ S ~ Q (d) Q ~ S has
104. In how many number of ways can 10 students (a) a unique solution; x = 0, y = 0, z = 0
be divided into three teams, one containing four (b) infinite solutions
students and the other three? (c) no solution
(a) 400 (b) 700 (d) finite number of non-zero solutions
(c) 1050 (d) 2100
105. If R be a relation defined as a R b iff |a – b| > 0, 4
0 a
then the relation is 112. 1 , then
b 0
(a) reflexive (b) symmetric
(c) transitive (a) a = 1 = 2b (b) a = b
(d) symmetric and transitive (c) a = b2 (d) ab = 1
106. Let S be a finite set containing n elements. Then 113. If D = diag (d1, d2, ..., dn) where d1 0, for
the total number of commutative binary i = 1, 2, ..., n, then D–1 is equal to
operation on S is
(a) DT
n(n 1 n(n 1 (b) D
(a) 2 (b) 2
n n (c) Adj (D)
(c) n (n ) 2
(d) 2(n 2 ) (d) diag (d1–1, d2–1, ...dn–1)
114. If x, y, z are different from zero and
107. A manufacturer of cotter pins knows that 5% of
his product is defective. He sells pins in boxes a b y c z
of 100 and guarantees that not more than one
a x b c z
pin will be defective in a box. In order to find the = 0 then the value of
probability that a box will fail to meet the a x b y c
guaranteed quality, the probability distribution
one has to employ is a b
c
(a) Binomial (b) Poisson the expression is
x y
z
(c) Normal (d) Exponential
108. The probability that a certain kind of component (a) 0 (b) –1
(c) 1 (d) 2
3 115. Probability of getting positive integral roots of
will survive a given shock test is . The
4 the equation x2 – n = 0 for the integer n, 1 < n < 40
probability that exactly 2 of the next 4 is
components tested survive is
1 1
9 25 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 5 10
41 128
3 1
1 27 (c) (d)
(c) (d) 20 20
5 128
116. The number of real roots of the equation 119. The plane through the point (–1, –1, –1) and
containing the line of intersection of the planes
x4 x 4 20 22 is
(a) 4 (b) 2 r.(iˆ 3jˆ k)
ˆ 0 and r.(ˆj 2k) ˆ 0 is
(c) 0 (d) 1 (a) r.(iˆ 2ˆj 3k)
ˆ 0
117. Let , be the roots of the equation
x2 – ax + b = 0 and An = n + n. (b) r.(iˆ 4jˆ k)
ˆ 0
Then An+1 – aAn + bAn–1 is equal to
(a) –a (b) b (c) r.(iˆ 5jˆ 5k)
ˆ 0
(c) 0 (d) a – b
118. If the sides of a right-angle triangle form an A.P.,
(d) r.(iˆ ˆj 3k)
ˆ 0
the 'Sin' of the acute angles are 120. a ˆi ˆj kˆ and b 2iˆ 4jˆ 3kˆ are one of the
3 4 sides and medians respectively, of a triangle
(a) ,
5 5 through the same vertex, then area of the triangle
is
1
(b) 3, 1
3 (a) 83 (b) 83
2

5 1 5 1 1
, (c) 85 (d) 86
(c) 2 2 2

3 1 3 1
(d) ,
2 2
SOLUTIONS
PART - I (PHYSICS)
2
1. (d) Two beams of light give rise to an
interference pattern if they are coherent, they t 2
1
have same wavelength/frequency in same 1
phase or having a constant phase difference
and same state of polarisation. Putting, 1 = 420 nm, 2 = 630 nm, = 1.4
Interference pattern can not be obtained if We get, t = 450 nm
the two beams are not mono chromatic. 4. (c) We have,
2. (b) By the theory of diffraction at a single slit, speed = frequency × wavelength
the width of the central maximum is given by Also, when a wave passes from one medium
2D to the other, its frequency remains constant.
W W D, speed wavelength
a
Therefore, when the speed of a wave doubles,
1 its wavelength also doubles.
W and W 5. (c) Here,
a
Therefore, to increase the width of the central Frequency, = 6 ×1014 Hz
maximum a should be decreased. Work-function, = 2eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
3. (b) R1 and R2 are the two rays considered for = 3.2 × 10–19J
interference. R1 is the result of reflection at Maximum energy, Tmax = ?
denser medium; hence it suffers an additional By Einstein's photo electric equation, we
have
path difference of . Ray R2 originates after h = + Tmax
2 Tmax = h –
reflection at narer medium. = (6.63 × 10–34 × 6 × 1014)– (3.2 × 10–19)
= (3.97 × 10–19) – (3.2 × 10–19)
Net path difference = 2 t+ , = 0. 77 × 10–19 J
2
where t is the thickness of the soap solution. 19
0.77 10
For constructive interference, = eV = 0.49 eV
19
1.6 10
2 t+ = m , where m = 0, 1, 2..... 6. (b) We have, d sin
2
Let the two adjacent reflection maxima be For = 90° and n = 1, we get d =
observed at m and m–1. Then
h h h2
1 But = =
2 t m 1 p 2meV 2meV
2
1 34 2
(6.63 10 )
or 2 t m 1 ... (1) =
2 31 19
2 9.1 10 1.6 10 V
3
Similarly, 2 t m 2 ...(2) 1.5
10 9
m
1.5
10 9
2 = d=
V V
Solving (1) & (2), we get
R1 R2 10 1.5 9
1.5
or 5 10 10 or 0.5
n=1 V V
Soap solution n = 1.4 1.5 1.5
Glass Plate or 0.5 0.5 V = 6V
T n = 1.5 V 0.5 0.5
No option is matching with the exact answer. 12. (b) Let thenumber of and particles emitted
But 5V is approximately equal to the exact be m and n respectively. Then
potential. Therefore, option (b) should be the A – 4m = A – 8 m = 2
correct option. [ the mass number of a radioactive nuclide
7. (b) Davison and Germer performed an experiment decreases by 4 due to emission of one -
to prove that matter has a wave nature. The particle]
experiment was based on electron diffraction.
Again,
t (Z – 2m) + n = Z – 3
1 T1/ 2 [ the atomic number decreases by 2 due to
8 (c) We have, Nt = N0 ,
2 emission of 1 -particle but increases by 1
When due to emission of 1 - particle]
Nt = number of atoms present after time t or –2m + n = –3
N0 = initial number of atoms or 2m – n = 3
T1/2 = half life of the nuclide or (2 × 2) –n = 3 ( m=2)
t 2 n=1
Nt 1 T1/ 2 1 1 T1/ 2
or 13. (b) Rf
N0 2 16 2
2
4 2
1 1 T1/ 2 4 RI
or T1/ 2
2 2 VI – Op – amp Vo
2 1
T1/2 = Hr = Hr T1/2 = 30 min. +
4 2
9. (c) Due to time dilation the interval between two
events at the same point in a moving frame
appears to be longer by a factor For the Op-amp shown above, we have
1 Vo Rf
2 VI RI
v to an observer in a stationary
1
c 2 Comparing this circuit with the given one,
frame. We get VI = 1V, Rf = 10k = 10 × 103
Time dilation is independent of the direction RI = 1k = 1 × 103
of velocity and depends only on its
magnitude. Vo 10 103
Vo = – 10 V
10. (c) The - decay in the case of 234U takes place 1 1 103
as follows : 14. (d) The solid is an n-type semiconductor. In an
234 230 Th 4 n-type semiconductor, the impurity is
92 U 90 2 He
pentavalent which is also called the Donar
11. (a) When electron jumps from the level n = 2 to impurity because one impurity atom generate
the level n = 1, K x - rays are emitted.
Similarly, K x-rays are emitted when there is one electron. The Donor energy level lies
atransition of electron from the level n = 3 to just below the conduction band as shown in
the level n = 1. X-ray spectra has been shown the figure.
below.
O n=5 Conduction band
N n=4
M M Donor levels
M n=3
Valence band
L L L
L n=2 15. (a) We have, ID = IS (e VD / VT 1)
K
K kT
K
K where, VT
e
K n=1
V0
20. (a) The principle of communication using optical
ID VT ID VD fibers is based on the principle of total
1 e or ln 1 internal reflection.
IS IS nVT
ID ID
VD nVT ln 1 = VT ln 1 21. (d) According to quantization of charge, the
IS IS charge of any system is an integral multiple
I majority of the charge of electron which is the least
= VT ln amount of charge on any system.
IS 22. (b) The charge on the capacitor when connected
to the battery is given by
Here, n e (1017 1016 )cm 3
+ – + –
= 1016 (10 1)cm 3
9 1016 cm 3 +
+


