SOCIETY OF ACTUARIES

EXAM FM FINANCIAL MATHEMATICS

EXAM FM SAMPLE SOLUTIONS

This set of sample questions includes those published on the interest theory topic for use with
previous versions of this examination. Questions from previous versions of this document that
are not relevant for the syllabus effective with the October 2022 administration have been
deleted. The questions have been renumbered.

Some of the questions in this study note are taken from past SOA examinations.

These questions are representative of the types of questions that might be asked of candidates
sitting for the Financial Mathematics (FM) Exam. These questions are intended to represent the
depth of understanding required of candidates. The distribution of questions by topic is not
intended to represent the distribution of questions on future exams.

The following model solutions are presented for educational purposes. Alternative methods of
solution are acceptable.

In these solutions, sm is the m-year spot rate and f is the m-year forward rate, deferred t years.
m t

Update history:
October 2022: Questions 208-275 were added
January 2023: Question 204 was deleted
June 2023 Questions 276-385 were added
August 2024: Questions 386-462 were added

Copyright 2024 by the Society of Actuaries.

1
 1. Solution: C
Given the same principal invested for the same period of time yields the same accumulated
value, the two measures of interest i (2) = 0.04 and δ must be equivalent, which means:
2
 i (2) 
1 + eδ over a one-year period. Thus,
 =
 2 
2
 i (2) 
δ
e =1 +  =
1.022 =
1.0404
 2 
=δ ln(1.0404)
= 0.0396.

2. Solution: E
From basic principles, the accumulated values after 20 and 40 years are
(1 + i ) 4 − (1 + i ) 24
100[(1 + i ) 20 + (1 + i )16 +  + (1 + i ) 4 ] =
100
1 − (1 + i ) 4
(1 + i ) 4 − (1 + i ) 44
100[(1 + i ) 40 + (1 + i )36 +  + (1 + i ) 4 ] =
100 .
1 − (1 + i ) 4
The ratio is 5, and thus (setting x= (1 + i ) 4 )
(1 + i ) 4 − (1 + i ) 44 x − x11
=5 =
(1 + i ) 4 − (1 + i ) 24 x − x 6
5 x − 5 x 6 =−
x x11
5 − 5 x5 =
1 − x10
x10 − 5 x5 + 4 =0
( x5 − 1)( x5 − 4) =
0.

Only the second root gives a positive solution. Thus

x5 = 4
x = 1.31951
1.31951 − 1.3195111
X = 6195.
100
1 − 1.31951

2
 Annuity symbols can also be used. Using the annual interest rate, the equation is
s s
100 40 = 5(100) 20
a4 a4
(1 + i ) 40 − 1 (1 + i ) 20 − 1
=5
i i
(1 + i ) − 5(1 + i ) + 4 =
40 20
0
(1 + i ) 20 =
4
and the solution proceeds as above.

3. Solution: C
15

Eric’s (compound) interest in the last 6 months of the 8th year is 100  1 + 
i i
.
 2 2
i
Mike’s (simple) interest for the same period is 200 .
2
Thus,
15
 i i i
100 1 +  =
200
 2 2 2
15
 i
1 +  = 2
 2
i
1+ = 1.047294
2
= = 9.46%.
i 0.09459

3
 4. Solution: C
nv n +1
77.1 v ( Ia )n +
=
i
 a − nv n  nv n +1
= v n +
 i  i
a nv n +1 nv n +1
=n − +
i i i
an 1 − v n
1 − vn
= = =
i i2 0.011025
0.85003 = 1 − v n

1.105− n = 0.14997
ln(0.14997)
n= − = 19.
ln(1.105)
To obtain the present value without remembering the formula for an increasing annuity, consider
the payments as a perpetuity of 1 starting at time 2, a perpetuity of 1 starting at time 3, up to a
perpetuity of 1 starting at time n + 1. The present value one period before the start of each
perpetuity is 1/i. The total present value is (1/ i )(v + v 2 +  + v n ) =
(1/ i )an .

5. Solution: C
The interest earned is a decreasing annuity of 6, 5.4, etc. Combined with the annual deposits of
100, the accumulated value in fund Y is
6( Ds )10 0.09 + 100 s10 0.09
 10 (1.09 )10 − s 
6 10 0.09
 + 100 (15.19293)
 0.09 
 
= 565.38 + 1519.29
= 2084.67.

6. Solution: D
For the first 10 years, each payment equals 150% of interest due. The lender charges 10%,
therefore 5% of the principal outstanding will be used to reduce the principal.
At the end of 10 years, the amount outstanding is 1000 (1 − 0.05 ) =
10
598.74 .
Thus, the equation of value for the last 10 years using a comparison date of the end of year 10 is
= Xa
598.74 =10 10%
6.1446 X
X = 97.44.

4
 7. Solution: B
The book value at time 6 is the present value of future payments:
BV6 = 10, 000v 4 + 800a4 0.06 = 7920.94 + 2772.08 = 10, 693.
The interest portion is 10,693(0.06) = 641.58.

8. Solution: A
The value of the perpetuity after the fifth payment is 100/0.08 = 1250. The equation to solve is:
1250= X (v + 1.08v 2 +  + 1.0824 v 25 )
= X (v + v +  + v=
) X (25) /1.08
= = 54.
X 50(1.08)

9. Solution: C
Equation of value at end of 30 years:
10(1 − d / 4) −40 (1.03) 40 + 20(1.03)30 =
100
10(1 − d / 4) −40 =
[100 − 20(1.03)30 ] /1.0340 =
15.7738
−1/40
1 −=
d / 4 1.57738= 0.98867
d= 4(1 − 0.98867) = 0.0453 =4.53%.

10. Solution: E
 ( s 2 /100)ds  exp(t 3 / 300).
t

 ∫0
=
The accumulation =
function is a (t ) exp

The accumulated value of 100 at time 3 is 100 exp(33 / 300) = 109.41743.
The amount of interest earned from time 3 to time 6 equals the accumulated value at time 6
minus the accumulated value at time 3. Thus
(109.41743 + X ) [a(6) / a(3) − 1] =X
(109.41743 + X )(2.0544332 /1.0941743 − 1) =X
(109.41743 + X )0.877613 = X
96.026159 = 0.122387 X
X = 784.61.

5
 11. Solution: A
 (1 + k ) 
∞ t

167.50 10a5 9.2% + 10(1.092) −5 ∑ 

= 
t =1  1.092 

(1 + k ) /1.092
=
167.50 38.6955 + 6.44001
1 − (1 + k ) /1.092
(167.50 − 38.6955)[1 − (1 + k ) /1.092]
= 6.44001(1 + k ) /1.092
=
128.8045 135.24451(1 + k ) /1.092
1+ k =1.0400
=
k 0.0400 ⇒= K 4.0%.

12. Solution: B
Option 1: 2000 = Pa10 0.0807
P= 299 ⇒ Total payments = 2990
Option 2: Interest needs to be 2990 − 2000 =
990
990 = i[2000 + 1800 + 1600 +  + 200]
= 11, 000i
= = 9.00%
i 0.09

13. Solution: B
Monthly payment at time t is 1000(0.98)t −1 .
Because the loan amount is unknown, the outstanding balance must be calculated prospectively.
The value at time 40 months is the present value of payments from time 41 to time 60:
=
OB40 1000[0.9840 v1 +  + 0.9859 v 20 ]
0.9840 v1 − 0.9860 v 21
=
1000 , v 1/ (1.0075)
1 − 0.98v
0.44238 − 0.25434
= 6888.
1000
1 − 0.97270

6
 14. Solution: C
The equation of value is
98S3n + 98S 2 n =
8000
(1 + i )3n − 1 (1 + i ) 2 n − 1
+ =
81.63
i i
(1 + i ) =
n
2
8 −1 4 −1
+ =
81.63
i i
10
= 81.63
i
i = 12.25%

15. Solution: B
Convert 9% convertible quarterly to an effective rate of j per month:
 0.09 
(1 + j )3 =1 +  or j = 0.00744.
 4 
Then
a60 0.00744 − 60v 60 48.6136 − 38.4592
=
2( Ia )60 0.00744 2= 2 = 2729.7.
0.00744 0.00744

16. Solution: A
Equating present values:
100 + 200v n + 300v 2 n =
600v10
100 + 200(0.76) + 300(0.76) 2 =
600v10
425.28 = 600v10
0.7088 = v10
0.96617 = v
1.03501= 1 + i
= = 3.5%.
i 0.035

7
 17. Solution: A
The accumulation function is:
8+t
t 1
∫ dr ln ( 8 + r )
t

=a (t ) e= e =
0 8+ r 0
.
8
Using the equation of value at end of 10 years:
a (10) 18 / 8
∫0 (8k + tk ) a(t ) dt =
10 10 10
20, 000 = k ∫ (8 + t ) k ∫ 18dt
dt =
0 (8 + t ) / 8 0

20, 000
= 180k ⇒ = k = 111.
180

18. Solution: D
Let C be the redemption value and=v 1/ (1 + i ) . Then
=X 1000ra2 n i + Cv 2n

1 − v2n
= 1000r + 381.50
i
= 1000(1.03125)(1 − 0.58892 ) + 381.50
= 1055.11.

19. Solution: D
Equate net present values:
−4000 + 2000v + 4000v 2 =2000 + 4000v − Xv 2
4000 + X 2000
= 6000 +
1.21 1.1
X = 5460.

20. Solution: D
The present value of the perpetuity = X/i. Let B be the present value of Brian’s payments.
X
=
B Xa = n
0.4
i
0.4
an = ⇒ 0.4 =1 − v n ⇒ v n =0.6
i
X
K = v2n
i
X
K = 0.36 ,
i
Thus the charity’s share is 36% of the perpetuity’s present value.

8
 21. Solution: D
The given information yields the following amounts of interest paid:
  0.12 10 
= 5000  1 +
Seth  =
− 1 8954.24 − 5000
= 3954.24
 2  
 
= = 3000.00
Janice 5000(0.06)(10)
5000
Lori = P(10) − 5000 = 1793.40 where P = = 679.35
a10 6%
The sum is 8747.64.

22. Solution: E
= 100[(1 + i )11 − (1 + i )10=] 100(1 + i)10 i . Similarly, for Robbie,=
For Bruce, X X 50(1 + i )16 i
=
.Dividing the second equation by the first gives 1 0.5(1 + i )6 which implies
=
i= 21/6 =
− 1= 0.122462 . Thus X 100(1.122462)10
(0.122462) 38.879.

23. Solution: D
Year t interest is ian −t +1i = 1 − v n −t +1 .
Year t+1 principal repaid is 1 − (1 − v n −t ) =v n −t .
X =1 − v n −t +1 + v n −t =1 + v n −t (1 − v) =1 + v n −t d .

24. Solution: B
For the first perpetuity,
= 10(v 3 + v 6 + =
32 ) 10v 3 / (1 − v 3 )
32 − 32v 3 =
10v 3
v 3 = 32 / 42.
For the second perpetuity,
X = v1/3 + v 2/3 +  = v1/3 / (1 − v1/3 ) = (32 / 42)1/9 / [1 − (32 / 42)1/9 ] = 32.599.

25 Solution: D
Under either scenario, the company will have 822,703(0.05) = 41,135 to invest at the end of each
of the four years. Under Scenario A these payments will be invested at 4.5% and accumulate to
= = 175,984. Adding the maturity value produces 998,687 for a loss
41,135s4 0.045 41,135(4.2782)
of 1,313. Note that only answer D has this value.
The Scenario B calculation is
41,135s4 0.055 = 41,135(4.3423) = 178, 621 + 822, 703 − 1, 000, 000 = 1,324.

9
26. Solution: D.
The present value is
5000[1.07v + 1.07 2 v 2 +  + 1.07 20 v 20 ]
1.07v − 1.07 21 v 21 1.01905 − 1.48622
= 5000
5000 = 122, 617.
1 − 1.07v 1 − 1.01905

27. Solution: C.
The first cash flow of 60,000 at time 3 earns 2400 in interest for a time 4 receipt of 62,400.
Combined with the final payment, the investment returns 122,400 at time 4. The present value is
122, 400(1.05) −4 = 100, 699. The net present value is 699.

28. Solution: B.
Using spot rates, the value of the bond is:
60 /1.07 + 60 /1.082 + 1060 /1.093 = 926.03.

29. Solution: E.
Using spot rates, the value of the bond is:
60 /1.07 + 60 /1.082 + 1060 /1.093 = 926.03. The annual effective rate is the solution to
−3
926.03 =60a3 i + 1000(1 + i ) . Using a calculator, the solution is 8.9%.

30. Solution: C.
Duration is the negative derivative of the price multiplied by one plus the interest rate and
divided by the price. Hence, the duration is –(–700)(1.08)/100 = 7.56.

31. Solution: C
The size of the dividend does not matter, so assume it is 1. Then the duration is
∞

∑ tv t
( Ia )∞ a∞ / i 1/ (di ) 1 1.1
t =1
∞
= = = = = = 11.
∑v t a∞ 1/ i 1/ i d 0.1
t =1

10
32. Solution: B
∞ ∞

∑ tv t Rt ∑ tv t 1.02t ( Ia )
∞j
a∞ j / j 1
Duration = ∞= ∞ = = =
=t 1 =t 1
.
∑ v Rt ∑ v 1.02
t t t a∞ j 1/ j d
=t 1 =t 1
−1
The interest rate j is such that (1 + j )= 1.02=
v 1.02 /1.05 ⇒= j 0.03 /1.02. Then the duration is
1/ d = (1 + j ) / j =
(1.05 /1.02) / (0.03 /1.02) =1.05 / 0.03 =
35.

33. Solution: A
The outstanding balance is the present value of future payments. With only one future payment,
that payment must be 559.12(1.08) = 603.85. The amount borrowed is 603.85a4 0.08 = 2000. The
first payment has 2000(0.08) = 160 in interest, thus the principal repaid is 603.85 – 160 =
443.85.
Alternatively, observe that the principal repaid in the final payment is the outstanding loan
balance at the previous payment, or 559.12. Principal repayments form a geometrically
decreasing sequence, so the principal repaid in the first payment is 559.12 /1.083 = 443.85.

34. Solution: B
Because the yield rate equals the coupon rate, Bill paid 1000 for the bond. In return he receives
30 every six months, which accumulates to 30 s20 j where j is the semi-annual interest rate. The
equation of value is 1000(1.07)10= 30 s20 j + 1000 ⇒ s20 j= 32.238. Using a calculator to solve for
the interest rate produces j = 0.0476 and =
so i 1.0476=
2
− 1 0.0975
= 9.75%.

35. Solution: A
To receive 3000 per month at age 65 the fund must accumulate to 3,000(1,000/9.65) =
= Xs
310,880.83. The equation of value is 310,880.83 =300 0.08/12 957.36657 X ⇒ 324.72.

36. Solution: D
(A) The left-hand side evaluates the deposits at age 0, while the right-hand side evaluates the
withdrawals at age 17.
(B) The left-hand side has 16 deposits, not 17.
(C) The left-hand side has 18 deposits, not 17.
(D) The left-hand side evaluates the deposits at age 18 and the right-hand side evaluates the
withdrawals at age 18.
(E) The left-hand side has 18 deposits, not 17 and 5 withdrawals, not 4.

11
37. Solution: D
Because only Bond II provides a cash flow at time 1, it must be considered first. The bond
provides 1025 at time 1 and thus 1000/1025 = 0.97561 units of this bond provides the required
cash. This bond then also provides 0.97561(25) = 24.39025 at time 0.5. Thus Bond I must
provide 1000 – 24.39025 = 975.60975 at time 0.5. The bond provides 1040 and thus
975.60975/1040 = 0.93809 units must be purchased.

