Common Entrance Test 2020

Organized by SVNIRTAR, Cuttack

Exam Date : 2-08-2020

Q1.
Silver reacts with hydro chloric acid to give ________:
A
AgCl
B
H2
C
AgH
D
No reaction

Ans:
D
No reaction
Explanation:
Silver cannot replace H from HCl as it is placed at bottom of H in reactivity series, hence less
reactive then H.
Q2.
Photochemical smog is also called as:
A
Callfomla type smog.
B
Tokyo type smog.
C
Los Angeles type smog.
D
New York type smog.
Ans:
C
Los Angeles type smog.
Explanation:
In Los Angeles, a type of air pollution derived from vehicular emission from internal
combustion engines and industrial fumes reacted in the atmosphere with sunlight to form
secondary pollutants that combined with the primary emissions to form photochemical smog.
Los Angeles was one of the best-known cities suffering from photochemical smog for much
of the 20th century to such a great extent that it was sometimes said that Los Angeles was a
synonym for smog.
Q3.
The product of the magnitude of the charge and the distance between the centres of
positive and negative charge is called:
A
Charge ratio.
B
Dipole moment.
C
Current flow.
D
Magnetic moment.

Ans:
A
Charge ratio.
B
Dipole moment.
Explanation:
As a result of polarisation, the molecule possesses the dipole moment which can be defined
as the product of magnitude of the charge and the distance between the centres of positive
and negative charge.
Q4.
Apatite is an ore of:
A
Fluorine.
B
Chlorine.
C
Bromine.
D
Iodine.

Ans:
A
Fluorine.
Explanation:
Apatite is CaF2?·3Ca3?(PO4?)2?
∴∴ It is an ore of fluorine with calcium.
Q5.
Dry ice is:
A
Solid NH3.
B
Solid SO2.
C
Solid CO2.
D
Solid N2.

Ans:
A
Solid NH3.
Explanation:
Solid CO2 is called dry ice becaouse it is used for making ice bath for organic reaction in
laboratory. It is prepared by cooling CO2 gas at high pressure.
Q6.
All gases obey Charle's law at:
A
Low temperature and high pressure.
B
Low temperature and low pressure.
C
High temperature and high pressure.
D
High temperature and low pressure.

Ans:
A
Low temperature and high pressure.
D
High temperature and low pressure.
Explanation:
All gases obey Charle's law at very low pressures and high temperatures.
Q7.
The element with configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 would be:
A
A metal
B
A non-metal
C
A inert gas
D
A metalloid

Ans:
A
A metal
Explanation:
Since, it has two valence electrons, it is a part of alkaline earth metals, therefore, it is a metal.
Q8.
The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is:
A
−1
B
−3
C
+1
D
+3

Ans:
A
−1
Explanation:
The oxidation number of colbalt in K[Co(CO)4?] is:
+1 + x + 0 × 4 = 0
∴∴ x = -1.
Q9.
Maximum entropy will be in which of the following?
A
Ice.
B
Liquid water.
C
Snow.
D
Water vapour.

Ans:
D
Water vapour.
Q10.
Which of the following greenhouse gas is released in paddy field?
A
CFCs
B
CH4
C
SO2
D
All of these

Ans:
D
All of these
Q11.
The alkali metals are low melting. Which of the following alkali metal is expected to melt if
the room temperature rises to 30°C?
A
Na.
B
K.
C
Rb.
D
Cs.

Ans:
B
K.
D
Cs.
Explanation:
Among alkali metals, melting point decreases as the strength of metallic bonding decreases
with increasing size of the atom. Thus, Cs has the lowest melting point (28.5°C) and will melt
at 30°C.
Q12.
As the rain water is the purest form of water, this can be used in lab due to:
A
presence of ions
B
absence of ions
C
good smell
D
easy availability

Ans:
B
absence of ions
Explanation:
Rainwater is considered to the purest form of water. Impurities and salts present in the water
on earth are left behind during vapourization by the sun.
This water can be used in labs due to the absence of ions. This water is similar to distilled
water. Distilled water is used in Labs because of a little combination of impure water could
affect the experiment.
Q13.
The electronic configuration of silicon is _________ and that of sulphur is _________ .
A
Silicon - 2, 8, 1; Sulphur - 2, 8, 6
B
Silicon - 2, 8, 4; Sulphur - 2, 8, 3
C
Silicon - 2, 8, 2; Sulphur - 2, 8, 6
D
Silicon - 2, 8, 4; Sulphur - 2, 8, 6