+
+


+ – + –
We know that, ne nh ni2 900pF 900pF
n i2 (1.4 1010 )2
nh cm3 + –
ne 9 1016 + –
+
+


Imajority 100 V + –
ne 900pF
Also,
IS nh Q= CV = (900 × 10–12 F) × 100 V = 9 × 10–8 C
When the battery is replaced by another
9 1016 capacitor of 900 pF capacitance, the charge
kT of 9 × 10–8 C is distributed on both. Let Q1
VD ln (1.4 1010 ) 2
e and Q2 be the charge on each of them.
9 1016 Q = Q1 + Q2
= C1V + C2V, where V is the common potential.
kT Q
= ln(4 1012 )
e or V = C C
1 2
16. (c) Here, electric field, E = 106 V/m
width of depletion region, As the two capacitors are in parallel, the
d = 2.5 m = 2.5 × 10–6m equivalent capacitance is given by C = C1 + C2
Potential required for breakdown 1
(V) = Ed = (106 × 2.5 × 10–6) V = 2.5 V Total energy of the capacitors = CV 2
2
Contact Potential = 1.0 V
Reverse biased potential for zener 1 Q2 Q2
breakdown = (2.5 – 1.0) V = 1.5 V = C1 C2 =
2 2 2(C1 C2 )
17. (b) In a colpitt oscillator, the feed-back network C1 C2
consists of two capacitors and one inductor. 2
18. (d) The reverse saturation of p-n diode depends 9 10 8
on the doping concentrations, diffusion =
length and device temperature. 2(900 10 12 900 10 12 )

19. (a) Antenna length = (9) 2 10 16


4 = = 2.25 × 10–6 J
10
1 2 2 9 10
for cosntant velocity,,
l
23. (c) We know that R =
1 A
Antenna length
L
For l = L and A = A; R1
Here, AM FM A
Antenna length for AM should be longer L
than that of FM. For l = and A = 2A;
2
Total charge on the whole solid sphere,
L
R1 R1
2 1 L 1 Qs dQ 4 0 0 rdr
R2 = = R1 0
2A 4 A 4
R12 2
A = 4 0 2 0 R1
For l = 2L and A = ; 2
2 2
QS = 2 0R1 ...(1)
2L L
R3 = 4 R1
A A Now, the total charge on the hollow sphere,
Qh = – (4 R22) ... (2)
2
By question, Qs + Qh = 0
Thus R3 > R1 > R2 2 0R12 = 4 R22
Therefore, the wire having length 2L and area
2
A R2 0 R2 0
has the maximum resistance. R1 2 R1 2
2
24. (d) We know that the electric field at any point 26. (b) A charge Q will be induced on the inner
due to an electric dipole varies inversely with surface of the solid spherical conductor. An
the cube of the distance of the point from equal but opposite charge will be induced
the centre of the dipole, that is, on the outer surface of the conductor. There
will be no charge at a position between the
qE inner and outer surface.
P q
1 +Q
E R
r3 r –Q
– + +Q a
Also, force on a charge (q) is given by

F = qE 1
F
r3 27. (b) The energy stored in a capacitor is given by
When the distance of the charge becomes Q2
2m, i.e. double of its initial value, then new E
force (F´) will become 2C
1 2 0 L
F´ = .F = F Here, C , where
(2) 3
8 R2
ln
25. (c) Let us first calculate the total charge on the R1
soild sphere. L = length of the cylindrical conductor
Let us consider a concentric sphere of radius R1 = inner radius
r and thickness dr. R2 = outer radius
Then volume of thesphere, dV = 4 r2dr
Given, the volume charge density of the Q2
C L E
0
L
sphere = When both Q and L are doubled, by keeping
r
other parameters fixed, the energy stored (E´)
R1 becomes
r dr
(2Q) 2

2L
Charge on this sphere, 2Q 2
L
dQ = .dV
0
.4 r 2 dr = 4 .rdr..
r E´ 2E
28. (c) Redrawing the figure, we get R l
A S 100 l
A where R = unknown resistor
4 S = known resistor
4
l = balancing length
B C 6 6 100R
l
2 S R
When the resistance of the new wire is 8R
2

