आचं लिक लिक्षा एवं प्रलिक्षण सस्ं थान, मैसरू

ZONAL INSTITUTE OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING, MYSURU

विज्ञान में योग्यता आधारित मूलयाांकन: पिीक्षण िस्तुओ ां की रचना

Competency Based Assessment in Science: Design of test items
(31.07.2024-02.08.2024)
CLASS IX

SCIENCE
DIRECTOR’S MESSAGE……

It is with profound delight and utmost pride that we present the Competency
Based Assessment question bank for CLASS IX which was prepared by
TGT(Science) of the feeder regions during the 03–day workshop on
“Competency Based Assessment in Science: Design of test items” It’s my firm
belief that access to quality education should know no boundaries, transcending
social and economic constraints. Our collective vision is to empower all students
and teachers with the tools for success and intellectual growth.
With their steadfast dedication, the TGT(Science) from the feeder Regions
namely Bangalore, Chennai, Ernakulam and Hyderabad have invested their
knowledge and expertise in preparation of the CBA test items.
It is with pleasure that I place on record my commendation for the commitment
and dedication of the team of TGT(Science) from the four Regions, Shri. Manoj
Kumar Paliwal, Principal KV No.1 Madurai, Chennai Region&
Associate Course Director, the Resource persons Ms Seema Saraswat,
TGT(Science) KV Vijaypura and Ms Neeta Wage TGT(Science) KV Hebbal and
Mr. Dinesh Kumar, Training Associate (Physics) from ZIET Mysore who has
been the Coordinator of this assignment.
Wishing you all the very best in your academic journey!

MENAXI JAIN

DIRECTOR
ZIET MYSURU

1
 COURSE DIRECTOR
MS MENAXI JAIN
DIRECTOR
ZONAL INSTITUTE OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING,
MYSURU

ASSOCIATE COURSE DIRECTOR

Mr. MANOJ KUMAR PALIWAL
PRINCIPAL
KVNO-1 MADURAI

COURSE COORDINATOR
MR. DINESH KUMAR
TRAINING ASSOCIATE PHYSICS
ZIET MYSURU

RESOURCE PERSONS
MRS. SEEMA SARASWAT
RP & TGT SCIENCE
KV VIJYAPURA
BENGALURU REGION

MRS. NEETA WAGE

RP & TGT SCIENCE
KV HEBBAL
BENGALURU REGION

2
 CONTENT CREATORS

S NO. NAME OF THE DESIGNATION KV NAME REGION

TEACHER
(Mrs/Ms/Mr)
1 PRIYANKA TGT (SCI) KV NO2 KASARGOD ERNAKULAM

2 HARSH RAJ TGT (SCI) KV INS ERNAKULAM

DRONACHARYA
3 PREETHY TGT (SCI) No.1 TIRUPATI (S.1) HYDERABAD

4 SUMATHI KUMAR TGT (SCI) No.1 UPPAL HYDERABAD

5 ARATI PRASAD TGT (SCI) NAL BENGALURU

6 RAJANI NADAR TGT (SCI) NAGERCOIL CHENNAI

COMPILED BY

S NO. NAME OF THE TEACHER DESIGNATION KV NAME REGION

(Mrs/Ms/Mr)

1 Mukesh Kumar TGT (SCI) PM SHRI KV ERNAKULAM

Gupta PAYYANUR
2 Subhadra Sankar TGT (SCI) KV MALAPPARAM ERNAKULAM

EDITED BY
MRS. NEETA WAGE
RP & TGT SCIENCE
KV HEBBAL
BENGALURU REGION

3
 CLASS – IX
COMPETENCY BASED TEST ITEMS: CHAPTER WISE

S.NO. NAME OF THE CHAPTER PAGE

NO.
1 MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS 5

2 IS MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS PURE? 11

3 ATOMS AND MOLECULES 17

4 STRUCTURE OF THE ATOM 22

5 THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 28

6 TISSUES 33

7 MOTION 38

8 FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION 44

9 GRAVITATION 51

10 WORK, POWER AND ENERGY 58

11 SOUND 65

12 IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES 73

4
 CHAPTER – 1 MATTER AROUND OUR SURROUNDINGS
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 Many modern tanks for water and liquid fuels are made spherical in 1
nature what could be the reason behind this?
a) It is easier to build spherical tanks of other shapes
b) for a given surface area, spherical tanks enclosed maximum value
c) It is easier to transport spherical tanks when repair etc are required
liquid get preserved better when they are stored in spherical tanks
2 Which phase change at standard temperature and pressure represents 1
sublimation?
a) CO(s)-CO(g)
b) H(I)-H(g)
c) CO(I)-CO(g)
D. H(s)-H(I)
3 People sometimes add salt to the water in Which eggs are to be boiled. 1
What is the MAIN reason for this?
a) Adding salt to the Water before the Egg is cooked makes the egg
tastier.
b) Adding salt to the water increases its Boiling point and cooks the egg
better
c) Adding salt to the water Reduces the water Temperature cooking the
egg faster.
Adding salt to the Water kills micro Organisms making The egg safer to
eat.
4 Rama suspects that the LPG cylinder is Leaking, and immediately turns 1
the Cylinder valve to the OFF position. What Should she do next?
a) Switch on all lights.
b) Switch off all lights.
c) Open all the windows
d) Close all the Windows.
5 It is easier to break a piece of chalk than an iron nail. Which characteristic 1
property of a matter is it mentioning about.
a. Particles are continuously moving
b.Particles of matter attract each other.
C.Inter mixing of particles pf different types
d. Latent heat of vaporization

6 Units of temperature 1
a. Bar and pascal
b. Milligram and kilogram
c. Degree Celsius and kelvin
d. Gram per centimetre cube and kilogram per metre cube
7 Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is 1
given, and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of
the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
5
 explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is

not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but reason is true
Assertion : Disinfectants are rubbed on our hands before taking injections
and it feels cold.
Reason :Particles of disinfectant gains energy from the surroundings and
evaporate and leaves our hand cold.
8 Assertion:Steam is more dangerous than boiled water 1
Reason:Solid particles have high melting point than water.
SECTION B
9 Read the following situations and categorise them into diffusion / osmosis 2
a. Smell of biriyani while passing through a restaurant.
b. Spread of corona virus
c. Swelling of Chana when soaked in water
d. Earth worm dying when salt is sprinkled over it.
10 Camphor is a substance that we use for lighting lamp. 2
a.List the state of camphor before and after burning.
b.Elaborate the process
11 2

Reemu was making steam cake. Suddenly she felt intense heat
from the puff of steam gushing out of the vessel. She wondered whether
the temperature of the steam was higher than that of the water boiling in
the kettle. Comment.

12 a. Boiling point of Alcohol is 78 degree celsius. Convert it into Kelvin 2

scale.
b.Also mention the physical state of water at 100 degree Celsius.
13 Dried raisins were put in water, and it was observed after some time that 2
it swells . Mention the phenomenon and Explain.

6
 SECTION C
14 The temperature of a substance remain constant during 3
its melting point or boiling point. Explain the reason behind it.

15 a.Rita made a lemon juice and added some ice cubes into it. She observed 3
that ice floated in the juice. Give the reason for this.
b. Plants use carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Mention its natural state.
How is it different from dry ice.?

16 3

Interconversion of state of matter is a natural phenomena.

Observe the picture and explain the conversion of matter taking place.
Mention about the energy transfer also.

SECTION D
17 Observe the picture given below and suggest which of the vessels A, B, 5
C or D will have the highest rate of evaporation? Explain with reference
to each vessel.

7
18 Matter exist in three states. Compare and write the properties of different 5
states of matter.
SECTION E
19 Evaporation causes natural cooling. The basic concept is that in order for 4
matter to change state, it must either receive or lose energy. When
molecules of matter changes from liquid to gas, they require energy to
overcome their potential energy through kinetic energy. As a result, the
liquid absorbs energy from its surroundings.

a. Clothes dry faster in a winter day than on a rainy day. Why?

b. It is easy to drink a hot tea from a saucer faster than from a cup. Why?
c. Evaporation requires energy. Explain.
20 In an experimental activity, crushed ice was taken in a beaker. A 4
thermometer is fitted in such a way that its bulb was thoroughly
surrounded by ice. The beaker is now slowly heated and the temperature
was regularly noted. The temperature rises gradually as the heating is
continued and becomes constant when the ice starts changing into liquid.

a)Where does the heat energy go when the temperature does not rise?
b)Name the process explained here.
c)Differentiate melting and boiling point.

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER -1 MATTER AROUND OUR SURROUNDINGS

Q SECTION A MARKS
N
O
1 b. 1
2 a. 1
3 B 1
4 D 1
5 b. 1
6 C 1
7 a. 1
8 c. 1
SECTION B
9 a. Diffusion b.Diffussion c.Osmosi d.osmosis ½ each
10 a. Solid to gas 1
b. The change of state from solid to gas without changing to liquid 1
state is called Sublimation.
11 The temperature of steam is not different from that of boiling 2
8
 water. The temperature of boiling water as well as that of steam is 100
°C, but steam has more energy because of the latent heat of vaporization.
12 a. 78+273=351 degree Celsius. 1
b. At 100-degreeCelsius, water exists in both the liquid state as well as in 1
gaseous state.
13 Osmosis ½
Solution outside the raisin has a higher concentration of water molecules. 1½
Therefore, water from outside enters the raisin through the process of
osmosis and hence the raisin swells up when kept in water. The outer
membrane of the cells of the raisin acts as a semi-permeable membrane.
SECTION C
14 Ans: The temperature of a substance remains constant at its melting and ½
boiling points until all the substance melts or boils.
The heat supplied is continuously used up in overcoming the forces of
attraction between the particles of the substance during the transition of 2
physical state of the substance. This is known as the latent heat of fusion or
the latent heat of vaporization, as per the situation. ½
Thus, heat energy is absorbed by the substance without showing any rise in
temperature.
15 a.Ice is the solid state of water. It has a greater amount of space between its 1 1/2
molecules compared to water molecules. As a result, the volume of ice is
larger than that of water, leading to a lower density of ice. This is the
reason why ice tends to float on water, as water has a higher density than
ice. ½
b. Carbon dioxide is seen in gaseous state. 1
When carbon di oxide is stored in high pressure it becomes solid with out
coming into liquid state. This dry ice.

16 Evaporation – ½ each
Change of water from liquid state to gaseous state
Condensation
Change of gaseous state to liquid state of water.
s During evaporation heat is absorbed from the surrounding
During Condensation heat is released into the surrounding.

SECTION D
17 Vessel (c) will have the highest rate of evaporation. 3
Evaporation is a surface phenomenon; the rate of evaporation increases
with an increase in surface area. The moving fan will reduce humidity and
increase the rate of evaporation. The particles of water vapours will move
away with wind (moving air) with an increase in air speed.
2
Surface area in vessel (b) is lesser than that in vessel (a) and vessel (c)
whereas vessel (d) is completely closed and offers no surface area for
evaporation.

9
18 5

Solids Liquids Gases

Highly Strong The intermolecular The intermolecular forces are practically non-existen
intermolecular forces forces are stronger Thus, there is no definite volume.
between the molecules, than gases but
leads to a definite volume weaker than solids.
in Solids.

Solids have a definite Liquids do not have a Gases do not have a definite shape.
shape to them. definite shape.

The intermolecular space The intermolecular The intermolecular space is free-flowing and plenty.
between solids is absent. space is moderate but
present.

The force of attraction The force of There is no intermolecular force of attraction betwee
between the molecules is attraction between the molecules.
incredibly high. molecules is pretty
moderate.

They are incompressible. Liquids cannot be Gases can be compressed quite easily.
compressed.

Solids have a definite Liquids have a Gases have no definite volume.

shape and volume. definite volume.

