17/11/2019

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :

Physics : Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices (90 Question)

Zoology : Biotechnology - Its Principles and Processes ; Biotechnology and its Applications (90 Question)

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet. Type your text Type your text
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. The ratio of the radii of nuclei having atomic mass 4. A hydrogen atom at rest emits a photon of frequency
number 8 and 64 is . If mass of hydrogen atom is m, then the recoil
energy of hydrogen atom
1 1
(1) (2) h2  2 h 22
2 2 (1) (2)
2
2mc mC 2
1
(3) (4) 2 2 h 2 2hmc 2
2 2 (3) (4)
2mc 2 2
2. Which of the pair of nuclei are isotones?
2 4
5. In a spontaneous nuclear reaction x + y  z,
(1) 1H , 2He masses of x, y, z are mx, my, mz respectively, then
(2) 16, 14 which of the following is true?
8O 7N

(3) 74 71
34Se , 31Ga (1) mx + my = mz (2) mx + my < mz
(4) 40 14
20Ca , 7N (3) mz = mx – my (4) mz < mx + my
3. If the wavelength associated with photon is 3000 Å, 6. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference
then the energy of photon is of 10 kV. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron is
(1) 4.14 eV (2) 3.24 eV (1) 1.226 pm (2) 12.26 pm
(3) 6.24 eV (4) 4.54 eV (3) 122.6 pm (4) 1226 pm
(1)
7. Angular momentum of a electron revolving in 4th 13. K is the kinetic energy and  is de-Broglie
orbit is wavelength of the particle, then graph between
2 and K is
 2
(1) (2)
h h 2
 2

2h h (1) (2)
(3) (4)
 
K K
8. The shortest wavelengths of Balmer series of
hydrogen atom is (R = 1.1 × 107 m–1)
2 2
 
(1) 1012 Å (2) 5080 Å
(3) 6000 Å (4) 3636 Å (3) (4)

9. Speed of an electron in hydrogen atom in 1st orbit K K

is 2 × 106 m/s. The velocity of an electron in 2nd 14. In a photo-emissive cell, with exciting wavelength ,
orbit of doubly ionized lithium is the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
(1) 3 × 106 m/s 3
wavelength is changed to , then the speed of the
4
1
(2) × 106 m/s fastest emitted electron will be
3
1/2 1/2
3 4
(3) 106 m/s (1) v   (2) v  
4 3
(4) 6 × 106 m/s 1/2 1/2
4 4
10. K, U, E are kinetic energy, potential energy and (3) Less than v   (4) Greater than v  
3
  3
total energy of an electron in an orbit in single
electron atom, then 15. If wavelength of photon is , then momentum of
photon is
|U | h h
(1) K  (2) E = – K (1) (2)
2 c 2
e2
(3) E = 2U (4) Both (1) & (2) h hc
(3) (4)
11. If the potential energy of first orbit is taken to be zero  
in hydrogen atom, then kinetic energy of second 16. A monochromatic source of light is placed at a
orbit will be distance d from a metal surface. Photoelectrons are
ejected at rate n, kinetic energy being E. If the
(1) 3.4 eV (2) 13.6 eV
d
(3) 1.5 eV (4) 7.3 eV source is brought nearer to distance , the rate
2
12. The work functions for three different metals A, B and kinetic energy per photoelectron become
and C are W A, W B and W C respectively with (1) 2n and 2E (2) 4n and 4E
W A > W B > W C . The graph between stopping
potential (V0) and frequency () of incident radiation (3) 4n and E (4) n and 4E
is 17. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two
particles of masses M1 and M2 having non-zero
V0 A B C V0 C B A velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of
the particles 1 : 2 is
(1) (2)
m2 m2
(1) (2)
m1 m1
 