D D then the new balancing length will be


100 8R 100 8R
(a) (b) l
The 4 and 2 resistors are in series and S 8R (S R) 7R
the same is the case with another 4 and 2 100 8R 800l
resistors. So, the four resistors are equivalent = l' .
100R 100 7l
to following two resistors. 7R
Now, in fig (b) these two 6 resistors are in l
parallel. No option is correct.
6 6 36 32. (b) The transport current flows through the
Equivalent resistance, R = surface of the superconducting wire and not
6 6 12 through the entire area of cross-section of
=3 . the wire.
29. (b) In a conductor, the charge carriers are 33. (c) Here, E = 3 × 104 NC–1
electrons. As the temperature is increased, p = 6 × 10–30 Cm
the collisions of these conduction electrons
with the fixed ions of the lattice of the metal max = ?
increases and hence the resistance of the We have,
conductor also increases. torque acting on a dipole = pE sin
30. (b) If there is no potential difference through a The maximum value of , i.e. max = pE
metallic wire, the current is zero because the 4 –30
electrons drift in a random direction with a max = (3 × 10 × 6 × 10 ) Nm
= 18 × 10–26 Nm
speed of the order of 10–2 cm/s so that the
34. (c) When a metallic plate swings between the
net charge crossing a particular cross-section
poles of a magnet, eddy currents are set up
in a given time is zero.
inside the plate. These currents set up their
31. If the wire is replaced by another wire of same
own magnetic field which opposes the
material but with double the length and half
magnetic field of the poles. Thus, the
the thickness, the resistance of the wire as a
direction of the current opposes the motion
whole will change. Let us calculate this
of the plate.
change.
35. (b) When an electrical appliance is switched on,
L L the electrons in the conducting wires move
Initial resistance, R = with their drift speed which is very less than
A r2
the speed of light. But as soon as the switch
2L 2L is on, an electromagnetic wave is set up inside
Fubak resistance, R ' = 2 the conductor and the electrical signal is
A' r
carried by them. The speed of
2 electromagnetic wave is, of course, equal to
8L L the speed of light and hence the appliance
= =8 = 8R responds almost immediately after the switch
r 2
r2 is made on.
Therefore, the resistance will increase by 36. (b) The circuit shown is a parallel resonant
eight times. 1
In a meter-bridge, we have circuit. The frequency is f = at
2 LC
resonance. Also, at resonance, the
capacitative reactance is equal to the PART - II (CHEMISTRY)
inductive reactance. Therefore, equal current
will flow through both the bulbs b1 and b2. 41. (b) Aliphatic nitro compounds are prepared by
So, both will glow with same brightness. vapour phase nitration of alkanes at 693-
37. (b) In a transformer, the ratio of turns in the 793K, under pressure. Alkanes though less
windings is given by reactive do undergo nitration to give a
N P VP mixture of nitro alkanes resulting through
NS VS cleavage of carbon-carbon bond alongwith
oxidation product like CO2, NO2, H2O etc.
NP 5kV 5000V 675K
NS 240V = 240V = 20.8 CH3CH3 HNO3 CH3CH 2 NO2
(fuming) (80%)
N2A
38. (a) Self - inductance (L) of a solenoid = o CH 3 NO 2
l (20%)
where o = absolute permittivily of space/
air 42. (a) Amides are hydrolysed rapidly by acids to
N = number of turns in the coil produce carboxylic acid and ammonium salt;
A = area of cross-section of the H O
3
solenoid RCONH 2 RCOOH NH 4
l = length of solenoid. Hence acetamide will give acetic acid on
This expression shows that for all three hydrolysis.
solenoids, the self-inductances will be equal. 43. (b) Diazotisation reactions are shown by primary
39. (b) We know that the refractive index of a aromatic amine only as the arene diazonium
medium is given by salt formed is stable at 273-278 K. Compound
co C6H5CH2NH2 is not an aromatic amine, hence
c will not give the test/reaction.
Where c = velocity of light in the medium 44. (a) Secondary nitro alkanes upon hydrolysis
co = velocity of light in vacuum with boiling HCl gives a ketone & nitrous
For crown glass, oxide.
co HCl
1.5 ... (1) 2R 2CHNO 2 2R 2 CO N 2 O H 2O
8 boiling
2 10
co 45. (a) Stephen reduction is partial reduction of alkyl
For flint glass, 1.8 ...(2) or aryl cyanides to give corresponding
c aldehydes with a suspension of anhydrous
2 108 1.8 stannous chloride in ether.
Dividing (2) by (1), we get
c 1.5 SnCl2 2HCl SnCl4 2[H]
8
1.5 2 10 CH3C N 2[H] HCl
or c = m / s = 1.67 × 108 m/s
1.8 Ether
40. (c) Fast moving electrons create electromagnetic CH3CH NH.HCl
A
waves. So, the diffraction pattern will be diamine hydrochloride
observed. Also, the angular width of the
central maximum is given by hydrolysis
CH 3CHO NH 4 Cl
boiling H 2O
2
W= , where a = width of the slit 46. (a) In a colloidal system, the substance present
a
= wavelength of the light. in large amount in the mixture is called the
When the speed of electrons will increase, dispersed medium & the solute is called
the frequency will increase which will result dispersed phase. In case of milk and water
in decreasing the wavelength as the speed solution the dispersed phase is milk protein
of light is a constant. Therefore, the angular & fat and water is dispersed medium.
width will decrease.
47. (b) No. of moles of a compound Hence the Ph– will attack the phosphorous
given mass (gm) in PCl 3 to form organic phosphine with
= Molar mass (gm) formula Ph3P.
3PhMgBr PCl3 Ph 3 P 3MgBrCl
25.6 Triphenylphosphine
i.e. = 0.0748 moles.
342.3 53. (d) Transition elements or d-block elements have
1 mole of sucrose (C12 H22O11) contains 6.022 variable oxidation states, they form coloured
× 1023 molecules of it. compounds because of partially filled d-
Hence 0.0748 moles contains orbitals and also because of small size they
= 6.022 × 1023 × 0.0748 form interstitial compounds. They are stable
= 0.4504 × 1023 molecules. elements and does not show radio activity.
1 molecule of sucrose by formula is having 54. (a) In PCl 5 , phosphorous undergoes sp 3 d
22 atoms of hydrogen. hybridization and has trigonal bipyramidal
0.4504 × 1023 × 1023 × 22 = 9.91 × 1023 geometry. It has two axial chlorine atoms &
atoms of hydrogen. three equatorial chlorine atoms bonded to
48. (c) Milk contains lactose as milk sugar. After the central P.
digestion of milk lactose is broken down by Hence bond angles for axial are 90°, Cl–P–Cl
enzymes lactase to form glucose and & for equatorial Cl–P–Cl it is 120°.
galactose before it enter the blood stream.
49. (b) Out of 20 amino acids, the 10 amino acids Cl
which human body cannot synthesize are 90°
called essential amino acids. The ten Cl
essential amino acids are :
1) Valine 2) Leucine 3) Isolucine 4) Histidine Cl P 120°
5) Phenylanaline 6) Methionine 7)
Tryptophan 8) Lysine 9) Arginine 10) Cl
Threonine.
50. (c) Among the given examples, glucose is an Cl
alcohexose, sucrose is a disaccharide, 55. (a) Magnetic moment of a salt depends upon
fructose is a ketohexose while ribose is a the number of unpaired d-electrons. In Zn 2+
aldopentose.
salt configuration of cation is 4s03d10. Hence
51. (d) To find the oxidation number of a given
compound we have to equate the charge on total no. of unpaired electron, n is zero. So
the overall compound with the charge on magnetic moment i.e.
individual atom of which the compound is B.M. n(n 2) 0.
made of. 56. (a) Formula unit = no. of molecules of CaF2.
In KO3 . K is an alkali metal.
hence its oxidation number is +1. massin gm 146.4 gm