38. Solution: C
Because only Mortgage II provides a cash flow at time two, it must be considered first. The
mortgage provides Y / a2 0.07 = 0.553092Y at times one and two. Therefore, 0.553092Y = 1000
for Y = 1808.02. Mortgage I must provide 2000 – 1000 = 1000 at time one and thus X =
1000/1.06 = 943.40. The sum is 2751.42.

39. Solution: A
Bond I provides the cash flow at time one. Because 1000 is needed, one unit of the bond should
be purchased, at a cost of 1000/1.06 = 943.40.
Bond II must provide 2000 at time three. Therefore, the amount to be reinvested at time two is
2000/1.065 = 1877.93. The purchase price of the two-year bond is 1877.93 /1.07 2 = 1640.26 .
The total price is 2583.66.

40. Solution: C
Given the coupon rate is greater than the yield rate, the bond sells at a premium. Thus, the
minimum yield rate for this callable bond is calculated based on a call at the earliest possible
date because that is most disadvantageous to the bond holder (earliest time at which a loss
occurs). Thus, X, the par value, which equals the redemption value because the bond is a par
value bond, must satisfy
= 0.04 Xa30 0.03 + Xv=
1722.25 30
0.03 1.196 X ⇒= X 1440.
Price =

41. Solution: B
Because 40/1200 is greater than 0.03, for early redemption the earliest redemption should be
evaluated. If redeemed after 15 years, the price is 40a30 0.03 + 1200 /1.0330 =
1278.40 . If the bond
is redeemed at maturity, the price is 40a40 0.03 + 1100 /1.0340 =
1261.80 . The smallest value should
be selected, which is 1261.80. (When working with callable bonds, the maximum a buyer will
pay is the smallest price over the various call dates. Paying more may not earn the desired yield.)

12
 42. Solution: E
Given the coupon rate is less than the yield rate, the bond sells at a discount. Thus, the minimum
yield rate for this callable bond is calculated based on a call at the latest possible date because
that is most disadvantageous to the bond holder (latest time at which a gain occurs). Thus, X, the
par value, which equals the redemption value because the bond is a par value bond, must satisfy
= 0.02 Xa20 0.03 +
1021.50 = 20
Xv0.03 0.851225 X=⇒ X 1200.
Price =

43. Solution: B
Given the price is less than the amount paid for an early call, the minimum yield rate for this
callable bond is calculated based on a call at the latest possible date. Thus, for an early call, the
= 22a19 j + 1200v19j . Using
effective yield rate per coupon period, j, must satisfy Price = 1021.50
the calculator, j = 2.86%. We also must check the yield if the bond is redeemed at maturity. The
= 22a20 j + 1100v 20
equation is 1021.50 j . The solution is j = 2.46% Thus, the yield, expressed as a

nominal annual rate of interest convertible semiannually, is twice the smaller of the two values,
or 4.92%.

44. Solution: C
=
First, the present value of the liability =
is PV 35, 000a15 6.2% 335,530.30.
The duration of the liability is:

=d =
∑ tvt Rt 35, 000v + 2(35, 000)v 2 +  + 15(35, 000)
=
v15 2,312,521.95
= 6.89214.
∑ vt Rt 335,530.30 335,530.30
Let X denote the amount invested in the 5 year bond.
X  X 
(5) + 1 −  (10) =
6.89214 =
>X=
208,556.
Then, 335,530.30  335,530.30 

45 . Solution: A
The present value of the first eight payments is:
2000v − 2000(1.03)8 v9
= 2000v + 2000(1.03)v + ... + 2000(1.03) =
PV 2
v 7 8
= 13,136.41.
1 − 1.03v
The present value of the last eight payments is:
=PV 2000(1.03)7 0.97v 9 + 2000(1.03)7 (0.97) 2 v10 +  + 2000(1.03)7 (0.978 )v16
2000(1.03)7 0.97v 9 − 2000(1.03)7 (0.97)9 v17
= 7,552.22.
1 − 0.97v
Therefore, the total loan amount is L = 20,688.63.

13
 46. Solution: E
 r2 
 t 
2000 = 500 exp  ∫ 1003 dr 
 0 r 
 3+ 
 150 
 r2 
   
t 
t
 r3  
=4 exp  0.5∫ = 50 dr  exp 0.5ln  3 +
 0 r3    150  
3+    0
 
 150 
1
  t 3   t3 
2

4=
exp  0.5ln  1 + = 1+
 450    450 
     
 t3 
16=  1 +
 450 
 
t = 18.8988

47. Solution: E
Let F, C, r, and i have their usual interpretations. The discount is (Ci − Fr )an and the discount in
the coupon at time t is (Ci − Fr )v n −t +1 . Then,
= (Ci − Fr )v 26
194.82
= (Ci − Fr )v 21
306.69
0.63523 = v5 ⇒ v = 0.91324 ⇒ i = 0.095
=
(Ci − Fr ) 194.82(1.095)
= 26
2062.53
= =
Discount 2062.53 a40 0.095 21,135

48. Solution: A
699.68 = Pv8−5+1
P = 842.39 (annual payment)
699.68
=P1 = 581.14
1.04754
I1 = 842.39 − 581.14 = 261.25
261.25
=L = 5500 (loan amount)
0.0475
Total interest = 842.39(8) − 5500 =
1239.12

14
 49. Solution: D
OB18 = 22, 000(1.007)18 − 450.30 s18 0.007 = 16,337.10
16,337.10 = Pa24 0.004
P = 715.27

50. Solution: C
If the bond has no premium or discount, it was bought at par so the yield rate equals the coupon
rate, 0.038.
1
( )
1(190)v + 2(190)v 2 +  + 14(190)v14 + 14(5000)v14
d=2
190v + 190v 2 +  + 190v14 + 5000v14
95 ( Ia )14 + 7(5000)v14
d=
190a14 + 5000v14
d = 5.5554
Or, taking advantage of a shortcut:
11.1107
=d a=
14 0.038
11.1107. This is in half years, so dividing by=
two, d = 5.5554 .
2

51. Solution: A
7.959
=v = 7.425
1.072
=P(0.08) P(0.072) [1 − (∆i )v ]
1000 [1 − (0.008)(7.425) ] =
P(0.08) = 940.60

52. Solution: E
(1 + s3 ) =+
3
(1 s2 ) 2 (1 + 1 f 2 )
1
=
0.85892 = , s3 0.052
(1 + s3 )3
1
=
0.90703 = , s2 0.050
(1 + s2 ) 2
=
1.0523 1.0502 (1 + 1 f 2 )
1 f2 = 0.056

15
53. Solution: C
Let d 0 be the Macaulay duration at time 0.
d0 a=
= 8 0.05
6.7864
d1 = d0 − 1= 5.7864
d 2 a=
= 7 0.05
6.0757
d1 5.7864
= = 0.9524
d 2 6.0757

This solution employs the fact that when a coupon bond sells at par the duration equals the
present value of an annuity-due. For the duration just before the first coupon the cash flows are
the same as for the original bond, but all occur one year sooner. Hence the duration is one year
less.

Alternatively, note that the numerators for d1 and d 2 are identical. That is because they differ
only with respect to the coupon at time 1 (which is time 0 for this calculation) and so the
payment does not add anything. The denominator for d 2 is the present value of the same bond,
but with 7 years, which is 5000. The denominator for d1 has the extra coupon of 250 and so is
5250. The desired ratio is then 5000/5250 = 0.9524.

54. Solution: A
Let N be the number of shares bought of the bond as indicated by the subscript.
N= =
C (105) 100, NC 0.9524
N B (100) =
102 − 0.9524(5), N B =
0.9724
N A (107) =
99 − 0.9524(5), N A =
0.8807

55. Solution: B
All are true except B. Immunization requires frequent rebalancing.

56. Solution: D
Set up the following two equations in the two unknowns:
A(1.05) 2 + B(1.05) −2 =
6000
2 A(1.05)1 − 2 B(1.05) −3 =
0.
Solving simultaneously gives:
A = 2721.09
B = 3307.50
A− B =
586.41.

16
 57. Solution: A
Set up the following two equations in the two unknowns.
(1) 5000(1.03)3 + B(1.03) −b = 12, 000 ⇒
5463.635 + B(1.03) −b =
12, 000 ⇒ B(1.03) −b =
6536.365
(2) 3(5000)(1.03)3 − bB (1.03) −b =
0 ⇒ 16,390.905 − b6536.365 =
0
b = 2.5076
B = 7039.27
B
= 2807.12
b

58. Solution: D
PA = A(1 + i ) −2 + B(1 + i ) −9
=PL 95, 000(1 + i ) −5
−2 A(1 + i ) −3 − 9 B(1 + i ) −10
PA′ =
PL′ = −5(95, 000)(1 + i ) −6
Set the present values and derivatives equal and solve simultaneously.
0.92456 A + 0.70259 B = 78, 083
−1.7780 A − 6.0801B = −375, 400
78, 083(1.7780 / 0.92456) − 375, 400
B = 47, 630
0.70259(1.7780 / 0.92456) − 6.0801
A= [78, 083 − 0.70259(47, 630)] / 0.92456 =48, 259
A
= 1.0132
B

59. Solution: D
Throughout the solution, let j = i/2.
For bond A, the coupon rate is (i + 0.04)/2 = j + 0.02.
For bond B, the coupon rate is (i – 0.04)/2 = j – 0.02.
The price of bond A is PA = 10, 000( j + 0.02)a20 j + 10, 000(1 + j ) −20 .
The price of bond B is PB = 10, 000( j − 0.02)a20 j + 10, 000(1 + j ) −20 .
Thus,
PA − P
=B = [200 − (−200)]a20=
5,341.12 j
400a20 j
= =
a20 j 5,341.12 / 400 13.3528.
Using the financial calculator, j = 0.042 and i =2(0.042)=0.084.

17
 60. Solution: D
The initial level monthly payment is
400, 000 400, 000
=R = = 4, 057.07.
a15×12 0.09/12 a180 0.0075
The outstanding loan balance after the 36th payment is
=B36 Ra= 180 −36 0.0075
=
4, 057.07 = 356, 499.17.
a144 0.0075 4, 057.07(87.8711)
The revised payment is 4,057.07 – 409.88 = 3,647.19.
Thus,
356, 499.17 = 3, 647.19a144 j /12
= =
a144 j /12 356, 499.17 / 3, 647.19 97.7463.
Using the financial calculator, j/12 = 0.575%, for j = 6.9%.

61. Solution: D
The price of the first bond is
1000(0.05 / 2)a30×2 0.05/2 + 1200(1 + 0.05 / 2) −30×2= 25a60 0.025 + 1200(1.025) −60
= 772.72 + 272.74 = 1, 045.46.
The price of the second bond is also 1,045.46. The equation to solve is
1, 045.46= 25a60 j /2 + 800(1 + j / 2) −60 .
The financial calculator can be used to solve for j/2 = 2.2% for j = 4.4%.

62. Solution: E
Let n = years. The equation to solve is
1000(1.03) 2 n = 2(1000)(1.0025)12 n
2n ln1.03 + ln1000
= 12n ln1.0025 + ln 2000
0.029155n = 0.69315
n = 23.775.
This is 285.3 months. The next interest payment to Lucas is at a multiple of 6, which is 288
months.

18
 63. Solution: A
Equating the accumulated values after 4 years provides an equation in K.
4
 K  4 1 
10 1 +  = 10 exp  ∫ dt 
 25   0 K + 0.25t 
4 1 K +1
4 ln(1 + 0.04 K=) ∫ =
dt 4 ln(K + 0.25 t)= 4 ln( K + 1) − 4 ln( K=
4
) 4 ln
0 K + 0.25t 0
K
K +1
1 + 0.04 K =
K
0.04 K = 1
2

K = 5.
Therefore, X = 10(1 + 5 / 25) 4 = 20.74.

64. Solution: D
25 − a25
The outstanding balance at time 25 is 100( Da ) 25 = 100 . The principle repaid in the 26th
i
25 − a25
payment is X = 2500 − i (100) = 2500 − 2500 + 100a25 = 100a25 . The amount borrowed is
i
the present value of all 50 payments, 2500a25 + v 25100( Da ) 25 . Interest paid in the first payment
is then
i  2500a25 + v 25100( Da ) 25 
= 2500(1 − v 25 ) + 100v 25 (25 − a25 )
=
2500 − 2500v 25 + 2500v 25 − v 25100a25
= 2500 − Xv 25 .

65. Solution: C
The accumulated value is 1000
s20 0.0816 = 50,382.16. This must provide a semi-annual annuity-
due of 3000. Let n be the number of payments. Then solve 3000an 0.04 = 50,382.16 for n = 26.47.
Therefore, there will be 26 full payments plus one final, smaller, payment. The equation is
=
50, 382.16 3000a 26 0.04 + X (1.04) −26 with solution X = 1430. Note that the while the final
payment is the 27th payment, because this is an annuity-due, it takes place 26 periods after the
annuity begins.

19
 66. Solution: D
For the first perpetuity,
1
+ 1 =7.21
(1 + i ) − 1
2

1
=(1 + i ) − 1
2

6.21
i = 0.0775.
For the second perpetuity,
 1 
R + 1 (1.0875) −1 =
7.21
 (1.0775 + 0.01) − 1 
3

1.286139 R = 7.21(1.0875) ( 0.286139 )

R = 1.74.

67. Solution: E
 a5 − 5v5 
10, 000= 100( Ia )5 + Xv a15 = 100  + Xv 5 a15
 0.05 
5

 
=
10, 000 1256.64 + 8.13273 X
1075 = X

68. Solution: C
5000 = Xs10 0.06 (1.05)5
5000
=X = 297.22
13.1808(1.2763)

69. Solution: E
65, 000
The monthly payment on the original loan is = 621.17 . After 12 payments the
a180 8/12%
62, 661.40
outstanding balance is 621.17 a168 8/12% = 62, 661.40 . The revised payment is = 552.19.
a168 6/12%

20
70. Solution: E
At the time of the final deposit the fund has 750 s18 0.07 = 25, 499.27. This is an immediate annuity
because the evaluation is done at the time the last payments is made (which is the end of the final
year). A tuition payment of 6000(1.05)17 = 13, 752.11 is made, leaving 11,747.16. It earns 7%, so
a year later the fund has 11,747.16(1.07) = 12,569.46. Tuition has grown to 13,752.11(1.05) =
14,439.72. The amount needed is 14,439.72 – 12,569.46 = 1,870.26

71. Solution: B
The coupons are 1000(0.09)/2 = 45. The present value of the coupons and redemption value at
5% per semiannual period is P = 45a40 0.05 + 1200(1.05) −40 =
942.61.

72. Solution: A
For a bond bought at discount, the minimum price will occur at the latest possible redemption
date. P =50a20 0.06 + 1000(1.06) −20 =
885.30. (When working with callable bonds, the maximum a
buyer will pay is the smallest price over the various call dates. Paying more may not earn the
desired yield.)

73. Solution: C
5
1.095
−1 =11.5%
1.0904

74. Solution: D
The accumulated value of the first year of payments is 2000 s12 0.005 = 24, 671.12. This amount
increases at 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate is 1.00512 − 1 =0.061678. The present
value is then
k
25
1 25  1.02 
=
P 24, 671.12∑1.02 (1.061678)
k −1 −k
24, 671.12 ∑ 
k 1= 1.02 k 1  1.061678 
0.960743 − 0.96074326
= 374, 444.
24,187.37
1 − 0.960743
This is 56 less than the lump sum amount.

21
 75. Solution: A
The monthly interest rate is 0.072/12 = 0.006. 6500 five years from today has value
6500(1.006) −60 = 4539.77 . The equation of value is
4539.77 1700(1.006) − n + 3400(1.006) −2 n .
=
Let x = 1.006− n . Then, solve the quadratic equation
3400 x 2 + 1700 x − 4539.77 = 0
−1700 + 17002 − 4(3400)(−4539.77)
x = 0.93225.
2(3400)
Then,
−n
=
1.006 0.9325 ⇒ −n ln(1.006)
= ln(0.93225)= ⇒ n 11.73.
To ensure there is 6500 in five years, the deposits must be made earlier and thus the maximum
integral value is 11.