m1
(3) m (4) 1 : 1
V0 A V0 2
C
B B 18. The ratio of wavelength of an electron revolving in 3rd
C A orbit to that of revolving in 5th orbit in H atom is
(3) (4) (1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3
  (3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 5
(2)
19. Which of the following phenomenon is used by 27. Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by
Davisson and Germer to show the wave nature of (1) Applying a strong electric field
electron?
(2) Elastic collision with heavy nuclei
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction (3) Passing them through heavy water
(3) Polarization (4) Refraction (4) The use of load shielding
20. Consider a radioactive material of half life 1 minute. 28. -particle, -particle and -rays each having an
If one of the nuclei decays now, the next one will energy of 1 MeV. Which of the following has highest
decay penetrating power?
(1)  (2) 
(1) After 1 minute
(3)  (4) Same for all
1 29. A radioactive material has half lives of t1 and t2 years
(2) After log 2 minute
e for  and  emission respectively. The material
decays by simultaneous  and  emissions. The
1 effective half life of substance is
(3) After   minute
N 
t1  t 2 t1t 2
(N = number of nuclei present at that moment) (1) (2) t  t
t1t 2 1 2
(4) After any time
21. The ratio of magnetic field produced by an electron t1  t 2
(3) t1 t2 (4)
revolving in first orbit of H atom to that of the 1st 2
orbit of Li++ atom is 30. A radioactive isotope X with a half-life of 1.37 × 109
years decays to Y which is stable. A sample of
1
(1) (2) 27 rocks from the moon was found to contain both the
27 elements X and Y which were in the ratio 1 : 7. The
1 age of the rock is
(3) 9 (4)
9 (1) 1.96 × 108 years (2) 3.85 × 109 years
22. The ratio of specific charge of an -particle to that (3) 4.11 × 109 years (4) 9.59 × 109 years
of a proton is nearly 31. What is the power gain in CE amplifier, where input
resistance is 3 k and load resistance 24 k, given
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
 = 20?
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) 1800 (2) 3200
23. An electron jumps from 4th excited state to 1st orbit (3) 2400 (4) 4800
in a single electron atom. The number of spectral 32. Energy gap in silicon crystal is
lines observed is
(1) 1.1 eV (2) 0.7 eV
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 0.6 eV (4) 1.51 eV
(3) 8 (4) 10 33. Which of the following diode is forward biased?
24. Which of the following particle is called lepton?
(1)
(1) Electron (2) Neutrino – 5V

(3) Positron (4) All of these

25. The binding energy per nucleon for deuteron (1H2)
and helium ( 2 He 4) are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV 5V
respectiv ely. The energy released when two
deuterons fuse to form a helium nucleus 2He4 is (2)

(1) 26.3 MeV (2) 23.6 MeV

(3) 26.3 eV (4) 23.6 eV
2V 10V
26. In the nuclear reaction
(3)
11 11
6C  5B + X + (neutrino)

What does X stand for?

2V –10V
(1) Electron (2) Positron
(4)
(3) Proton (4) Neutron

(3)
34. Voltage gain of CE amplifier is 1000. If the input 40. Three amplifiers each having voltage gain 100 are
voltage Vi = (.002 V) sin(314t) then the output connected in series, the resultant gain would be
voltage is
100
(1) 2V sin (314t – ) (2) 2V sin 314t (1) (2) 300
3
(3) 2V cos 314t (4) All of these
(3) 108 (4) 106
35. The depletion region in an open circuited of P-N
junction has 41. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to

(1) Electrons
A
Y
(2) Holes B
(3) Immobile impurity ions
(1) NAND (2) OR
(4) Neutralised impurity atoms
(3) NOR (4) AND
36. Which of the following p-n junction is not used in
42. Ge diode conduct at 0.3 V. In the given circuit the
reverse bias?
value of I is
(1) LED (2) Solar cell
Ge 5 K
(3) Zener diode (4) Both (1) & (2)
37. The output across PQ is
I

Input R 12 V
A.C. ~ Q P

(1) Zero (2) 2.34 mA

(3) 1.34 mA (4) 2.26 mA
(1) Half wave rectified (2) Full wave rectified
43. In a transistor
(3) Quarter wave rectified (4) A.C. wave rectified
(1) Length of emitter is greater than collector
38. Logic gate realised from p-n junctions shown in the
figure (2) Length of collector is greater than emitter
D1 (3) Length of base is greater than emitter
A
(4) Length of base is greater than collector
Y 44. In n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is
10 mA. If 90% of electrons emitted reach the
B collector. The emitter current will be
D2 RL
(1) 0.1 mA (2) 1 mA
(3) 11 mA (4) 9 mA
45. Which of the following is a universal logic gate?
(1) NOR gate (2) AND gate (1) OR (2) NAND
(3) NOT gate (4) OR gate (3) NOR (4) Both (2) & (3)
39. W ith fall of temperature, the energy gap of a 46. A photon and an electron possess same de-Broglie
semiconductor? wavelength. Given that c = speed of light and
v = speed of electron. Then the ratio of K.E. of
(1) Increases electron to K.E. of photon is
(2) Decreases 2c v
(1) (2)
(3) Remains unchanged v 2c
c 2v
(4) Sometime increase and sometime decrease (3) (4)
2v c
(4)
 Type your text

47. The electric field associated with a light wave

 1
E = E0 sin [1.57 × 107 (x – ct)], where x is in metre    of three metals are shown in figure. Ultraviolet
t is in second. If this light is used to produce photo-  
electric emission from the surface of a metal of work light beam (3500 Å) is incident on the metal plates.
function 1.9 eV, then the stopping potential will be The emission of electron is possible from
(1) 1.2 V (2) 1.5 V V0
(3) 1.75 V (4) 1.9 V

l-1

3
-2
48. The threshold wavelength for a metal of work function

-
tal
tal
ta
wo is . The threshold wavelength for a metal having

Me

Me
Me
work function 3 w0 will be
 1/[(nm)–1]
(1)  (2) 0.001 0.002 0.004
2
(1) Metal plate 1 only
 