SECTION E
19 a. In winters though the sun is not very hot but the air is dry i.e it does 1
not contain much moisture so evaporation of water takes place
faster than rainy season where the air is fully moist.
b. The rate of evaporation increases as the surface area of the liquid
increases. 1
c. Evaporation requires energy because it occurs when intermolecular
bonds between liquid molecules break, and to break those bonds 2
some amount of energy is required. This required energy is
provided by the surrounding environment, hence it causes a cooling
effect.
20 a.It is utilized for bringing out the complete change of state 1
b. Latent heat of fusion 1
c.Melting point is the temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid at 2
normal atmospheric pressure. Boiling point is the Temperature at which a
liquid starts boiling at atmospheric pressure

10
 CHAPTER – 2 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE?
Q NO SECTION A MARKS

1 Bronze is a 1
(a) Compound
(b) Elements
(c) Homogeneous
(d) Heterogenous
2 Which of the following statements is true for pure substances? 1
(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
3 Which of the following properties does not describe a compound? 1
(a) It is composed of two or more elements
(b) It is a pure substance.
(c) It cannot be separated into constituents by physical means
(d) It is mixed in any proportion by mass
4 Solid solution in which the solute is gas ———– 1
(a) Copper dissolved in gold
(b) Camphor in nitrogen gas
(c) Solution of hydrogen in palladium
(d) All of the above
5 In tincture of iodine, identify the solute and solvent? 1

(a) alcohol is the solute and iodine is the solvent

(b) iodine is the solute and alcohol is the solvent

(c) any component can be considered as solute or solvent

(d) tincture of iodine is not a solution

6 Two substances, A and B, were made to react to form a third substance, 1
A2B, according to the following reaction 2A + B → A2B. Which of the

11
 following statements concerning this reaction are incorrect?
(i) The product A2B shows the properties of substances A and B
(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a compound
(iv) The product so formed is an element
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii),
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
7 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is 1
followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

7. Assertion : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution

placed in a dark place the path of the beam becomes visible.
Reason : Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.

8 Assertion : Fog is an example of aerosol. 1

Reason : The dispersion medium is gas and dispersed phase is liquid in
fog.

SECTION B
9 1. Classify the substances given in the column into elements and 2
compounds.

copper water Calcium iron

carbonate

mercury zinc Sodium diamond

chloride

10 Class 9 B students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of 2

sugar in water. Sita dissolved 10 g of sugar in 100 g of water while Neeta
prepared it by dissolving 10 g of sugar in water to make 100 g of the
solution.
(a) Are the two solutions of the same concentration?
(b) Compare the mass % of the two solutions.

12
11 Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20% (mass 2
percent) solution in 100 g of water?

12 It is not possible to distinguish particles of a solute from the solvent in 2

solution. Give reason?

13 Explain why particles of a colloidal solution do not settle down when 2

left undisturbed, while in the case of a suspension they do
SECTION C
14 Sonu and his friends took an old shoe box and covered it with a black 3
paper from all sides. They fixed a torch at one end of the box by making a
hole in it and made another hole on the other side to view the light. They
placed a glass of milk in the box . They were amazed to see that milk
taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried the same activity by
taking a salt solution but found that light simply passed through it.
a) Explain why the milk was illuminated. Name the phenomenon
involved.
b)Same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.
c) suggest two more solutions which would show the same effect as
shown by the milk solution?
15 An element is sonorous and highly ductile. Under which category would 3
you classify this element? Write any two other characteristics do you
expect the element to possess?

16 Non-metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are 3
non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non-malleable and are coloured.

(a) Name a lustrous non-metal.

(b) Name a non-metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature.
(c) Name a non-metal which is required for combustion.
SECTION D
17 a) Differentiate between a true solution and a colloid. 5
b) Distinguish between compounds and mixtures.
18 a) Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why? 5
b) A solution is always a liquid. Comment.
c) Can a solution be heterogeneou
SECTION E
19 Read the given information and answer the following questions: (1 x 4
4 = 4 M)

13
 CASE- Milk is actually a mixture of water, fat, proteins etc. When a
scientist says that something is pure, it means that all the constituent
particles of that substance are the same in their chemical nature. A pure
substance consists of a single type of particles. The elements and
compounds comes under the pure substances. As we look around, we can
see that most of the matter around us exist as mixtures of two or more
pure components, for example, sea water, minerals, soil etc. are all
mixtures.Depending upon the nature of the components that form a
mixture, we can have different types of mixtures; homogeneous and
heterogeneous mixture.
Q1. How will you describe a pure substance?
Q2. Give two examples of a compound?
Q3. Air is a homogeneous mixture. justify the statement.
20 4

A true solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances . It

consists of solute and solvent. The particle size of the true solution is less
than 1 nanometer. A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which the
solute particle does not dissolve but remains suspended throughout the
bulk of the medium. A colloid is a mixture that is actually heterogeneous
but appears to be homogeneous as the particles are uniformly spread
throughout the solution.
1)Identify the components of a solution?
2) Differentiate a colloid from a suspension?
3)Name the phenomenon shown by colloids and find out an example as
you have seen it in nature?

14
ANSWER KEY CHAPTER- 2 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE?
Q Section A MARKS
NO
1 c 1

2 b 1

3 d 1

4 c 1

5 b 1

6 c 1
7 a 1
8 a. 1
SECTION B
9 Elements – Copper,iron,mercury,zinc,diamond 2
Compounds – Calcium carbonate,sodiumchloride,water
10 (a) No, Neeta has higher mass percentage. 2
b)solution made by sita= Mass %= 10/(10+100) x 100
=10/110x100 =9.09%
Solution made by Neeta = Mass% = 10/100 x100 =10%
11 2
Let the mass of sodium sulphate required be = x g
The mass of solution would be = (x + 100) g x g of solute in (x + 100) g
of solution

12 A true solution is homogeneous in nature. The solute and solvent 2

particles are very small. They cannot be distinguished even under a
microscope.

13 Particle size in a suspension is larger than those in a colloidal solution. 2

Also molecular interaction in a suspension is not strong enough to keep
the particles suspended and hence they settle down.

SECTION C
14 (a) Milk is a colloid. If a beam of light is put on a milk sample contained 3
in a beaker, the path of light beam is illuminated and becomes visible
when seen from the other side. This is because the colloidal particles are
big enough to scatter light falling on them. This scattered light enters our
eyes and we are able to see the path of light beam.

15
 The scattering of light by colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect.
(b) Salt solution is a true solution. If a beam of light is put on a salt
solution kept in a beaker in a dark room, the path of light beam is not
visible inside the solution when seen from the other side. This is because
salt particles present in it are so small that they cannot scatter light rays
falling on them.
(c) Detergent solution, sulphur solution.
15 A metal is sonorous and ductile. Thus if an element possesses these 3
qualities, we will keep this under the category of metals.other
characteristics of metals are :

● Metals are highly malleable.(any two)

● Metals have a high melting and boiling point.
● Metals are lustrous.
● Metals have a high density and thus are hard.
● Metals are a good conductor of heat and electricity.

16 a)Lustrous non-metal Iodine 3

b).Non-metal, which exists as a liquid at room temperature. Bromine
c) non metal oxygen
SECTION D
17 a) Any two differences 5
b) Any three differences.
18 (a) Alloys are homogeneous mixture of two or more elements because 5
the constituent elements mix together and give a mixture which is
uniform throughout.
(b) No, solid solutions and gaseous solutions are also possible.
Examples are brass, air.
(c) No, a solution cannot be heterogeneous in nature.
SECTION E
19 a. A pure substance consists of a single type of particles. 4(1+1+2)
b. Any 2 examples
c. Yes. justification
20 a . It consists of solute and solvent. 4(1+1+2)
b any one difference
c Tyndall effect
examples of Tyndall effect are(any 1)
● Sunlight entering into a dark room.
● Lots of dust particles suspended in a lit up room.
● When the weather is foggy and smoggy, beams of headlights are clearly
visible.
● Scattering of light by water droplets present in the air.

16
 CHAPTER - 3 ATOMS AND MOLECULES
Q.N SECTION A MARKS
O
1 A student studies that magnesium and iron react with oxygen to form MgO and 1
FeO. Although both compounds contain two atoms each of their molecular
masses are different. What is the reason for the difference in their molecular
masses?
(a) Difference in the atomic mass of iron and magnesium
(b) Difference in the number of iron and magnesium atoms
(c ) Different in the atomic number of iron and magnesium
(d) Difference in the number of oxygen atoms in the two compounds.
2 Which of the following is correct symbol of sodium ion? 1
(a) Na (b) Na+
(c) So (d) Na-

3 A student finds the atomic radii of some elements. 1

Element Atomic radii
Aluminium(Al) 143 X 10-12m
Iron (Fe) 124 X 10-12 m
Zinc (Zn) 133 X 10-12 m
To see how an atom would appear, he observes an aluminium foil with a hand
lens but is unable to see atoms that are made up the foil. What can be the
possible reason for this?
a) Atoms of only gaseous substance can be observed.
b) Atoms are very tiny and cannot be observed by simple hand lens.
c) Atoms are joined with great force, so it is difficult to distinguish one atom.
Atoms of metals are in constant motion so they cannot be observed with a hand
lens.
4 Identify triatomic molecule from the following? 1
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
b. Ozone
d. oxygen
5 Mass of 1 molecule of Oxygen is 1
a. 16g
b. 8u
c. 12x16u
d.32u
6 Identify correct statements-1u is the 1
A. mass of one C-12 atom
B. 1/12th of mass C-12 atom
C. Mass of one Hydrogen molecule
D. Mass of 1/16 of an Oxygen atom
a. B,C, D
b. B, C
17
 c. B
d. B, D

Question number 7 and 8 consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and
Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
A -Assertion: Valency of Aluminium is 3 and it forms Al3+ 1
7 R-Reason : Metals form cations by losing electrons in order to get stability.

8 A -Assertion: phosphorous is a polyatomic molecule 1

R-Reason: Atomicity of phosphorous is 8

SECTION B
9 List any two elements which lack combining capacity? 2
Justify your answer stating relevant reasons

10 What are monoatomic ions ? Give one example each for 2

a. monoatomic cation b. monoatomic anion

11 Formula unit mass of compound is 58.5u. Identify the compound with its 2
chemical formula. Mention any one use of the compound in our daily life

12 Write down the chemical name of 2

a. AlPO4 b. ZnO c.H2S d.CCl4

13 Identify anions and cations in the following compounds 2

a. Calcium hydroxide b. Sodium carbonate

SECTION C
14 a. Mention any two-point difference between atoms and ions 3
b. Represent following elements with their symbols
Gold, Iron
15 8.25g of Lead nitrate reacts with 12.05g of sodium chloride. Predict the 3
products formed and their total mass. State the law to support your answer

18
16 Write chemical formula of following compounds by crossing over valences 3
a. Sodium hydrogen carbonate
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Zinc phosphate
SECTION D
17 a.List the postulates of Dalton’s Atomic theory 5
which postulate/postulates were disproved later?
c.Mention the discovery that led to this disapproval?
18 a.Design an experiment to prove law of conservation of mass 5
b.Illustrate with the help of diagram and mention any two precautions

SECTION E

19 Atomic mass is the quantity of matter contained in an atom of an element. It is 4

the sum of the mass of the protons, neutrons, and electrons that make up the
atom.
Carbon-12 was chosen as the reference substance because its atomic mass could
be measured accurately.
Atomic mass is expressed as a multiple of one-twelfth the mass of the carbon-
12 atom ie 1.992646547 × 10−23 gram, which is assigned an atomic mass of 12
units. The atomic mass unit is also called the unified mass (u)
a)Name the international agency that approves standardized methods for
measurement, atomic weights etc
b). Define 1 unified mass(1u)
c) Calculate molecular mass of i) HNO3 ii) C6H12O6
OR
c). Mention the atomic mass of any four elements you are familiar wit
20 In 1794, Joseph Proust, a French chemist formulated the law of constant 4
proportions from the work he did on sulfates, metal oxides and sulfides. Also,
this law was favored since Dalton’s atomic theory was introduced as well. The
relation between them was also discovered by Jacob Berzelius, a Swedish
chemist in the year 1811.