76. Solution: C
(1 − d 2 ) =  39 4 ⇒ 1 − d 2 = 38 ⇒ 39 − 39(d 2) = 38 − 38(d 4)
−4

 
(1 − d / 4 )  38  1 − d 4 39
−4

d ( 39 2 − 38 4 ) =−
39 38
=
d 1/ (19.5 − 9.5)
= 0.1
1 + i = (1 − d / 2 )
−2
= .95−2 = 1.108 ⇒ i = 10.8%.

77. Solution: C
The monthly interest rate is 0.042/12 = 0.0035. The quarterly interest rate is 1.00353 − 1 =0.0105
. The investor makes 41 quarterly deposits and the ending date is 124 months from the start.
Using January 1 of year y as the comparison date produces the following equation:
41
100 1.9 X
X +∑ k
=
k =1 1.0105 1.0035124
Substituting 1.0105 = 1.00353 gives answer (C).

22
 78. Solution: D
Convert the two annual rates, 4% and 5%, to two-year rates as 1.042 − 1 =0.0816 and
1, 052 − 1 =0.1025 .
The accumulated value is
100 100
s3 0.0816 (1.05) 4 += s2 0.1025 100(3.51678)(1.21551) + 100(2.31801)
= 659.269
.
With only five payments, an alternative approach is to accumulate each one to time ten and add
them up.
The two-year yield rate is the solution to 100 s5 i = 659.269 . Using the calculator, the two-year
rate is 0.093637. The annual rate is 1.093637 0.5 − 1 =0.04577 which is 4.58%.

79. Solution: C
(1.08) − 1 =0.006434
1 12

1
25, 000ä4 8% = Xä216 0.6434%
1.0815
25, 000(3.57710)
X = 240.38
3.17217(117.2790)

80. Solution: B
 1 1 
 1 0.08 − 0.1 
PVperp. = +  (15, 000) + 15, 000
 0.1 1.110 
 
= 164, 457.87 + 15, 000
= 179, 457.87
 a 
X  a10 0.10 + 15 0.08
10 
=
179, 458
 1.10 
 9.244 
X  6.759 + =179, 458
 1.1010 
X = 17,384

81. Solution: A
1050.50 = 22.50a14 0.03 + X ( Ia )14 0.03 + 300(1.03) −14
 a − 14(1.03) −14 
=22.50a14 0.03 + X  14 0.03  + 300(1.03) −14
 0.03 
 
= 22.50(11.2961) + X (79.3102) + 198.3353
X = 7.54
23
24
 82. Solution: D
The amount of the loan is the present value of the deferred increasing annuity:
 a30 0.05 − 30(1.05) −30 
(1.05) −10 500a30 0.05 + 500( Ia)30
= 
0.05 
(1.05 −10
)(500) 
 30 0.05
a + =  64, 257.
 0.05 /1.05 

83. Solution: C
 (1 + i )30 − (1.03)30   (1 + i )30 − (1.03)30 
50, 000   (1 + i ) =
5, 000  
 (1 + i ) (i − 0.03)   i − 0.03 
30

50, 000 / (1 + i ) 29 =
5, 000
(1 + i ) 29 =
10
=i 101/29 −= 1 0.082637
The accumulated amount is
 (1.082637)30 − (1.03)30 
50, 000   (1.082637) = 797,836.82
 (1.082637) (0.082637 − 0.03) 
30

84. Solution: D
The first payment is 2,000, and the second payment of 2,010 is 1.005 times the first payment.
Since we are given that the series of quarterly payments is geometric, the payments multiply by
1.005 every quarter.
Based on the quarterly interest rate, the equation of value is
2, 000
= 2, 000 + 2, 000(1.005)v + 2, 000(1.005) 2 v 2 + 2, 000(1.005)3 v3 + 
100, 000 =
1 − 1.005v
=
1 − 1.005v 2, 000 /100,
= 000 ⇒ v 0.98 /1.005. .
( 0.98 /1.005)=
−4 −4
The annual effective rate is v= −1 −1 = 10.6% .
0.10601

85. Solution: A
1 − (1.06 )
−10

Present value for the first 10 years is = 7.58

ln (1.06 )
Present value of the payments after 10 years is
−10 ∞ 0.5584
(1.06 ) ∫ 0= (1.03) (1.06 ) ds = 19.45
s −s

ln (1.06 ) − ln (1.03)
Total present value = 27.03

25
86. Solution: C
10 1
10, 000 (1.06 ) + X (1.06 )  e ∫5 t +1 =
5 2 dt
75, 000
 
11
(13,382.26 + 1.1236 X ) = 75, 000
6
1.1236 X = 27,526.83
X = 24, 498.78

87. Solution: D
The effective annual interest rate is i = (1 − d ) −1 − 1 = (1 − 0.055) −1 − 1 = 5.82%
The balance on the loan at time 2 is 15, 000, 000(1.0582) 2 = 16, 796,809.
The number of payments is given by 1, 200, 000an | = 16, 796,809 which gives n = 29.795 => 29
payments of 1,200,000. The final equation of value is
1, 200, 000a29 + X (1.0582) −30 =
16, 796,809
X=
(16, 796,809 − 16, 621, 012)(5.45799) =
959, 490.

88. Solution: C
1=
− v 0.525(1 − v 4 )=
2
⇒ 1 0.525(1 + v 2 ) ⇒
= v 2 0.90476 =
⇒ v 0.95119
1 − v 2 = 0.1427(1 − v n ) ⇒ 1 − v n = (1 − 0.90476) / 0.1427 = 0.667414 ⇒ v n = 0.332596
=
n ln(0.332596) / ln(0.95119) 22

89. Solution: C
The monthly payment is 200, 000 / a360 0.005 = 1199.10 . Using the equivalent annual effective rate
of 6.17%, the present value (at time 0) of the five extra payments is 41,929.54 which reduces the
original loan amount to 200,000 – 41,929.54 = 158,070.46. The number of months required is
the solution to 158, 070.46 = 1199.10an 0.005 . Using calculator, n = 215.78 months are needed to
pay off this amount. So there are 215 full payments plus one fractional payment at the end of the
216th month, which is December 31, 2020.

90. Solution: D
The annual effective interest rate is 0.08/(1 – 0.08) = 0.08696. The level payments are
=
500, =
000 / a5 0.08696 500, 000 / 3.9205 127,535. This rounds up to 128,000. The equation of
value for X is
128, 000a4 0.08696 + X (1.08696) −5 =
500, 000
X=
(500, 000 − 417, 466.36)(1.51729) =
125, 227.

26
 91. Solution: B
The accumulated value is the reciprocal of the price. The equation is
X[(1/0.94)+(1/0.95)+(1/0.96)+(1/0.97)+(1/0.98)+(1/0.99)] = 100,000.
X= 16,078

92. Solution: D
Let P be the annual payment. The fifth line is obtained by solving a quadratic equation.
P (1 − v10 ) =
3600
Pv10−6+1 = 4871
1 − v10 3600
=
v5 4871
1− v =
10
0.739068v 5
v5 = 0.69656
v10 = 0.485195
−1/10
= =
i 0.485195 − 1 0.075
1 − v10 3600
=X P = = 48, 000
i 0.075

93. Solution: A
Let j = periodic yield rate, r = periodic coupon rate, F = redemption (face) value, P = price, n =
1
1
number of time periods, and v j = =
. In this problem, j (1.0705 = ) 2 − 1 0.03465 , r = 0.035,
1+ j
P = 10,000, and n = 50.
The present value equation for a bond is= P Fv j n + Fran j ; solving for the redemption value F
yields
P 10, 000 10, 000
=F = −50
= = 9,918.
v j + ran j (1.03465) + 0.035a50 0.03465 0.18211 + 0.035(23.6044)
n

94. Solution: B
Jeff’s monthly cash flows are coupons of 10,000(0.09)/12 = 75 less loan payments of
2000(0.08)/12 = 13.33 for a net income of 61.67. At the end of the ten years (in addition to the
61.67) he receives 10,000 for the bond less a 2,000 loan repayment. The equation is
8000 61.67 a120 i(12 ) /12 + 8000(1 + i (12) /12) −120
=
i (12) /12 = 0.00770875
=i 1.0077087512=
− 1 0.0965
= 9.65%.

27
 95. Solution: B
The present value equation for a par-valued annual coupon bond is=
P Fvi n + Fran i ; solving for
P − Fvi n P  1  vi n
=
the coupon rate r yields r =  − .
Fan i an i  F  an i
All three bonds have the same values except for F. We can write r = x(1/F) + y. From the first
two bonds:
0.0528 = x/1000 + y and 0.0440 = x/1100 + y. Then,
0.0528 – 0.044 = x(1/1000 – 1/1100) for x = 96.8 and y = 0.0528 – 96.8/1000 = –0.044. For the
third bond, r = 96.8/1320 – 0.044 = 0.2933 = 2.93%.

96. Solution: A
2
 i (2)  i (2)
The effective semi-annual yield rate is 1.04 =
1 +  =
> =
1.9804% . Then,
 2  2
= c(1.02)v + c(1.02v) 2 +  + c(1.02v)12 + 250v12
582.53
1.02v − (1.02v)13
=c + 250v12 =
12.015c + 197.579 =
>c=32.04.
1 − 1.02v
1.02v − (1.02v)13
582.53 =c + 250v12 =
12.015c + 197.579 =
>c=32.04
1 − 1.02v

97. Solution: E
Book values are linked by BV3(1 + i) – Fr = BV4. Thus 1254.87(1.06) – Fr = 1277.38.
Therefore, the coupon is Fr = 52.7822. The prospective formula for the book value at time 3 is
1 − 1.06− ( n −3)
=1254.87 52.7822 + 1890(1.06) − ( n −3)
0.06
375.1667 = 1010.297(1.06) − ( n −3)
ln(375.1667 /1010.297)
n−3 = 17.
− ln(1.06)
Thus, n = 20. Note that the financial calculator can be used to solve for n – 3.

28
 98. Solution: A
Book values are linked by BV3(1 + i) – Fr = BV4. Thus BV3(1.04) – 2500(0.035) = BV3 +
8.44. Therefore, BV3 = [2500(0.035) + 8.44]/0.04 = 2398.5. The prospective formula for the
book value at time 3 is, where m is the number of six-month periods.
1 − 1.04− ( m −3)
2398.5 2500(0.035) + 2500(1.04) − ( m −3)
0.04
− ( m −3)
211 = 312.5(1.04)
ln(211/ 312.5)
=m−3 = 10.
− ln(1.04)
Thus, m = 13 and n = m/2 = 6.5. Note that the financial calculator can be used to solve for m – 3.

99. Solution: C
=s1 1=
f 0 0.04
(1 + s2 ) − 1 ⇒
2

= =
f 0.06 s= (1.06)(1.04) −=
1 0.04995
1 1
(1 + s1 ) 2

(1 + s3 ) − 1 ⇒
3

f= 0.08
= s= [(1.08)(1.04995) 2 ]1/3 −= = 6%.
1 0.05987
(1 + s2 )
1 2 2 3

100. Solution: B
0(1) + 1(v) + 2(v 2 ) v + 2v 2
=
The Macaulay duration of Annuity A is 0.93 = , which leads to the
1 + v + v2 1 + v + v2
quadratic equation 1.07v 2 + 0.07v − 0.93 = 0 . The unique positive solution is v = 0.9.
0(1) + 1(v) + 2(v 2 ) + 3(v3 )
The Macaulay duration of Annuity B is = 1.369.
1 + v + v 2 + v3

101. Solution: D
With v =1/1.07,
2(40, 000)v 2 + 3(25, 000)v 3 + 4(100, 000)v 4
D = 3.314.
40, 000v 2 + 25, 000v 3 + 100, 000v 4

29
 102. Solution: C
∞

∑ nv n
Ia∞ 1/ (di ) (1 + i ) / i 2 1
= =
30 MacD =
n =0
∞
= = = and so i = 1/30.
a∞ (1 + i ) / i i
∑ vn
1/ d
n =0

MacD 30
= = = 29.032.
ModD
1+ i 1+
1
30

103. Solution: B
I) False. The yield curve structure is not relevant.
II) True.
III) False. Matching the present values is not sufficient when interest rates change.

104. Solution: A
The present value function and its derivatives are
P(i ) =X + Y (1 + i ) −3 − 500(1 + i ) −1 − 1000(1 + i ) −4
P′(i ) =
−3Y (1 + i ) −4 + 500(1 + i ) −2 + 4000(1 + i ) −5
P′′(i )= 12Y (1 + i ) −5 − 1000(1 + i ) −3 − 20, 000(1 + i ) −6 .
The equations to solve for matching present values and duration (at i = 0.10) and their solution
are
P (0.1) = X + 0.7513Y − 1137.56 = 0
P′(0.1) = −2.0490Y + 2896.91 = 0
= =
Y 2896.91/ 2.0490 1413.82
X= 1137.56 − 0.7513(1413.82) = 75.36.
The second derivative is
P′′(0.1) = 12(1413.82)(1.1) −5 − 1000(1.1) −3 − 20, 000(1.1) −6 =
−1506.34.
Redington immunization requires a positive value for the second derivative, so the condition is
not satisfied.

30
105. Solution: D
This solution uses time 8 as the valuation time. The two equations to solve are
P(i ) 300, 000(1 + i ) 2 + X (1 + i )8− y − 1, 000,
= = 000 0
=P′(i ) 600, 000(1 + i ) + (8 − y ) X (1=
+ i )7 − y 0.
Inserting the interest rate of 4% and solving:
300, 000(1.04) 2 + X (1.04)8− y − 1, 000, 000 = 0
600, 000(1.04) + (8 − y ) X (1.04)7 − y =
0
X (1.04) − y =−
[1, 000, 000 300, 000(1.04) 2 ] /1.048 =
493,595.85
624, 000 + (8 − y )(1.04)7 (493,595.85) =
0
y=
8 + 624, 000 / [493,595.85(1.04)7 ] =
8.9607
X = 493,595.85(1.04)8.9607 = 701, 459.

106. Solution: A
This solution uses Macaulay duration and convexity. The same conclusion would result had
modified duration and convexity been used.
The liabilities have present value 573 /1.07 2 + 701/1.075 = 1000. Only portfolios A, B, and E
have a present value of 1000.
The duration of the liabilities is [2(573) /1.07 2 + 5(701) /1.075 ] /1000 =3.5. The duration of a
zero coupon bond is its term. The portfolio duration is the weighted average of the terms. For
portfolio A the duration is [500(1) + 500(6)]/1000 = 3.5. For portfolio B it is [572(1) +
428(6)]/1000 = 3.14. For portfolio E it is 3.5. This eliminates portfolio B.
The convexity of the liabilities is [4(573) /1.07 2 + 25(701) /1.075 ] /1000 = 14.5. The convexity of
a zero-coupon bond is the square of its term. For portfolio A the convexity is [500(1) +
500(36)]/1000 = 18.5 which is greater than the convexity of the liabilities. Hence portfolio A
provides Redington immunization. As a check, the convexity of portfolio E is 12.25, which is
less than the liability convexity.

107. Solution: D
The present value of the liabilities is 1000, so that requirement is met. The duration of the
liabilities is 402.11[1.1−1 + 2(1.1) −2 + 3(1.1) −3 ] /1000 =
1.9365. Let X be the investment in the one-
year bond. The duration of a zero-coupon is its term. The duration of the two bonds is then [X +
(1000 – X)(3)]/1000 = 3 – 0.002X. Setting this equal to 1.9365 and solving yields X = 531.75.