(3) (4) (2) Metal plate 2 only
3 4
49. If the wavelength associated with photon is 4500 Å (3) Metal plate 3 only
then energy of photon is (4) Metal plate 1 and 2 both
(1) 1.75 eV (2) 2.75 eV 54. Rest mass of photon is (symbols have usual
meaning)
(3) 2 eV (4) 3 eV
hc
50. The de-broglie wavelength of a gas molecule of mass (1) Infinite (2)
m at temperature T(in Kelvin) is , then graph 

between  and h
T is (3) (4) Zero
c
  55. Maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted by a
metal surface is 1.2 × 106 m/s. Assuming the specific
charge of the electron to be 1.8 × 1011 C/kg, the value
(1) (2) of the stopping potential in volt will be
(1) 6 (2) 4
T T (3) 3 (4) 2
56. If longest wavelength of Balmer series of H atom is
   then shortest wavelength of Lyman series will be

5 5
(3) (4) (1)  (2) 
36 9

T T 36 9
(3)  (4) 
5 5
51. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission
from a material is 5000 Å. Photoelectrons will be 57. The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom
emitted when this material is illuminated with mono- in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy
chromatic radiation from a of the electron is
(1) 50 watt infrared lamp (1) 13.6 eV (2) Zero
(2) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp (3) – 13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV
(3) 1 watt ultraviolet lamp 58. The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 volt. The
energy of the electron in n = 2 state will be
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) – 10.2 eV (2) – 6.4 eV
52. Work function of lithium and copper are respectively
2.3 eV and 4 eV. Which one of the metals will be (3) – 4.4 eV (4) – 3.4 eV
useful for the photoelectric cell working with visible 59. The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of
light? Bohr hydrogen atom is
(1) Copper (2) Lithium (1) Directly proportional to n
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
(2) Inversely proportional to n
53. The graph between the stopping potential (V0) and
(3) Inversely proportional to n2
(4) Inversely proportional to n3
(5)
60. An electron in hydrogen and one in singly ionised 67. W hich of the following is a unit of activity of
helium atom are excited to the state n = 2. Photons radioactive sample?
are emitted when these electrons jump back to the (1) Becquerel (2) Curie
ground state in each case, then
(3) Rutherford (4) All of these
(1) Energy of photon is same in both
68. The half life of a radioactive material is T, then the
(2) Radiations emitted by helium atom are shifted
towards the red as compared to radiation from T
fraction of radioactive nuclei remaining after time is
hydrogen atom 2
(3) Radiations emitted by helium are shifted towards
the violet as compared to radiation from 1 3
(1) (2)
hydrogen atom 2 4
(4) There is no definite relation between the radiation
emitted by the two atoms 1 2 1
(3) (4)
61. Radius of first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is r. 2 2
What is the radius of 2nd Bohr’s orbit? 69. A radioactive nucleus X decays into stable daughter
nuclei Y and Z with mean lives 3 years and 6 years
(1) 2 2 r (2) 4 r respectively. Effective mean life of the radioactive
(3) 2 r (4) 3 r sample is
62. An electron revolves 6 × 1015 times per second in a (1) 1 year (2) 2 years
circular orbit. The current in the loop is (3) 4.5 years (4) 9 years
(1) 0.69 mA (2) 0.69 A 70. In Rutherford experiment angle of scattering of
(3) 0.96 mA (4) 0.96 A -particle for impact parameter equal to zero is
63. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio of (1) 90° (2) 270°
the kinetic energy to the total energy of the electron
(3) 0° (4) 180°
in a quantum state n is
71. Binding energy per nucleon of 12C, 1H and 13N are
(1) + 1 (2) + 2
a, b and c respectively. Energy released Q in the
(3) – 1 (4) – 2 process 12C + 1H 13N + Q is
64. The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it emits (1) c – a – b (2) 13c – 12a – b
a photon in going from n = 4 to state n = 1 state is
(m = mass of H atom) (3) 12a + b – 13c (4) 12b + a – 13c
72. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when
Rh  3  Rh  15 
(1) (2) uranium (92U238) decays to lead 82Pb206?
m  4  m  16 
(1) 6, 8 (2) 6
m  15 
(3) (4) Zero (3) 8, 8 (4) 8, 6
Rh  16 
73. In reaction 2He4 + ZXA  Z+2Y
A+3 + K, K must be
65. For hydrogen like system in nth orbit, the ratio of
magnetic moment to angular momentum is (1) Electron (2) Positron
(3) Proton (4) Neutron
e 2m
(1) (2) 74. The relationship between disintegration constant 
2m e
and half life T of a radioactive substance is
e m
(3) (4) loge 2
m e (1)   (2)   [loge 2]T
T
66. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
(1) Electromagnetic radiations (3) T  [loge 2] (4) T  loge 5

(2) The electron orbiting around the nucleus 75. Which of the following graph represent the variation
of density of different nuclei () with radius of nuclei?
(3) Charged particles emitted by nucleus  
(4) Neutral particles