Moles = molar mass 78.08gm 1.875
1
(+1) + 3 × (x) = 0 or x = 0.33
3 Molecules = Mole × 6.022 × 1023
hence oxidation number of oxygen = 1.875 × 6.022 × 1023
i.e. x = –0.33. = 1.129 × 1024 units of CaF2
In Na2 O2, again Na is an alkali metal. 57. (c) For writing IUPAC name of a co-ordination
Hence 2 × (+1) + 2 × x = 0 compound we first write the name of (+) ive
2 complex here. [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
x= 1 The names of ligands will come first in
2 alphabatical order, followed by metal ion with
52. (c) In a reaction the alkyl part of grignard reagent its oxidation state written in bracket or
acts as a nucleophile as carbon is more
parentheis in Roman number i.e. Co (III) here.
electronegative than magnesium. Hence the
IUPAC name for cationic complex
alkyl part will get attached to the electron
deficient species. Pentaamine chloro cobalt (III).
In PCl3, chlorine is more electronegative than This will follow the name of anion with a gap.
phosphorous. i.e. Pentaamine chloro cobalt (III) chloride.
58. (b) Fe (III) ion from ferric nitrate will react with 65. (b) The driving forces which are responsible for
thiocyanate, SCN– ion to form a blood red a process to be spontaneous are :
complex i.e. FeSCN2+. But in presence of i) Tendency for minimizing energy
water it forms a complex containing five water ii)Tendency for maximum randomness. i.e.
molecules. i.e. [Fe (H2O)5 (SCN–)]2+.
maximum entropy
59. (c) Silver nitrate has been used since the
begining of nineteenth century to dye hair. 66. (b) For 1st order reaction.
Silver salts darken when exposed to light and 0.693
silver combines with protein yeilding a dark t½ (half life time) =
K
coloured proteinate.
60. (b) Schottky defect is generally shown by 0.693 0.693
compounds which have ionic nature and Hence K = = = 0.693 ×
t½ (60 40)sec
small difference in the size of cations &
anions. 10–2 sec–1 = 6.93 × 10–3 sec–1
In this defect equal no. of cations & anions 67. (b) Since NaNO3 is formed by the reaction
is found missing from their lattice sites.
61. (d) In [Co(NH3) 6]3+ and {CoF6}3– both the Nacl KNO3 NaNO3 KCl
oxidation state of cobalt ion is +3. In first hence, using Kohlrausch's law
case NH3 is the neutral ligand which is a
o o o o
strong field ligand. m NaNO 3 NaCl KNO 3 KCl
hence the electrons in Co (+III) i.e. 4s03d6
get paired to form inner orbital complex. = 128 + 111 – 152 = 87 S cm2 mol–1
Hence no unpaired electron. 68. (c) As we know that
On the other hand F– is a weak field ligand Ecell = Ecathode – Eanode
hence it forms an outer orbital complex with when Ecathode = Eanode
4 unpaired electrons. Ecell = 0
62. (a) G° = –115 kJ at 298K. If Ecell = 0 no net reaction occurs. The
Now, G° = –2.303 RT log kP reactants and products are at equilibrium and no
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol –1 & T = 298K. current will flow.
G° = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log kP Note that it is only possible to obtain electrical
115 103 work from a system that is not at equilibrium. In
log kP = = 20.155 order for current to flow, there must be a net
2.303 8.314 298 reaction occurring. As the oxidation- reduction
= 20.16 reaction proceeds toward equilibrium, and the
63. (c) For a reaction to take place spontaneously concentrations of the reacting species approach
the value of G must be negative i.e. G< 0. their equilibrium values, the EMF of the cell
Now, G = H– T S. decreases to zero. When the system is at
As the reaction is endothermic, so value of equilibrium, the cell potential is zero and we have
H must be positive, i.e. H > 0. a dead battery.
Hence to have a negative G.
H < T S. As T & P are constant. 69. (c) In CuSO4 solution, oxidation state of Cu is
T S must be positive to give the total value +2. Hence one mole of copper sulphate will
a negative sign. require charge equal to two moles of
Hence S> 0. electrons to form metallic Cu. Mole charge =
64. (b) Any first order reaction follows the equation IF. Hence 2 Faraday is required.
k 70. (c) Rusting of iron is generally promoted in an
log [A] = t + log [A]o acidic aqueous medium. Alkaline medium
2.303
it resembles equation of straight line prevents availability of H+ ions. Sodium
y = mx + C phosphate will cause formation of a
y = log [A] i.e. log10 C protective film of iron phosphate on the iron
k preventing rusting. These solutions are used
m= if x = t & C = log [A]0 in car radiators to prevent rusting of iron
2.303
hence the plot is for a 1st order reaction. parts.
71. (a) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes give 76. (c) The witting reaction is a chemical reaction of
alcohols containing same number of carbon an aldehyde or ketone with triphenyl
atoms. The addition follow anti-Markowi phosphonium ylide to give an alkene and
Koff's rule. Boron atom act as an electrophile. triphenyl phosphine oxide.
Main two steps re involved. Reagent used R
BH3 & NaOH/H2O2.
C = O + (C6 H5)3 P = C
H H H Me H R´
| | | | |
3H3C — C — C— C — C — C— C CH2 BH 3 OR
| | | | | |
H H H H H H R
–+
4 - methyl octene (C6H5)3P – C
Phosphorus ylide R´
R 3B
where R=4-methyl octyl R
C=C + O = P(C6 H5)3
H 2O 2 R´
3CH 3 (CH 2 ) 3 CH (CH 2 ) 3 OH
NaOH | Triphenyl phosphine
Me oxide
4 Methyloctanol
77. (a) Cannizaro's reaction is for those aldehydes
72. (d) Ethyl alcohol on treating with conc. H2SO4
which does not contain - hydrogen atom.
undergoes dehydration to form alkene i.e.
This is also called self oxidation - reduction
ethylene
reaction. Among the given carbonyl
Conc
C2 H5 OH C2 H 4 H 2O compounds only HCHO does not have -
H 2SO4
hydrogen.
OCH3
CHO
73. (b) Anisole is O , Phenyl methyl ether. It 78. (c) O + CO
AlCl3
HCl O
can be prepared by treating phenol first with
a base like NaOH to form phenoxide ion. The When a mixture of CO and HCl gas is passed
phenoxide ion will then substitute the halide through benzene in presence of catalyst
of an R-X molecule, to form methyl phenyl consisting anhydrous AlCl3, benzaldehyde
ether. is formed.
C6 H5ONa CH3 Cl CH3 O C6 H5 CO HCl HOCl
Anisole
formyl chloride
74. (c) Alkaline Potassium permanganate is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises ethylene glycol AlCl3
C6 H 6 HOCl C6 H 5 CHO HCl
to oxalic acid.
79. (b) Maleic acid & fumaric acid are both the
CH2OH COOH
alk. isomers of butene dioic acid. Maleic acid is
KMnO 4 the cis isomer & fumaric is the trans-isomer.
CH2OH COOH
Ethylene Oxalic O O
glycol acid O OH
75. (a) In the structure of diamond each carbon atom OH OH
in sp3 hybridised & is covalently bonded OH O
with four other carbon atom held at the Maleic acid Fumaric acid
corners of a regular tetrahedron by covalent
bonds. This results in a very big three 80. (c) Alkali formate i.e. HCOONa with soda-lime
dimensional polymeric structure in which C i.e. NaOH + CaO will react to give Na2CO3
– C distance is 154 pm and bond angle is and hydrogen gas is liberated.
109.5°. Owing to very strong covalent bonds CaO
HCOONa NaOH Na 2 CO3 H 2
by which atoms are held to gether diamond
is the hardest substance known.
PART - III (MATHS) 1 x
sin
1 1 x2
81. (c) a (b c) b
2 1 1 x
tan x sin
1
(a.c)b (a.b)c b [Vector triple product] 1 x2
2
1 1 x
( a . c cos 2 )b ( a . b cos 1 )c b Now, sin (tan–1x) = sin sin
2 1 x2
[ a b c 1] x
=
Equating the coefficients of b and c on 1 x2
both sides, we get 84. (c) Given that
1 z 25
cos 2 and cos 1 0 5 Z 25 5Z 1
2 z 1
Let Z = x + iy, then
cos 2 cos and cos 1
3 2 x iy 25 5 x iy 1