Joseph- Louis Proust

19
 a)Calculate the amount of Hydrogen and oxygen obtained when 90g water is
decomposed will be equal to
b)What is the ratio by mass of Carbon and Oxygen in CO2?
c)State the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory that explains Proust’s law?

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER- 3 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

Q.NO SECTION A MAR
KS
1 a 1

2 b 1
3 1
4 b. Ozone 1

5 d.32u 1
6 d. B , D 1
7 B 1

8 C 1

SECTION B

9 Helium, Neon 1
Their outer most shell is filled, valency is zero 1

10 Monatomic ions are charged particles with only one atom in them. 1
a. H+ b. Cl- (or any other eg) ½+½

11 NaCl 1
Used in cooking/preserving 1
12 a. Aluminium phosphateb. Zinc oxide c. .Hydrogen sulphide d. Calcium ½ x4
tetra chloride

13 anions cations 2
a.Ca2+ OH-
b.Na+ CO3 2-

SECTION C

14 Atoms -Not charged -neutral ,equal number of protons and electrons, 2

Ions -either positively or negatively charged, number of protons and 1
electrons vary
Au, Fe
20
15 Products areLead chloride and sodium nitrate
Total mass 8.25+12.05=20.3g 1
Law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor 1
destroyed in a chemical reaction. 1
16 Correct formula 1/2x3
Crisscrossing 1/2x3

SECTION D

17 ● All matter consists of indivisible particles called atoms. 5

● Atoms of the same element are similar in shape and mass but differ
from the atoms of other elements.
● Atoms cannot be created or destroyed.
● Atoms of different elements may combine with each other in a fixed,
simple, whole number ratio to form compound atoms.
● Atoms of the same element can combine in more than one ratio to
form two or more compounds.
● Atoms are the smallest unit of matter that can take part in a chemical
reaction.
(1) That atoms are indivisible and (2) that all atoms of a given element are
identical in mass and properties. Discovery of electrons
18 Designing experiment with diagram 5
mass of reactants and products
precautions (correct mass, making the set up sealed or any other)

SECTION E

19 a. IUPAC 4
One atomic mass unit (1u) is a mass unit equal to one-twelfth (1/12th) the
mass of one atom of carbon-12
i) 63u ii) 180u (with calculation)

20 (a) 1:8 ratio 10g Hydrogen and 80g Oxygen 4

(b) 12u +32u 3:8 ratio
(c) Atoms of different elements combine in fixed ratios to form compounds
a.

21
 CHAPTER- 4 STRUCTURE OF ATOM
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 Which among the following does not contain neutrons? 1
(a)Helium (b) Hydrogen ( c) Lithium (d)Boron
2 An ion of an element has 3 positive charges, 27 mass numbers and 14 1
neutrons. Find the number of electrons in this ion.
(a)13 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 166
3 The relative mass of proton is - 1
(a) Less than the mass of a hydrogen atom.
(b) Equal to the mass of a hydrogen atom.
(c) More than the mass of a hydrogen atom.
(d) Equal to the mass of an oxygen atom.
4 Two oxygen atoms in CH3 COOH (Vinegar ) have the same number of 1
electrons .But different number of neutrons,which of the following is the
correct reason for this?

(a) One of the oxygen atoms have gained electrons

(b) One of the oxygen atoms has gained two neutrons
(c) The two oxygen atoms are isobars.
(d) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes.
5 The number of electrons in an element “X’’ is 15 & the number of 1
neutrons is 16, which of the following is the correct presentation of the
element?
(a) 1615 X (b) 3115 X (c)3116 X (d) 1516 X
6 What will be the charge on an atomof sodium(Na) if it losses one 1
electron
(a) positive ( b) negative
(c) neutral (d) no Change
7 Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion 1
is given, and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it.
Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but reason is true
Assertion: Na, K, Ca, Mg are metals because they can lose electrons to
form positive ions.
Reason: F, Cl, P, O are non-metals because they too can gain electrons

22
 to form positive ions.
8 Assertion: Charge of one electron is 1.602x10-19 C. 1
Reason: 6.25 x1018 number of electrons
SECTION B
9 Two elements X and Y are having similar atomic numbers with different 2
mass numbers.
a. Mention the name given for such type of atomic species.
b..Also give the names of three atomic species of hydrogen.
10 Alpha particles are least deviated from their path unless any heavy body 2
strikes them. How is this characteristic property of alpha particle useful
in the study of sub atomic particle?
11 Argon and calcium have same mass number 40 but different atomic 2
number.
a.Mention the name given to such elements.
b. Calculate the number of protons, electrons and neutrons of Argon
12 Find the valency and number of neutrons of 2

13 An atom has atomic number 12. 2

a. Identify the element.
b. Mention its electronic configuration,
c. valency
d. its mass number
SECTION C
14 a.Following the rules of distribution of electrons, show the formula and 3
calculate the number of electrons that an atom can accommodatein the
fifth energy level.
b. An element has atomic number 8. Identify the element, its valency
and valence electrons.
15 a.Analyse and mention the drawback of Rutherford's model of atom 3
b. How it was explained by Neils Bohr through his postulates.
16 Carbon exists in nature in different forms. Estimate the number of 3
protons, neutrons and electrons per atom in the two isotopes of carbon -
atomic no: 6 and mass no: with 12 and 14

SECTION D
17 a.Categorise the subatomic particles based on their properties. 5
b.Draw the atomic structure of an element whose atomic number is 16.
c.Identify the element and write the electronic configuration.

23
18 a.Explain Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment 5
b.Draw the diagram if the experiment
c. Mention his observations.
d.On the basis of that explain the nuclear model of an atom.
SECTION E
19 Cancer is a disease in which some of the body's cells grow 4
uncontrollably and spread to other parts of the body. Cancer can start
almost anywhere in the human body, which is made up of trillions of
cells. Chemicals are used in the treatment of cancer.

a. Mention an isotope used in the treatment of cancer.

b. Nuclear reactors use nuclear fuel. Name the isotope that is used in
nuclear reactors.
c. Neeta is suffering from Goitre and she is undergoing radiation
therapy. Mention the symptom of this disease and name the isotope
used in its treatment.
20 A plum pudding with lots of dry fruits reminds us about the arrangement 4
of subatomic particles. The discovery of subatomic particles waved off
the claim that atoms are the fundamental unit of matter.

a.Plum pudding model of an atom was proposed by J J Thomson.

Explain his observation.
b.Atom as a whole is electrically neutral. Elaborate.

24
 c. The model of an atom that was accepted worldwide was proposed by
----------------

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER- 4 STRUCTURE OF THE ATOM

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 (b) Hydrogen 1
2 (a)13 1
3 (b) Equal to the mass of a hydrogen atom. 1
4 (d) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes 1
5 (e) (b) 3115 X 1
6 (a) positive 1
7 1
8 (c)Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 1
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
9 a.Isotope ½
b.. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium 1 1/2

10 Alpha particles are doubly charged helium ions and have a 2

considerable amount of energy and they get deviated at 180
degree when they are hit on the positively charged heavy nucleus.
11 a.Isobars. Argon 1/2
b.No: of protons-18
No: of neutrons-22 1/½
No: of electrons18

12 Valency of Nitrogen-3 ½ each

No: of neutrons in Nitrogen-10
Valency of Chlorine-1
No: of neutrons in Chlorine-18
13 a. Magnesium ½ each
b. 2,8,2
c. 2
d. 24
SECTION C
2
14 a. 2n ½ each
n=5
2 X 52 =50
b.Element -Oxygen
Valency - 2
Valence electrons-6

15
a.The revolution of the electron in a circular orbit is not expected 1
to be stable because it would radiate and lose energy and finally
25
 fall into the nucleus. If this were so, the atom should be highly
unstable .
b.i.Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of
electrons, are allowed inside the atom. 2
(ii) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate
energy

16 Isotopes of Carbon with atomic no: 6 and mass no: with 12 ½ each
No: of protons- 6
No: of neutrons-6
No: of electrons- 6
Isotopes of Carbon with atomic no: 6 and mass no: with 14
No: of protons- 6
No: of neutrons-8
No: of electrons- 6

SECTION D
17 a. 3
Proton Neutron Electron
They are positively They are negatively
They are neutral
charged charged
They are present in They are present in the They are present in
the nucleus of all nucleus of all atoms the outer shells
atoms except hydrogen within an atom.

b.

½
1/2

C. Sulphur 2,8,6

18 a.Rutherford passed beams of alpha particles through a thin gold 1

foil and noted how the alpha particles scattered from the foil.

26
 1½
Observations of Rutherford's alpha ray scattering
experiment:
1. Most of the α-particles passed straight through the gold foil
without any deviation.
2. Some of the α-particles were deflected by the foil by some
angles.
3. Interestingly one out of every 12,000 alpha particles appeared
to rebound. 1 1/2
Nuclear model of an atom

i)There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the

nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
(ii) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
(iii) The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size
of the atom

SECTION E
19 a.Cobalt 1
b. Uranium 1
c. The person will have a swollen neck and the isotope of Iodine is 2
used in its treatment.
20 a..An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the 2
electrons are embedded in it.
(ii) The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So,
the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
b. An atom is electrically neutral because its overall charge is 1
zero. 1
c. Neil’s Bohr.

27
 CHAPTER – 5 THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
Q SECTION A MARKS
NO
1 Chromosomes present in the nucleus are made up of 1
a. DNA
b. protein
c. both the above option
d. none of these
2 Which of the following cell organelles in vertebrates plays a 1
crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs.
a. Endoplasmic Reticulum
b. Golgi Bodies
c. Lysosomes
d. Mitochondria
3 Chlorophyll is present in 1
a. lysosomes
b. mitochondria
c. chloroplast
d. leucoplast
4 Lysosomes are also called 1
a. suicidal bag
b. digestive bag
c. demolition squad
d. All of the above
5 Name the cell organelle which is called as the powerhouse of 1
the cell
a. lysosomes
b. mitochondria
c. chloroplast
d. leucoplast
6 Name the cell organelle which is called as heredity vehicles 1
a. nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. chloroplast
d. leucoplast
7 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is 1
followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Assertion A:- Mitochondria is called the powerhouse of the cell.
Reason R :- Mitochondria are semi -autonomous cell organelles.
8 Assertion A:- RBC burst when placed in hypotonic solution. 1
Reason R:_ RBCs burst due to exosmosis.
SECTION B
9 Lysosomes are known as ‘suicide-bags’ of a cell. Give reason 2

28
10 Endocytosis found in animals only? Analyse the reason? 2

11 The cell organelle which controls most of the activities of the cell? justify. 2
12 Peroxisomes mostly found in kidney and liver cells. Why?. 2

13 Do you agree that Golgi bodies are found in large numbers in the cells 2
which secrete digestive enzymes? If yes, explain why?.

SECTION C
14 From your surroundings find out the different plant parts in which 3
chromoplast, chloroplast and leucoplast are present ?.

15 With respect to the function ,list three differences between a plasma 3

membrane and cell wall
16 What would happen if the cell has no nuclear membrane? 3

SECTION D
17 Illustrate a plant cell as you have seen it under a microscope in your 5
practical class. Now label any three parts which you see here that is
missing in an animal cell.

18 a )Reetu has got cancer.Where will you find more number of ribosomes-in 5
her body,In her cancer cells or in fat cells?.
b)If you are cooking vegetable curry today, after adding salt into the
vegetables,you see that it released water . Why?
.
SECTION E
19 Take a small piece of an onion bulb. With the help of a pair of 4
forceps we can peel off the skin called epidermis from the
concave side that is inner layer of the onion. This layer can
be put immediately in a watch glass containing water. This
will prevent the peel from getting folded or getting dry. Put a
drop of water on it and transfer a small piece of peel from the
watch glass to the slide. Make sure that the field is perfectly
flat on the slide. Add a Drop of safranin solution from this
piece followed via cover slip. Take care of air bubbles while
putting the cover sleeve with the help of a mounting needle.
Observe the slide under the microscope.
Answer the following questions
i. Name the cell organelles which is observed.
a. Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm
b. Plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm
c. Cell wall, nucleus, protoplasm
d. Plasma membrane, nucleus, cell membrane
ii. Why we put the peel of onion immediately into watch glass containing
water?
a. To prevent it from cold.
b. To prevent it from drying.
c. To prevent it from microbes.

