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Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)

Test Booklet Code : A

Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12.    
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a 6. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.
certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg, (1) Sound waves (2) X-rays
placed between them, attains equilibrium at a
(3) -rays (4) -rays
distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance
from the larger mass will be 7. According to Archimedes principle when a body is
immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it
(1) r (2) 2r experiences an upward force that is equal to
(3) 2r (4) 4r (1) Weight of the body
2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not (2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed
possible physically? (3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it
v v (4) Weight of the part of body not immersed
8. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its
(1) (2) frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is
t t (1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s
v v (3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s
9. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated
(3) t (4) t motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have
their usual meaning]
v –u v u
3. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth (1) (2)
2 2
is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of a planet having same mass and v2  u2 v2 – u2
diameter half as that of earth? (3) (4)
2 2
g g 10. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz
(1) (2)
2 4 travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of
(3) 4g (4) 2g the sound is
4. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of (1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m
10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes. (3) 150 m (4) 6 m
Work done by the brakes is 11. The distance and displacement of a moving object
(1) –250 J (2) –500 J are equal only when it
(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J (1) Moves in a circle
5. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite (2) Slows down
directions. Which of the following quantities will be (3) Speeds up
conserved?
(4) Moves straight without turning back
(1) Kinetic energy only
12. The momentum of a body is always in the
(2) Momentum only direction of
(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy (1) Its motion (2) Its acceleration
(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy (3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
13. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at (1) Melting, filtration and evaporation
rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is (2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration
(1) 72 m (2) 36 m (3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation
(3) 24 m (4) 12 m (4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation
14. Universal gravitational constant is measured in 21. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at
(1) N kg2/m2 (2) (Nm)2/kg2 a temperature slightly above room temperature?
(1) Boron (2) Gallium
(3)
Nm2
(4)
N kg2 (3) Germanium (4) Bromine
kg2 m2
22. Read the following statements carefully
15. Maximum acceleration that can act on a 2.5 kg
(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms
mass under the action of a 16 N and a 4 N force is
and one oxygen atom.
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4.8 m/s2
(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 6.5 m/s2 0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01.
16. Which of the following has the maximum number (C) The charge on the particle which was
of moles? discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.
(1) 112 g of Na (2) 50 g of Ne The correct statements are/is
(3) 40 g of He (4) 60 g of C (1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)
17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then (3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)
what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the
solution? 23. The electronic configuration of an element with
atomic number 20 is
(1) 10% (2) 9%
(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2
(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%
(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8
18. Which of the following elements has the valency of 2?
24. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are
(1) Sodium (2) Carbon
given as
(3) Boron (4) Oxygen
19. Brass is an alloy of Elements A B C
(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc Number of neutrons 6 8 7
(3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc Number of protons 6 6 7
20. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are
Consider the following statements
Salt + Salt +
Sand+ Process ‘X’ (i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and
Sand
Ammonium mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14
chloride + Ammonium Dissolu- (ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes
chloride tion in
water (iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars

Pure Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

Process ‘Z’ Salt + Process ‘Y’ Sand +
salt Water Salt + (1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii)
crystals + Water
Sand (3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
25. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of 32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried
solids because by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify
(1) Particles of liquid have more forces of 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
attraction between them than that of solids (1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver
(2) Particles of liquid have less spaces between
(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung
them and hence they stick to each other and
move freely (3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney
(3) Particles of liquid have more inter-particle (4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain
spaces between them and they can move freely
33. Which of the following cell organelles is
(4) Particles of solid have more inter-particle
spaces between them as compared to liquids responsible for storage, modification and packaging
of products in vesicles?
26. Which of the following gases is essential for the
survival of aquatic animals and plants? (1) Lysosomes
(1) Oxygen
(2) Mitochondria
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide (4) Golgi apparatus
27. Which of the following is an example of 34. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism
homogeneous mixture? given in the figure.
(1) Cloud (2) Sugar solution
(3) Distilled water (4) Milk
28. The ratio by mass of calcium to oxygen in quick
lime is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 Musca
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 1 (Housefly)
29. Find the incorrect pair. (1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body
(1) Silver – Element (2) It belongs to the largest group of animals
(2) Steel – Mixture (3) It has closed circulatory system
(3) Sugar – Compound (4) It has jointed legs
(4) Blood – Suspension
35. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy
30. Which of the following is not a polyatomic ion? season?
(1) Ammonium (2) Sulphite (i) Paddy (ii) Wheat
(3) Sulphate (4) Sulphide
(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard
31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria
and Eubacteria? (v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton

(1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus (1) Three (2) Two

(3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle (3) Five (4) Four

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
36. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given 40. How many character(s) is/are common in pisces
figure. and amphibians?
a. They are cold blooded animals.
b. Heart is three chambered.
c. Respiration is through gills only.
d. They have scales.
(1) One (2) Three
(1) It controls a voluntary actions
(3) Two (4) Four
(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate
41. Which of the following nutrients required in large
(3) It is also called unstriated muscle quantities by plants?
(4) It is found in ureters and bronchi (1) Iron, Calcium and Boron
37. Which of the following groups of diseases are (2) Nitrogen, Copper and Zinc
caused by bacteria? (3) Phosphorus, Manganese and Magnesium
(1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera (4) Potassium, Calcium and Sulphur
(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis 42. Which of the following tissues contains haversian canal?
(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis (1) Adipose (2) Bone
(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid (3) Cartilage (4) Blood
38. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on 43. Identify the plant tissue on the basis of given
our earth. information.
Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up (i) It provides strength.
in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,
(ii) It is present in the hard covering of seeds.
respiration, etc.
(1) Parenchyma
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Chlorenchyma
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Sclerenchyma
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Collenchyma
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
44. The cell organelle found in both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes is
After 1 hour
39. Cell A Cell A (1) Lysosome (2) ER
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Ribosome
A student observed the above change in the cell
45. Find the incorrect match.
size when the cell is kept in
(1) Sycon – Porifera
(1) Both isotonic and hypotonic solution
(2) Hypotonic solution (2) Echinus – Echinodermata

(3) Hypertonic solution (3) Antedon – Arthropoda

(4) Isotonic solution (4) Chiton – Mollusca

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper

MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is not a rational number? 51. The difference between total surface area and
curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is
7
(1)  (2) 7.232332333..... (1) 2r2
11
(2) 3r2
(3) 0 (4) 18.25
47. Which of the following points is a solution of the (3) r2

linear equation 2x  3y   4? (4) 4r2

52. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10
(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4) green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random
from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to
(3) ( 3,  2) (4) ( 2,  2) be green is

48. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral 2 4

with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is (1) (2)
9 9
extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of
13 7
(3) (4)
9 9
A B
53. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects
O PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then
160° which of the following is an incorrect conclusion?

D C E A

(1) 40° (2) 80° P C Q

(3) 20° (4) 160°
49. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length D
10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is R S
(1) 240 sq. cm
(2) 120 sq. cm E
(3) 60 sq. cm U V
(4) 480 sq. cm B
50. Which of the following angles cannot be constructed
with the help of a compass and a scale? (1) ACQ + VEB = 180°
(2) ACQ = UEB
1
(1) 30° (2) 22 
2 (3) RDE + VEB = 180°
(3) 165° (4) 87° (4) ACP = DEV

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
54. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles on 58. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____
the same base BC such that AB = AC and unlike terms
PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, then (1) 6 (2) 5
ABP is
(3) 7 (4) 2
A 59. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If
PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is

P
S
B C
Q R T
U
V
W
P
(1) 170° (2) 135° (1) 110° (2) 70°

(3) 145° (4) 180° (3) 120° (4) 20°

60. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers
55. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB > is
ADC, then
(1) 10 (2) 9.75
A
(3) 3.625 (4) 8
61. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be

1 2
(1) (2)
2 3
B D C
(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD 4 5
(3) (4)
3 6
(3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD  CAD
62. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis
56. x3 + 3x2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as is
(1) 8 units (2) 6 units
(1) ( x  3)( x  3)( x  2)
(3) 2 units (4) 4 units
(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1) 63. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If
OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of
(3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)
AB from the centre is

(4) ( x  2)( x  2)( x  3)

57. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface O

area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and
radius of the cone is
A C B
(1) 4 2 : 1 (2) 2 2 : 1
(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 (3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
2 69. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of
1 ⎛ 1⎞ height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is
64. If x  , then the value of ⎜ ⎟ is
32 2 ⎝x⎠
(1) 1540
(1) 17  12 2 (2) 17  2 2
(2) 15.4
(3) 12  17 2 (4) 12  17 2
(3) 154
65. If p2 + 4p + q2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the
value of p + q – r is (4) 1.54

(1) 11 (2) –1 70. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the
outcomes are recorded as below
(3) 1 (4) –11
66. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA Number of Tail 3 2 1 0
and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the Frequency 255 90 125 100
following is true?
Based on this information, the probability of getting
N E at most two tails is
4 8
2 6
3 1
23 21
Q (1) (2)
28 38

3 15
M (3) (4)
7 19 38
5
A P T 71. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters
and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are
1 the angle bisectors of DOC and AOB
(1) 7  8 (2) 3 = 24
2 respectively, then BR is always equal to
(3) 12 (4) 56 B

y R
67. On putting x = 15 in x – 10   0, we get
7
y2 – 5 as C
A O
(1) 1225 (2) 1210
P
(3) 1220 (4) 1230
D
68. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base
angle are given, then which of the following (1) DC (2) PC
conditions must also be given?
(3) AO (4) OC
(1) Product of other two sides
72. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 4 3 cm 2 ,
(2) Sum of other two angles then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm)
(3) Difference of other two sides (1) 16 (2) 12
(4) Difference of other two angles (3) 14 (4) 10