2 and 1 (x 25) iy 5 (x 1 iy
3 2
82. (d) Vector equation of a sphere in central form Squaring both sides, we get
(x – 25)2 + y2 = 25 {(x – 1)2 + y2}
with centre having position vector c and
radius R is x 2 50x 625 y 2
2
r c R r c R2 25x 2 50x 25 25y 2
24x2 + 24 y2 – 600 = 0
(r c).(r c) R2
x2 + y2 – 25 = 0
r.r r.c c.r c.c R2 |x + iy|2= 25 |Z|2 = 52
|Z| = 5
2 2
r 2(r.c) c R2 85. (c) We have,
2 2 1 3i 1 3i 2 i 2 5i 3i 2
r 2(r.c) c R2 0
2 i 2 i 2 i 4 i2
2
If h c R 2 i.e. c h , then = –1 – i
Now, let us put –1 = r cos , –1 = r sin
2
r 2(r.c) h 0 Squaring and adding, r2 = 2 i.e., r = 2
Hence, the given equation represents a 1 1
sphere. So that cos = , sin =
83. (b) Let tan–1 x = 2 2
Therefore, = 225°
sin sin Thus, argument is 225°.
x tan
cos 1 sin 2 86. (c) Since b and C are the roots of
x2 – 61x + 820 = 0, so
x 1 sin 2 sin b + c = 61, bc = 820
4 4 3
x 2 (1 sin 2 ) sin 2 A tan 1
tan A cos A
3 3 5
x2 sin 2 (1 x 2 ) Now, using the formula,
x2 x b2 c2 a 2
sin 2 sin cos A =
1 x2 1 x2 2bc
a2 = b2 + c2 – 2bc cos A x2 + y2 + z2 + 3x – 4z + 1 = 0,
= (b + c)2 – 2bc – 2bc cos A
3
= (b + c)2 – 2bc (1 + cos A) Centre , 0, 2 , and
2
3
= (61)2 – 2 × 820 1 2
5 3
Radius = 02 (2)2 1
= 3721 – 2624 = 1097 2
87. (d) Equation of first line,
x 6 y 2 z 2 9 21
k(say) 4 1
1 2 2 4 2
x = k + 6, y = –2k + 2, z = 2k + 2 89. (b) Let two fixed points be A (ae, 0) and B (–ae,
Hence, general point on the first line, 0). Let C (x, y) be a moving point such that
P (k + 6, – 2k + 2, 2k + 2) AC + CB = constant = 2a (say)
Equation of second line,
i.e. , (x ae) 2 (y 0)2
x 4 y Z 1
l (say)
3 2 2 (x ae) 2 (y 0)2 2a
x = 3l – 4, y = –2l, z = –2l –1
Hence, general point on the second line, Or x2 y2 a 2e2 2aex
Q (3l – 4, – 2l, –2l – 1)
Direction ratios of PQ are x 2 y 2 a 2e 2 2aex 2a ...(1)
3l – 4 – k –6, –2l + 2k –2, – 2l –1 –2k – 2 Or l + m = 2a ...(2)
i.e. 3l – k – 10, –2l + 2k– 2, – 2l –2k – 3 Where, l2 = x2 + y2 + a2e2 – 2aex ...(3)
Now |PQ| will be the shortest distance and m2 = x2 + y2 + a2e2 + 2aex ...(4)
between the two lines if PQ is perpendicular From, (3) and (4)
to both the lines. Hence, m2 – l2 = 4aex
1(3l k 10) ( 2) or (m – l) (l + m) = 4 aex
2a (m – l) = 4aex [From (2)]
( 2l 2k 2) 2( 2l 2k 3) 0
m – l = 2ex ...(5)
and 3 (3l – k – 10) + (–2) (–2l Adding (2) and (5), we get
+ 2k – 2) + (–2) (–2l – 2k – 3) = 0 m = a + ex ...(6)
i.e. 3l – 9k = 12 or l – 3k = 4 ...(i) From (4) and (6),
and 17l – 3k = 20 ... (ii) a2 +e2 x2 + 2aex = x2 +y2 + a2e2 + 2aex
Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get x2 (1 – e2) + y2 = a2 (1 – e2)
16l = 16 l=1 Dividing both sides by a2 (1 – e2), we get
Putting this value of l in equation (i), we get
– 3k = 3, k = – 1 x2 y2
P (–1 + 6, – 2 (– 1) + 2, 2 (– 1) + 2) 1
a2 a 2 (1 e 2 )
(5, 4, 0)
Similarly, Q = (–1, –2, –3) x2 y2
Hence, shortest distance, PQ, Or 1 , where b2 = a2 (1 – e2)
a2 b2
= ( 1 5)2 ( 2 4)2 ( 3 0)2 This is the equation of ellipse.
90. (d) The equation of the parabola is
= ( 6)2 ( 6)2 ( 3)2 = 36 36 9
y2 4x 3 0
= 9 units
88. (c) Since the centre and radius of the sphere 3
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0 are or y2 4 x ...(1)
4
(–u, –v, – w) and u 2 v 2 w2 d The directrix of the parabola
respectively. So, for the sphere Y2 = – 4aX ... (2)
is X = a.
On comparing the equation (1) and (2), we 93. (b) Check the continuity of the function
3 f (x) = [tan2 x] at x = 0.
get 4a = 4 and X x L.H.L. (at x = 0)
4
2
3 = lim [tan x] lim [tan 2 (0 h)]
x 0 h 0
or a= 1 and X x
4 2 2
Hence the directrix of the parabola (1) is = lim [tan h] [tan 0] [0] 0
h 0
3 1 R.H.L. (at x = 0)
x 1or x 0.
4 4 2
= lim [tan x] lim [tan 2 (0 h)]
91. (b) g (x). g(y) = g(x) + g (y) + g (x y) – 2 ...(1) x 0 h 0
Put x = 1, y = 2, then
2 2
g (1). g(2) = g (1) + g (2) + g (2) – 2 = lim [tan h] [tan 0] [0] 0
5g (1) = g (1) + 5 + 5 – 2 h 0
4g (1) = 8 g(1) = 2 Now, determine the value of f(x) at x = 0.
f (0) = [tan 2 0] = [0] = 0
1 Hence, f (x) is continuous at x = 0.
Put y in equation (1) , we get
x 94. (c) Let r and V be the respectively radius and
1 1 volume of the balloon. Let t represents the
g(x).g g(x) g g(1) 2 time. The rate of increament in radius is
x x
dr
1 1 2 cm/minute. The volume of the
g(x).g g(x) g 2 2 dt
x x balloon is given by
[ g(1) 2] 4 3
V r
This is valid only for the polynomial 3
g (x) = 1 + xn ... (2) Differentiating w.r. to t, we get
Now g (2) = 5 (Given)
1 + 2n = 5 dV 4 dr
[Using equation (2)] (3r 2 )
+ 2n = 4, 2n = 4, –4 dt 3 dt
Since the value of 2n cannot be –Ve. dr
So, 2n = 4, n = 2 Substituting the values of and , we get
Now, put n = 2 in equation (2), we get dt
g (x) = 1 + x2 dV 4
(3 52 2) 200 cm3 / minute
2
Lt g(x) = Lt (1 x ) = 1 + (3)2 dt 3
x 3 x 3 95. (a) On comparing the equation of the parabola
= 1 + 9 = 10, – 8 y2 = 12 x with the standard equation,
y2 = 4 ax, we get 4 a = 12 or a = 3.
ex 2x
92. (d) f (x) y
x
A(3, 6)
1 x x2 x3 log 2
=x (1 ..) 1 x
1! 2! 3! 1!