Ans:
D
Silicon - 2, 8, 4; Sulphur - 2, 8, 6
Explanation:
Atomic no. of Si is 14 & the electronic configuration: 2, 8, 4
Atomic no. of S is 16 & the electronic configuration: 2, 8, 6
First shell has 2 electrons. second shell can have a maximum of 8 electrons. the next shell can
hold a maximum of 8 electrons as well.
Q14.
Which of the following chemical is released by chlorofluorocarbon that is harmful to ozone ?
A
Fluorine.
B
Sulphur dioxide.
C
Nitrogen peroxide.
D
Chlorine.

Ans:
D
Chlorine.
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons are the compounds which are used as coolants in the air conditioning
systems, refrigerators, coolers, etc. The CFCs, when released into the atmosphere, react with
UV rays to form chlorine atoms which destroy the ozone layer and results in the thinning out
of the ozone layer also known as the ozone hole.
Q15.
Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?
A
CuO+H2 −−−→Cu+H2OCuO+H2→ Cu+H2O
B
Fe2O3+3CO −−−→2Fe+3CO2Fe2O3+3CO→ 2Fe+3CO2
C
2K+F2 −−→2KF2K+F2→ 2KF
D
BaCl2+H2SO4 −−→BaSO4+2HClBaCl2+H2SO4→ BaSO4+2HCl

Ans:
D
BaCl2+H2SO4 −−→BaSO4+2HClBaCl2+H2SO4→ BaSO4+2HCl
Explanation:
BaCl2+H2SO4 −−→BaSO4+2HClBaCl2+H2SO4→ BaSO4+2HCl is not a redox reaction.
It is an example of double displacement reactions.
Q16.
The compound shown is a _______ amine.
A
1° aryl
B
1° arylalkyl
C
2° aryl
D
2° arylalkyl

Ans:
A
1° aryl
Explanation:
Only one hydrogen atom is replaced by an aromatic group, in which the nitrogen is directly
linked to the sp2 hybridised carbon of benzene ring. Hence, it is a primary aromatic aryl amine.
Q17.
A biological catalyst is essentially:
A
An enzyme
B
A carbohydrate
C
An amino acid
D
A nitrogenous base

Ans:
A
An enzyme
Explanation:
Explanation of the correct option:
Enzymes are naturally occurring simple or conjugate proteins acting as specific catalysts in
cell processes.
The enzyme facilitates a biochemical reaction by providing alternative lower activation energy
pathways thereby increasing the rate of reaction.
Hence they are called biological catalysts.
Q18.
Which sol can be prepared directly by mixing the dispersed phase with dispersion medium?
A
Lyophobic sol.
B
Lyophilic sol.
C
Both.
D
None.

Ans:
B
Lyophilic sol.
Explanation:
Sol is those in which the dispersed phase exhibits a definite affinity for the dispersion
medium(liquid) or the solvent. For eg. Dispersion of starch, gum, & protein in water. The
affinity of sol particles for the medium is due to hydrogen bonding with water(dispersion
medium). They may have little or no charge at all & they do not exhibit Tyndall effect. These
sols are reversible in nature i.e., if two constituents of the sol are separated by any means
(such as evaporation), then the sol can be prepared again by simply mixing the dispersion
medium with the dispersion phase and shaking the mixture.
Q19.
Starch is converted into maltose by an enzyme:
A
Maltase
B
Zymase
C
Diastase
D
Invertage

Ans:
C
Diastase
Explanation:
Starch is converted into maltose by an enzyme diastase. During this process, in this regime
the diastatic enzymes start acting on the starches, breaking them up into sugars (hence the
term saccharification).
The amylases are enzymes that work by hydrolyzing the straight chain bonds between the
individual glucose molecules that make up the starch chain. A single straight chain starch is
called an amylose.
A branched starch chain (which can be considered as being built from amylose chains) is called
an amylopectin. These starches are polar molecules and have different ends.
Q20.
Which type of polymer is the Buna - S - rubber?
A
Homo polymer
B
Condensation polymer
C
Copolymer
D
None of the above

Ans:
C
Copolymer
Explanation:
Buna - S Rubber: It is a random co - polymer formed by the emulsion polymerisation of a
mixture of 1, 3 butadiene and styrene in the presence of peroxide catalyst at 5 degree Celsius
and therefore the product is called as cold rubber.
Copolymer is the right answer.