31
 108. Solution: A
Let x, y, and z represent the amounts invested in the 5-year, 15-year, and 20-year zero-coupon
bonds, respectively. Note that in this problem, one of these three variables is 0.
The present value, Macaulay duration, and Macaulay convexity of the assets are, respectively,
5 x + 15 y + 20 z 52 x + 152 y + 202 z
x + y + z, ,
x+ y+z x+ y+z .
We are given that the present value, Macaulay duration, and Macaulay convexity of the liabilities
are, respectively, 9697, 15.24, and 242.47.
Since present values and Macaulay durations need to match for the assets and liabilities, we have
the two equations
5 x + 15 y + 20 z
= x + y + z 9697,
= 15.24
x+ y+z .
Note that 5 and 15 are both less than the desired Macaulay duration 15.24, so z cannot be zero.
So try either the 5-year and 20-year bonds (i.e. y = 0), or the 15-year and 20-year bonds (i.e. x =
0).
In the former case, substituting y = 0 and solving for x and z yields
(20 − 15.24)9697 (15.24 − 5)9697
= x = 3077.18 = and z = 6619.82 .
20 − 5 20 − 5
We need to check if the Macaulay convexity of the assets exceeds that of the liabilities.
52 (3077.18) + 202 (6619.82)
The Macaulay convexity of the assets is = 281.00 , which exceeds
9697
the Macaulay convexity of the liabilities, 242.47. The company should invest 3077 for the 5-year
bond and 6620 for the 20-year bond.
Note that setting x = 0 produces y = 9231.54 and z = 465.46 and the convexity is 233.40, which
is less than that of the liabilities.

109. Solution: E
The correct answer is the lowest cost portfolio that provides for $11,000 at the end of year one
and provides for $12,100 at the end of year two. Let H, I, and J represent the face amount of each
purchased bond. The time one payment can be exactly matched with H + 0.12J = 11,000. The
time two payment can be matched with I + 1.12J = 12,100. The cost of the three bonds is H/1.1 +
I/1.2321 + J. This function is to be minimized under the two constraints. Substituting for H and I
gives (11,000 – 0.12J)/1.1 + (12,100 – 1.12J)/1.2321 + J = 19,820 – 0.0181J. This is minimized
by purchasing the largest possible amount of J. This is 12,100/1.12 = 10,803.57. Then, H =
11,000 – 0.12(10,803.57) = 9703.57. The cost of Bond H is 9703.57/1.1 = 8,821.43.

32
110. Solution: C
The strategy is to use the two highest yielding assets: the one-year bond and the two-year zero-
coupon bond. The cost of these bonds is 25, 000 /1.0675 + 20, 000 /1.052 = 41,560.

111. Solution: E
Let P be the annual interest paid. The present value of John’s payments is Pa X 0.05 . The present
value of Karen’s payments is P(1.05) − X a∞ 0.05 = P(1.05) − X / 0.05 . Then,
P (1.05) − X / 0.05 = 1.59 Pa X 0.05
1.05− X 1 − 1.05− X
= 1.59
0.05 0.05
1.59 = 2.59(1.05) − X
= ln 2.59 − X ln1.05
ln1.59
X = 10.

112. Solution: A
Cheryl’s force of interest at all times is ln(1.07) = 0.06766. Gomer’s accumulation function is
from time 3 is 1 + yt and the force of interest is y/(1 + yt). To be equal at time 2, the equation is
0.06766 = y/(1 + 2y), which implies 0.06766 + 0.13532y = y for y = 0.07825. Gomer’s account
value is 1000(1 + 2x0.07825) = 1156.5.

113. Solution: D
One way to view these payments is as a sequence of level immediate perpetuities of 1 that are
deferred n-1, n, n+1,… years. The present value is then
v n −1 / i + v n / i + v n +1 /=
i +  (v n − 2 / i )(v + v 2 + v3=
+ ) v n − 2 / i 2 .
Noting that only answers C, D, and E have this form and all have the same numerator,
v n − 2 / i 2 v=
= n
/ (vi ) 2 v n / d 2 .

114. Solution: B
The monthly interest rate= is j (1.08)=
1/12
− 1 0.643%. Then,
20, 000 s4 0.08 Xs252 0.00643=
= =
, 90,122.24 630.99 X , X 142.83.

33
 115.
Solution: D
1 − e −20δ 1 − e −10δ
=a20 1.5a10=
, 1.5 , e −20δ − 1.5
= e −10δ + 0.5 0. Let X = e −10δ . We then have the
δ δ
quadratic equation X − 1.5 X + 0.5 =
2
0 with solution X = 0.5 for=δ ln 0.5 / (−10)= 0.069315.
e 7(0.069315)
−1
Then, the accumulated value of a 7-year continuous annuity=of 1 is s7 = 9.01.
0.069315

116. Solution: B
The present value is
v3 + v10 + v17 +  + v −4+7 n
v3 − v3+7 n (1 − v3+7 n ) − (1 − v3 ) a3+7 n − a3
= = = .
1 − v7 1 − v7 a7

117. Solution: C
1.109n − 1
From the first annuity, X = 21.8sn 0.109 =⋅
21.8 =
200[1.109n − 1].
0.109
vn 1
From the second annuity, = X 19, 208(v n + v 2 n =
+ ) 19, 208 = 19, 208 .
1 − vn 1.109n − 1
Hence,
1
200[1.109n − 1] =19, 208
1.109n − 1
=
[1.109 n
− 1]2 19, 208
= / 200 96.04
1.109n − 1 =9.8
= = 1960.
X 200(9.8)

118. Solution: C
a60 − 60v 60 45.4 − 33.03
=
2( Ia )60 1% 2= 2 = 2, 474.60.
0.01 0.01

34
119. Solution: E
Let j be the semi-annual interest rate. Then,
475, 000= 300 + 300a∞ j + (1 + j ) −1 200( Ia )∞ j = 300 + 300 / j + 200 / j 2

474, 700 j 2 − 300 j − 200 =

0
300 + 3002 − 4(474, 700)(−200)
j = 0.02084
2(474, 700)
i = (1 + j ) 2 − 1 = 0.04212 = 4.21%.

120. Solution: B
The present value is
4a∞ 0.06 + 2( Ia)∞ 0.06 =
4 / 0.06 + 2(1.06) / 0.062 =
655.56.

121. Solution: A
=
The present value of the income is 100 =
a∞ 0.1025 100 / 0.1025 975.61. The present value of the
investment is
X 1 + 1.05 /1.1025 + (1.05 /1.1025) 2 + (1.05 /1.1025)3 + (1.05 /1.1025) 4 + (1.05 /1.1025)5 
 
−1 −2 −3 −4 −5 1 − 1.05−6
=X [1 + 1.05 + 1.05 + 1.05 + 1.05 + 1.05 ] =X =
5.3295 X .
1 − 1.05−1
Then 975.61=5.3295X for X = 183.06.

122. Solution: A
The present value of the ten level payments is Xa10 0.05 = 8.10782 X . The present value of the
remaining payments is
v101.015 1.015 /1.0510
X (v101.015 + v111.015=
2
+ ) X = X = 18.69366 X .
1 − v1.015 1 − 1.015 /1.05
Then, 45,000 = 8.10782X + 18.69366X = 26.80148X for X = 1679.

123. Solution: D
The equation of value is
v e−0.06
10, 000 = X (v + v 0.996 + v 0.996 + ) = X
2 3 2
= X = 15.189 X . The
1 − v0.996 1 − e−0.06 0.996
solution is X = 10,000/15.189 = 658.37.

35
 124. Solution: D
Discounting at 10%, the net present values are 4.59, –2.36, and –9.54 for Projects A, B, and C
respectively. Hence, only Project A should be funded. Note that Project C’s net present value
need not be calculated. Its cash flows are the same as Project B except being 50 less at time 2
and 50 more at time 4. This indicates Project C must have a lower net present value and therefore
be negative.

125. Solution: D
The loan balance after 10 years is still 100,000. For the next 10 payments, the interest paid is
10% of the outstanding balance and therefore the principal repaid is 5% of the outstanding
balance. After 10 years the oustanding balance is 100, 000(0.95)10 = 59,874. Then,
= =
X 59,874 =
/ a10 0.1 59,874 / 6.14457 9, 744.

126. Solution: B
First determine number of regular payments:
=4000 600= =
v 4 an 0.06 , an 0.06 (4000 / 600)1.064 8.4165. Using the calculator, n = 12.07 and
thus there are 11 regular payments. The equation for the balloon payment, X, is:
4000= 600v 4 a11 0.06 + Xv16= 3748.29 + 0.39365 X , X= 639.43.

127. Solution: C
20, 000 = ( )
X a5 0.11 + 1.11−5 a5 0.12 =
X (3.69590 + 3.60478 /1.68506) =
5.83516 X
= =
X 20, 000 / 5.83516 3427.50.

128. Solution: A
The principal repaid in the first payment is 100 – iL. The outstanding principal is L – 100 + iL =
L + 25. Hence, iL = 125. Also,
300(1 − v16 ) − 200(1 − v8 )
L = 300a16 − 200a8 =
i
125 =
iL =
100 + 200v8 − 300v16
300v16 − 200v8 + 25 =
0
200 ± 2002 − 4(300)(25) 200 ± 100
=v8 = = 0.5.
600 600
The larger of the two values is used due to the value being known to exceed 0.3. The outstanding
valance at time eight is the present value of the remaining payments:
1 − 0.5
=
300a8 300 = 1657.
21/8 − 1
36
129. Solution: E
Let j be the monthly rate and X be the level monthly payment. The principal repaid in the first
payment is 1400 = X – 60,000j. The principal repaid in the second payment is 1414 = X –
(60,000 – 1400)j. Substituting X = 1400 + 60,000j from the first equation gives 1414 = 1400 +
60,000j – 58,600j or 14 = 1400j and thus j = 0.01 and X = 2000. Let n be the number of
payments. Then 60, 000 = 2000an 0.01 and the calculator (or algebra) gives n = 35.8455. The
= 2000a35 0.01 + Pv=
equation for the drop payment, P, is 60, 000 36
58,817.16 + 0.698925P for P
= 1692.

130. Solution: C
The accumulated value is
(
1000 s24 0.06/12 (1 + 0.08 /12) 24 += )
s24 0.08/12 1000(25.4320(1.1729)=
+ 25.9332) 55, 762.

131. Solution: C
Each month the principal paid increases by 1.11/12 . Thus, the amount of principal paid increases to
1/12 30 − 6
=
500(1.1 ) =
500(1.1) 2
605.

132. Solution: C
i ⋅ 900 ⋅ a20 i + 300a10 i  =
Int11 = 900(1 − v 20 ) + 300(1 − v10 ) =
1200 − 300v10 − 900v 20
 
Int 21 = i 900 ⋅ a10 i  = 900(1 − v10 )
 
Int11 = 2Int 21 ⇒ 1200 − 300v10 − 900v 20 = 1800 − 1800v10
⇒ 9v 20 − 15v10 + 6 = 0 ⇒ v10 = 2 / 3
Int 21 = 900(1 − v10 ) = 300

133. Solution: C
The original monthly payment is = =
85, 000 / a240 0.005 85, 000 /139.5808 608.97 . On July 1, 2009
there has been 4 years of payments, hence 16x12 = 192 remaining payments. The outstanding
balance = = 75, 048.24 . The number of remaining payments
is 608.97 a192 0.005 608.97(123.2380)
after refinancing is determined as
1 − 1.0045− n
=
75, 048.24 500 = an 0.0045 500
0.0045
−n
0.67543 = 1 − 1.0045
n= − ln(0.32457) / ln(1.0045) = 250.62.
Thus the final payment will be 251 months from June 30, 2009. This is 20 years and 11 months
and so the final payment is May 31, 2030.
37
134. Solution: B
Just prior to the extra payment at time 5, the outstand balance is
= = 13, 772.20 . After the extra payment it is 11,172.20. Paying this off
1300a20 0.07 1300(10.5940)
=
in 15 years requires annual payments of 11,172.20 =
/ a15 0.07 11,172.20 / 9.1079 1226.65 .

135. Solution: C
During the first redemption period the modified coupon rate is 1000(0.035)/1250 = 2.80% which
is larger than the desired yield rate. If redeemed during this period, bond sells at a premium and
so the worst case for the buyer is the earliest redemption. The price if called at that time is
−20
35a20 0.025 + 1250(1.025)= 35(15.5892) + 762.84= 1308.46 . During the second redemption
period the modified coupon rate is 1000(0.035)/1125 = 3.11% which is also larger than the
desired yield rate and the worst case for the buyer is again the earliest redemption. The price if
−40
called at that time is 35a40 0.025 + 1125(1.025)= 35(25.1028) + 418.98
= 1297.58 . Finally, if the
−60
bond is not called, its value is 35a60 0.025 + 1000(1.025)= 35(30.9087) + 227.28
= 1309.08 .
The appropriate price is the lowest of these three, which relates to the bond being called after the
40th coupon is paid.

136. Solution: B
Because the yield is less than the coupon rate, the bond sells at a premium and the worst case for
the buyer is an early call. Hence the price should be calculated based on the bond being called at
−16
time 16. The price is 100a16 0.05 + 1000(1.05)
= 100(10.0378) + 458.11
= 1542 . (When working
with callable bonds, the maximum a buyer will pay is the smallest price over the various call
dates. Paying more may not earn the desired yield.)

137. Solution: A
All calculations are in millions. For the ten-year bond, at time ten it is redeemed for
2(1.08)10 = 4.31785 . After being reinvested at 12% it matures at time twenty for
4.31785(1.12)10 = 13.4106 . The thirty-year bond has a redemption value of 4(1.08)30 = 40.2506 .
For the buyer to earn 10%, it is sold for 40.2506(1.1) −10 = 15.5184 . The gain is 13.4106 +
15.5184 – 6 = 22.9290.

138. Solution: A
The book value after the third coupon is
7500(0.037)a37 0.0265 + C (1.0265) −37 =
6493.05 + 0.379943C and after the fourth coupon it is
7500(0.037)a36 0.0265 + C (1.0265) −36 =
6387.61 + 0.390012C . Then,

38
6493.05 + 0.379943C − (6387.61 + 0.390012C ) =
28.31
105.44 − 0.010069C = 28.31
C = 7660.15.

39
 139. Solution: C
The semiannual yield rate is 1.11/2 − 1 =0.0488 . Assuming the bond is called for 2900 after four
−8
years, the purchase price is 150a8 0.0488 + 2900(1.0488)= 150(6.4947) + 1980.87
= 2955.08 . With
a call after the first coupon, the equation to solve for the semi-annual yield rate (j) and then the
annual effective rate (i) is
2955.08 = (150 + 2960) / (1 + j )
1+ j = 1.05242
= =
i 1.05242 2
− 1 0.10759.

140. Solution: C
The book value after the sixth coupon is 1000(r / 2)a34 0.036 + 1000(1.036) −34 =
9716.01r + 300.45 .
After the seventh coupon it is 1000(r / 2)a33 0.036 + 1000(1.036) −33 =
9565.79r + 311.26 . Then,
4.36 =9565.79r + 311.26 − (9716.01r + 300.45) =10.81 − 150.22r
r =−(10.81 4.36) /150.22 = 0.0429.

141. Solution: B
The two equations are:
P= (10, 000r )a5 0.04 + 9, 000(1.04) −5 =44,518.22r + 7,397.34
1.2 P =[10, 000(r + 0.01)]a5 0.04 + 11, 000(1.04) −5 =44,518.22r + 9, 486.38.
Subtracting the first equation from the second gives 0.2P = 2089.04 for P = 10,445.20. Inserting
this in the first equation gives r = (10,445.20 – 7,397.34)/44,518.22 = 0.0685.