29
 d. To prevent it from other peels of onion.
iii. Write the name and explain the role of the darkly coloured spherical or
oval structure seen in the slide?

20 4(1+1+2)

The cell membrane is a semipermeable membrane that separates the

interior of all cells from the surrounding environment. The semipermeable
membrane allows some particles, ions, or water molecules across the
membrane, but blocks others. Water molecules constantly move inside and
outside the cell across cell membranes. This free flow of water has the very
important consequence of enabling cells to absorb water.
When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution i.e., a solution in which
concentration of water molecules outside the cell is lesser than the
concentration of water molecules inside the cell, the cell will lose water by
the process of osmosis (exosmosis). Although water crosses the cell
membrane in both directions, but more water leaves the cell than enters
resulting in the shrinkage of cell cytoplasm. This phenomenon of shrinkage
of cell cytoplasm when put in a hypertonic solution is called plasmolysis.
If the water moving in and out of the cell is in equilibrium, the cells are
said to be flaccid.

a)What is plasmolysis?

b)What would you predict to happen if you put the cell in a solution which
is having the same amount of solute concentration as inside the cell?
c)If Geetha places a plasmolysed cell in a hypotonic solution,What do you
think would happen to the cell? What term can you give such a cell after
the process?

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER – 5 THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 c 1
2 a 1
3 c 1
4 d 1

30
5 d 1
6 a 1
7 b 1
8 C 1
SECTION B
9 If the cell gets damaged, then one of the lysosomes bursts and release 2
some digestive enzymes. The released enzymes then digest their own cell
and ultimately the cell dies. Hence, lysosomes are called suicide bags of
the cell

10 For endocytosis to occur, the outermost membrane should be flexible 2

like the plasma membrane of animals. But in plant cells, cell wall is the
outermost membrane which is very rigid. Hence, endocytosis occurs only
in animals and not in plants.

11 Nucleus, also known as the brain of the cell, controls most of the 2
activities of the cell because it contains DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
which contains all the information of the cell.
12 2
Peroxisomes contain various oxidative enzymes which detoxify the toxic
material. Since the blood carries various toxic substances to kidney and
liver, a large number of peroxisomes are present in them to oxidize the
toxic material.

13 The main function of Golgi bodies is to release proteins or enzymes by 2

vesicles. No other organelle has this property. Therefore, these are
largely present in secreting cells.

SECTION C
14 Chromoplasts are present in flowers, fruits or any other coloured part of 3
the plant other than green part.
Chloroplasts are present in leaves and stem of plant or green part.
Leucoplasts are present anywhere in plant as they are colourless and
store food.
15 Plasma membrane 3

1. It holds cellular contents and controls passage of materials in and out

of cell.2. It is semipermeable in nature and allows entry of selected
molecules into the cell.3. It is not elastic.

Cell wall

1. It gives protection, strength and rigidity to the cell.2. It is completely

permeable in nature.3. It is elastic and controls the cell’s turgidity
preventing its bursting.

16 The environment of nucleus would not be separated from that of rest of 3

the cell. No protection of genetic material from damage. exchange of

31
 materials in and out of the nucleus would be missing.

SECTION D
17 Diagram of a plant cell 5
chloroplast, vacuole, cellwall
18 a) Ribosomes are found in greater number in Reetus actively dividing 5
cells which are the cancer cells as they need more amount of proteins for
the formation of new cells.
b )When salt is added, a hypotonic medium is created, , the concentration
of salt molecules is more outside the vegetables than inside. Due to
osmosis water from the vegetables came out.
SECTION E
19 i .A 4(1+2+1)
ii. B
iii. Nucleus. 1. The nucleus contains most of the cell's genetic
material in the form of DNA, which carries the instructions for growth,
development, and function.
2.The nucleus coordinates cell growth and division by
replicating DNA and distributing it to daughter cells during mitosis.
3.The nucleus receives and responds to signals from the
environment, influencing cellular behavior.
4.The nucleus acts as a repository for genetic information,
passing it from one generation to the next.

20 a) Plasmolysis is the process of shrinkage or contraction of the 4(1+1+2)

protoplasm of a plant cell as a result of loss of water from the cell
b) the water moving in and out of the cell will be in equilibrium,
c)When a plasmolyzed cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, (i.e., the
solution having solute concentration lower than the cell sap), the water
moves into the cell because of the higher concentration of water outside
the cell than in the cell. The cell then swells to become turgid.
We can call it a deplasmolysed cell.

32
 CHAPTER – 6 TISSUES
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 The tissue that is found between the skin and the muscles is 1
(a) Adipose tissue (b) Tendons tissue
(c) Ligament tissue (d) Areolar tissue
2 Bone cells are embedded in a hard matrix that is composed of 1
(a)Calcium and sulfuric compounds
(b) Calcium and phosphorous compounds
(c ) Calcium and oxygen compounds
(d) Calcuim and chlorine compound
3 What causes the droplets of water to accumulate on the inner 1
walls of the bell jar?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration.
(c) Transpiration
(d) Combustion

4 Raju has hurt his leg during a football match. His doctor gives 1
him some pain killer. Which tissue it likely to be affected by
the pain killer?
(a) Muscular Tissues (b) Nervous Tissues
(c) The bone (d) Epithelial tissue
5 If we want our potted plant to we dense and not grow very tall, 1
what should he do?
(a) cut the branches
(b) put more fertilizers
(c) put it I a dark place
(d) cut the growing tip
6 Which of the following is not made of epithelial tissues: 1
(a) skin
(b) lining of the mouth
(c) kidney tubules
(d) bone
7 Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is 1
given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of
the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but

reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true
Assertion: Permanent tissue is composed of mature cells.
Reason: Meristematic tissue is a group of actively dividing cells.
8 Assertion: Cork cells are impervious to water and gases. 1
Reason: Cork has suberin deposits that are water proof.
SECTION B

33
9 Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or 2
involuntary (IV) muscles.
(a) Jumping of frog
(b) Pumping of the heart
(c) Writing with hand
(d) Movement of chocolate in your intestine [NCERT Exemplar]
10 Water hyacinth floats on water surface. Give reason [NCERT Exemplar]. 2
11 Which structure protects the plant body against the invasion of parasites? 2
[NCERT Exemplar]
12 An organism—plant or animal, require different types of cells in the 2
body. Justify
13 If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapour appears on the 2
wall of the glass jar. Why?

SECTION C
14 Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they 3
different from one other ? [NCERT Exemplar]

15 List the characteristics of cork. How are they formed? 3

16 A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the 3
ground level. After 3 years, where will the nail be present? Give reason
SECTION D
17 Tissue A and tissue B constitute tissue C. A carries water while B carries 5
food for the plants. Identify A, B, C
Draw and identify different elements of A and B
18 Give reasons for: 5
a. Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but
they lack vacuole.
b. Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchyma tissues.
c. We get a crunchy and granular feeling when we chew pear fruit.
d. Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.
e. It is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut tree.
SECTION E
19 4

Blood is a type of connective tissue. The cells of connective tissue are

loosely spaced and embedded in an intercellular matrix. The matrix may
be jelly like, fluid, dense or rigid. The nature of matrix differs in
concordance with the function of the particular connective tissue.
Blood has a fluid (liquid) matrix called plasma, in which red blood
corpuscles (RBCs), white blood corpuscles (WBCs) and platelets are
suspended. The plasma contains proteins, salts and hormones. Blood
flows and transports gases, digested food, hormones and waste materials

34
 to different parts of the body.
Bone is another example of a connective tissue. It forms the framework
that supports the body. It also anchors the muscles and supports the main
organs of the body. It is a strong and nonflexible tissue. Bone cells are
embedded in a hard matrix that is composed of calcium and phosphorus
compounds. Two bones can be connected to each other by another type of
connective tissue called the ligament. This tissue is very elastic.
Another type of connective tissue, cartilage, has widely spaced cells. The
solid matrix is composed of proteins and sugars. Cartilage smoothens
bone surfaces at joints and is also present in the nose, ear, trachea and
larynx
a. Identify the connective tissue by which two bones are connected to
each other
b.Give 4 examples of connective tissue
c What are the function of connective tissue?

The nervous tissue, which contains densely packed nerve cells, called
20 4
neurons (Gk. neuro = nerve), is present in the brain, spinal cord and
nerves. The neurons are specialised for conduction of nerve impulses.

a. What is a neuron?
b Write the structure and functions of a neuron.
c Draw and label the structure of a neuron.

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER - 6 TISSUES

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 (d) Areolar tissue 1
2 (b) Calcium and phosphorous compounds 1
3 (c) Transpiration. 1
4 (b) Nervous Tissues 1
5 (d) cut the growing tip 1
6 (d) bone 1
7 (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the 1
correct explanation of the Assertion.
8 (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the 1
correct explanation of the Assertion.
35
 SECTION B
9 (a) Voiuntary 2
(b) involuntary
(c) Voluntary
d) involuntary
10 Aerenchyma present in the swollen petiole provides buoyancy to the 2
hyacinth. Thus, it floats on water surface.
11 The epidermis has thick cuticles and waxy substances to prevent the 2
invasion of parasite
12 Any organism will have a wide range of cell types. This is because each 2
cell type specialises in one particular function. And for the proper
working of an organism many functions like food transport, immunity,
strength, etc., are needed to be performed properly
13 This happens because of transpiration due to which water is released from 2
the plant in the form of water vapour which appears on the glass jar.
SECTION C
14 Xylem and phloem are called as complex tissues as they are made up of 3
more than one type of cells.
Any two differences
15 The characteristics of cork ( any 2) 3

● Cells of cork are dead at maturity.

● ,Compactly arranged,
● do not possess intercellular space.,
● Cells possess a chemical substance ‘suberin’ in their walls.
● There are several thick layers.

As plants grow older, a strip of secondary meristem replaces the

epidermis of the stem. Cells on the outside are cut off from this
layer. This forms the several-layer thick cork or the bark of the tree.
16 The nail will remain at the same position even after 3 years. This is 3
because a plant or tree grows from its tip (stem or root) not from the point
at which it joins the ground. So, the tree will grow but the nail will remain
at the same place on the tree trunk.
SECTION D
17 Tissue A and tissue B constitute tissue C. A carries water while B carries 5
food for the plants. Identify A, B, C
Draw and identify different elements of A and B
I. Xylem
B…phloem
c….vascular tissue
Diagram and labelling
18 a. Vacuoles basically serve the purpose of storing of nutrients, excess 5
salts, etc. Meristematic cells do not need to store these nutrients. They are
specialized cells. Their main role is to divide and grow. Hence, they are
very active, and have dense cytoplasm, and prominent nuclei, but they
lack vacuoles.

b. Cells of sclerenchyma tissue have thick cell walls due to lignin. Due to

36
 the thick cell wall, intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchyma tissue.

c. In pear fruit, sclerenchyma cells are called stone cells. They are small,
thick, and hard. That is why we get a crunchy and granular feeling when
we chew pear fruit.

d. Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity due to
the presence of a permanent tissue called collenchyma. Collenchyma
provides flexibility in plants. It allows the bending of various parts of a
plant.

e. The husk of a coconut tree contains sclerenchyma tissue. This tissue

makes the plant hard and stiff. That is why it is difficult to pull out the
husk of a coconut tree.

SECTION E
19 a Ligament 4
b Blood, Bone, Ligament, cartilage
c Binding together other tissues ( any two)
Supporting various parts of the body
Forming a packing around organs
20 a Neurons are the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. 4
b All neurons have three different parts – dendrites, cell body and axon.
The neuron structure is specially adapted to carry messages over large
distances in the body quickly in the form of electrical signals.