(1) (2)

r r

(6)
 Type your text
  84. When external potential difference in the forward
biased p-n junction is increased, the width of
depletion region
(3) (4) (1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
r r
76. Control rod used in nuclear reactions are made of (4) Increases or decreases depending upon voltage
(1) Stainless steel (2) Graphite 85. In a common emitter configuration, the current gain
of transistor is 100. If collector current is 1 mA, then
(3) Cadmium (4) Plutonium base current is
77. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode (1) 0.1 mA (2) 1 mA
is due to
(3) 100 mA (4) 0.01 mA
(1) Strong electric field in the depletion region if the
doping concentration is large 86. An n-type semiconductor has donor levels at 500
meV abov e the v alence band, the minimum
(2) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if frequency of light required to create a hole is nearly
the doping concentration is small
(1) 8 × 1013 Hz (2) 12 × 1013 Hz
(3) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if
the doping concentration is large (3) 22 × 1013 Hz (4) 15 × 1013 Hz
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct 87. In the given circuit, calculate the current through
resistance R in the figure.
78. Which of the following p-n junction is a photo diode?
(R = 12 )
(1) (2)
6V

(3) (4) 8
79. Coulomb barrier energy for fusion of two protons is
nealry (1) Zero (2) 0.72 A
(1) 100 keV (2) 200 keV (3) 0.13 A (4) 0.92 A
(3) 300 keV (4) 400 keV 88. The expression of y in the circuit is
80. The ripple frequency in the output of a fullwave
rectifier working at 50 Hz. ac source will be A
(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz D
(3) 200 Hz (4) 25 Hz
81. The electrical resistance of depletion layer is large
B
because y
(1) It has no charge carriers C
(2) It has large number of charge carriers (1) A B C D (2) A + BCD
(3) It contains electrons as charge carriers (3) A + B + C + D (4) AB + CD
(4) It has holes as charge carriers 89. The combination of the gates shown in the figure
82. In a semiconductor diode, p-side in earthed and produces
n-side is applied a potential of – 2V, the diode will
A
(1) Conduct (2) Non-conduct y
B
(3) Conduct partially (4) Breakdown
83. Fermi energy level is (1) OR (2) AND