142. Solution: C
When the yield is 6.8% < 8%, the bond is sold at a premium and hence an early call is most
disadvantageous. Therefore, P = 40a10 0.034 + 1000(1.034) −10 =
1050.15 . When the yield is 8.8% >
8%, the bond is sold at discount. Hence, Q < 1000 < P. and thus Q = 1050.15 – 123.36 = 926.79.
Also, because the bond is sold at a discount, the latest call is the most disadvantageous. Thus,
40  40 
926.79 = 40a2 n 0.044 + 1000(1.044) −2 n = + (1.044) −2 n 1000 −  = 909.09 + 90.90(1.044)
−2 n

0.044  .044 
−2 n
17.70 = 90.90(1.044)
2n = − ln(17.70 / 90.90) / ln(1.044) =
38
n = 19.

40
143. Solution: B
The fund will have 500(1.05) 4 − 100 s4 0.05 =
176.74 after four years. After returning 75% to the
insured, the insurer receives 0.25(176.74) = 44.19. So the insurer’s cash flows are to pay 100 at
time 0, receive 125 at time 2, and receive 44.19 at time four. The equation of value and the
solution are:
100(1 + i ) 4 − 125(1 + i ) 2 − 44.19 =
0
125 ± (−125) 2 − 4(100)(−44.19)
(1 + i ) 2 = 1.5374
200
1+ i =1.2399
i = 24%.

144. Solution: B
∑
∞
nv n ( Ia ) (1 + i ) / i 2 1 + i
The Macaulay duration of the perpetuity is n =1
= ∞ = = = 1 + 1/ i =
17.6.
∑
∞
vn a∞ 1/ i i
n =1
This implies that i = 1/16.6. With i = 2i = 2/16.6, the duration is 1 + 16.6/2 = 9.3.

145. Solution: A
Because the interest rate is greater than zero, the Macaulay duration of each bond is greater than
its modified duration. Therefore, the bond with a Macaulay duration of c must be the bond with a
modified duration of a and a = c/(1 + i) which implies 1 + i = c/a. The Macaulay duration of the
other bond is b(1 + i) =bc/a.

146. Solution: B
11
 1.10 
P(0.1025) ≈ P(0.10)   = 0.97534 P(0.10). Therefore, the approximate percentage price
 1.1025 
change is 100(0.97534 – 1) = –2.47%.

147. Solution: B
Cash-flow matching limits the number of investment choices available to the portfolio manager
to a subset of the choices available for immunization.

41
 148. Solution: C
Options for full immunization are:
2J (cost is 3000), K+2L (cost is 2500), and M (cost is 4000). The lowest possible cost is 2500.
Another way to view this is that the prices divided by total cash flows are 0.6, 0.5, 0.5, and 0.8.
The cheapest option will be to use K and L, if possible.

149. Solution: B
The present value of the assets is 15,000 + 45,000 = 60,000 which is also the present value of the
liability. The modified duration of the assets is the weighted average, or 0.25(1.80) + 0.75Dmod.
The modified duration of the liability is 3/1.1 and so Dmod = (3/1.1 – 0.45)/0.75 = 3.04.

150. Solution: C
Let A be the redemption value of the zero-coupon bonds purchased and B the number of two-
year bonds purchased. The total present value is:
1783.76 = A /1.05 + B(100 /1.06 + 1100 /1.062 ) =
0.95238 A + 1073.3357 B.
To exactly match the cash flow at time one, A + 100B = 1000. Substituting B = 10 – 0.01A in the
first equation gives 1783.76 = 0.95238A + 10733.357 – 10.733357A for A = 8949.597/9.780977
= 915. The amount invested is then 915/1.05 = 871.

151. Solution: B
The company must purchase 4000 in one-year bonds and 6000 in two-year bonds. The total
purchase price is 4000 /1.08 + 6000 /1.112 =
8573.

152. Solution: C
The modified duration is 11/1.10 = 10. Then,
P(0.1025) ≈ P(0.10)[1 − (0.1025 − 0.10)10] = 0.975P(0.10). Therefore, the approximate
percentage price change is 100(0.975 – 1) = –2.50%.

153. Solution: B
7.959
 1.072 
P(0.08) ≈ 1000   =
942.54.
 1.08 

154. Solution: E
Modified duration = (Macaulay duration)/(1 + i) and so Macaulay duration = 8(1.064) = 8.512.
8.512
 1.064  E = 112,955[1 − (0.07 − 0.064)(8)]
= 107,533.
= =
EMAC 112,955   107, 676 and MOD
 1.07 
Then, EMAC − EMOD= 107, 676 − 107,533= 143.

42
 155. Solution: C
35, 000(7.28) + 65, 000(12.74)
The Macaulay duration of the portfolio is = 10.829. Then,
35, 000 + 65, 000
10.829 1/10.829
 1.0432  1.0432  105, 000 
=
105, 000 100, 000   ⇒ =  =
 =
1.004516 ⇒ i 0.0385.
 1+ i  1+ i  100, 000 

156. Solution: A
D
 1.05 
MAC
ln(121, 212 /123, 000)
=
121, 212 123, 000  =
 ⇒ DMAC = 3.8512.
 1.054  ln(1.05 /1.054) Then,
= =
DMOD 3.8512 /1.05 3.67.

157. Solution: A
I provides cash flows that exactly matches the liabilities. II only has PV(A) = PV(B), which is
not sufficient for exact matching. III describes Redington immunization, not exact matching.

158. Solution: D
Let F be the face amount of Bond X. Then,
2695.39 = 200a15 + Fv15 and 3490.78 =200a15 + 2 Fv15
.
Subtract the first equation from the second to obtain 795.39 = Fv15.
Then for bond X, 2695.39 = 200a15 + 795.39 ⇒ a15= (2695.39 − 795.39) / 200
= 9.5 . This
implies i =0.0634. Then 9.5 =(1 − v15 ) / 0.0634 ⇒ v15 =−
1 0.0634(9.5) =0.3977 and
= =
F 795.39 / 0.3977 2000. The coupon rate is 200/2000 = 10.0%.

159. Solution: D
The value of 1 invested with bank P after three years is 1.043 + 0.02 =
1.144864. The yield from
Bank Q satisfies 1.144864 = (1 + i ) ⇒ i = 1.144864 − 1 = 0.04613 = 4.6%.
3 1/3

43
160. Solution: D
With a continuously compounded annual interest rate of 6%, v = e −0.06 . The value of the first
annuity is
1 − e −1.2
a20 − 20v 20
−0.06
− 20e −1.2
=
600, 000 X= ( Ia) 20 X = X 1− e = 102.614 X . Hence,
d 1 − e −0.06
X = 600,000/102.614 = 5847.155. Then the value of the second annuity is
1 − e −1.5
a25 − 25v 25 −0.06
− 25e −1.5
=
5847.155 =
5847.155 1− e 779,366.
d 1 − e −0.06

161. Solution: B
The amount of principal repaid at payment 15 is (where R is the quarterly payment)
−15 +1
= Rv 40=
10, 030.27 R(1.03) −26 ⇒
= =
R 10, 030.27(1.03) 26
21, 631.19.
The amount of interest in payment 25 is
21, 631.19(1 − v 40− 25+=
1
) 21, 631.19(1 − 1.03−16=) 8,151.35.

162. Solution: E
The present value of the payments (4000 at month 36 plus the payments of X) must match the
present value of the present value of the amounts borrowed (4000 at month 0 plus the payments
of 800).
The quarterly interest rate is 0.264/4 and all payment times should be in quarters of a year. On
that time scale, the 4000 at month 36 is at time 12. The payments of 4000 are at times 1/6, 3/6,
5/6, …, 71/6 and there are 36 such payments. One way to write the present value of these
payments is
36
4000 X
12
+ ∑ n − 0.5
.
 0.264  n =1
 0.264 
1 +
3
 1 + 
 4   4 
The payments of 800 are at times 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, and 11,, in quarters. One way to write the present
value of these payments plus the initial debt of 4000 is
6
800
4000 + ∑ 2 n −1
.
n =1  0.264 
1 + 
 12 
These are the two sides of equation in answer choice E.

44
163. Solution: B
Let r be the coupon rate for Bond A. The coupon rate for Bond B is then r + 0.01. Then,
 1 1 
=
1600 1000  20
+ ra20 0.1 + 20
+ (r + 0.01)a20 0.1 
 (1.1) (1.1) 
2
1.6 = + 2ra20 0.1 + 0.01a20 0.1 =0.29729 + 17.02713r + 0.08514
(1.1) 20
1.6 − 0.29729 − 0.08514
=r = 0.0715 = 7.15%.
17.02713

164. Solution: E
Let n be the number of payments and let j be the interest rate per half-year. Because the given
values are n – 1 half-years apart, 7,968.89(1 + j ) n−1 =
19,549.25. Also,
 1 − v n−1   1 − 7,968.89 /19,549.25 
= 1, 000
7,968.89 = an 1, 000(an−1=
+ 1) 1, 000  =+ 1 1, 000  + 1
 j   j .
 
Then,
1 − 7,968.89 /19,549.25
j = 0.085
7,968.89
−1
1, 000 =
for i (1.085)= 2
− 1 0.1772
= 17.7%.

165. Solution: B
The denominator of the duration is the present value of the annuity:
Xa20 0.02 + 4 Xv 20 a30 0.02 =
78.1729 X .
The numerator is the time-weighted present value of the annuity. In units of X we need the
present value of 0, 1, …, 19, 80, 84, …, 196. One way to view this is as four times a 49-year
increasing immediate annuity (so payments of 4, 8, …, 76, 80, 84, …, 196) less three times a 19-
year increasing immediate annuity (so payments of 3, 6, …, 57). The present value is:
4 X ( Ia ) 49 0.02 − 3 X ( Ia )19 0.02 = [4(655.2078) − 3(147.4923)] X = 2,178.3542 X .
The duration is the ratio, 2,178.3542/78.1729 = 27.87.

166. Solution: A
 i   i    i   i  
22 2 8 2

100 1 +  1 +  −= 1 2 (100 ) 1 +  1 +  − 1

 2   2    2   2  
14
 i
2= 1 + 
 2
i = (21/14 − 1)2= 0.1015= 10.15%.

45
 167. Solution: D
Let C be the amount of the semiannual coupon for bond B.
X= 40a10 0.03 + 1000(1.03) −10 =
1085.30
X= Ca10 0.035 + 1000(1.035) −10 =
1085.30 = 8.3166C + 708.9188
C =−
(1085.30 708.9188) / 8.3166 =
45.2566
45.2566 × 2
=y = 0.0905
= 9.05%.
1000

168. Solution: C
Let X be the original loan value. From the original loan terms, X = 50a15 . Under the revised
=
repayment plan, X 50a10 + 30v5 a5 . Equating the two gives 50
= a15 50a10 + 30v5 a5 which
does not match answer A. All the other choices use s. Multiplying both sides by (1 + i )10 gives
50v=5
s15 50s10 + 30s5 , which is answer C. This can also be obtained by equating the values of
the two payment streams at time 10 rather than time 0.

169. Solution: A
The effective monthly rate is 1.0651/12 − 1 =0.0052617 . The accumulated value is
1097 s180 0.0052617 + 5( Is )180 0.0052617

s180 0.0052617 − 180
= 1097(298.733) + 5
0.0052617
300.3049 − 180
=
327, 710 + 5 =
442, 031.
0.0052617

170. Solution D
Fund K receives 1000 at the end of each year and also receives interest payments of 1300, 1235,
1170, …, 65. The accumulated value is
1000 s20 0.0825 + 65( Ds ) 20 0.0825
20(1.0825) 20 − s20 0.0825
= 1000(47.0491) + 65
0.0825
97.6311 − 47.0491
=
47, 049.1 + 65 = 86,902.
0.0825

46
 171. Solution: D
For Q the accumulated value is Xs25 0.09 = 84.7009 X . For R the accumulated value is

s24 0.08 − 24 72.1059 − 24
100(25) + 9( Is ) 24 0.08 =
2500 + 9 =
2500 + 9 =
7911.91. Then
0.08 0.08
X = 7911.91/84.7009 = 93.41.

172. Solution: E
10 −10
 k  k
The accumulated values for Funds X and Y are 1000 1 +  and 921.90 1 − 
 2  2
respectively. Equating them and solving for k:
10 −10
 k  k
1000 1 + = 921.90 1 − 
 2  2
10 10
 k   k    k2 
0.9219 = + −
 2   2  
1 1 =−
1 
    4 
k2
1− = 0.9919
4
k 2 = 0.0324
k = 0.18.
10
 0.18 
P =1000 1 +  =2367.36.
 2 

173. Solution: A
The 3-year interest rate is 1.073 − 1 =0.225043 . Then,
1.225043
=735 Xa ∞ 0.225043 X = 5.443595 X and X = 735/5.443595 = 135.02.
=
0.225043

174. Solution: B
=
2600 Pa∞ 0.06 + v9( Ia )∞ 0.06
1 1 1.06
= P + 9
0.06 1.06 0.062
P
= + 2500
0.06
P= (2600 − 2500)(0.06) =
6.

47
 175. Solution: B
=
475 (
a10 i 400 a5 i + v10 a∞ )
1 − v10 1 − v5 + v10
475 = 400
i i
475 (1 − v =
10
) 400 (1 − v5 + v10 )
875v10 − 400v 5 − 75 =
0
400 ± 4002 + 4(875)(75)
v 5
= 0.6
2(875)
=i (1/ 0.6)1/5=
− 1 0.1076
= 10.76%

176. Solution: E
= X /1.1 + 2 X /1.12 ⇒ =
Based on the effective yield rate, 100 X 39.03 . After one year, the
outstanding loan balance is 100 + 8 – 39.03 = 68.97. For the balance to be zero after two years,
68.97(1 + i ) − 2(39.03) = 0 ⇒ i = 78.06 / 68.97 − 1 = 0.1318 = 13.2%.

177. Solution: D
The amount borrowed is 1000a5 0.1 + 2000v5 a5 0.1 =
8498.35. The outstanding balance after five
years is 2000a5 0.1 = 7581.57 . The principal repaid is 8498.35 – 7581.57 = 916.78. The interest
paid is 5000 – 916.78 = 4083.22.

178. Solution: B
The accumulation is

s10 0.08 − 10 15.6455 − 10
10 X + 0.12 X ( Is )10 0.08 =
10 X + 0.12 X =
10 X + 0.12 X =
18.4683 X .
0.08 0.08
Then, X = 10,000/18.4683 = 541.47

179. Solution: C
The equation of value is
a30 0.05 − 30v30
10, 000 =
( X + 5)a30 0.05 − 5( Ia )30 0.05 =
( X + 5)a30 0.05 − 5
0.05
16.14107 − 6.94132
=
( X + 5)(15.37245) − 5 = 15.37245 X − 843.11275
0.05
X=
(10, 000 + 843.11275) /15.37245 = 705.36.

48
49
180.Solution: A
150 − 100 150 − 50 150 150 150
NPV =
−600 + + 2
+ + + =
−221.94
1.15 1.15 1.15 1.15 1.155
3 4

181. Solution: A
I is true.
II is false, the price sensitivity of assets and liabilities must be equal.
III is false, the convexity of assets should be greater than the convexity of liabilities.

182. Solution: D
The effective annual rate of interest is (1.005)12 − 1 =0.06168 . The present value of the tuition
payments six months before the first payment is
−6
=
25, 000(1.005) a4 0.06168 24,
= 262.95(3.66473) 88,917.16 . The accumulated value of the
deposits at that time is 1000 sn 0.005 . Equating the two amounts:
1.005n − 1
88,917.16 = 1000
0.005
1.44459 = 1.005n
=
n ln(1.44459) / ln(1.005) 73.75.
Therefore, at least 74 payments will be required.

183. Solution: E
Let x be the annual payment amount. Macaulay duration is
1x 2 x 3x 7x
+ 2 + 3 + + 7
1.1 1.1 1.1 = 1.1 17.6315
= 3.62
x x x x 4.8684
+ + + + 7
1.1 1.12 1.13 1.1 .
Alternatively, the duration can be calculated as ( Ia )7 0.1 / a7 0.1.