37
 CHAPTER – 7 MOTION
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 slope of the distance vs time graph? 1
A speed
B. Displacement
C velocity
D acceleration

2 Association of a person moving with constant velocity 1

A. Infinitive
B. Positive acceleration
C. Negative aceleration
D. Zero

3 What is the definition of motion? 1

a) Change in position over time
b) Change in velocity over time
c) Change in acceleration over time
d) Change in distance over time
4 Velocity is defined as _____ per time. 1
a) distance
b) displacement
c) power
d) acceleration

5 What type of motion is exhibited by a car moving on a straight road? 1

a) Linear motion
b) Circular motion
c) Rotational motion
d) Oscillatory motion
6 Which of the following is an example of circular motion? 1
a) A planet orbiting the sun
b) A car moving on a straight road
c) A person walking on a straight path
d) A spinning top

7 ASSERTION: A passenger sitting in a moving bus is at rest with 1

respect to his fellow passenger but he is in motion with respect to a
man standing outside
REASON: Motion is relative
a. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
b. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
38
 d. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

8 ASSERTION: A moving object can have zero velocity 1

REASON: velocity is speed with direction
a. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
b. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
9 Define uniform acceleration. What is the acceleration of a body 2
moving with uniform velocity?
10 Represent uniform and nonuniform motion with the help of distance 2
time graphs
11 Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled, straight road. 2
Their distance time graphs are shown in the figure below. Which car
is the fastest? Why?

12 Differentiate between distance and displacement? 2

13 Draw a velocity versus time graph of a stone thrown vertically 2
upwards and downwards after attaining the maximum height.

SECTION C
14 A car travels from stop A to stop B with a speed of 30 km/h and 3
then returns back to A with a speed of 50 km/h. Calculate
a. displacement of the car.
b. average speed of the car

39
15 Arun swims in a square shaped swimming pool of 100m side. After 3
observing the pattern of his motion Sarita made two statements.
Evaluate the statements as true or false with valid reasons
a. Magnitude of displacement by Arun is more than the distance
traveled by him
b. Displacement by Arun can never be zero

16 a A signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in 10 minutes. 3

Calculate the distance of the spaceship from the ground station
(Speed of light = 3 × 108 ms-1)
b
What does the odometer of a car measures?
SECTION D
17 A train starting from rest attains a velocity of 36km/ h in 1 minute. 5
a Assuming that the acceleration is uniform, find
(i) the acceleration of the train
(ii) the distance travelled by the train for attaining this velocity
Write any two point difference between scalar and vector quantities

18 5
a)A velocity time graph of a moving car is shown in the graph

i) Which part of the graph shows zero acceleration?

ii)What is the minimum and maximum speed attained by the car?

40
 iii)How long the car is showing uniform acceleration?
iv) What is the distance travelled by the car in last 2 seconds?

SECTION E
19 he following table gives the data about motion of a car. 4
Time (h) 10.00 10.30 11.00 11.30 12.00
Distance 0 25 50 75 100
(km)
a. Find the speed of the car between 11.00 hours and 11.30 hours.
b. What is the average speed of the car?
c. Identify the type of motion exhibited by the car? Justify your
answer with valid reason
20 Two girls A and B are sitting on a merry- go- round exactly 4
opposite to one another, A at the right and B at the left side at a
distance of 4m from one another. The merry-go-round is moving
with a constant speed of 10m/s and takes 2 minutes to complete one
circle.
The motion on merry-go-round is an example of which type of
a. motion?
Calculate the maximum displacement obtained by the child B
b. “Uniform circular motion is accelerated “ justify the statement
c.

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER - 7 MOTION

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 d 1
2 d 1
3 a 1
4 b 1
5 a 1
6 A 1
7 a. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the 1
correct explanation of assertion (A).
8 b. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the 1
correct explanation of assertion (A).

SECTION B
9 If an object's rate of change of velocity is uniform it is said to be under 1
a uniform acceleration.
Zero 1

41
b
10 1+1

11 Car C is fastest 1
It covered maximum distance in minimum time 1
12 Distance Displacement Any two
1. The total path covered by 1. The shortest distance from the 1+1
an object. final position to the initial
position.
2. It is a scalar quantity. 2. It is a vector quantity.
3. It is always positive. 3. It can be positive(or) zero(or)
negative.
13 2

SECTION C
14 a. 0 ½

15 a. False . Displacement is always less than or equal to distance ½+1

b. False Displacement can zero ½+1
16 (Speed of light = 3 × 108 ms-1) 2
a Time is taken by signal = 10 min
1 minute = 60 sec
42
 10min = 10 × 60 sec = 600 sec
Distance of spaceship from ground station = 3 × 108 × 600 =18 × 1010
m 1
b speed
SECTION D
17 a a. Acceleration
u=0 ½
v=36km/h=10m/s ½
a=v-u/t=10/60=1/6m/s2 1+1
b. the distance travelled by the train for attaining this velocity
s=v2-u2/2a =600/2=300m 2
b any two difference
18
a. AB 1
b. minimum speed 0 m/s maximum speed =20m/s 1
c.3 seconds 1
d. area of BDC=1/2bh=1/2x3x20=30m 2
SECTION E
19 a. Distance=25 km time=0.5 h speed=distance/time 1
25/0.5=50 km/h 1
b average speed =100/2=50km/h
c uniform motion .equal distance covered in equal time intervals 2
20
a. Circular motion 1
b. 8m 1
c. The velocity changes due to continuous change in the direction So,
even when the body moves ta a constant speed, its velocity is not 2
constant. As there is change in velocity it is accelerated

43
 CHAPTER – 8 FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 Swimming is possible by the 1
a) first law of motion
b) second law of motion
c) third law of motion
d) Newtons law of gravitation
2 A cricket player catches a ball of mass 0.1 kg, moving with a speed 10 1
m/s in 0.1 second. Force exerted by him is (N)
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 10

3 Which of the following has the largest inertia? 1

a) A pin
b) A pen
c) Your notebook
d) Your trolly bag

4 The inertia of an object causes the object to 1

a) decrease its speed

b) Increase its speed
c)resist any change in the state of its motion
d)decelerate due to friction
5 If the mass of the body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the 1
linear momentum of the body will

a)become double
b)remain the same
c)become half
d)become four times
6 The linear momentum of an object is 250 g cm/s. If the velocity of the 1
object is 5 m/s, then the mass of the object is

a)0.5 g

b)5 kg
c)0.5 mg
d)5 mg
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is 1
followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
7
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct

44
 explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Assertion : When a bee hits a bus, each of them exerts the same force.

Reason : . The bee has more mass as compared to the windshield.

8 Assertion : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses the direction. 1

Reason : A body cannot have acceleration if its velocity is zero at a given

instant of time.

SECTION B
9 Suppose a ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with an initial 2
speed v, its speed decreases continuously till it becomes zero. Therefore,
the ball begins to fall downward and attains the speed v again before
striking the ground. It implies that the magnitude of initial and final
momenta of the ball are the same. Yet, it is not an example of
conservation of momentum. Explain why?.

10 List two factors on which friction depends? 2

11 A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it, and the 2
glass pane is not cracked. But, when a stone strikes the same glass pane, it
gets shattered. Why is it so?

12 Neha is walking on the road. Describe her walking in terms of Newton’s 2

third law of motion. .

13 There are three balls made up of aluminium, steel and thermocol , of the 2
same shape and same volume. Which of them will have the highest
inertia?

SECTION C
14 You are given a pile of carrom coins. Describe in brief an activity to 3
illustrate the property of inertia of rest?
15 Ram and Shyam are on roller-skates. They are standing 5 m apart facing 3
each other. Ram throws a ball of 2 kg towards Shyam, who catches it.
How will this activity affect the position of the two? Explain.

16 What is the relationship between mass and inertia? Explain illustrating 3

two examples.

45
 SECTION D
17 Using the second law of motion, derive the unit of force. 5
A force of 5 N produces an acceleration of 8 m s-2 on a mass m and an
acceleration of 24 m s-2 on a mass m2. What acceleration would the same
force provide if both the masses are tied together?

18 Explain momentum? Write down its SI unit. Interpret force in terms of 5

momentum. Represent the given situation graphically. (ncert exemplar)
(a) momentum versus velocity when mass is fixed.
(b) momentum versus mass when velocity is constant.
SECTION E
19 Read the given information and answer the following questions: 4

CASE- When one object exerts a force on another object, the second
object instantaneously exerts a force back on the first. These two forces
are always equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. These forces act
on different objects and never on the same object. It is important to note
that even though the action and reaction forces are always equal in
magnitude; these forces may not produce accelerations of equal
magnitudes, this is because each force acts on a different object that may
have a different mass. The two opposing forces are also known as action
and reaction forces
1.Complete the sentence:
Action reaction forces are always--------------------------- and ----------------
-------in direction
2.Give two examples of the third law of motion.
3. justify the statement:
Even though the action and reaction forces are always equal in
magnitude, these forces may not produce accelerations of equal
magnitudes.
20 4

46
 Take a glass tumbler and
place a thick square card on its mouth. A coin is then placed above this
card in the middle. flick the card hard with your fingers. The card moves
away but the coin drops into the glass tumbler.
Newton’s first law of motion states that a body at rest will remain at rest
and a body which is in motion continues to be in motion unless otherwise
they are acted upon by an external force. In other words, all objects resist
a change in their state of motion. In a qualitative way, the tendency of
undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep moving with the same
velocity is called inertia. This is why the first law of motion is also known
as the law of inertia.
1. What happens if no external force acts on a moving object with respect
to its speed and direction?
2. State Newton’s first law of motion.
3. Newton’s first law of motion is called the law of inertia. Justify.

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER - 8 FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 c 1
2 d 1

3 d 1

4 c 1

5 b 1

6 a 1

7 c 1

8 c 1

SECTION B

47
9 Law of conservation of momentum is applicable to isolated systems (no 2
external force is applied). In this case, the change in velocity is due to the
gravitational force of earth.

10 The force of friction is directly proportional to the weight of the body 2

sliding over the surface. The force of friction also depends on the nature
of the surfaces in contact..

11 When the bullet strikes the glass pane, the part of the glass pane which 2
comes in contact with the bullet shares the large velocity of the bullet and
makes a hole, while the remaining part of the glass remains at rest and is
therefore not shattered due to inertia of rest.
But when a slow moving stone strikes the same glass pane, the various
parts of the glass pane get enough time to share the velocity of the stone,
and the glass is shattered.

12 When Neha walks on the road, her foot pushes the ground backward 2
(action) and the ground pushes her foot forward (reaction). Thus, the
forward reaction exerted by the ground on her foot makes her walk
forward.

13 Steel has the highest inertia. As the mass is a measure of inertia, the ball 2
of the same shape and size, having more mass than other balls, will have
the highest inertia. Steel has the greatest density and greatest mass,
therefore, it has highest inertia.

SECTION C
14 ● Make a pile of similar carom coins on a table. 3
● Attempt a sharp horizontal hit at the bottom of the pile using
another carrom coin or the striker. If the hit is strong enough, the
bottom coin moves out quickly. Once the lowest coin is removed,
the inertia of the other coins makes them ‘fall’ vertically on the
table.
● The inertia of coins tries to maintain its state of rest even when one
of the coin moves out.
15 Separation between Ram and Shyam will increase. Initially the 3
momentum of both of them are zero as they are at rest. In order to
conserve the momentum Ram who throws the ball would move backward.
Shyam will experience a net force after catching the ball and therefore
will move backwards that is in the direction of the force.