Q21.
Alumina thermite process involves reduction of chromium (II) oxide with ..................... .
A
Copper
B
Zinc
C
Iron
D
Aluminium

Ans:
D
Aluminium
Explanation:
Aluminium is used in thermite process as it has high boiling point, low cost and more reactivity
than many of the d-block metals. Oxidizers used are boron(III) oxide, chromium(III) oxide,
iron(II, III) oxide and copper(II) oxide.
Q22.
Soap lather is an example of:
A
Foam.
B
Sol.
C
Emulsion.
D
Gel.

Ans:
A
Foam.
Explanation:
Soap lather is an example of foam. Dispersion medium is liquid and dispersed phase is gas.
Q23.
Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
A
(CH3)3C−F
B
(CH3)3C−Cl
C
(CH3)3C−Br
D
(CH3)3C−I

Ans:
D
(CH3)3C−I
Explanation:
Due to large size, iodide ion have less density of charge so it will be most stable and it will
follow reaction most easily.
Q24.
Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation:
C6H5CH2NH2+R−X −−→C6H5CH2NHRC6H5CH2NH2+R−X→ C6H5CH2NHR
Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this reaction through S N1 mechanism?
A
CH3Br
B
C6H5Br
C
C6H5CH2Br
D
C2H5Br

Ans:
C
C6H5CH2Br
Explanation:
SN1 reaction proceeds through the formation of carbocation since in C 6H5CH2Br benzyl
carbocation is formed which is stabilized by resonance.
Q25.
Cryolite, Na3AlF6 is added to Al2O3 in Hall-Heroult process to ____ m.p. and to ___________
electrical conductivity.
A
Higher, increase
B
Higher, decrease
C
Lower, increase
D
Lower, decrease

Ans:
C
Lower, increase
Explanation:
In the Hall–Héroult process alumina, Al2?O3?, is dissolved in molten cryolite, Na3?AlF6? to
lower its melting point for easier electrolysis. It also increases the conductivity of the solution.
Q26.
What is the hybridisation of carbon and oxygen in electronic structure of ether?
A
sp3 and sp2
B
sp3 and sp3
C
sp and sp
D
sp2 and sp2

Ans:
B
sp3 and sp3
Explanation:
sp3 (4-bond pairs) and sp3 (2-bond pairs and 2-lone pairs) hybridisations of carbon and oxygen
in the electronic structure of an ether.

Q27.
The inert gas present in the second long period is:
A
Kr
B
Xe
C
Ar
D
Rn

Ans:
B
Xe
Explanation:
Periods 4 and 5 are called long periods as they contain 18 elements each.
4th period is called the first long period and the inert gas in this period is Kr.
5th period is the second long period where Xe is the inert gas element.
Q28.
Which of the following belongs to actinoid series of elements?
A
Nd
B
U
C
Sm
D
Au

Ans:
B
U
Explanation:
Uranium belongs to actinoid series of elements. Neodymium and Samarium belongs to
lanthanide series. Gold belongs to d-block.
Q29.
What are used to control body temperature during fever?
A
Antipyretics
B
Analgesics
C
Antidiuretics
D
Antibiotic

Ans:
A
Antipyretics
Explanation:
Antipyretics are substances that reduce fever. Antipyretics cause the hypothalamus to
override an interleukin - induced increase in temperature. The body then works to lower the
temperature, resulting in a reduction in fever.
Q30.
What is the geometry of ammonia molecule?
A
Trigonal planar
B
Square planar
C
Linear
D
Pyramidal

Ans:
D
Pyramidal
Explanation:
The nitrogen atom of ammonia undergoes hybridisation to form 4 sp3 orbitals. Three of these
overlap with s orbital of H forming three N-H bonds.
This results in a pyramidal geometry with N atom at the apex and three H atoms at the corners
of a triangle base.
Q31.
In which year was the Indian Space Research Organisation founded?
A
1967
B
1969
C
1970
D
1972

Ans:
B
1969
Explanation:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was founded in 1969.
Q32.
If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between them Is
doubled:
A
Is doubled.
B
Becomes 4 times.
C
Is reduced to half.
D
Is reduced to a quarter.