184. Solution: E
PV of liabilities is 402.11(1/1.1 + 1/1.12 + 1/1.13 ) =
1000. Duration of liabilities is
402.11(1/1.1 + 2 /1.12 + 3 /1.13 ) /1000 =
1.93653. Let X be the investment in one-year bonds. To
match duration, since zero-coupon bonds have duration = maturity, 1.93653 = [X + 3(1000 –
X)]/1000. Then, 2X = 3000 – 1936.53 = 1063.47 and X = 532.

50
 185. Solution: E
A change in face value multiplies all cash flows by the same amount. Therefore, there is no
change in the duration. If the coupon rate increases, the coupons become larger, but the
redemption value stays the same. This causes payments prior to redemption to receive more
weight relative to the payment at redemption and thus the duration will decrease.

186. Solution: A
We are given i (4) = 8% and want to determine i (12) /12 . The equation that links the two and its
solution is:
12 4
 i (12)   i (4)   8% 4
 1 +  =
1 +  =
1 + 
 12   4   4 
 i (12)   8% 4/12
1 +  =+
1 
 12   4 
1/3
i (12)  8% 
=1 +  − 1.
12  4 

187. Solution: E
Let m be the monthly payment and i be the monthly interest rate. The interest in the first payment
is 125,000i and the principal repaid is 125,000 – 124,750 = 250. Thus m = 125,000i + 250.
Similarly, for the second payment, m = 124,750i +252. Thus, 250i = 2 for i = 2/250 = 0.008 and
then m = 1250. To obtain the number of payments, the equation to solve is
125, 000 = 1250an 0.008
1 − 1.008− n
100 =
0.008
0.2 = 1.008− n
n= − ln(0.2) / ln(1.008) =
202.

188. Solution: C
Let x and y be the amount invested in the five and twenty year bonds respectively. To match the
=
present values: x + y 500, 000e −0.07(10) + 500,=000e−0.07(15) 423, 262. To match the durations,
noting that the denominators of the durations for assets and liabilities are the same,
5 x + 20 y 500, 000(10)e −0.07(10) + 500, 000(15)
= = e −0.07(15) 5,107, 460. Subtracting five times the
first equation from the second one gives 15y = 2,991,150 for y = 199,410 and x = 423,262 –
199,410 = 223,852.

51
189. Solution: C
Let n be the term of the bond in half-years. We know that 601 = 1080v n and thus v n = 601/1080
1 − v n 1 − 601/1080
. Then a= n 0.05
= = 8.87037. The purchase price of the bond is
0.05 0.05
40an 0.05 + 1080
= v n 40(8.87037)= + 610 956.

190. Solution: B
Principal repaid in the first payment is 1000 – 10,000(0.04) = 600. Therefore, the principle
repaid in the tenth payment is 600(1.04)9 = 854 and the interest paid is 1000 – 854 = 146.

191. Solution: C
After one year the outstanding balance is 500a48 0.025 = 13,886.58 . This must match the present
value of the revised payments:
13,886.58 = Xv 6 a6 0.025 + 500v12 a36 0.025 =
4.74964 X + 8, 757.69
X= (13,886.58 − 8, 757.69) / 4.74964 =
1, 079.85.
Alternatively, each missing payment is being replaced with a larger payment six months later.
The larger payment should be the payment due plus the missed payment with interest, or
500 + 500(1.025)6 = 1, 079.85.

192. Solution: A
Only Bond III can match the liability at time 3. The bond must mature for 1000. Only Bond II
can match the liability at time 2. The face value and coupon must total 1000. If X is the face
value, then X + 0.02X = 1000 and thus X = 980.39. Only Answer A has these to values. To
check, Bond II also provides a coupon of 0.02(980.39) = 19.61 at time 1. Therefore, Bond I must
provide the remaining 980.39 from its coupon and redemption value. If Y is the face value, then
Y + 0.01Y = 980.39 for Y = 970.68.

193. Solution: A
Cash flows (in thousands) are 12, 12, 12, 12, and 162. The first bond provides payments of 10,
10, 10, 10, and 110. Therefore, the second bond must provide 2, 2, 2, 2, and 52. This implies a
coupon rate of 2/50 = 4% and a face amount of 50. Only Answers A and B provide these. At an
8% yield, the price of this bond is 42.015 (or 42,015).

52
 194. Solution: C
Let i be the yield rate. Then,
= 2000(2i )a30 i + 2250(1 + i ) −30
3609.29
= 4000[1 − (1 + i ) −30 ] + 2250(1 + i ) −30
(1 + i ) −30 = (4000 − 3609.29) / (4000 − 2250) = 0.22326
−1/30
= =
i 0.22326 − 1 0.051251.
Modified duration is Macaulay duration divided by one plus the yield rate: 14.14/1.051251 =
13.71.

195. Solution: A
The amount of the dividends does not matter, so they will be assumed to be 1. First, calculate the
−4
=
Macaulay duration. The present value of the dividends =
is v 4 a∞ 1.1 (1/ 0.1) 6.83013. The
numerator is the present value of “payments” of 5, 6, 7, … starting five years from now. This can
be decomposed as a level of annuity of 4 and an increasing annuity of 1, 2, 3, … . The present
 4 1+ i  1  4 1.1 
value is v 4 [4a∞ + ( Ia )∞ ] = v 4  + 2  = 4  + 2  = 102.452. The Macaulay duration is
i i  1.1  0.1 0.1 
102.452/6.83013 = 15. The modified duration is 15/1.1 = 13.64.

196. Solution: A
Let r be the semiannual coupon rate. For the original bond,
= 1000ra6 0.05 + 1000v=
P 6
5075.692r + 746.215. For the modified bond,
P=− 49 1000ra12 0.05 + 1000
= v12 8863.252r + 556.837. Subtracting the second equation from the
first gives 49 = –3787.56r + 189.378. The solution is r = 0.037 and the coupon is 37.

197. Solution: A
Let h(i) be the present value of the cash flows. For Redington immunization, the value of the
function and its first derivative at 25% must be zero and the second derivative must be positive.
X is immunized because:
h(0.25) = 102, 400 − 192, 000 /1.25 + 100, 000 /1.253 =0
h′(0.25) =
192, 000 /1.252 − 100, 000(3) /1.254 =
0
h′′(0.25) =−192, 000(2) /1.253 + 100, 000(3)(4) /1.255 = 196, 608 > 0
Y is not immunized because:
h(0.25) = 158, 400 − 342, 000 /1.25 + 100, 000 /1.252 + 100, 000 /1.253 =
0
h′(0.25) = 342, 000 /1.252 − 100, 000(2) /1.253 − 100, 000(3) /1.254 = −6, 400 ≠ 0
Z is not immunized because
h(0.25) = −89, 600 + 288, 000 /1.25 + 100, 000 /1.252 − 300, 000 /1.253 = 51, 200 ≠ 0

53
 198. Solution: E
The bond sells at a premium, so the worst-case scenario is redemption at time six. Then,
i
= 1000
1023 a6 i + 1000(1 + i ) −6
0.96
1000
= [1 − (1 + i ) −6 ] + 1000(1 + i ) −6
0.96
(1 + i ) −6 = 0.448
=i 0.448−=
1/6
− 1 0.1432
14.32%.

199. Solution: E
Answer E is false because the convexity of the assets must be greater than the convexity of the
liabilities.

200. Solution: E
The accumulated value to time 4 is
3
3 e0.42t 100e0.32 (e1.26 − e0.42 )
0.32 3 0.42t
∫1 100= e ∫ e dt 100
0.5t 0.08(4 −t )
e e dt 100= = e = 657.
0.32
1 0.42 1 0.42

201. Solution: E
The value at time 17 of the payments beginning at time 18 is
1+ k
 1 + k (1 + k ) 2  1.035 1+ k
2500  + = +   2500 = 2500 . The total present value is
 1.035 0.035
2
 1+ k 0.035 − k
1−
1.035
1+ k
=115, 000 2500(1.035−2 )a15 0.035 + 2500v17
0.035 − k
=
46(0.035 − k ) 10.7516(0.035 − k ) + 0.55720(1 + k )
1.61 − 0.37631 − 0.55720
=k = 0.01889= 1.89%.
46 − 10.7516 + 0.55720

54
 202. Solution: B
The initial payment, X is
 1 1.02 1.0219  1/1.03 − 1.0220 /1.0321
200,=000 X  + +  + =  X = 17.7267
 1.03 1.03
2
1.0320  1 − 1.02 /1.03
X = 11, 282.42.
The final payment is 11, 282.42(1.02)19 = 16, 436.36.

203. Solution: E
The annual payment is= =
10, 000 / a10 0.1 10, 000 / 6.14457 1627.45. The balance at time 3 is
= = 7923.08. With one-half year at simple interest, the balance at
1627.45a7 0.1 1627.45(4.8684)
time 3.5 is 7923.08(1.05) = 8319.23.

204.
DELETED

205. Solution: E
Let x be the amount invested in Bond A and y the amount invested in Bond B. Then 2y is
invested in Bond C. To match the present value of the assets and liabilities:
x + y + 2y =190, 000(1.07) −20.5
x + 3y =
47, 466.39.
10 x + 15 y + 30(2 y )
To match the Macauley durations, 20.5 = . Then,
47, 466.39
20.5(47,=
466.39) 10(47, 466.39 − 3 y ) + 75 y
20.5(47,366.39) − 10(47, 466.39)
y = 11, 075.49
75 − 30 and
X = 47,466.39 – 3(11,075.49) = 14,239.92.

55
 206. Solution: B
Let X be the price of Bond X. Then, for the two bonds:
X 10, 000(0.03)a2 n 0.035 + c(1.035) −2 n
X − 969.52 10, 000(0.025)a2 n 0.035 + (c + 50)(1.035) −2 n .
=
Subtracting the second equation from the first gives
969.52 50a2 n 0.035 − 50(1.035) −2 n
=
50
969.52 = [1 − (1.035) −2 n ] − 50(1.035) −2 n
0.035
−2 n
=
1.035 =
459.05 /1478.57 0.310469
n= −(0.5) ln(0.310469) / ln(1.035) =
17.

207. Solution: B
With simple interest, the deposit in Bank X earns 1000(0.07) = 70 in year 8.
With compound interest, the earning in Bank Y in year 8 is
1000(1.0125)32 − 1000(1.0125) 28 = 72.14. The absolute difference is 2.14.

208. Solution: E
Split this into two perpetuities. One starts at time 0.5 at 500 increasing by 10 every year. The
other starts at time 1 at 500 with payments increasing by 10 every year. The semiannual interest
rate is 1.0750.5-1=0.0368221. The present value of an increasing perpetuity immediate is found
P Q
using the formula: + 2 , where P is the initial amount and Q is the increase amount.
i i
 500 10 
The first perpetuity, valued at time 0:  + 2 
(1.0368221) = 8755.39
 0.075 0.075 
 500 10 
The second perpetuity, valued at time 0:  + 2 
=8444.44
 0.075 0.075 
The total is 8755.39 + 8444.44 = 17,199.83.

209. Solution: B
5000(10) + 5000i ( Is )10 0.05 =
100, 000
 
s − 10 
5000i  10 0.05  = 50, 000
 0.05 
13.206787 − 10 
i  = 10
 0.05 
i = 0.15592

56
210. Solution: C
( )
Payment equals: 10, 000 / a10 0.08 = 1, 490.29
Accumulated total equals: 1, 490.29 s10 0.10 = 23, 751.46
23, 751.46 − 10, 000 =
13, 751.46

211. Solution: D
Value of fund after 20 years: 500
s120 0.01 (1.01)120 = 383, 404.42
X X X
383, 404.42 = = (1 + i ) = (1.01)
d i 0.01
X = 3796.08

212. Solution: D
=
Using the retrospective method, OB12 12, 000(1.10)12 − 1000 s12 0.10
=
37, 661.14 − 1000(21.38428) =
16, 276.86

213. Solution: E
Using the BAII Plus calculator:
n = 12
PV = 911.37
PMT = -40
FV = -1000
i (2)
CPT I/Y and you get 5.0% is the half-year rate: . (1 + i ) = (1 + 0.05) 2 ; i = 0.1025.
2

214. Solution: B
−4 n
 0.12 
100 1 −  = 200e0.08 n
 4 
( −4n ) ln 0.97= ln(200 /100) + ( 0.08n )
0.0418n = ln 2
n = 16.57

57
 215. Solution: D
Equating present values gives
  1.092 10 
1 −   
5000
= X   1.04  
1.0410  .04 − .092 
 
 
3377.82 = X (12.094127)
X = 279.29

216. Solution: E
P =C + ( Fr − Ci )an
962.92 =
C + (0.04C − 0.05C )a20 0.05
962.92 = C + (−0.01C )12.46221
962.92 = 0.875378C
C = 1100
The discount is 1100 – 962.92 = 137.08.

217. Solution: D
Equate the accumulated value of the deposits to the present value of the perpetuity:

s10 − 10 10
( Is )10 =
=
i i

s10 − 10 = 10

s10 =
20 (using the BAII Plus) ⇒ i 12.3%
The PV of the perpetuity is 10/0.123 = 81.30.

218. Solution: C
1300a20 0.08 − 4000 =
Xa10 0.08
12, 763.59 − = = 1306.03
4000 X (6.71008)

219. Solution: C
2v3 3 + 1v 2 2 6.16078
=dL = = 2.6452
2v3 + 1v 2 2.32908
Xv 5 + Xv 4.0137
5
=dA = = 2.6233
Xv5 + Xv 1.5300
2.6452 − 2.6233 = 0.0219

58
220. Solution: D
The bank’s accumulated value at the end of 30 years is:
100, 000
s = 364,841
a30 0.05 30 0.04

100, 000 (1 + i ) =
30
364,841
i = 0.044

221. Solution: E
999.35 x 1.06 = 1059.31 will be available to make the first payment of 1000, leaving 59.31 to be
reinvested at X%.
817.65 x 1.072 = 936.13 will be available from the second bond to make the second payment of
1000, leaving 63.87 to come from the reinvestment of 59.31.
X = 100(63.87 / 59.31 – 1) = 7.69.

222. Solution: E
(1 + s4 ) 4 (1 + 1 f 4 ) =+
(1 s5 )5
(1.09) 4 (1 + 1 f 4 ) =
(1.095)5
1 f4 = 0.1152

223. Solution: C
d
(1 + i ) − n
n(1 + i ) − n −1
Dmod − di
= −n
= −n
n(1 + i ) −1
=
(1 + i ) (1 + i )

224. Solution: E
The amount invested in three-year bond is equal to the PV of the third year’s payout,
( )
1000 1.13 = 751.31
The amount invested in one-year bond is equal to the PV of the first year’s payout,
1000 1.08 = 925.93
925.93 − 751.31 =174.61

225. Solution: B
10 12 15 20
PV = + + + = 9.615 + 10.989 + 12.774 + 15.258 = 48.64
1.04 (1.045) 2
(1.055) (1.07 )4
3

59
226. Solution: D
Let i = yield rate, r = coupon rate (if any), F = face value, P = price, n = # of years.
For the first bond:
=P 0.8= F Fv36
0.8 = v36
i = 0.006218
For the second bond:
4
=
P 0.8= F Fv n + (0.006218) Fan 0.006218
9
= v + (0.0027634)an 0.006218
0.8 n

Using the BAII Plus, where PV=0.8, I/Y=.6218, PMT=0.0027634, FV=1

CPT N results in n=72.