(bg 2) 2 2 (log 2)3 3


x x ..
2! 3! x
C (3, 0)
(0, 0) O
x
f(x) = log 2 1 {(log 2) 2 1}
2!
x2
{(log 2 )3 1} ....
3!
Putting x = 0, we get
f(0) = log 2 – 1 + 0 + 0 + .... = – 1 + log 2. B (3, –6)
Hence, the focus, point C will be at (3, 0) and
1
the extremities of the latus-rectum AB will be = 3.6 2 18log 6 6 2 18 log 6
at (a, 2a) and (a, –2a). So the coordinates of 3
A and B are (3, 6) and (3, –6) respectively.
6(1 2)
Now we need to find the length ( curve AOB) = 6 2 6log
of the parabola. As it is not a straight line so 6
we cannot directly find the length of this
curve as we cannot directly apply = 6 ( 2 log(1 2)
Pythagorous theorem. Let us consider a small
length ds on the parabola. Using x5 x 3 .x 2
pythagorous theorem for this length, 96. (d) I dxdx
1 x3 1 x3
dx
2 Let 1 + x3 = t2, so that 3x2 dx = 2t dt
ds = 2 2 = 1dy
(dx) (dy) dy 2
x 2 dx td t
3
2
6 dx 2
s
6
1 .dy ...(1) (t 2 1) t dt
dy 3 2 2
I t 1)dt
t 3
y2 1
From y2 = 12 x x= 2 t3 2 (1 x 3 )3 / 2
12 = t C (1 x 3 ) 2 C
3 3 3
3
dx 2y y
Putting in (1), 2 2
dy 12 6 = (1 x 3 )3 / 2 (1 x 3 )1/ 2 C
9 3
6 2 6
y y2 36 97. (d) The given curve is
s 1 dy 2 dy
6
6
0
36 [4(x 2)2 y2 ] 8
8
2
6
2 2 4(x 2) 2 y2
= 6 y 6 dy
0 2
y 2
x 2 (x 2)2
2 2 2 2
Using x a a x
2
a2 (x 2)2 y2
log x a 2
x 2
C 1
2 2
2 2 2 ...(1)
2
2
1 y 2 6
We get s 6 y2
3 2 2 This is the equation of the ellipse having