Ans:
D
Is reduced to a quarter.
Explanation:
According to Newton's law of law of gravitational force of gravitational is inversely
proportional to the square of distance between the bodies so distance is doubled force of
gravitational will reduce by 1414
Q33.
A 20cm long capillary tube is dipped vertically in water and the liquid rises upto 10cm. If the
entire system is kept in a freely falling platform, the length of the water column in the tube
will be:
A
5cm
B
10cm
C
15cm
D
20cm
Ans:
D
20cm
Explanation:
The height raised by liquid in capillary tube
H=21cosθρghH=21cos⁡𝜃𝜌gh
Where H is rise in the capillary tube.
As in freely falling platform, a body experience weightlessness.
Q34.
Two waves represented by y1=a sin ωty1=a sin 𝜔t and y2=a sin (ωt+ϕ)y2=a
sin (𝜔t+𝜙) and ϕ=π2𝜙=𝜋2 are superposed at any point at a particular instant. The resultant
amplitude is:
A
a
B
4a
C
√ 2 a2a
D
zero

Ans:
C
√ 2 a2a
Explanation:
Since the angle between them is 90, so cos 90° = 0
So, R=√ a2+a2 =√ 2 aR=a2+a2=2a
Q35.
It is found that |A+B|=|A|.|A+B|=|A|. This necessarily implies:
A
B=0B=0
B
A, B are antiparallel.
C
A, B are perpendicular.
D
A.B=0A.B=0

Ans:
A
B=0B=0
Explanation:
|→A+→B|=|→A||A→+B→|=|A→|
Applying dot product,
|→A+→B|.|→A+→B|=|→A|.|→A||A→+B→|.|A→+B→|=|A→|.|A→|
⇒ |→A|2+2→A.→B+|→B|2=|A|2⇒ |A→|2+2A→.B→+|B→|2=|A|2
⇒ |→B|2=−2→A.→B⇒ |B→|2=−2A→.B→
⇒ |→B|=0⇒ |B→|=0
Therefore, option (a) is correct.
Q36.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power
supplying energy. Which of the diagrams shown in correctly shows the displacement-time
curve for its motion?

Ans:
Explanation:
For constant power
Displacement ∝t32∝t32
Because, P=→F⋅→dsdt=→F⋅→v=constantP=F→⋅ds→dt=F→⋅v→=constant
(∵(∵ P = constant according to the problem))
Now, will by dimensional analysis
[F][v] = constant
? [MLT-2][LT-1] = constant
? L2T-3 = constant (∵(∵ mass is constant))
⇒L∝T ⇒L∝T32
32

⇒ Displacement (d)∝t ⇒ Displacement (d)∝t32

32

Q37.
A block of mass 10kg is suspended through two light spring balances as shown in figure:

A
Both the scales will read 10kg.
B
Both the scales will read 5kg.
C
The upper scale will read 10kg and the lower zero.
D
The readings may be anything but their sum will he 10kg.

Ans:
A
Both the scales will read 10kg.
Explanation:

From the free-body diagram,

K1x1 = mg = 10 × 9.8 = 98N
K2x2 = K1x1
So, K1x1 = K2x2 = 98N
Q38.
Two bodies of masses 2Kg and 7Kg are moving with velocities of 2m/ s and 7m/ s
respectively. What is the total momentum of the system in Kg-m/ s?
A
50
B
53
C
28
D
0

Ans:
B
53
Explanation:
Both the bodies are moving with constant velocity, hence both of them have momentum. The
momentum of the system is the sum of the momenta of the bodies. Hence total momentum
= 2 × 2 + 7 ×7 = 53Kg-m/ s.
Q39.
The material of prism used for obtaining spectrum of heat radiations is:
A
Rock salt
B
Quartz
C
Flint glass
D
Crown glass

Ans:
A
Rock salt
Explanation:
We can't use any kinds of glass to get a heat radiation spectrum, because glass absorbs
infrared radiation.
Rock salt doesn't absorb infrared radiation and hence it can be used.
Q40.
Which of the following is not the contribution of Sir Issac Newton?
A
Universal Law of Gravitation
B
Laws of Motion
C
Ultra Short Radio Waves
D
Reflecting Telescope

Ans:
C
Ultra Short Radio Waves
Explanation:
Sir J. C. Bose discovered Ultra Short Radio Waves.
Q41.
Light : Ray : : Sound : ?
A
Hear
B
Wave
C
Audio
D
Pitch

Ans:
B
Wave
Explanation:
The Light has particle nature.
These particles (i.e photons) propagate in from of Rays.
Whereas in case of sound, it propagates in the from of pressure waves.
Q42.
The depth of the troughs of a wave is called its:
A
Amplitude
B
Displacement
C
Frequency
D
None of these