227. Solution: B
Since the bond has no coupons, the Macaulay duration is the same as the amount of time until
maturity, namely 4 years.
1/4
 1200 
Thus, the effective annual yield rate, y, is   − 1 =0.046635 .
 1000 
The modified duration equals the Macaulay duration divided by (1 + y). Thus the modified
4
duration is = 3.82177 years.
1.046635

228. Solution: C

Using the general Macaulay duration formula:

∑ Rt vt t where R is the cashflow:
∑ Rt vt
Period Cashflow PV at 8% Period ×PV
1 10 9.26 9.26
2 12 10.29 20.58
3 15 11.91 35.73
4 20 14.70 58.80
5 30 20.42 102.10
Total 66.58 226.47

Macaulay duration = 226.47/66.58 = 3.401472 years

229. Solution: C
When a company’s position is Redington immunized, its position is definitely protected from
sufficiently small changes in yield rate, in either direction. However, its position may or may not
be protected from large changes in yield rate.
60
61
 230. Solution: D
Amount of loan = L
Initial expected yield rate = 10.00%
Annual payment = L / a10 10%
=
Accumulated value at time 10 ( L / a10 10% )( s4 10%1.07 6 + s6 7% )
1/10
 Accum Value 
Yield rate =   −1
 L 
1/10
 s4 10%1.07 6 + s6 7% 
=   −1
 a10 10%
 
 4.6410(1.5007) + 7.1533 
1/10

  −1
 6.1446 
= 8.67%

231. Solution: E
Let L = the loan amount. Note that 1 + i = (1 + j )5 . The equation of value is
P ⋅ ak i =L = 120 ⋅ a5 k j
so that
120a5 k
P=
j

ak i
1 − (1 + j ) −5 k i
= 120
j 1 − (1 + i ) − k
1 − (1 + i ) − k i
= 120
j 1 − (1 + i ) − k
i
= 120
j
(1 + j )5 − 1
= 120
j
Next, using the fact that 0 < j < 0.04, we get
(1 + j )5 − 1
5< < 5.41633 by plugging in a small value like 0.000000001 and 0.04 resulting in P
j
equaling more than 600 but less than 650.

62
232. Solution: B
Using the retrospective method:
4000(1.05)6 − 250 s6 0.05
5360.38 − 1700.48 =
3659.90

233. Solution: D
Let t represent the number of years since the beginning of year 1. Since the annual effective
interest rate is 3% in each of years 1 through 10, and 2% each year thereafter, the present value
1
of an amount is calculated by multiplying it by a discounting factor of if 0 ≤ t ≤ 10 , and
(1.03)t
1
if t > 10 .
(1.03) (1.02)t −10
10

The balance is initially 0 (the account is new before the first deposit). Deposits of X are made at
times t = 0, 1, 2, 3,…, 25, or equivalently at time t= k − 1 for each whole number k from 1 to 26
inclusive.

For the final balance to become 0, a withdrawal of 100,000 at time t = 25 would be needed. Since
the net present value of the cash flows (withdrawals minus deposits) must be zero, in a time
period from a zero balance to another zero balance, we have

11 26
100, 000 1 1
10
(1.03) (1.02)
=
25 −10
− X ∑
k 1=(1.03) k −1
− X ∑ 10
k 12 (1.03) (1.02)
k −1−10
=
0
11 26
100, 000 1 1
= 10
(1.03) = (1.02)15
X ∑
k 1= (1.03) k −1
+ X ∑ 10
k 12 (1.03) (1.02)
k −11
.

234. Solution: A
=
For the first bond: P (0.076)(6000)a20 0.065 + 6000v 20
P = 6727.22.

For the second=

bond: 6727.22 (r )(7500)a20 0.065 + 7500v 20
7500r = 417.37, so r = 0.0556.

63
235. Solution: E
PX = Fra40 + Cv 40 = 75a40 + Cv 40
PY = PX − 257.18 = 60a40 | + (C + K )v 40
PX − PY= 257.18= 15a40 − Kv 40
=
Kv 40
15a40| − 257.18
= 320.33 − 257.18
K (0.252572)
K = 250.01

236. Solution: C
  1.04  
20
 1−   
The PV of the first twenty payments is: 14, 000   1.10  
= 157,337.48
 0.10 − 0.04 
 
 
The PV of the remaining payments starting at time 21 is:
 1  −20
14, 000(1.04)19 (1.01)   (1.10) = 49, 202.44
 0.10 − 0.01 
Total equals 206,539.92.

237. Solution: B
 1 
16, 000 = 1, 000  
 0.057 − (− r /100) 
1
16 =
0.057 + r /100
1
0.057 + r /100 =
16
r = 0.55

238. Solution: E
Let j equal the five-year interest rate.
(1 + j ) =
(1.09)5
j = 0.538624
2 10
PV = + =
38.18
0.538624 (0.538624) 2

64
 239. Solution: A
=
From the first bond: P 25a8 0.03 + Cv8
From the second bond:=
0.93P 25a4 0.03 + Cv 4
Multiply the first equation by 0.93 and plug into the second equation:
0.93(25)a8 0.03 + 0.93C= 25a4 0.03 + Cv 4
163.2078 + 0.73415C =92.9275 + 0.88849C
70.2804 = 0.15434C
C = 455.37

240. Solution: D
600, 000
The PV of the liability is = 548,387.92 and its Macaulay duration is 2.
1.0462
Then, equating present values:
x y
+ = 548,387.92
1.046 1.046 4
And equating durations:
( x /1.046) ( y /1.0464 )
(1) + (4) =
2
548,387.92 548,387.92
Solving the system of equations results in x = 382,409

241. Solution: E
Solution: 4000(1.04= 3
) 1400[1 + (1 + i ) + (1 + i ) 2 ], or i solves the quadratic equation:
i 2 + 3i − 0.2139 = 0. Thus, i = 6.97% because the other root is negative.

242. Solution: B
X 10
= 4
100, 000 Xa6 0.01v0.01 +
v0.01
0.05
=100, 000 X (5.79548)(0.96098) + X (20)(0.90529)
100, 000 = X (23.6751)
X = 4223.85

65
 243. Solution: D
Using BA II Plus:
60, 000 = Xa180 0.075/12
X = 556.21
49,893 = 556.21am 0.075/12
m = 132
So, (180 – 132) = 48 payments have been made so far:
49,893 = 556.21 an 0.6/12
n = 119.3
Use 120 future payments including the smaller one.
48+120=168.

244. Solution: C
a − 20v 20 
=2000 110a20 0.10 + X  20 0.10

 0.10 
=2000 110(8.51356) + X (55.40691)
1063.51 = X (55.40691)
X = 19.1945

245.
Solution: E
  1.15 10 
1 −   
= =
PV 100   1.05   1483.62
 0.05 − 0.15 
 
 

246. Solution: D
OB=n −1 =
Ra1
= Rv
1144.5
n −( n − 4 ) +1
P=
n−4 Rv = Rv
= 5
865
Rv 5 865
= v=4
= 0.75579
Rv 1144.5
= =
v 4 0.75579, =
v 0.93240, i 0.07251
=I1 X= (0.07251) 797.50
X = 10,999.02

66
 247. Solution: C
Given that the problem states that the inequality is true for all interest rates from 0% to 10% and
all values of Y, it is sufficient to determine it for one set of values. Select i = 7% and Y = 121.
Then,
Q =121/ (1 + 3(0.07)) =100
= =
R 121/ (1.07)3 98 / 77
S=121(1 − 0.07(3)) =
95.59
= =
T 121(0.93) 3
97.33
Hence,
S<T<R<Q

248. Solution: C
The yield rate on Kate’s bond is
(1000 − 100)
= 25a i ( 2 ) + 1000v10
10
2
(2)
i
= 0.0371551
2

The discount on Wallace’s bond is

(1000 −=D) 25a8 0.05 + 1000v8
=
1000 − D 838.42,
= D 161.58

The book value of Kate’s bond at time 1 is

=B 25a8 0.0371551 + 1000v8
B = 917.19

The difference is B – D =917.19 – 161.58 = 755.61

67
 249. Solution: B
PL= 1000(1 + i ) −2 + 300(1 + i ) −4
PL = 1153.84
PL′ = −2000(1 + i ) −3 − 1200(1 + i ) −5
PL′ = −2667.91
PA = X (1 + i ) −1 + Y (1 + i ) −3
=
1153.84 0.95238 X + 0.86384Y
− X (1 + i ) −2 − 3Y (1 + i ) −4
PL′ =
−2667.91 =
−0.90703 X − 2.46811Y

So, we have two equations and two unknowns. Solving simultaneously, we get:
Y
= =
Y 953.57, = 2.75.
X 346.61,
X

250. Solution: C
1000 = Pa20 0.03
P = 67.22
67.22(20) = 1344.31
1344.31 = 1000 + i (1000 + 950 + 900 +  + 50)
344.31 = i (10,500)
i = 0.03279

251. Solution: B
i (12)
= 1.081/12= − 1 0.006434
12
600 = P(1/1.006434)120−6+1
P = 1254.47
= =
P24 1254.47 v120−24+1 673.42

252. Solution: B
20 2
∫0 1+ 2t dt ln(1+ 2t ) 20
e= e=0
41
41= (1 + i ) 20
i = 0.204035
(1 + 0.204035)5 =
2.53
68
 253. Solution: B
600 600v10
1000 ⋅ a20 i = +
i i
 1 − v 20  3
5 =  (1 + v10 )
 i  i
5 − 5v 20 =
3 + 3v10
0 = 5v 20 + 3v10 − 2
−3 ± 9 + 4(5)(2) −3 ± 7
Let x= v10 = = = 0.4 ⇒ i= 9.59582%
2(5) 10
600
=X (1=
+ 0.4 ) 8753.8
0.0959582

254. Solution: B
150 10
=
5000 + 2
i i
5000i − 150i − 10 =
2
0
150 ± (−150) 2 − 4(5000)(−10)
i=
10, 000
i = 0.06217

255. Solution: D
If paid in one lump sum, the total interest paid is X (1.0520 − 1) =
1.65330 X .
With level payments for 10 years, the total interest paid is
 X 
10 
a  − X =
0.29505 X .
 10 0.05 
Then,
1.65330= X 1000 + 0.29505 X
X = 736.24.

69
 256. Solution: B
Pt = I t
v 20−t +1= (1 − v 20−t +1 )
2v 20−t +1 = 1
v 21−t = 0.5
1.0521−t = 2
(21 − t ) ln(1.05) =
ln 2
t =7

257. Solution: B
10, 000 + 10,815v 2 =
20,800v
20,800 ± 20,8002 − 4(10,815)(10, 000)
v=
21, 630
v = 0.970873 or 0.952381
i = 0.03 or 0.05
0.03 − 0.05 =
0.02

258. Solution: A
=PA 45a30 0.042 + 1200v30
PA = 1108.85
=
1108.85 20a4 n 0.021 + 1376.69v 4 n
Using the BA II Plus:
PV = 1108.85
PMT = 20
FV = 1376.69
I/Y = 2.1
Solve for 4n and get 4n = 48, n = 12.
Or solve the equation to get v 4 n = 0.36876 and then solve for n.

259. Solution: C
Statement I should have an s60 on the left.
Statement II has an annuity-due rather than an annuity-immediate on the right.
Statement III is correct.

70
 260. Solution: D
15(961.54)(1) + 20(966.14)(2) + 30(878.41)(3)
= 2.198495
15(961.54) + 20(966.14) + 30(878.41)

261. Solution: B
1, 000, 000(1.10)17 − Ps18 0.10 =
1, 000, 000
5, 054, 470.285 − P (45.59917) =
1, 000, 000
4, 054, 470.285 = P (45.59917)
P = 88,915.43

262. Solution: D
Using time 5 as the first reference point, then bringing that value back to time 0:
v5 500a5 i + 500 ( Ia)5 i 

This combines a five-year level annuity-due of 500 plus an increasing annuity-due starting with
500 and increasing by 500.

263. Solution: B
Let face amount equal 1.
 1 − v18  18
=1.61 2.25i  +v
 i 
1.61= 2.25(1 − v18 ) + v18
1.25v18 = 0.64
v = 0.96342
 1 − vn  n
=1.45 2.25i  +v
 i 
( )
= 2.25 1 − v n + v n
1.45

1.25v n = 0.8
v n = 0.64
n ln 0.963492 = ln 0.64
n = 12

71
 264. Solution: C
=
450 Xa10 0.10 + 1000v10
Using BA II Plus calculator:
X = 10.50
1.10 =
(1 + j ) 2 , j =
0.048881
=P 5.25a20 0.048881 + 1000v 20
P = 451.64

265. Solution: E
Let I be the amount of interest in the first month.
P0 − m + I = P1 , I = P1 − ( P0 − m)
In the first month, the interest P1 − ( P0 − m) was charged on a principal of P0 , so the effective
P − ( P0 − m) P1 − P0 + m
monthly interest rate (expressed as a decimal) of the first loan is 1 = .
P0 P0
The nominal annual interest rate (expressed as a decimal) for both loans is therefore
 P −P +m
12  1 0  , so the effective daily rate (expressed as a decimal) for the second loan is
 P0 
12  P1 − P0 + m 
 .
365  P0 
Finally, the effective monthly rate (expressed as a decimal) for the second loan is
365/12
 12  P1 − P0 + m  
1 +   −1 .
 365  P0  

266. Solution: D.
P(0, m)= (1 + i ) − m
P(0, n)= (1 + i ) − n
(1 + i ) − m
X= = (1 + i ) − m + n
(1 + i ) − n
P(0, m)
X=
P(0, n)

72
 267. Solution: A
= =
OB180 2000 a120 0.005 180,146.91
180,146.91 = Pa180 0.005
P = 1520.18
= =
L 1520.18 a360 0.005 253,553.61

268. Solution: E
The conditions
1) assets and liabilities have equal present values and equal modified durations, and
2) the convexity of its assets exceeds the convexity of its liabilities
are precisely what is required for Redington immunization.

269. Solution: E
= 4a6 j + Xv 6
90.17

= 4a6 j + 1.6 Xv 6
132.47
Multiply the first equation by 1.6:
= 6.4a6 j + 1.6 Xv 6
144.272
Subtract the second equation:
11.802=2.4a6 j
Use annuity calculation on BA II Plus:
i (2) (2)
= =
j 6% , i= 12%
2

270. Solution: B
9297 = Pa2 0.05
P = 5000
5000
= 4535.12
1.052

73
 271. Solution: B
Using the BA II Plus calculator:
2
 i (2) 
1.04= 1 + 
 2 
i (2)
= 0.019804
2
=PA 25a10 0.019804 + 1000v10
PA = 1046.72
1046.72 − 100= 30a5 j + 1000v j 5
j = 4.2036%

272. Solution: E
Value at time 5 years:
100, 000(1.02) 20 − 2500 s20 0.02
87,851.32 = 5000am 0.02
m = 21.86, using the BA II Plus. Since we want a balloon payment, use m = 21.
=
87,851.32 5000a21 0.02 + Bv 21
B = 4236.70, so balloon equals 5000 + 4236.70 = 9236.70

273. Solution: B
=900 1000ra40 0.05 + 900v 40
Using BA II Plus:
1000r = 45
=P 45a20 0.04 + 900v 20
P = 1022.31
=
1022.31 Fra20 0.04 + 1100v 20
Fr = 38.28

74
274. Solution: C
Let Y indicate the nominal value of the two-year bond, then:
0.05Y 1.05Y
9465= + , so Y = 10, 000.
1.08 1.082
Thus, the amount of liability at the end of the second year is 10,500.
Hence, the liability at the end of the first year is:
10,500
= 5250.
2
So, the amount invested in the one-year bond is:
5250 − 10, 000(0.05)
= 4481.
1.06

275. Solution: C
Macaulay duration of the liability is 3. Asset duration must equal 3.
Let P1 and P4 be the present values of the two assets.

P1 1 + P4 4
= 3,= then P4 2 P1
P1 + P4
20, 000
P1=
20, 000
, P4=
50, 000 P1
, =
P1 1
= = 1 + i : 1= 0.8(1 + i )3 :
1+ i (1 + i ) 4 P4 2 P1 2 50, 000
(1 + i ) 4
(1 +=
i )3 1.25; (1= + i ) 1.077217
PV of assets must equal PV of liabilities. So, PV of assets equals:
20, 000
P1 + 2 P1 = 3P1 = 3 = 55, 699.07.
1.077217
Amount of liability equals: 55,699.07(1.077217)3 = 69,623.83.