(1) The minimum energy of electrons at 0 K (3) NOR (4) NAND

90. In a common emitter amplifier, when a signal of
(2) The maximum energy of electrons at 273 K
40 mV is added to the input voltage the base
(3) The maximum energy of electrons at 0 K current changes by 100 A and emitter current
changes by 2.1 mA, then the transconductance is
(4) The minimum energy of electrons at 273 K
(1) 50 –1 (2) 15 –1
(3) 0.05 –1 (4) 0.02 –1
(7)
 ZOOLOGY
91. Given below are some applications of biotechnology 97. For production of biotechnological product at
for which all other statements are correct except manufacturing scale bioreactors are used for which
one all statements are correct except one
(1) Biotechnology enabled us to create tailor made (1) The stirrer in tank bioreactors helps to mix the
plants to supply alternativ e resources to reactor contents and f acilitates oxygen
industries availability throughout the bioreactor
(2) Production of pest resistant plants that could (2) Sampling ports in bioreactors are meant for
decrease the pesticide use adding raw materials into them
(3) Biotechnology has enhanced nutritional value of (3) Optimum condition f or production of
food crops biotechnological product like pH, temperature
etc. are monitored in them
(4) Biotechnology helped in maintaining ecological
balance of environment (4) Air bubbles bubbled through the reactor
dramatically increase the oxygen transfer area
92. ___________ has proved to be an antidote against
98. The purpose behind Agrobacterium attack over dicot
lepidopteran pests on crop plants.
plants is
(1) Meloidegyne incognitia
(1) To carry prokaryotic DNA into a eukaryotic cell
(2) Rhizobium meliloti (2) To form tumour in the host plant
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) To obtain chemicals f rom the host plant
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens beneficial to it
93. In order to insert alien DNA at the site of tetracycline (4) To carry alien DNA into the host plant
resistance gene in pBR322 the restriction 99. Most preferable restriction endonucleases for
endonuclease used can be biotechnological practices are
(1) Pvu I (2) Cla I (1) Restriction endonucleases type I that create
blunt ends
(3) Sal I (4) Pst I
(2) Restriction endonucleases type II that cut DNA
94. W hich of the following is not true regarding strands at palindromic sequences without
restriction sequences of dif f erent restriction requirement of ATP
enzymes?
(3) Restriction endonucleases that cause
(1) Restriction sequences are usually 4-8 methylation of host DNA
nucleotides long
(4) Restriction endonucleases type III that create
(2) Restriction sequences are palindromic sticky ends
(3) Different restriction enzymes can have same 100. Arrange the steps of isolation of DNA from the
restriction sequences source cell
(4) The sequence of cohesive ends (overhangs) (a) Precipitation of DNA with chilled ethanol.
produced by different restriction enzymes can (b) Treatment of DNA strands with protease and
be same RNase.
95. The insertional inactivation of lac z-gene will lead to (c) Treatment of DNA strands with restriction
endonuclease.
(1) Ov er transcription of coding sequence of
-galactosidase (d) Isolation of DNA from bacterial cells by the
treatment of lysozyme.
(2) Formation of blue coloured colonies of bacteria
in presence of a chromogenic substance (1) (d), (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (d), (a), (c), (b) (4) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(3) Inability of bacterial cells to metabolise lactose
101. The vectors used for transforming bacterial cells are
(4) Formation of crown gall in the host cell
a. Plasmids like pBR322, pUC18.
96. The introduction of Cry gene in Bt cotton was aimed
b. Lamda () phage.
at
c. M13 phage.
(1) Providing pest resistance to bollworm
d. SV 40.
(2) Delaying flowering of cotton
e. Papillomaviruses.
(3) Preventing attack of coleopteran pests
(1) a only (2) a, b, c & d
(4) Preventing use of chemical pesticides (3) a, b & c (4) c, d & e
(8)
102. Eli Lilly an American company in 1983 was credited (3) Ability to integrate either itself or DNA segment
with it carries into the genome of the host cell
(1) Extraction of insulin from pancreas of slaughtered (4) Having a marker or markers to permit the
cattle and pigs selection of transformed host cells
(2) Production of oral insulin 109. The best option for carrying large fragment of
(3) Biotechnological production of Humulin with three passenger DNA into host cell can be
peptide chains (1) Cosmid (2) Phage 
(4) Use of reverse transcriptase to artificially (3) Plasmid (4) BAC
synthesise genes for production of A peptide and
B peptide of insulin 110. The method of gene transfer that is designed to
overcome the problem of the strong cell wall in plant
103. An example of molecular pharming are all except
tissue is
one
(1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics
(1) Introduction of hirudin synthesising gene in
Brassica napus (3) PEG (4) Transfection
(2) Introduction of human -lactalbumin gene in 111. Plants with beneficial traits have been developed. In
Rosie all of the following GM crops, a gene of interest has
(3) Introduction of gene for production of -1 been inserted, except
antitrypsin in Tracy (1) Transgenic canola for herbicide (glyphosate)
(4) Introduction of human growth hormone producing tolerance
gene in common carp and gold fish (2) Bt cotton resistant to bollworm (Helicoverpa
104. Nutrient enrichment of rice through biotechnology led armigera)
to the creation of
(3) Flavr savr tomato with delayed ripening
(1) Texmati (2) Star link rice
(4) Transgenic papaya resistant to papaya ringspot
(3) Golden rice (4) Bt rice virus
105. The introduction of RNA interference gene in tobacco 112. The enzyme released by restriction protection
plants system in bacterial cells that ensures safety of self
(1) Provided resistance to plant against the attack DNA is
of Agrobacterium (1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) Made the plant resistant against all types of (2) Ligase
pathogens
(3) Methylase
(3) Helped in preventing the loss in yield of plant
(4) DNA polymerase
(4) Developed a commensal relationship between
the plant and nematode Meloidogyne 113. The plasmid pBR322 contains restriction sites for
106. A technique of molecular diagnosis that aims at Hind III, Eco RI, Bam HI, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I,
detection of pathogen through antigen-antibody an ori site, ampR gene, tetR gene and rop, out of
interaction is which rop codes for _____ and is identified by _____

(1) PCR (2) Southern blot (1) Antibiotic resistance, Pvu I

(3) ELISA (4) Northern blot (2) -galactosidase, Pst I

107. Identify the restriction endonuclease that will provide (3) Proteins involved in the replication of the
sticky ends of DNA strands plasmid, Pvu II
(1) Hind II (2) Sma I (4) Methylase, Sal I
(3) Eco RI (4) Hae III 114. The importance of dicer enzyme in RNA interference
108. One amongst the following may not be regarded as technique is that it
a property of good vector (1) Causes degradation of nematode m-RNA
(1) Ability to replicate autonomously, so as to (2) Silencing of RISC
generate its multiple copies within the host itself
(3) Cleaves dsRNA to siRNA
(2) Large size or high molecular weight for enhanced
stability (4) Reduction in surface area of roots of host plants
(9)
115. Match the following 121. Mark the statement that is incorrect with respect to
Column I Column II application of biotechnology