Ans:
A
Amplitude
Explanation:
The depth of troughs of a wave is max distance a particle can cover from mean position and
which is amplitude.
Q43.
The escape velocity of a projectile from the earth is approximately:
A
7km/ sec
B
112km/ sec
C
11.2km/ sec
D
1.1km/ sec

Ans:
C
11.2km/ sec
Explanation:
The escape velocity of projectile from earth is
ve=√ 2gRe ,ve=2gRe, where Re? is radius of earth
since g = 9.8m/ sec2,Re? = 6.4 × 106 metre
? ve ?= 11.2km/ sec
Q44.
In circular motion, the:
A
Direction of motion is fixed
B
Direction of motion changes continuously
C
Acceleration is zero
D
Velocity is constant

Ans:
B
Direction of motion changes continuously
Explanation:
The speed of the ball is constant. It traces a circle with a fixed center.

The body forms a circle by moving in a rounded path. With respect of time, the body's
direction is always changing.
Along the rounded path, the body moves in a tangential motion.
Q45.
Two source S1 and S2 of intensity I1 and I2 are placed in front of a screen [Fig. (a)]. The
patteren of intensity distribution seen in the central portion is given by Fig. (b).
In this case which of the following statements are true.
A
S1 and S2 have the same intensities.
B
S1 and S2 have a constant phase difference.
C
S1 and S2 have the same phase.
D
S1 and S2 have the same wavelength.

Ans:
A
S1 and S2 have the same intensities.
B
S1 and S2 have a constant phase difference.
D
S1 and S2 have the same wavelength.
Explanation:
Key concept:
For two coherent sources, the resultant intensity is given
bt I=I1+I2+2√ I1I2 cosϕI=I1+I2+2I1I2cos⁡𝜙.
Imax=I1+I2+2√ I1I2 Imax=I1+I2+2I1I2
Imax=(√ I1 +√ I2 )2Imax=(I1+I2)2
Imax=I1+I2+2√ I1I2 Imax=I1+I2+2I1I2
Imax=(√ I1 +√ I2 )2Imax=(I1+I2)2
Q46.
The values of XL, XC and R in series with an A.C. circuit
are 8Ω,6Ω8Ω,6Ω and 10Ω10Ω respectively. The
total impedance of the circuit will be ________ΩΩ
A
10.2
B
12.2
C
10
D
24.4

Ans:
A
10.2
Explanation:
Z=√ R2+(XL−XC)2 Z=R2+(XL−XC)2
=√ (10)2+(8−6)2 =(10)2+(8−6)2
=√ 102+22 =102+22
=√ 100+4 =100+4
=10.2Ω=10.2Ω
Q47.
A 5cm long solenoid having 10 ohm resistance and 5mH inductance is joined to
a 10V battery. At steady state, the current through the solenoid (in ampere) will be.
A
5
B
2
C
1
D
zero

Ans:
C
1
Explanation:
At steady state inductor behave like short circuit.
i=vr=1010=1Ai=vr=1010=1A
Q48.
An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v=v0^iv=v0i^ is in an electric
field E=E0^jE=E0j^. If λ0=hmv0𝜆0=hmv0, it’s de Breoglie wavelength at time t is given by:
A
λ0𝜆0
B
λ0√ 1+e E
2 20t2m2v20
𝜆01+e2E02t2m2v02
C
λ0√ 1+e2E20t2m2v20 𝜆01+e2E02t2m2v02
D
λ0(1+e2E20t2m2v20)𝜆0(1+e2E02t2m2v02)

Ans:
C
λ0√ 1+e2E20t2m2v20 𝜆01+e2E02t2m2v02
Solution:
According to the problem de-Broglie wavelength of electron at time t = 0.
is λ0=hmv0𝜆0=hmv0
Electrostatic force on electron in electric field is
→Fe=−e→E=−eE0^jF→e=−eE→=−eE0j^
The acceleration of electron, →a=→Fm=−eE0m^ja→=F→m=−eE0mj^
It is acting along negative y-axis.
The intial velocity of electron along x-axis vx0=v0^ivx0=v0i^.
This component of velocity will remain constant as there is no force on electron in this
direction.
New considering y-diraction. Initial velocity of electron along y-axis, vy0=0vy0=0.
Velocity of electron after time t along y-axis,
vy=0+(−eE m^j)t=−eE mt^jvy=0+(−eE0mj^)t=−eE0mtj^
0 0