16 The mass of a body is a measure of its inertia. It means larger the mass of 3
a body, larger will be the inertia offered by the body to change its state of
motion. examples to clarify it: 1.When we kick a football, it
flies a long way but at the same time if we kick a stone of the same size, it
hardly moves, as the stone resists a change in its motion better than the
48
 football because of its more mass. 2. We can increase the velocity
of our bicycle by pedaling harder, i.e., by applying more force. But the
same force will produce a negligible change in the motion of a
motorcycle, because in comparison to the bicycle, a motorcycle has more
tendency to oppose the change in its state of motion because of its larger
mass

SECTION D
17 5

18 Momentum is a property of a moving body by the virtue of both its mass 5

and velocity. It is equal to the product of mass and velocity. p = m × v
Its SI unit is kg ms-1
As momentum = mass x velocity
Force= rate of change of momentum
(a) When mass is fixed When m is constant momentum is directly
proportional to velocity.
momentum α velocity

49
 (b) When velocity is constant, momentum will be directly
proportional to mass
momentum α mass

SECTION E
19 1. equal and opposite 4(1+2+1
)
2.Any 2 examples(Swimming or rowing a boat.
•Static friction while pushing an object.•Walking.
•Standing on the ground or sitting on a chair.)
3.These action reaction forces are acting on two different objects having
different masses that’s why they produce acceleration with different
magnitude.

20 1.Continue to move with same speed in same direction 4(1+1+2

)
2.Newton’s first law of motion states that a body at rest will remain at rest
position only and a body which is in motion continues to be in motion
unless otherwise they are acted upon by an external force.
3. All objects resist a change in their state of motion. In a qualitative way,
the tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep moving with
the same velocity is called inertia. So the first law of motion is also
known as the law of inertia.

50
 CHAPTER- 9 GRAVITATION
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 Which of the following is true of two objects of different masses falling 1
freely near the surface of the moon?

a. They both have different accelerations.

b. They have the same velocities at any instant
c. They experience forces of the same magnitude
d. They change their inertia

2 Which of the following statements is true of the value of acceleration due 1

to gravity?

a. The value is the same on the equator and poles

b. The value is least on poles
c. The value is almost negligible on the equator
d. The value increases from pole to equator
3 . Which of the following is true when a Mango falls from a Mango Tree? 1

a. Only the Earth attracts the Mango.

b. Only the Mango attracts the Earth.
c. Both Mango and Earth attract each other
d. Both Mango and Earth repel each other
4 . The Earth’s atmosphere is held by the 1

a. Wind
b. Clouds
c. Earth’s magnetic field
d. Gravity
5 . The weight of an object on the Moon’s surface is 1

a. 1/3 rd of the weight on Earth

b. 1/5 rd of the weight on Earth
c. 1/6th of the weight on Earth
d. 1/2 nd of the weight on Earth
6 A body of mass 1kg is attracted by the earth with a force which is 1
equal to
a. 9.8N
b. 6.67x 10 11

51
 c. 1 N
d.9.8m/s

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is 1

given, and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of
the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason are true.
7 Assertion : Universal gravitational constant G is a scalar quantity.
Reason : The value of G is same throughout the universe
8 Assertion : When distance between two bodies is doubled and also mass 1
of each body is doubled, then the gravitational force between them
remains the same.
Reason : According to Newton’s law of gravitation, force is directly
proportional to them as of bodies and inversely proportional to square of
the distance between them.
SECTION B

9 If the small and big stones are dropped from the roof of a house 2
simultaneously, they will reach the ground at the same time. Why?
10 Mention any four phenomena that the universal law of gravitation was 2
able to explain

11 2
Why does a body reach the ground quicker at poles than at the equator
when dropped from the same height?
12 A force of 20 N acts upon a body whose weight is 9.8 N. What is the 2
mass of the body and how much is its acceleration? Take g = 9.8 m/s2.
13 It difficult to hold a school bag having a strap made of a thin and strong 2
string…Why?
SECTION C
14 Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water? 3

15 A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4s to reach the ground. 3
Calculate the height of the building.
16 A stone is dropped from a height of 10 m on an unknown planet having g 3
= 20 m/s2. Calculate the speed of the stone when it hits the surface of the

52
 planet. Also, calculate the time it takes to fall through this height.
SECTION D
17 (a) Define pressure. State its SI unit. 5

(b) The dimensions of a metallic cuboid are 30 cm × 20cm × 15 cm, and

its mass is 30 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s 2, calculate
the pressure exerted by the cuboid when it rests on the face with sides 20
cm × 15 cm on the table.

(c) In which of the following situations do we exert more pressure on the

ground? Whether standing on the foot or standing on both feet? Justify the
answer.
18 (a) A metallic bar has a 200 g mass at poles. Does it change when it is 5
taken to the equator?

(b) Is there any weight change when brought to the equator?

(c) What would happen when there is no acceleration due to gravity?

(d) Differentiate between acceleration due to gravity and universal

gravitational constant

(e) Derive a relation between G and g.

SECTION E

19 We know that the earth attracts every object with a certain force and this 4
force depends on the mass (m) of the object and the acceleration due to
the gravity (g). The weight of an object is the force with which it is
attracted towards the earth. Mathematically
W=mxg
Where, W= weight of object
m= mass of object
g= acceleration due to the gravitational force
As the weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards
the earth, the SI unit of weight is the same as that of force, that is, Newton
(N). The weight is a force acting vertically downwards; it has both
magnitude and direction. We have learnt that the value of g is constant at
a given place. Therefore, at a given place, the weight of an object is
directly proportional to the mass, say m, of the object, that is, W αm. It is
due to this reason that at a given place, we can use the weight of an object
as a measure of its mass.

53
 Answer the following questions.
a) Whether weight is scalar quantity or vector quantity? Justify your
answer.
b) Differentiate between mass and weight
c) Unit of acceleration due to the gravity (g) is……

20 4

Archimedes’ principle, stated as follows: When a body is immersed fully

or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by it. The upward force is known as up
thrust or buoyant force. In fact, all objects experience a force of buoyancy
when they are immersed in a fluid. The magnitude of this buoyant force
depends on the density of the fluid . Objects having density less than that
of the liquid in which they are immersed float on the surface of the liquid.
If the density of the object is more than the density of the liquid in which
it is immersed then it sinks in the liquid. Hence the body will float or sink
depending upon the difference between density of body and fluid.

a) State Archimedes’ principle.

b) Why does a cube of plastic released deep down under the water come
up to the surface of water?

c) Name the force experienced on a body which is immersed in liquid

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER- 9 GRAVITATION

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 b 1
2 b 1

54
3 c 1
4 d 1
5 c 1
6 a 1
7 a 1
8 a 1
SECTION B
9 The acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon the mass of the stone 2
or body.
Both the bodies fall with the same acceleration towards the surface of the
earth.
Thus a big stone will fall with the same acceleration as a small stone.
So, both the stones will reach the ground at the same time when dropped
simultaneously.

10 The universal law of gravitation was able to explain successfully 2

● the force that binds us to the earth.

● the motion of the moon around the earth.
● the motion of planets around the sun.
● the tides due to the moon and the sun

11 The acceleration due to gravity is more at the poles than at the equator. 2
The time taken for a body is less if the acceleration due to gravity is more
when the initial velocities and the distance travelled are the same
. So, when dropped from the same height a body reaches the ground quicker
at the poles than at the equator.

12 :Weight, W = mg, m = W/g, m = 9.8/9.8 = 1 kg 2

So, acceleration = Force / Mass =20/1 = 20 m/s2

13 A bag with a small string is difficult to hold. This is because the thin strap 2
has a small surface area. Pressure is inversely proportional to the area on
which the force acts. It can be said that these thin strings exert greater
pressure on the student’s shoulder who is holding the bag
SECTION C

14 Two forces act on the object’s surface when placed on the water surface 3

. These are weight and upthrust. The weight acts vertically downwards and
the upthrust works vertically upwards. Based on these two forces, the object
will either float or sink.

If the weight is greater, the object will sink. The object will float on the
water’s surface if the upthrust is more than the weight.
15 Here, initial velocity, u = 0 3
Time taken to reach the ground, t = 4 s
55
 Acceleration, a = g = 9.8 m/s2
Height of the building, h = ?
h=ut+1/2 gt x t

=0+1/2gtxt

=1/2x9.8x4x4

=78.4 m

16 h = 10m, 3

g = 20 m/s2

V2 = u2 + 2

v2 = 0 + 2 × 20 × 10 =400

v = 20 m/s

v=u+gt

20 = 0 + 20t

t = 20/20 =1 sec

SECTION D

17 (a) The pressure is the thrust per unit area of a surface. The SI unit of 5
pressure is pascal. 1+2+2

(b) It is given that mass = M = 30kg

Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2

Area = A = 20 cm × 15 cm = 0.2 × 0.15 m = 0.03 m2

Thrust = M × g = 30 kg × 10 m/s2 = 300 N

Pressure = Thrust / Area = 300/0.03 = 104 Pascal

(c) When we stand on the ground, we exert pressure. This pressure is

exerted more when we stand on one foot as all the weight is exerted on the
area of one foot only, so the pressure increases because the pre
18 a) Even when the metallic bar is taken to the equator, there will be no 5
change in mass, and it will remain constant everywhere

.(b) When the bar is brought to the equator, its weight will decrease. This is
due to lower value of ‘g’ at the equator as compared to the poles.

56
 (c) All objects will move in a straight line with uniform velocity if there is
no acceleration due to gravity

(d) The universal gravitational constant ‘G’ equals the force between the
two unit masses separated by unit distance. Its value of 6.67 × 10 -11 N
m2/kg2 is constant at every point. It has a minimal value.

Acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ is equal to the acceleration experienced by a

body of any mass. It has a large magnitude which changes from point to
point.

(e)Derivation.(refer NCERT text book)

SECTION E

19 a) Weight is vector quantity as it has magnitude as well as direction which 4

2+1+1
is always towards centre of a earth.
b) Difference between mass and weight (any 2)
c) m/s2

a) Archimedes’ principle, stated as follows: When a body is immersed fully or

20 partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of 4
the fluid displaced by it. 2+1+1
b) because it has less density than that of water also it experiences upward
buoyancy force on it due to liquid.

c) buoyant force.

57
 CHAPTER: 10 WORK & ENERGY

Q.No SECTION A Marks

1 1
If the displacement in this image is 10 M and force applied is 5 N . Select the
work done :
a) 10J (b) 100 J (c) 50 N.M (d) 100 N.M
2 If the car of mass 100 gm is moving with a speed of 2 m/s m/s.calculate the 1
work done against gravity by the girl.
(a) 10J (b) 20 J (c ) 200J (d) ZERO
3 If a brick hits another brick of the same mass after 2 sec. How much of the 1
work will be done by the first brick on the second?
(a ) Zero (b) 10J (c) 100J (d) 20 N.M
4 Raju was playing with a ball of 100gm. He threw that towards the sky with a 1
velocity of 2m/s. When the ball reaches to its maximum height its kinetic
energy is :
(a) Maximum (b) minimum (c) remains constant (d) can not calculated
5 In case of no work is done then the angle between the direction of force 1
applied and the displacement is:
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d ) 180°
6 Which of the following is / are unit of work ; 1
(i) Kg.M3.S2 (ii) N / M (iii) N .M (iv) Kg.M2 /S2
(a ) (I) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (I) and (iii)
ASSERTION /REASON
7 Assertion : an object moving faster can do more work than an identical 1
object moving relatively slowly.
Reason : velocity affects energy more as compared to mass.

8 Assertion: a fraction of kinetic energy of a falling object converts into heat 1

energy.
Reason: kinetic energy always remains constant.

SECTION B
9 A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 200 N on a plough. The field being 2
ploughed is 10 m long. How much work is done in ploughing the length of the
field? Express it in Joules and Kilo Joules.
10 An object of mass 20kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 5 m s–1. What is 2
the kinetic energy possessed by the object?
11 Mass of the car is 2000 kg? Calculate the work to be done to increase the 2
velocity of the car from 18 km h–1 to 72km h–1.
12 1.Can any object have mechanical energy even if its momentum is zero? 2
justify.
2.Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is zero?
justify.
13 Define the following 2
1. joule 2. watt
SECTIION C
14 Derive the expression for calculating kinetic energy of an object of mass m 3
moving with velocity v

58
15 1.Derive the formula for calculating potential energy for an object of mass m 3
kept at a height of h.
2. Also prove that the work done by gravity depends on the difference in
vertical heights of the initial and final positions of the object and not on the
path along which the object is moved

16 Consider two objects X and Y , with same momentum. Object X is lighter and 3
object Y is heavier . . Which one has a larger kinetic energy X or Y?. Find out
the ratio of their kinetic energies
SECTION D
17 State law of conservation of energy. Illustrate with proof 5
18 1.Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it without raising or 5
lowering it.
(a) How much work is done by the men in lifting the box?
(b) How much work do they do in just holding it?
(c) Why do they get tired while holding it? (g = 10 m s–2)
2. A rocket is moving up with a velocity v. If the velocity of this rocket is
suddenly tripled, what will be the ratio of two kinetic energies?