a. Carotene synthesising gene (i) Flavr savr (1) In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie was
introduced with -1 antitrypsin gene
b. Antisense technique (ii) Humulin
c. Cyanogen bromide (iii) Golden rice (2) Today transgenic models exist for cancer, cystic
fibrosis rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s
d. T-DNA (iv) Agrobacterium disease
tumefaciens
(3) Transgenic mice are being used to test the
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) safety of the polio vaccine
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) GEAC is an organisation that makes decisions
116. The linking of alien DNA to plasmid vector is regarding the validity of GM research and safety
possible with the help of of introducing GM-organisms for public services
(1) Taq polymerase 122. The utilisation of Taq polymerase in PCR serves the
(2) DNA ligase purpose of
(3) Polyethylene glycol (1) Ensuring no temperature changes throughout the
(4) Restriction endonuclease type II process
117. The production of Humulin was a challenge as (2) Fast amplification of sample DNA at denaturing
temperature
(1) Rev erse transcriptase does not work in
extracellular medium (3) Application of PCR as earliest technique of
(2) It had to be made orally acceptable detection
(3) The scientists had to overcame the problems of (4) Synthesis of a sequence of complementary DNA
split genes in eukaryotes which does not require proof reading
(4) It had to replace bovine and porcine insulin 123. The examples of transgenic plants are all, except
118. The following are the major concerns about GM (1) Bt tobacco
crops and GM foods, except
(2) Brassica napus with hirudin gene
(1) The GM crops may change the fundamental
vegetable nature of plant as the genes from (3) Golden rice
animals (e.g. f ish or mouse) are being (4) Pentadiplandra brazzeana
introduced into crop plants
124. Matching the columns
(2) The GM crops may lead to change in the
evolutionary pattern Column I Column II
(3) The antibiotic resistance marker genes used to a. Unequal ends of DNA (i) Phagemids
produce GM crops may move from plants to gut strips cut by restriction
microflora of humans and animals and increase enzymes
the problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens
b. The agency that serves (ii) Electrophoresis
(4) The introduction of GM crops has reduced the as a vehicle to move
crop yield DNA among organisms
119. The am in Bam HI indicates c. Process of separation of (iii) Cloning vector
(1) Amylase enzyme DNA fragments based on
their size
(2) Species of bacterium
(3) Restriction endonuclease type II d. Circular pieces of DNA (iv) Sticky ends
formed by combination
(4) Ampicillin resistance gene of pBR322 of phage + plasmid
120. The mention of Pentadiplandra and basmati rice
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
invariably comes while discussing
(1) Successful conduction of biotechnological (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
research 125. Number of recombinant therapeutics approved world
(2) Mal effect of biotechnology on environment over are ______, out of which _____ are marketed in
India.
(3) Exploitation of biological resources of developing
countries by developed countries (1) 7, 9 (2) 30, 12
(4) Failure of much hyped biotechnological research (3) 11, 17 (4) 20, 31
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126. Mark the incorrect statement regarding landmark 132. A microbe employed in bioremediation i.e.,
events in biotechnology conversion of heavy metal pollutants of soil into less
toxic salts is
(1) Eli Lilly an American company prepared Humulin
in 1983 (1) Rhizobium (2) E.coli
(3) Trichoderma (4) Pseudomonas
(2) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase 133. The construction of the first recombinant DNA was
deficiency done by using the native plasmid of

(3) Introduction of human alpha-lactalbumin gene (1) E.coli

was done in a cow Rosie in 1997 (2) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
(4) An American company got patents right on (3) Salmonella typhimurium
Basmati rice through US patent and Trademark (4) Pseudomonas putida
office in 1987 134. Liposomes are
127. The misuse of biotechnology is (1) Cloning vectors
(1) Biopatency (2) Lipid coated DNA molecules
(2) Biowar (3) Genetically modified lipid producing genes
(3) Bioremediation (4) Extra chromosomal fragments in yeast cells
(4) Bioinformatics 135. Introduction of gene for growth hormone production
has been introduced in
128. Genetically engineered insulin differs from natural
(1) Pig (2) Salmon
insulin in
(3) Rosie (4) Flavr savr
(1) Absence of disulphide links
136. The applications of biotechnology include
(2) Absence of B peptide chain
therapeutics, diagnostics, bioremediation, waste
(3) Presence of oral and injectable form treatment etc. Three critical research areas of
(4) No features at all biotechnology are all except one
129. Biopatents are exclusive rights granted by a (1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of
government to inventors or their assignee for a improved organism usually a microbe or pure
limited period of time in exchange for a public enzyme
disclosure of an invention. Patents should satisfying
the following criteria, except (2) Creating optimal conditions through engineering
for a catalyst to act
(1) Novelty
(3) Downstream processing technologies to purify
(2) Utility
the protein/organic compound
(3) Unpatented traditional knowledge
(4) Agrochemical based agriculture
(4) Non-obviousness
130. A transgenic expression can achieve which of the 137. Genetic modification of organisms has led to
following? production of
(1) Prevent expression of a native gene (1) Pesticide resistant plant pests
(2) Modify an existing biosynthetic pathway
(2) Crops tolerant to abiotic stresses
(3) Produce a protein that itself produces the
phenotype of interest (3) Plants that ensure exhaustion of fertility of soil
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Herbicide resistant weeds
131. A recombinant protein recommended to patients of 138. Mark the statement that is incorrect for restriction
kidney dialysis
enzymes.
(1) Calcitonin
(1) The isolation of two enzymes responsible for
(2) Interferon 
restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E.coli
(3) Erythropoietin was done in 1963
(4) Platelet derived growth factor
(2) The f irst restriction endonuclease to be
discovered was Hind II
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 Type your text