Magnitude of velocity of electron after time t is

v=√ v2x+v2y =√ v20+(−eE tt) 2v=vx2+vy2=v02+(−eE0tt)2
0

⇒ =v0√ 1+e E
2 20t2m2v20
⇒ =v01+e2E02t2m2v02
de-Broglie wavelength, λ′=hmv𝜆′=hmv
=hmv √ 1+ =λ √ 1+
0 e2E20t2m2v20 0 e2E20t2m2v20
=hmv01+e2E02t2m2v02=𝜆01+e2E02t2m2v02
⇒ λ′=λ (1+
0 e2E20t2m2v20)
⇒ 𝜆′=𝜆0(1+e2E02t2m2v02)
Q49.
A temporary magnet is made of:

A
Cast iron.
B
Steel.
C
Soft iron.
D
Stainless steel.

Ans:
A
Cast iron.
Q50.
The cold junction of a thermocouple is maintained at 10ºC. No thermo e.m.f. is developed
when the hot junction is maintained at 530ºC. The neutral temperature is:
A
260ºC.
B
265ºC.
C
270ºC.
D
520ºC.

Ans:
C
270ºC.
Q51.
Insulation breakdown may occur at _______?
A
High temperature
B
Low temperature
C
At any temperature
D
Depends on pressure

Ans:
A
High temperature
Explanation:
At high temperatures, electrons of insulators get excited and then the electrons can overcome
the large energy band gaps between valence and conduction bands. So a large number of
electrons travel to the conduction band and they act as conductor i.e. insulation breakdown
occurs.
Q52.
When no current is passed through a conductor:
A
The free electrons do not move.
B
The average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is zero.
C
The average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero.
D
The average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero.

Ans:
C
The average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero.
D
The average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero.
Explanation:
No current is passed through a conductor means. That the average velocity of a free elecron
over a large period of time is zero or the average of the velocity of all the free electrons at an
instant is zero.
Q53.
The photoelectric effect proves that light consists of:
A
Photons
B
Electrons
C
Electromagnetic waves
D
Mechanical waves

Ans:
A
Photons
Explanation:
Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon which explains the emission of electrons when light
packets called photons are incident on a material.
It is used to explain that light consists of fundamental energy packets called photons.
Q54.
Lorentz force is:
A
Electrostatic force acting on a charged particle.
B
Magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
C
The vector sum of electrostatic and magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
D
The vector sum of gravitational and magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle

Ans:
C
The vector sum of electrostatic and magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
Q55.
To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy, one can use:
A
DC dynamo.
B
AC dynamo.
C
Motor.
D
Transformer.

Ans:
A
DC dynamo.
B
AC dynamo.
Explanation:
DC dynamo or AC dynamo use to convert mechnical energy into electrial energy.
Q56.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct for equipotential surface ?

1. The potential at all the points on an equipotential surface is same.

2. Equipotential surfaces never intersect each other.
3. Work done in moving a charge from one point to other on an equipotential surface is
zero.

A
I only.
B
II only.
C
I and II.
D
I, II and III.

Ans:
D
I, II and III.
Q57.
Which one is not the property of charge?
A
Charge is additive.
B
Charge is conserved.
C
Quantization of charge.
D
A charge is self-destructive.

Ans:
D
A charge is self-destructive.
Explanation:
Electric charge possesses the properties of quantization, conservation of charge. It cannot be
destroyed i.e. it is not self-destructive.
Q58.
1 micro coulomb =
A
106C.
B
10-6C.
C
10C.
D
None.

Ans:
B
10-6C.
Q59.
The gate for which output is high, if at least one input is low is:
A
NAND
B
NOR
C
AND
D
OR

Ans:
A
NAND
Explanation:
The truth table of NAND gate is shown as above, which implies that if at least one of the input
is low then the output is high.

Q60.
The drift current in a p-n junction is from the:
A
N-side to the p-side.
B
P-side to the n-side.
C
N-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse biased.
D
P-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse-biased.

Ans:
A
N-side to the p-side.
Q61.
Which mammal lacks true vocal cords:
A
Monkey
B
Elephant
C
Hippopotamus
D
Man

Ans:
C
Hippopotamus
Q62.
National Botanical Research Institute is located in:
A
Shimla.
B
Dehradun.
C
Howrah.
D
Lucknow.