SECTION E
19 1. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is 4
done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.
a. A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
b. An engine is pulling a train.

0. Name the SI units of work and power

3.

The figure shows a round about of radius 100m on a road .

A man is moving on a straight road against a frictional force of 5 N. After

travelling a distance of 2 km he got confused and forgot the correct path at the
round about to move . However, he moves on the circular path for one and
half cycle and then he moves forward up to 3.0 km. Calculate the work done
by him.
20 1. An object of mass 20 kg is dropped from a height of 4 m. Fill in the 4
blanks in the following table by computing the potential energy and
kinetic energy in each case.( For simplifying the calculations, take the
value of g as 10 m s–2 .)

Potential Kinetic Total mechanical energy

59
 energy(mgh) energy((½mv2) energy(mgh)+ (½mv2)
4
3
2
1
Just
touching
ground

2 Interpret the trend in the changes in case of potential energy, kinetic energy
and total mechanical energy

3 .Which law can be explained based on this data and state the law

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER:10 WORK & ENERGY

Q.No SECTION A Marks

1 c 1
2 d) 1
3 b) 1
4 b) 1
5 c) 1
6 c) 1

7 a, both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 1

8 c 1
SECTION B
9 F = 200N 2
s = 10 m
W = F xx s
= 200N x 10 m = 2000J = 2kJ
10 m = 20 kg 2
v = 5 m/s
KE = ½ mv2
= ½ x 20 x 5 x 5
= 250J
11 Mass of car ,m = 2000kg 2
Initial velocity ,u = 18km/h = 18x5/18 = 5 m/s
Initial kinetic energy , = ½ mu2 = ½ x 2000 x 5 x 5 = 25000J (½)
Final velocity , v = 72km/h = 72 x 5/18 = 20m/s
Final kinetic energy = ½ mv2 = ½ x 2000 x 20 x 20 = 400000J (½)

Work done to change velocity from 18km/h to72km/h = change in kinetic energy
60
 Change in kinetic energy = Final kinetic energy – initial kinetic energy
= ½ mv - ½ mu (½)
2 2

= 400000-25000 = 375000J
= 375kJ (½)
12 1.Yes, mechanical energy comprises both potential energy and kinetic energy. 2
Momentum is zero which means velocity is zero. Hence, there is no kinetic energy
but the object may possess potential energy.
2.No. Since mechanical energy is zero, there is no potential energy and no kinetic
energy. Kinetic energy being zero, velocity is zero. Hence, there will be no
momentum
13 1.One joule is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 N displaces it 2
by 1 m along the line of action of the force (1)
2. 1 watt is the power of an agent, which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second
(1)

SECTIION C
14 Consider an object of mass, m moving with a uniform velocity, u. 3

Let it now be displaced through a distance s when a constant force, F acts on it in the
direction of its displacement.
The work done, W is F s. (½)
The work done on the object will cause a change in its velocity.
Let its velocity change from u to v.
Let a be the acceleration produced.

. The relation connecting the initial velocity (u) and final velocity (v) of an object
moving with a uniform acceleration a, and the displacement, s is v – u = 2a s (½)
2 2

This gives s = v – u /2a

2 2

we know F = m a. (½)

Thus, using we can write the work done by the force, F as m x a

W = m a x (v – u ) /2a
2 2

Ie W = ½ x m x (v – u ) (½) 2 2

If the object is starting from its stationary position, that is, u = 0,

then

W = ½ x m v (½)
2

The work done is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of an object.
If u = 0, the work done will be ½ m v . 2

Thus, the kinetic energy possessed by an object of mass, m and moving with a
uniform velocity, v is
KE = ½ m v2 . (½)
15 1.Consider an object of mass, m. Let it be raised through a height, h from the 3
ground.
The minimum force required to raise the object is equal to the weight of the object,
mg. (½)
The object gains energy equal to the work done on it.
Let the work done on the object against gravity be W.

61
 That is, work done,
W = force × displacement = mg × h = mgh (½)
Since work done on the object is equal to mgh, an energy equal to mgh units is
gained by the object.
This is the potential energy (PE ) of the object. PE = mgh (½)

1.

Figure shows a case where a block is raised from position A to B by

taking two different paths.
if the height AB = h.
In both the situations the work done on the object is mgh.

The work done by gravity depends on the difference in vertical heights

of the initial and final positions of the object and not on the path along
which the object is moved

16 3
OBJECT X OBJECT Y
Momentum = p Momentum = p
X Y

Mass = m (lighter object)

X Mass = m (heavier object) Y

p p ie m v = m v , therefore m < m iev >v

X = Y , X X Y Y X Y X Y

KE = ½ m v = ½ m v x v
X X KE = ½ m v = ½ m v x v
X
2
X X X Y Y Y
2
Y Y Y

= ½ (m v ) x v = ½ (m v ) x v
X X X Y Y Y

=½ p xv X (m v = p )
X =½ p xv (m v = p )
X X X Y Y Y Y Y

ie KE / KE = ½ p x v / ½ p x v
X Y X X Y Y

ie KE / KE = v / v X Y X Y

Since v >v , then KE > KE X Y X Y

SECTION D
17 1 Law of conservation of energy states that , energy can only be converted from one 5
form to another; it can neither be created or destroyed. The total energy before and
after the transformation remains the same. The law of conservation of energy is
valid in all situations and for all kinds of transformations. (1)

Proof:
Let an object of mass, m be made to fall freely from a height, h.

At the start, the potential energy is mgh and kinetic energy is zero.

62
 Kinetic energy is zero because its velocity is zero. The total energy of the object is
thus mgh. (1)

As it falls, its potential energy will change into kinetic energy. If v is the velocity of
the object at a given instant, the kinetic energy would be ½mv2. (1)
As the fall of the object continues, the potential energy would decrease while the
kinetic energy would increase. When the object is about to reach the ground, h = 0
and v will be the highest.

Therefore, the kinetic energy would be the largest and potential energy the least.
However, the sum of the potential energy and kinetic energy of the object would be
the same at all points.

That is, potential energy + kinetic energy = constant (1)

mgh + ½ mv = constant
2

The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of an object is its total mechanical
energy.
We find that during the free fall of the object, the decrease in potential energy, at
any point in its path, appears as an equal amount of increase in kinetic energy.
There is thus a continual transformation of gravitational potential energy into
kinetic energy. (1)
18 1 (a)F = m x g 5
m= 250 kg
g =10 m s –2

F= 250x 10 = 2500N (1)

s=1m

W = F.s = 2500 N x 1 m = 2500 J (1)

b.zero; as the box does not move at all, while holding it. (1)

c.In order to hold the box, men are applying a force which is opposite and
equal to the gravitational force acting on the box. While applying the force,
muscular effort is involved. So they feel tired. (1)

2.Initial velocity of rocket= v

Initial kinetic energy = ½ mv 2

Velocity tripled, Final velocity = 3v

Final kinetic energy= ½ x m x (3v) = 9 x ½ mv
2 2
(½)
Therefore kinetic energy increases 9 times (½)

SECTION E
19 1.a. no work is done since force and displacement are not involved(½) 4
b. Work is done since force and displacement are involved(½)

0. Si unit of work- joule (J) (½)

SI unit of power: watt ( w) (½)

63
 3.F = 5 N

s = (2 km + 100m+3 km) = (2000m+100m+3000m)=5100m

( Man takes one and a half round , but displacement is 100m only) (1)
W= Fxs
= 5 N x 5100 =25500J = 25.5kJ (1)

20 4
Potential Kinetic Total mechanical energy
energy(mgh) energy((½mv ) 2
energy(mgh)+ (½mv ) 2

4 800 0 800
3 600 200 800
2 400 400 800
1 200 600 800
Just touching 0 800 800
ground
( completing table 1 mark)
2.Potential energy decreases with the decrease in height
Kinetic energy increases with the increase in distance travelled
Total mechanical energy remains same (1)
3.Law of conservation of energy : According to the law of conservation of energy,
energy can only be transformed from one form to another; it can neither be created
nor destroyed. The total energy before and after the transformation always remains
constant. (1+!)

64
 CHAPTER-11 : SOUND

Q.N SECTION A Marks

o
1 Sound can travel in 1
1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. Vaccum
Choose the correct option: -
1. i and ii
2. i, ii and iii
3. i and iii
4. ii, iii and iv
2 Compression is a region of 1
1. high pressure
2. medium pressure
3. low pressure
4. none of the above
3 The loudness or softness of sound is determined by 1
1. wavelength
2. amplitude
3. pitch
4. none of the above
4 The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of 1
the mean value is called….
1. wavelength
2. amplitude
3. pitch
4. none of the above
5 The sound of the thunder and the flash of light is seen 1
1. together seen
2. first flash of light is seen than the sound of thunder
3. first sound of the thunder heard than the flash of the light
4. both are not seen
6 Sonu wants to observe the speed of sound in different objects. He performed 1
experiments and found that the speed of sound is maximum in
1. iron
2. water
3. air
4. vacuum
Question number 7 and 8 consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the following

65
 (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true
7 Assertion A:- Nocturnal animals like bat can freely move at night. 1
Reason R:- Bats send ultrasound while moving.
8 Assertion A:- Sound of aeroplane is not heard during landing and taking off. 1
Reason R:- Sound is produced by vibration.
SECTION B
9 Illustrate how ultrasound can be used to detect flaws in metallic blocks. 2
10 Shanu , a class 9 boy, is scared of Thunder. Once, Shanu and his grandfather 2
were alone at home , he heard a Sound produced by a thunderstorm ,10 s
after the lightning was seen. Grandfather told him the thunder had not
happened in the nearby area . Calculate the approximate distance of the
thunder cloud. (Given speed of sound = 340 m s–1.)
11 Define the term Amplitude and Frequency 2
Represent graphically the following case :
“Two sound waves having the same amplitude but different frequencies”?
12 Compare male voice and female voice based on their frequency and 2
amplitude.
Represent graphically the following case
“Two sound waves having the same frequency but different amplitudes”.

13 Write an expression to relate speed, frequency and wavelength of sound . 2

Represent graphically the following case
“Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different
wavelengths”.
SECTIION C
14 List three applications of ultrasonic sounds 3
In the following fields
.Research laboratories
i.In industries

66
15 A rectangular park , on one side is bordered with a road and the opposite 3
side with a wall of a building. A sound is produced by a cracker on the road.
Is it possible for a child sitting at a point 5 m away from each side of the
park. The Dimensions of the park is 10mx 10m.Justify your answer.