6
centre ( 2, 0 ).
2 2 Observe the figure of ellipse (1). The centre
log y 6 y C
0
2
1 6 2 P is ( 2, 0 ). A and B are 2, , 0 and
= 6 62 18log 6 6 2
6 2
3 2
2
C 0 18log 0 62 0 C 2 , 0 respectively..
y Q
1 1
=8 (0) + sin –1 (1)–0–0

1
8 4 square units.
2
98. (c) Let x = cos2 , so that dx = – 2a sin cos d
2 ,0 2 ,0
2 2 a a x 0 a a cos2
( 2, 0)
Now dx
O A P B 0 x 2 a cos 2
( a sin cos )d

[ at x 0; 0 at x a]
2

/2 1 cos 2
=a 0 2sin cos d
cos 2
The required area = 4 × area of figure PQB 0 t
f (x) dx f (x) dx
2 t 0
2
=4 ydx
2 /2 sin
2
=a 2 .sin cos
2 0 cos
8
=4 4(x 2) 2 dx /2 /2
2
=a 2sin 2 =a (1 cos 2 ) d
2 2
0 0
2 2
4 2 (x 2) 2 dx [ cos 2 1 2sin 2 ]
2
/2
sin 2
x 2 2 =a
2)2 2 0
=8 2
(x
sin
2
2 =a (0 0)
(2 / ) x 2 2 2
1
sin
2 2/ a
2
=a 0
a 2
x
2 2
1 1
a2 x 2 dx x a2 x2 sin C 99. (b) According to the question,
2 2 a
dy dy
2 y ky
2 2 dt dt
2 2 2
8 ( 2 2)
= 2 x dy
Separating the variables, we get kdt
dt

2 dy
2 2 Integrating both sides, we get k dt
1 1 2 2 y
sin
2 2 log y = k t + M (as y cannot be –ve)
y = ekt+M y = eM . ekt
y = C ekt, where C = eM
2 1 2 2 Constant k cannot be positive because the
( 2 2) 2 sin 1
2/ population never increases in time. And
another constant C cannot be negative This is the linear differential equation.
because of eM > 0 always. dy dv
Hence y = Cekt, for some constants C > 0 and Put y = vx, so that v x . Then
dx dx
k < 0.
100. (b) The given circle is, x2 + y2 = a2 dv vx x 2 v2 x 2
Differentiating with respect to x, we get v x
dx x
dy dy dv
2x 2y 0 x y 0 v x v 1 v2
dx dx dx
2
dy dv dx
x y 0 (Squaring both sides)
dx 1 v2 x
2 Integrating both sides, we get
dy dy
x2 2xy y2 0 dv dx
dx dx
1 v 2 x
2
dy 2 2 dy
2xy x y log(v 1 v2 ) log x log C
dx dx
2 v 1 v2 Cx
2 2 dy dy
y x 2xy
dx dx y y2
1 Cx [ y vx]
dy
2
dy
2 x x2
2 2 2 2
x y x y
dx dx y x2 y2 Cx 2
2 103. (b) ~ Q S ~S Q
2 dy
(Adding y x2 both sides) But ~ S R
dx
Q R, True [As P Q R P]
2 2
dy dy Hence ~ Q S is true
y x a2 1
dx dx 104. (d) We know that the number of ways of
dividing (m+n+p) things into three groups
containing m, n and p things respectively
x2 y2 a2
(m n p)!
dy dy m!n!p!
101. (b) y 3 0 Since 0, y 0
dx dx Further if any two groups out of the three
have same number of things then number of
dy ways
y 3 3
dx (m n p)!
dy m!n!p! 2
Hence y 3 0 is not possible.
dx Hence number of ways to divide 10 students
Therefore, the given differential equation has into three teams one containing four students
no solution. and each remaining two teams contain three
102. (b) The given differential equation is 10! 10 9 8 7 6 5
= 4! 3! 3! 2 = = 2100
xdy ydx x2 y2 dx 0 3 2 3 2 2
105. (d) We observe the following properties :
xdy y x2 y2 dx Reflexivity - Let a be an arbitrary element.
Then,

(y x2 y2 a a 0| 0 a R/ a
dy
This, R is not reflexive on R.
dx x
Symmetry – Let a and b be two distinct 2 2
n 3 1
elements, then (a, b) R Cr pr q n r 4
C2
4 4
|a – b| > 0 |b – a| > 0
a b b a 3 3 1 27
=6
4 4 4 4 128
(b, a) R 109. (b) Performance of the class will be best if mean
Thus, (a, b) R (b, a) R. So, R is of the marks obtained is maximum but
symmetric. standard deviation of the marks obtained is
Transitivity – Let (a, b) R and (b, c) R. minimum.
Then |a – b| > 0 and |b – c| > 0 Hence the class which has mean and
|a – c| > 0 (a, c) R standard deviation of the marks obtained as
So, R is transitive. 75 and 5 respectively performs best.
106. (a) Let S = {ai } where i = 1.2.....n 110. (b) Mean, np = ; and variance, npq = where n
From commutative operations, = number of trials and p + q = 1.
a i *a j a j *ai … (i) i, j 1, 2,3....n npq
So, q (1 p)
where * represents a binary operation np
Number of distinct elements in S × S
0 p 1
i.e., {a i } {a j} subject to the condition (i)
–1< – p < 0 0<1–p<1
i 1,2...n j 1,2...n