Ans:
D
Lucknow.
Explanation:
National Botanical Research Institute is located in Lucknow.
Q63.
Which one is apparato reticulare interno?
A
Golgi apparatus.
B
Endoplasmic reticulum.
C
Microfilaments.
D
Microtubules.

Ans:
A
Golgi apparatus.
Q64.
The pyrenoids are made up of:
A
Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath.
B
Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath.
C
Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.
D
Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath.

Ans:
A
Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath.
Q65.
Mechanism of aerobic respiration was discovered by:
A
Kreb
B
Calvin
C
Hatch and Slack
D
Pasteur

Ans:
A
Kreb
Explanation:
Mechanism of aerobic respiration was given by Kreb.
Thus it was named as Krebs cycle.
Aerobic respiration is the respiration, which involves the breakdown of the substrate in the
presence of oxygen (oxidation process).
Q66.
The largest quantity of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort is called.
A
Vital capacity.
B
Residual volume.
C
Tidal volume.
D
Total lung volume.

Ans:
A
Vital capacity.
Q67.
Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface.
A
Phagocytic vesicles.
B
Pinocytic vesicles.
C
Microvilli.
D
Zymogen granules.

Ans:
C
Microvilli.
Q68.
Lysozyme is found in:
A
Saliva
B
Tears
C
Mitochondria
D
Both A and B

Ans:
C
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The enzyme lysozyme breaks down bacterial cell walls, which are made of a compound called
peptidoglycan. Lysozyme is found in both tears and saliva.
Q69.
Longest cell in the human body is:
A
Nerve cell
B
Leg muscle cell
C
Bone cell
D
Heart muscle cell

Ans:
A
Nerve cell
Explanation:
The longest cell in the human body is the neuron with a length of 90cm - 100cm, linking the
central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) to other parts of the body.
Q70.
During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up
by the body?
A
First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids.
B
First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates.
C
First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins.
D
First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins.

Ans:
C
First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins.
Q71.
Haversian canals are found in ________.
A
Muscle
B
Nerve
C
Cartilage
D
Bone

Ans:
D
Bone
Explanation:
Haversian canals are a series of microscopic tubes in the outermost region of bone called
cortical bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to travel through them.
They are absent in muscles,nerves and cartilage.
Q72.
Plasma membrane is:
A
Impermeable
B
Semi-permeable
C
Completely permeable
D
Differentially permeable

Ans:
B
Semi-permeable
Explanation:
Plasma membrane is a selective permeable membrane that allows only selective molecules
to pass through it. The permeability depends on the electric charge and polarity of the
molecules.
Q73.
In which of the following plant, one plant penetrate its root into the host plant?
A
Cactus
B
Banyan
C
Sugarcane
D
Cuscuta

Ans:
D
Cuscuta
Explanation:
Cuscuta is the parasitic plant that lives into the stem of the host of the different variety of
plants.
They penetrate the hosts root by folding around themselves and produce haustoria that move
inside the plant makes contact with vascular bundles and steal all the food made by it.
Q74.
Label the parts of a monocot seed.
A
A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Radicle, D. Coleoptile, E. Plumule.
B
A.Endosperm, B. Coleoptile, C. Scutellum, D. Radicle, E. Plumule.
C
A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Radicle, E. Plumule.
D
A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Plumule, E. Radicle.

Ans:
D
A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Plumule, E. Radicle.
Explanation:

Q75.
Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of:
A
Cytoplasm in controlling differentiation.
B
Nucleus in heredity.
C
Chromosomes in heredity.
D
Nucleo-cytoplasmie ratio.

Ans:
B
Nucleus in heredity.

Q76.
Cyanobacteria are used as biofertilisers because they:
A
Are photosynthetic.
B
Grow easily anywhere.
C
Have mucilage.
D
Fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Ans:
D
Fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Q77.
Biotechnology is use of:
A
Industries
B
Microorganisms
C
Plants
D
Chemicals

Ans:
B
Microorganisms
Explanation:
Biotechnology is the use of biological processes, microorganisms, or systems to manufacture
products intended to improve the quality of human life.
The earliest biotechnologists were farmers who developed improved species of plants and
animals by cross pollination or cross breeding.
Q78.
Ecological niche is:
A
The surface area of the ocean.
B
An ecologically adapted zone.
C
The physical position and functional role of a species within the community.
D
Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake.