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
73. ABCD is a rhombus and OP  AD. If AOP = 20°, 77. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder is
then measure of CBO is equal to
(1) 72 (2) 0
A (3) 1 (4) 70
78. A rational number between 3 and 5 is
P
3 5 3 5
20° (1) (2)
2 2
D B
O (3) 1.9 (4) 2.5
79. The graph of y = 7 is a line
(1) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 7 units above
the origin
C (2) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 7 units on
(1) 70° (2) 90° the left of the origin
(3) 20° (4) 50° (3) Making an intercept of 7 cm on the x-axis
(4) Making an intercept of 7 cm on both the axes
74. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If
ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to 80. If an isosceles right triangle has an area of
32 cm2, then the length of its hypotenuse is
P
(1) 128 cm (2) 64 cm
A
B
(3) 96 cm (4) 160 cm
Q 81. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is not
possible to construct an angle of
D C
(1) 15° (2) 11.25°
(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units
(3) 18.75° (4) 20°
x 82. The figure obtained by joining the mid-points of all
(3) sq. units (4) 3x sq. units
2 the adjacent sides of a rectangle of sides 48 cm
and 14 cm is a
75. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class
is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower (1) Rectangle of area 336 cm2
limit and upper limit of the class are respectively (2) Square of area 324 cm2
(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16 (3) Rhombus of area 336 cm2
(3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17 (4) Trapezium of area 330 cm2
76. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can p
be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal to 83. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form , where p
q
(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r and q are integers and q  0 is
r 21 26
(2) Volume of a sphere of radius (1) (2)
2 5 5
(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r 17 14
(3) (4)
(4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r 5 5

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
84. Which of the following expressions is a 88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,
polynomial? then which of the following alternatives is not true?

1 5 P Q
(1) 1
 (2) 1  3x
3x x
O
( x  3)( x  5) 9 x  2 x 7/2
(3) (4)
x 5 x M R
S
85. The coordinates of a point on the graph of the linear
1
equation 3x + 4y = 11, whose abscissa is 2
3
times its ordinate are
N
⎛7 ⎞ ⎛ 28 ⎞
(1) ⎜ , 1⎟ (2) ⎜ , 4 ⎟ (1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)
⎝3 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
(2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)
⎛ 7 1⎞ ⎛ 7 1⎞
(3) ⎜ , ⎟ (4) ⎜ , ⎟ (3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)
⎝ 6 2 ⎠ ⎝9 3⎠
86. If the sides of a triangle are 11 cm, 60 cm and (4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)
61 cm, then the length of its longest altitude is
89. If S is a point on the side QR of PQR such that
(1) 60 cm (2) 10.8 cm
PS bisects QPR, then
(3) 50 cm (4) 12.4 cm
(1) QS = RS
87. In the given figure, the measure of SRQ is
S (2) QP > QS

(3) QS > QP
50° (4) RS > RP
P Q
O
90. A closed cylinder of base diameter 42 cm and
height 14 cm is dipped vertically one third in a
bucket full of paint. How much area gets painted?
R
(1) 60° (2) 40° (1) 2002 cm2 (2) 6776 cm2

(3) 100° (4) 50° (3) 1001 cm2 (4) 4224 cm2

  

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 Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)

Answers

1. (2) 19. (2) 37. (2) 55. (2) 73. (3)

2. (3) 20. (3) 38. (3) 56. (4) 74. (2)

3. (3) 21. (2) 39. (3) 57. (2) 75. (2)

4. (3) 22. (3) 40. (1) 58. (3) 76. (3)

5. (2) 23. (2) 41. (4) 59. (1) 77. (4)

6. (1) 24. (3) 42. (2) 60. (2) 78. (3)

7. (3) 25. (3) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (1)

8. (2) 26. (4) 44. (4) 62. (3) 80. (1)

9. (2) 27. (2) 45. (3) 63. (4) 81. (4)

10. (2) 28. (3) 46. (2) 64. (1) 82. (3)

11. (4) 29. (4) 47. (4) 65. (2) 83. (2)

12. (1) 30. (4) 48. (2) 66. (3) 84. (4)

13. (1) 31. (3) 49. (2) 67. (3) 85. (1)

14. (3) 32. (4) 50. (4) 68. (3) 86. (1)

15. (1) 33. (4) 51. (3) 69. (1) 87. (4)

16. (3) 34. (3) 52. (4) 70. (2) 88. (3)

17. (1) 35. (1) 53. (4) 71. (2) 89. (2)

18. (4) 36. (1) 54. (3) 72. (2) 90. (1)