= n{(a1, a1 ), (a1, a 2 )......(a1, a n ), 0 1 0< <


(a 2 , a 2 ), (a 2 , a 3 ),....(a 2 , a n ), 111. (b) x + y + z = 0 ...(1)
...(a n 1, a n 1 ), (a n 1 , a n ), (a n ,a n ) 2x + 3y + z = 0 ...(2)
x + 2y = 0 ... (3)
n(n 1) From equation (3), we have
n (n 1) (n 2) .... 2 1 x = – 2y
2
No. of commutative binary operations Putting this value of x in equations (1), we
= No. of functions f : S × S S subject to (i) get – 2y + y + z = 0 y = z
Hence x = – 2z
n(n 1)
n(n 1) Thus, the solution of the given system of
= n.n.n.... times n 2 equations is (–2z, z, z), where z is a parameter
2
(Z R). Hence the system has infinite
107. (b) Poisson distribution is a probability
number of solutions including zero solution.
distribution which is obtained when the
probability (p) of the happening of an event 2 2
0 a 0 a 0 a
is same in all the trials and there are only two 112. (d) Here,
b 0 b 0 b 0
events in each trials generally says
successes and failures probability (p) of the 0 ab 0 0 ab 0
happening of the event in trial is very less = 0 0 ab 0 = 0 ab
but number of trials (n) is very large.
5 1 4
Here, p = 5% = is very less and 0 a ab 0 ab 0
100 20 Similarly,
b 0 0 ab 0 ab
n = 100, is very large. Hence, one has to
employ the Poisson distribution in the given a 2 b2 0 0 0 a2b2 0
question. = =
108. (d) The probability that a component survives 0 0 0 a2b2 0 a 2 b2
1 Now,
is p = . Then q = 1 – p = 1
4 4 4 4 a 2 b2 0 1 0
0 a
[ p q 1] I 2 2
b 0 0 a b 0 1
n takes the value 4 and r = 2. Hence the
required probability is a2b2 =1 ab = 1
113. (d) D = diag (d1, d2, ..., dn)
d1 1 0 0 0
d1 0 0 0
0 d2 0 0 0 d 21 0 0
1
0 0 d3 0 0 0 d3 0
D

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 d n1

d1 0 0 0 = diag ( d1 1 , d 2 1,...., d n 1 )
0 d2 0 0
a b y c z
0 0 d3 0
D 114. (d) a x b c z 0
a x b y c

0 0 0 0 0 a(bc bc bz cy yz) (b y)
= d1 d2 d3 ....... dn (ac cx ac az cx zx) (c z)
(ab ay bx xy ab bx) 0
d 2 d 3d 4 ...dn 0 0 0 abz + acy – ayz – abz + bzx + ayz –
0 d1d 3d 4 ...dn 0 0
0 0 d1d 2 d 4 ...dn 0 xyz – acy + cxy + ayz – xyz = 0
adj(D)
ayz bzx cxy 2xyz 0
0 0 0 0 d1d 2 d 3 ...d n 1 a b c
2 0 (Dividing by xyz)
1 1 x y z
d adj (D)
D a b c
2
1 x y z
adj(D)
d1d 2 d3....d n 115. (c) x2 – n = 0 x n
d 2 d3d 4 ...dn 0 0 0 For each integral value of x [1, 40], There is
0 d1d3 d 4 ...dn 0 0 a positive root. Hence for 40 integral values
0 0 d1d 2 d 4 ...dn 0 of x from 1 to 40, there are 40 positive roots,
out of which only six roots 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
are positive integral roots. Hence, probability
0 0 0 0 d1d 2 d3 ...d n 1
6 3
of getting positive integral roots =
40 20
1
0 0 0
d1 116. (a) x4 x4 20 22
1
0 0 0 or x4 – 22 =x 4 20
d2 4
Put x = y and square both the sides.
1 (y – 22)2 = y + 20
0 0 0
d3 y2 + 484 – 44y = y + 20
y2 – 45y + 464 = 0
y2 – 29y – 16y + 464 = 0
1 (y – 29) (y – 16) = 0
0 0 0 0 y = 16, 29
dn
x4 = 16, 29 or x = + 2, + 2.31
117. (c) Since , be the roots of the equation
i j k .[i (3 ) j (2 1)k] 0
x2 – ax + b = 0, so each of them must satisfy
the equation. Therefore 1 (3 ) (2 1) 0
2 2
a b 0 ...(1) and a b 0 3 3 0 1
...(2) Substituting this value for in (i), we get the
Now, An + 1 – a An + b An–1 = n+1 + n+1 required plane r.(i 2j 3k) 0
– a ( n n) + b ( n–1 + n–1)
= n–1 ( – a + b) + n–1( 2 – a + b)
2 120. (d) In the figure, OAC is a triangle and OB is a
n–1 median such that
= (0) + n–1(0) = 0 [From (1) & (2)]
118. (a) Let the sides of the triangle be a – d, a, a+d, OA a i ˆj kˆ
where d is greater than zero. From the figure,
it is clear that the angles A and C are acute OB b 2i 4ˆj 3kˆ
angles. Now, by the theorem of Pythagorus,
OC c (say)
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
(a + d)2 = a2 + (a – d)2 O
a2 + d2 + 2ad = a2 + a2 + d2 – 2ad
4ad = a2 d = a/4

A a
b
a+d

a
A B C

OA OC 2OB
B a–d C a c 2b
c 2b a 2(2iˆ 4jˆ 3k)
ˆ (iˆ ˆj k)
ˆ
a
a = (3iˆ 9jˆ 5k)
ˆ
a d 4 3
sin A Now, the area of the triangle,
a d a 5
a
4 1 1
OA OC a c
2 2
a 4 a Here,
sin C
a d a 5
a ˆi ˆj k
4
119. (a) The plane containing the line of intersection a c 1 1 1
3 9 5
of the planes r.(i 3j k) 0 and

r.( j 2k) 0 is = ˆi( 5 9) ˆj(5 3) k(9


ˆ 3)

r.(i 3j k) [r.( j 2k)] 0


ˆ = 2( 7iˆ ˆj 6k)
= 14iˆ 2jˆ 12k ˆ

r.[i (3 ) j (2 1)k] 0 ...(1) a c = 2 ( 7)2 ( 1)2 (6)2


Since the plane (i) passes through the point = 2 49 1 36 2 86
(–1, –1, –1) or ( i j k ), so this point must 1
2 86 86 .
satisfy (i). Hence, 2

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