Ans:
C
The physical position and functional role of a species within the community.
Q79.
The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release of:
A
Inorganic nutrients from humus.
B
Both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.
C
Organic nutrients from humus.
D
Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.

Ans:
A
Inorganic nutrients from humus.
Q80.
Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for:
A
Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygen.
B
Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial
scale.
C
Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
D
None of these.

Ans:
C
Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
Q81.
Gonorrhoea is a:
A
Viral disease
B
Protozoan disease
C
Sexually transmitted disease
D
A disease that impairs vision

Ans:
C
Sexually transmitted disease
Explanation:
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by
bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae or gonococcus.
It used to be known as "the clap".
Q82.
Kanha National Park is located in:
A
Assam
B
Rajasthan
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh

Ans:
D
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
Kanha National Park, situated in Madhya Pradesh is famous for conserving tigers. A park in
use for conservation purposes is known as a national park.
It is basically a reserve of natural, semi-natural, or developed land that a sovereign state
declares or owns. Flora and fauna are provided immense protection in such areas. Currently,
in India, we have 166 national parks.
Q83.
The first animals to fly were:
A
Mammals
B
Lizards
C
Birds
D
Insects

Ans:
D
Insects
Explanation:
The first animals to evolve flight were insects. The earliest fossil insects with wings are
dragonfly-like animals from the Carboniferous, but there are some very fragmentary insect
remains from Devonian rocks in Scotland.
The fossils tell that the flight first evolved in insects approximately 410 million years ago.
Q84.
During DNA replication, the strands separate by:
A
DNA polymerase.
B
Topoisomerase.
C
Unwindase/ helicase.
D
Gyrase.

Ans:
C
Unwindase/ helicase.
Q85.
Broilers are :
A
Egg laying females
B
Young birds reared for meat
C
Birds raised for breeding
D
Birds raised for both eggs and meat

Ans:
B
Young birds reared for meat
Explanation:
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise domestic fowl for egg production and chicken meat.
Chickens that are reared especially for meat are called broilers.
Broilers have tender meat with soft, pliable, smooth textured skin and flexible breast bone
cartilage.
Q86.
Sertoli cells are found in:
A
Kidney of rabbit
B
Ovary of frog
C
Testes of rabbit
D
Ovary of rabbit

Ans:
C
Testes of rabbit
Explanation:
Sertoli cell is one of the cells present in the seminiferous tubule of the testes.
It provides nourishment to the developing sperm and hence are called 'nurse' cells.
Sertoli cells are developed by the testes - determining factor protein.
Q87.
In which of the following plant, the fruit is a drupe, seed coat is thin, embryo is
inconspicuous and endosperm is edible?
A
Groundnut
B
Wheat
C
Apple
D
Coconut

Ans:
D
Coconut
Explanation:
The fruit of the coconut is a large, dry drupe composed of a thin outer layer (exocarp), a thick,
fibrous middle layer called as a mesocarp and a hard inner layer called as an endocarp that
surrounds a large seed.
A small, cylindrical embryo is embedded in the endosperm nutritive tissue just opposite the
functional germination pore.
The seed is surrounded by an outer brown layer called as the seed coat or testa.
Q88.
Development of animal embryo from an unfertilized egg is called _________.
A
Parthenocarpy
B
Parthenogenesis
C
Apospory
D
Apomixis

Ans:
B
Parthenogenesis
Q89.
In sexual reproducing animals, the union of male and female gamete forms a cell, which is
called as:
A
Ovarian cell
B
Oocyte
C
Zygote
D
Graafian follicle

Ans:
C
Zygote
Explanation:
Ovarian cell is the cells of ovary.
Oocyte is the female gametocyte or germ cell. It is involved in reproduction.
Zygote is the diplod cell, formed by the fusion of two gametes i.e., by the fusion of male
gamete (sperm) or female gamete (ovum).
Graafian follicle is the mature follicle in the ovary of mammals.
It contains cavity, which is filled by liquid and it ruptures during ovulation to release ovum.
Q90.
When one organism is benefited without affecting the other, the interaction is called as:
A
Parasitism
B
Commensalism
C
Saprophytism
D
Symbiosis

Ans:
B
Commensalism
Explanation:
In commensalism, one species is benefitted without the other being harmed. It is of two types
periodic contact and continuous contact.
Some examples of periodic contact commensalism are jackal and hyenas accompanying big
cats like tiger or lions for eating small bits of left over of prey's body; sucker fish attaches to
underside of shark and feed on small left over when shark is feeding.