(3) The convention for naming restriction enzymes is 145. Arrange the steps of gel electrophoresis in proper
that the first letter of the name comes from the sequence.
genus of source a. Treatment of DNA strands with restriction
endonucleases.
(4) The restriction enzymes cut two strands of DNA
at specific points at H-bonded cross links b. Separation of DNA strands on the basis of mass
and charge.
139. The role of ethidium bromide in gel electrophoresis
is that c. Irradiation of gel plate with UV.

(1) It induces a negative charge on all DNA strands d. Application of ethidium bromide to gel plate.

(2) It makes DNA strands visible as orange coloured (1) a, d, b, c (2) a, b, d, c

strips (3) d, c, b, a (4) c, a, d, b
(3) It ensures separation of DNA strands on the 146. Mark the statement that is incorrect for the
basis of charge and mass enzyme/s involved in biotechnology
(4) It removes the gel associated with DNA strands (1) Lysozymes are used to dissolve the bacterial
cell walls
140. In order to insert alien DNA at the site of ampicillin
resistance gene, the restriction endonuclease used (2) DNA ligase completes the DNA backbone by
can be forming covalent bonds
(1) Pvu II (2) Bam HI (3) Restriction enzymes and DNA ligase can be
used together to join lengths of DNA from
(3) EcoR I (4) Pst I different sources
141. The Ti-plasmid of Agrobacterium will be unable to
(4) DNA polymerases help in synthesis of
form crown gall if
complementary DNA and reverse transcriptase
(1) The host plant is injured helps in in-vitro synthesis of DNA
(2) The host plant is a dicot 147. A good vector is one
(3) The host plant loses virulence protein
(1) That makes transformation process complex
(4) T-DNA in the Ti-plasmid has been inactivated
(2) That maintains its individuality in host cell
142. Production of Bt cotton was done by
(3) That is easy to isolate and to purify
(1) Insertion of an inactive cry gene in cotton
(4) Generates multiple copies of host DNA
(2) Making bollworms resistant against Bt toxin
(3) Making the cotton plant an insecticide 148. Cosmids carry an insert with a maximum length of

(4) Introduction of cry I Ab in cotton (1) 300 kbp (2) 10 kbp

143. During the production of a biotechnological product (3) 45 kbp (4) 4-8 nucleotides
the culture is ensured to remain contamination free 149. If the transformed bacterial cells are selected by
by blue/white screening, it means that the reporter
(1) Insertion of air bubbles through an oxygen enzyme/protein in this case is
delivery system (1) GFP (2) -galactosidase
(2) Periodically withdrawing small volumes of the
(3) -galactosidase (4) tet R
culture through sampling ports
(3) Allowing steam into the culture 150. The electroporation method of gene transfer
(4) Performing continuous culture (1) Makes recombinant DNA molecules to enter
host cell by giving high voltage current to
144. Insertion of prokaryotic DNA into a eukaryotic cell
membrane
without human intervention is
(2) Employs lipid coated DNA molecules for gene
(1) Impossible
transfer
(2) Seen in bacteriophages
(3) Aims at temporarily increasing pore size of
(3) Naturally observed in nature membranes
(4) Leads to production of double stranded RNA (4) Is used to overcome the problem of strong cell
making translation impossible wall in plant tissue

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151. Match Column I with Column II and select the 157. Mark the correct statement with respect to
correct option application of biotechnology
Column I Column II (1) Rosie was the f irst transgenic cow that
a. Flavr savr (i) Saved additional possesses gene for production of human
labour of farmers -lactalbumin

b. Golden rice (ii) Natural insecticide (2) Transgenic mice are never used for testing the
safety of polio vaccine
c. Bt corn (iii) Antisense technique
(3) GEAC is an organisation that reserves the right
d. Herbicide resistant (iv) Nutrient enrichment to issue patent rights to patents world over
crops
(4) Gene f or production of hirudin has been
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) introduced in sheep
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) 158. An example of gene therapy is
152. To minimise the use of nitrogenous fertilizers in the (1) Production of purely synthetic vaccines
crop fields, Nif gene from Rhizobium melioleti is
being transferred into (2) Production of humulin