16 i)Explain how sound is produced by your school bell. 3

ii)Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?
iii)Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear
any sound produced by your friend?
SECTION D
17 Establish the relationship between speed of sound, its wavelength and 5
frequency.
If velocity of sound in air is 340 m s–1, calculate
.wavelength when frequency is 512 Hz.
(ii) frequency when wavelength is 1.7 m
18 Draw a curve showing density or pressure variations with respect to distance 5
for a disturbance produced by sound. Mark the position of compression and
rarefaction on this curve. Also define wavelengths and time period using this
curve
SECTION E
19 4

Take a slinky as shown in the figure. Ask your friend to hold one end. You
hold the other end. Now stretch the slinky . Then give it a sharp push
towards your friend.
What do you notice?
If you move your hand pushing and pulling the slinky alternatively, what
will you observe?
If you mark a dot on the slinky, you will observe that the dot on the slinky
will move back and forth parallel to the direction of the propagation of the
disturbance.
1. Redraw the diagram of slinky to illustrate the observations and name
the portion of slinky which come closer and the portion of slinky

67
 which are set apart.
2. Relate the direction of propagation of a sound wave with the
disturbances.
3. Differentiate between longitudinal wave and transverse wave

20 4
Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves to view internal organs and
soft tissues. For this procedure, the doctors uses a transducer, which
transmits high-frequency sound waves. A handheld transducer is placed on
the skin and a doctor moves it around to allow the sound waves to bounce
off the soft tissues. An attached machine records the echoing waves, and
translates them into pictures on a screen.
1.Out of the four investigative factors given, list a pair of characters ,one
which can be detected and other which cannot be detected by ultrasound
examination of foetus: foetal sex determination, Foetal eye colour , Foetal
body size, number of developing foetus.
2. Though X-rays can also be used to take the images of a developing fetus ,
doctors advise expectant mothers to avoid exposure to X-rays. Why
abdominal X-rays are not recommended for pregnant women . Give two
reasons?
3.. The ultrasound waves travel through tissues at a speed of 1530 m/s . To
form an image the ultrasound scanner should estimate the distance of the
tissue from the probe. What measurement must the ultrasound machine
make to calculate the distance .Justify your answer.

CHAPTER: SOUND ANSWER KEY

Q.N SECTION A Mark
o s
1 b 1
2 a 1
3 b 1
4 b 1
5 b 1
6 a 1
7 a 1
8 b 1
SECTION B

68
9 2

Or description
10 2
Light travels faster than sound ( ½ )
Time taken to reach the sound of thunder= 10s
Speed of sound= 340m/s
Distance = speed x time
= 10s x 340m/s = 3400m = 3.4km ( ½ ) + ( ½ )

Thunder happened 3.4 km away froShanu’s place.

Judgement of Grandfather was correct ( ½ )
11 2

(½)+(½)
Amplitude: Maximum distance to which a wave moves from its mean
position ( ½ )
Frequency: Number of oscillations per second ( ½ )

12 2

(½)+(½)

Frequency Amplitude
Male voice low high
Female voice high low

(½)+(½)
13 2

69
 (½)+(½)

v=λν
That is, speed = wavelength × frequency (1)
SECTIION C
14 3
Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places,
for example, spiral tube, odd shaped parts, electronic components, etc. ( ½ )
Objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic waves
are sent into the solution. ( ½ )
Due to the high frequency, the particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached
and drop out. The objects thus get thoroughly cleaned( ½ )

ii) Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
in construction of big structures like buildings, bridges, machines and also
scientific equipment.( ½ )

Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass through the metal block and detectors
are used to detect the transmitted waves. ( ½ )
If there is even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating
the presence of the flaw or defect( ½ )
15 Echo is produced when sound travels 34 m ( from the point of origin to 3
reflecting surface and back the listener) within 0.1 s time gap. (1)

Speed of sound = 340m/s

Distance travelled by sound in 0.1 s = 340m/s x 0.1s
= 34 m (1)
The minimum distance travelled by the reflected sound wave for the
distinctly listening the echo = 34/2 = 17 m

Dimension of the park = 10m x 10m

Since the distance of the child from the wall is 5 m , much smaller than the
required distance to make a clear echo, No echo will be (1)formed.
16 3
i)When an object or school bell vibrates, it sets the particles of the medium
around it vibrating. A particle of the medium in contact with the vibrating
object is first displaced from its equilibrium position.
It then exerts a force on the adjacent particle. As a result of which the
adjacent particle gets displaced from its position of rest. After displacing the
adjacent particle, the first particle comes back to its original position. This
process continues in the medium till the sound reaches your ear. ( ½ )+ ( ½
)+ ( ½ )
ii) Sound waves are characterised by the motion of particles in the medium
and are called mechanical waves (1)
iii. No, as there is no medium sound is not propagated on moon’s surface ((
½)
SECTION D
17 Derivation of formula v = f λ. 5
70
 The speed of sound is defined as the distance which a point on a wave, such
as a compression or a rarefaction, travels per unit time.
speed, v = distance / time
= λ /T
Here λ is the wavelength of the sound wave.
It is the distance travelled by the sound wave in one time period (T) of the
wave. Thus, v = λ f ( I/ T= f)

or v = λ f
That is, speed = wavelength × frequency.
. V= 340 m/s f = 512Hz λ =?
V= f x λ

λ = v/f = 340 /512

λ = 0.66 m.
ii. v= 340m/s f=? λ = 1.7m
V= f x λ

f = v/ λ = 340 / 1.7 = 200Hz

18 5

( labelling compressio1 mark, rarefaction 1 mark, diagram 1 mark)

Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive compressions or two

consecutive rarefactions. (1)
Time period is the time taken to travel the distance between any two
consecutive compressions or rarefactions from a fixed point. (1)

SECTION E
19 1. 4

(1)

2. The direction of propagation of distance is parallel to the direction of

propagation of wave (1)
3. a longitudinal wave is the wave in which the individual particles of the
medium move parallel to the direction of wave propagation (1)

a transverse wave is the wave in which the individual particles of the

medium move about their mean positions in a direction perpendicular to the
direction of wave propagation (1)
20 1.a pair of characters 4
,one which can be detected - foetal sex determination,/ , Foetal
71
 body size,/ number of developing foetus ( ½ )
which cannot be detected by ultrasound examination of foetus: ,
Foetal eye colour ( ½ )
2. foetus may get harmful effect/ genetic change/ birth or developmental
defect ( ½ ) + ( ½ )
3. The ultrasound machine should measure the time to travel from probe or
transducer to the tissue and reflect to reach the probe . (1)
The ultrasound machine will be able to produce the image if distance is
measured.
Distance = Speed X time (1 )

72
 CHAPTER- 12 IMPROVEMENTS OF FOOD RESOURCES
Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 Which of the following plants can be grown for as a source of protein? 1
(i)Lentil (ii) Sunflower (iii) Cauliflower (iv) Hibiscus
(a)(i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c ) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
2 Identify the source of protein from given choices. 1
(i) Rice (ii) Millets (iii) Sorghum (iv) Gram
(a ) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c ) (i) and (iv) (d) only (iv)
3 Which of the following can help in solving the food problem of India? 1
(i) Increase in population
(ii) increasing land area for cultivation
(iii) giving free food to all
(iv) employing scientific methods and advanced technology.
(a ) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c ) (ii) and (iv) (d) only (iv)
4 Find out the correct statement from the following 1
(i) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(ii) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(iii) Increasing food production without compromising with
environmental quality is called as sustainable agriculture
(iv) None of the above

(a ) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c ) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) only (iv)
5 An Italian bee variety A. mellifera has been introduced in India for 1
honey production. Which of the following are the correct reasons for
this?
(i)They stings more
(ii)Their honey collection capacity is maximum.
(iii)It stays in a single beehive for a less period of time
(iv)Its breeding capacity is high.
(a ) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c ) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) only (iv)
6 the need of poultry farming is for the following purpose: 1
(i)production of milk (ii)production of egg
(iii)farm work (iv) production of meat
(a ) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c ) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) only (iv)
7 Assertion :- wheat, rice and maize are energy yielding crops.
Reason : wheat, rice and maize are staple foods for the majority of
people in India.
a. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
b. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true..

73
8 Assertion :- hybridisation helps in plants' disease resistivity. 1
Reason : Crossing between genetically different organisms to produce
desired characteristics in the offspring is known as hybridization.

a. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
b. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
SECTION B
9 Some of the nutrients are required by the crop in very small amounts. 2
Identify the type of nutrient and give two examples
10 Evaluate how animal husbandry supports Indian economy 2
11 Manpreet bought an agricultural land which is elevated .Suggest any 2
two methods by which he can prevent soil erosion?

12 What is Weeding ? Mention any two methods to perform weeding. 2

13 Differentiate between milch and draught animals with one example 2

SECTION C
14 Compare the Use of Manure and Fertilizers in maintaining fertility of 3
soil
15 List the desirable agronomic characteristics favoring Crop 3
Improvements?
16 Increasing grain production alone solves the problem of malnutrition 3
and hunger. Evaluate the statement giving valid reasons?
SECTION D
17 Suresh wants to follow composite fish farming in his pond. What 5
things should he keep in mind while selecting fish varieties for his
farm? List any two advantages of composite fish farming
18 Explain different cropping patterns by evaluating their advantages 5
SECTION E
19 Beekeeping has been practiced for centuries and honey has been 4

74
 considered as a valuable and precious commodity that is used as
medicine for traditional rituals, or as food. Beekeeping can be
practiced effortlessly as an additional source of income for farmers in
a. rural areas and has been successfully implemented in poverty-
alleviating projects.

b. Scientific name of rock bee is__________

Why is pasturage important?
c.
List any two desirable characteristics of bee varieties which make
them suitable for Honey Production?
20 Grain storage facilities storage and handling of variety of agricultural 4
products, such as corn, soybeans, wheat, barley, rice, canola, flax, etc
Use of traditional grain storage facilities such as cribs, improved
rhombus, and brick bins are ineffective against many microbes already
present in the grain before storage. While plastic bins reduce insect
pests‘ infestation, Purdue Improved crop storage bags and wooden silo
were proved to be a viable management tool for preventing aflatoxin
a accumulation in storage and moisture migration.

b What are silos?

Amitastored wheat in her storage box before proper drying and the
grains got spoiled Evaluate possible reason behind this
c
Proper storage is as important as crop protection. Analyze any two
factors which may be Responsible for the loss of grains during
storage?

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER- 12 IMPROVEMENT OF FOOD RESOURCES

Q NO SECTION A MARKS
1 A 1
2 D 1
3 C 1
4 c 1
5 b 1
6 B 1
7 b
8 A 1
SECTION B
9 Micro nutrients 1
Iron, cobalt, chromium, iodine, copper, zinc, molybdenum(any 1
two)
10 It provides employment to a large number of farmer and thereby 1+1
increases their living standards

75
 It helps in developing high yielding breeds of animals by cross
breeding
(or any other relevant point)
11 Terrace planting ,planting more hedges (or any other) 1+1
12 Weeding is the removal of weeds 1
Manual weeding, using weedicide 1

13 Milch breeds are milk–yielding animals eg cow 1

draught breeds are working animals eg ox 1
SECTION C
14 3

https://images.app.goo.gl/PCmYQD6E3XUjnH3g6
15 High Nutritional Content. ... 3
Disease and Pest Resistance. ...
High Crop Yield. ...
Tallness and Profuse Branching for Fodder Crops. ...
Dwarfness in Cereals. ...
Response to Fertilizers. ...
Adaptability to Varied Environmental Conditions.(any six)
16 No, 1
increasing grain production only for storage in warehouses cannot
solve the problem of malnutrition and hunger 1
Food security depends on both on availability and accessibility of
food 1
Free grains must be distributed to poor maintaining quality
Grains only cannot solve the problem of malnutrition as it doesn’t
contain all nutrients in correct amount

SECTION D
17 composition of fish culture is the method of growing five or six 1
different types of fish species together in a single fish pond.
Catla -suface feeders,
Rohu-middle zone feeders, 2
Silver carp- phytoplankton
Mrigal, Common carp-bottom feeders
and Grass carp-weeds
This system increases the fish yield
76
 fish species that have different food habitats do not compete for 1
food among themselves. 1

18 1) mixed cropping- growing of two crops on a single piece of 21/2

land. for 21/2
2) intercropping- growing of two crops in a definite pattern.
3) crop rotation- growing of different crops on a single piece of
land.
(any two advantages of each)
SECTION E
19 1
Apisdorsata 1
a. It decides quality of honey 2
More honey, sting less, stay in hive for long, disease resistant (any
b. two)

c.
20
a used to store grains. 1
b Moisture attracts microbes like bacteria,fungi.etc 1
c biotic factors: Insects, rats, birds 1+1
abiotic factors: moisture humidity, temperature

77