(1) Oil seed crops (2) Pulses (3) Production of Bt tobacco

(3) Cereals (4) Sugarcane (4) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in
patients of SCID
153. The advantages of GM crops include all, except
159. Mark the incorrect statement regarding land mark
(1) Higher nutrient content events in biotechnology
(2) Tolerance to long periods of draught and high (1) An American company got patent right on
salinity
Basmati rice through US Patent and Trademark
(3) Pest resistance Office in 1997
(4) Possibility of conversion of weeds into super (2) Introduction of human -lactalbumin gene was
weeds done in cow Rosie in 1997
154. Which of the following is correctly matched? (3) Eli Lilly produced insulin in 1983
(1) Agrobacterium – Antisense technique (4) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1997
tumifaciens to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase
deficiency
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis – Bt toxin secreted
160. A recombinant protein recommended to heart
(3) Meloidogyne incognita – Translational disability patients for dissolving blood clots in arteries is
(4) Humulin – Human insulin in inactive form (1) tPA
155. The Golden rice was created by transforming rice (2) OKT-3
with two -carotene biosynthesis genes, which were
isolated from (3) Calcitonin

(1) Marigold (2) Daffodils (4) Human growth hormone

(3) Lily (4) Beans 161. Presently transgenic models are available for all the
given diseases, except
156. The importance of RISC in RNA interference
technique is that it (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis

(1) Silences the nematode (3) Alzheimer’s disease (4) Cardiomyopathy

(2) Causes unwinding of dsRNA 162. Restriction endonucleases

(3) Causes degradation of m-RNA of parasite (1) Cut minimum length of DNA strands
(4) Blocks translation of host m-RNA (2) Hydrolyse internal phosphodiester bonds in
polynucleotide chains
(3) Are ATP independent
(4) Identify palindromic sequences only on phage
DNA
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163. Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic 170. The problem of blindness in poor countries can be
engineering is possible because controlled by using which of the following?
(1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing (1) Transgenic tomato
reactions (2) Golden rice
(2) The human chromosome can replicate in (3) Riboflavin supplement generated biotechnologically
bacterial cell (4) Star link maize
(3) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in 171. Bt cotton does not
humans and bacteria
(1) Kill insect pests
(4) The genetic code is universal (2) Contain Cry II Ac
164. There is a restriction endonuclease called Hind II. (3) Provide alkaline medium for prototoxin
What does ‘in’ part in it stand for?
(4) Affect the yield of cotton
(1) Inactive (2) Inducer 172. Humulin was produced by
(3) Influenzae (4) Insulin (1) Introducing sequence of human proinsulin in
165. The anticoagulant hirudin is obtained from E. coli
(2) Introducing sequence of A and B chains of
(1) Milk of sheep
human insulin in single E. coli
(2) Bolls of cotton plant (3) Introducing sequence of A and B chains of
(3) Seeds of Brassica napus human insulin in separate E.coli

(4) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Introduction insulin gene in E.coli using pUC18
vector
166. The technique in biotechnology that aims at using 173. The event that made Meloidogyne incognita popular
radioactive molecules called probes, to find their was
corresponding molecules in tissues where presence
of virus or mutation is suspected is known as (1) Its genetic modification
(2) Application of DNA interference
(1) Molecular harvesting
(3) Its m-RNA silencing by a protein complex
(2) Molecular diagnosis
(4) Production of Bt tobacco
(3) Biowar
174. The ADA gene is crucial for
(4) Upstream processing
(1) Erythropoiesis
167. In recombinant DNA technology vector refers to (2) Functioning of immune system
(1) Secondary host of pathogen (3) Embryonic development
(2) Disease carrier (4) Early detection of SCID
(3) Cosmid, that transfers DNA into a living cell 175. How many recombinant therapeutics are presently
being marketed in India?
(4) Enzyme that prevents attack of restriction
enzymes (1) 9 (2) 30
(3) 12 (4) 17
168. One amongst the following is a molecular scissor
176. Biopiracy does not
(1) Unwindase (2) Sma I
(1) Involve illegally acquiring traditional knowledge
(3) Methylase (4) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Inv olv e use of biological agents against
169. Bio-engineered bacterium used for cleaning of oil economic rivals
spills is
(3) Aim at modifying plants without a legal right
(1) E.coli
(4) Include terrorising rival nations with the help of
(2) Acetobacter aerogenes biological resources
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Trichoderma

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177. Most preferred restriction endonucleases used in 180. Select the requirements for PCR of HIV genome.
biotechnological practice are
a. Taq polymerase
(1) R.E. type I (2) R.E. type II
b. dNTPs
(3) R.E. type III (4) Hind II
c. Reverse transcriptase
178. Earliest detection of cancer in suspected cancer
d. RNA polymerase
patients is done by
e. Primers
(1) ELISA (2) PCR
f. Mg2+
(3) Southern blot (4) DNA fingerprinting
(1) a, b & e
179. Most commonly used bio-weapon recorded in recent
times is (2) a, b, e & f
(1) Vibrio cholera (3) a, b, c & e
(2) Salmonella typhi (4) a, b, c, e & f
(3) Bacillus anthracis
(4) Hepatitis B virus



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 17/11/2019
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (2)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146 (4)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (4) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (4) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (4) 154. (3)
11. (1) 47. (1) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (4) 56. (1) 92. (3) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (4) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (4) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101 (3) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (4)
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