276. Solution: D
 1 
20a10 0.06 + v10 ( Da )19 0.06 + v 29  
 0.06 
=147.20 + v10130.70 + v 2916.67
= 147.20 + 72.98 + 3.08= 223.26

75
 277. Solution: C
=
2000 X (1.08)14 + X (1.03)(1.08)13 + X (1.03) 2 (1.08)12 +  + X (1.03)14
1.0814 − 1.0315 /1.08
=X
1 − 1.03 /1.08
= 32.284 X
X = 61.95

278. Solution: E
1 − v10
The present value of annuity X is 1.0331a10 = 1.0331 .
i
v 2 − v12 1 − v10
The present value of annuity Y is P (v 2 + =
+ v10 ) P = P .
1 − v2 (1 + i ) 2 − 1
Equating the present values and solving,
(1 + i ) 2 − 1
=P 1.0331 = 1.0331 = = 2.14.
s2 1.0331(2.075)
i

279. Solution: D
12
 i (12) 
1.12= 1 + 
 12 
i (12)
= 0.00948879
12
60 −3+1
 1 
900 = P  
 1.00948879 
P = 1556.43
60 −33+1
 1 
P33 =
1556.43   1194.78
 1.00948879 

280. Solution: C
=X 5000 10 + 0.08 ( Is )10 0.05 
  
s − 10  
=X 5000 10 + 0.08  10 0.05 
  0.05  
X = 75, 654.30

76
281. Solution: B
=
BV12 38a8 0.03 + 1000v8
= 1056.16

282. Solution: D
I 3 + I 4 = (1 + i ) 2 ( P1 + P2 )
(1 − v 2 ) + (1 − v) = (1 + i ) 2 (v 4 + v 3 )
(1 − v 2 + 1 − v) = (1 + i ) 2 (v 4 + v 3 )
v 2 (1 − v 2 + 1 − v)= (v 4 + v 3 )
2v 2 − v 2 (v 2 + v=
) v 2 (v 2 + v )
=
2v 2 2v 2 ( v 2 + v )
=
1 v2 + v
v 2 + v − 1 =0
v = 0.61803
1+ i = 1.61803
i = 0.61803

283. Solution: C
500(1 + X ) 2 =
600
X = 0.095445
100(1 + Y ) 2 + 100(1 + Y ) =
Z
600(1.10) 2 + 100(1.10) =
600 + Z
Z = 236
100(1 + Y ) 2 + 100(1 + Y ) =
236
(1 + Y ) 2 + (1 + Y ) − 2.36 =
0
−1 ± 1 + 9.44
(1 + Y ) =
2
Y = 0.115549
Y−X = 0.0201

284. Solution: B
Assuming the loss of interest is the loss of the last 9 months interest:
(1.08) = (1.08) = 1.189= (1 + j )
3− 0.75 2.25 3

j = 5.94%
77
285. Solution: C
1000 
s20 0.0925 = 57, 485.26
500 a 10 = 57, 450.21
360 %
12

57, 485.26 − 57, 450.21 =

35.05

286. Solution: B
Let j equal the quarterly rate and let k equal the four-year rate.

1
=
300 (1 + j )
j
1
j=
299
4
 1  1

 1 +  = (1 + k ) 4
 299 
k = 0.054875
X (1 + k )
300 =
k
X = 15.61

287. Solution: A
The outstanding loan balance at any point in time is equal to the present value (at that same point
in time) of the remaining installment payments.
  0.98 20 
1 −   
=
B40 1000(0.98) 40   1.0075   6889.11
 0.0075 + 0.02 
 
 

288. Solution: C
=
OB 5 400a10 0.06 − 1000
= 1944.03
1944.03 = Xa5 0.06
X = 461.51

78
 289. Solution: C
Option 1
1500 = Pa20 0.05
P = 120.3639
=
Total = 2407.28
Payment 120.3639(20)

Option 2
Total Payment= 75* 20 + 1500i + (1500 − 75 ) i +
(1500 − 2*75) ⋅ i +  + (1500 − 19*75)i
19
= 1500 + 1500i (20) − 75i ⋅ ∑ k
k =0

 19 ( 20 ) 
= 1500 + 30, 000i − 75i ⋅  
 2 
= 1500 + 15, 750i
= 1500 + 15, 750i
2407.28
i = 0.0576

290. Solution: C

= =
MV5 1,100, 000 1, 000, 000v15 + 40, 000a15 i( 2 ) /2
i (2)
= .03153
2
i (2) = 0.06306

291. Solution: B
= 100v + 80v 2
150
80v 2 + 100v − 150 =
0
−100 ± 1002 − 4(80)(−150)
v=
160
v = 0.880199
i = 0.136106
4
 i (4) 
1.136106= 1 +
 4 
i (4) = 0.129664

79
 292. Solution: B
Since the bond is bought at a premium and redemption will occur to the investor’s greatest
disadvantage, assume the bond is called at the earliest possible redemption date, or simultaneous
with the coupon payment occurring at the end of the 15th year. The cash flows then become a
bond paying semiannual coupons of 40 for 15 years and returning 1000 at the end of the 15th
year. At a yield of 7% effective annually:

2
 i (2) 
1.07= 1 +
 2 
i (2)
= 0.034408
2
=P 40a30 + 1000v 30
P = 1103.61

293. Solution: A
P′ ( i ) 1500 (1 + i ) − 4000 (1 + i )
−4 −5

− =
P(i ) 100 + 500 (1 + i )−3 − 1000 (1 + i )−4

294. Solution: E
=
1.054 1.042 (1 + f ) 2
f = 0.0601

295. Solution: B
Besides present values of assets and liabilities matching, 1) their modified durations must also
match, and 2) the convexity of the assets must exceed the convexity of the liabilities, in order for
the company’s position to be immunized against small changes in interest rate. Only company V
satisfies all these conditions.

296. Solution: B
Let j be the monthly interest rate.
50, 000(1 + j ) − 800 =
49,800
j = 0.012
50, 000 = 800an 0.012
n = 116.22

Drop payment at payment number 117.

80
 297. Solution: C
21
=
0.75 F iFa27 i + Fv 27
37
21
0.75 = (1 − v 27 ) + v 27
37
16
0.18243 = v 27
37
i = 0.03248
0.75F = Fv n
4
(1 + i ) n =
3
n=9

298. Solution: A
  1.04 5 
1 −    
  1.12   +  1.04   
5
1
 =3.87 + 17.26 =21.13
 0.12 − 0.04   1.12   0.12 − 0.08  
 
 

299. Solution: B
Let x be the amount invested in the one-year bond and y the amount invested in the four-year
bond. First match the present value of assets and liabilities:
PVA = PVL
x+ y =2000

Second, the durations of assets and liabilities should also match:

1x + 4 y
DA =
x+ y
1x + 4(2000 − x)
D=A = D=
L 3
2000
x = 666.67

Convexity of the assets is:

666.67(12 ) + 1333.33(42 )
= 11
2000
Convexity of the liability is: 32 = 9 .
Convexity of assets is greater than convexity of liabilities so Reddington immunization is met.

81
 300. Solution: C
5, 000, 000 = Xa40 0.02
X = 182, 778.74
=OB20 5, 000, 000(1.02) 20 − 183, 000 s20 0.02
OB20 = 2,983,318.31
2,983,318.31 = 200, 000an 0.02
n = 17.89
20 original payments plus 18 with the drop payment equals 38 total payments.

301. Solution: A
Since the coupon rate per coupon payment period 4% is greater than the effective rate of interest
per coupon payment period 2.9563%, it is to the disadvantage of the bond holder to have the
bond redeemed at an early date. Hence, we only need to calculate the present value of such a
bond at the worst-case scenario, which is that the bond is called at the end of the 5th year.
=P 4a10 0.029563 + 100v10
P = 108.92

302. Solution: D
  0.9  20 
1 −   
FV = 100   1.03  
(1.03) 20
 0.03 + 0.10 
 
 
FV = 1295.80
Alternatively,
(1.03)19 − (0.9) 20 (1.03) −1
=FV 100[(1.03)19 + 0.9(1.03)18 +  + (0.9)19=
(1.03)0 ] 100 = 1205.80.
1 − 0.9(1.03) −1

303. Solution: D
First, find a (t )
t  t r 
= = ∫ r 
δ =  ∫ dr  exp t /100 
2
a (t ) exp dr exp
0  0 50 

a (10)
The balance in the account at time 10 is: 300a (10) + X = 815.48 + 2.31637 X
a (4)
=
The total interest earned from t 0=
to t 10 is:
815.48 + 2.31637 X − (300 + X ) =4X = >X= 192.08.

82
83
 304. Solution: A
Since Asset Y provides a cash flow at the same time that the liability is due (t = 4), we can apply
its 250,000 value to reducing the liability amount from 750,000 to 500,000. Then, we can
establish the following two equations, both using t = 4 as the reference point for all cash flows.
500, 000= AX v −2 + AZ v= AX (0.95) −2 + AZ (0.95)
Second, taking the derivative (with respect to v) of both sides of the first equation, we have:
0= −2 AX v −3 + AZ =
−2 AX (0.95) −3 + AZ
0= −2 AX (0.95) −2 + AZ (0.95)
Then, subtracting the second equation from the first equation yields:
500, 000 = 3 AX (0.95) −2
AX = 150, 416.67

305. Solution: D
4
 i (4) 
1.06= 1 +
 4 
i (4)
= 0.014674
4
50, 000(1.014674)5 = 2,125an
n = 31.86
There will be 31 payments of 2125.

306. Solution: A
The PV and duration of the liability payments using 7% rate are
=PV 1,= 750, 000v12 777, 021 and duration 12.
242,180
The amount invested in the 5-year bond is = 172, 671 ,
1.075
Thus, the amount invested in the 14 year bond is 777,021-172,671=604,350.
The maturity value of the 14-year bond is 604,350(1.07)14 = 1,558,337.
The surplus if the interest rate moves to 4% is:
 242,180 1,558,337  1, 750, 000
PVA − PV= L  + − = 5,910
 1.045 1.0414  1.0412 .

84
 307. Solution: A
Let=h(i ) PVA (i ) − PVL (i ) .
Full immunization of a single liability requires both equations:

=
h(i ) 0,=
h '(i ) 0

A1v + A3v3 − 20, 000v 2 =

0
A1v 2 + 3 A3v 4 − 40, 000v3 =
0
1
v= .
1.055

Solve these two equations in two unknowns to get A1 = 9478.67

308. Solution: D
Let F1 , F2 , F3 be the redemption amounts of each bond for purchase.
To exactly match the liabilities with cash income:
1000 = F3
F3 = 1000
1000 = F2 (1.02)
F2 = 980.39
1000 − 980.39(0.02) =
F1 (1.01)
F1 = 970.69
The total purchase price is
970.69(1.01) 980.39(0.02) 980.39(1.02) 1000
+ + + =
2241.82.
1.14 1.15 1.152 1.183

309. Solution: B
The PV of the annuity following the 11th payment is:
10a9 0.06 = 68.0169.
i (2)
The effective semi-annual rate is j= = 1.061/2 − 1= 0.02956301.
2
Next,
 1 
PV K= 0.02956301 − 0.005  68.0169
K = 1.67

85
 310. Solution: B
Split this into three perpetuities with payments 3 years apart. Find the three-year interest rate:
1
1.125 = (1 + j ) 3 , j =0.423828 .
The present value of the three perpetuities, starting at times 0, 1, and 2 is:
100(1.423828) X (1.423828) 100(1.423828)
+ + = 9450
0.423828 0.423828(1.125) 0.423828(1.125) 2
X = 2963.19.

311. Solution: E

Note that had the borrower 1) charged X at the end of month 0, and 2) paid off the remaining
3000 at the beginning of month 16, then the initial and final balances would have become 0. In
that situation, the present value of the amounts charged to the credit card, minus the present
values of the payments, would have been 0 in the 15-month period.

n − 0.5
The amounts charged to the card were 79.99 at each of times t = , for each whole number
12
of n from 1 to 15.
n
The monthly payments were 250 at each of times t = , for each whole number n from 1 to 15
12
inclusive.

Then to make the final balance 0, the final (additional) payment would have been 3000 at time
15 5
=
t = .
12 4

Therefore, we have

15 15
79.99 250 3000
X +∑
n − 0.5
−∑ n
− 5
=
0
=n 1= 12 n 1
(1.168) (1.168) 12 (1.168) 4

15 15
79.99 3000 250
X +∑ n − 0.5
= 5
+ ∑ n
n
(1.168) 12 (1.168) 4 n 1 (1.168)12
1=
.

312. Solution: A
t 
The accumulated value is a (t ) =exp  ∫ 0.03 + 0.005r dr  =exp[0.03t + 0.0025t 2 ] , The
0 
a (2) 1.0725
account balance is 100a (2) + 100 = 100(1.0725) + 100 = 211.07.
a (1) 1.0330

86
87
 313. Solution: E
Break this into two parts – the first 30 increasing payments and the remaining level perpetuity.
  1.03  30 
 1−   
(1.07 ) + v 29 
1 
350  
1.07  
350 (1.03) =
29

 0.07 − 0.03   8033.38

 0.07 
 
 

314. Solution: E
Let n index the payment times in months. Then for a payment at time n, the discount factor is
1
. The end-of-month payment at month n is be 500 + (n − 1) X .
(1.045)
n /6

60
500 + (n − 1) X
Therefore, we have 30, 000 = ∑ .
(1.045)
n /6
n =1

315. Solution: A
Let i be the yield rate, v = 1/(1 + i), and let n be the term. For Bond A, 20, 000v n = 10, 000 and
so v n = 0.5 . For Bond B, 10,835.58(v n + 0.04an i ) =
10, 000 and so
 10, 000 
an i =  − 0.5  / 0.04 = 10.5721 .
 10,835.58 
10, 000= X (v n + 0.03an i=
) 0.81716 X ⇒ X= 12, 237.51.
For Bond C,

316. Solution: C
  1   1 
50, 000 = ka10 0.052 + v10 (k + 200)   + 200  2 
  0.052   0.052  
50, 000 =k (7.647284) + (0.602341) [19.230769k + 3846.153846 + 73964.50]
=
50, 000 19.230765k + 46,868.54
k = 162.83

88
 317. Solution: B
Let rA represent the coupon rate of bond A. The coupon rate of bond B is then rA + 0.005 .
From the given information,
 1 1 
=
3000 1000  30
+ rA a30 0.07 + 30
+ ( rA + 0.005 ) a30 0.07 
 (1.07) (1.07) 
2
3= + 2rA a30 0.07 + 0.005a30 0.07
(1.07)30
3=0.26273 + 24.81808rA + 0.06205
3 − 0.26273 − 0.06205
=rA = 10.78%
= 0.1078
24.81808 .

318. Solution: C
=
7 P=12 C (i − g )v 20−12+1
9
 1 
7 [Ci − Cg ] 
= 
 0.0375 
= Ci − Fr
9.7497
=
9.7497 C (0.0375) − 35
C = 1193.33

319. Solution: C
=PA 350a40 0.025 + 1.1PAv 40
=PA 8785.97 + PA (0.409674)
PA = 14,883.24
= =
R 1.1PA 16,371.57
=
14, 724.91 350am 0.025 + 16,371.57v m
m = 48
n = 24

89
 320. Solution: A

Let i represent the common yield rate of the two bonds.

Since the modified duration is the Macaulay duration divided by (1 + i) and i > 0, the Macaulay
duration of each bond is greater than its modified duration. Since a < d < b, the Macaulay
duration of d years must be associated with the bond with modified duration a years.

Since the bonds have the same yield rate, the ratio of the two types of duration is the same for
each bond. So if x represents the Macaulay duration of the other bond in years, we have

d / a = x / b implies ax = bd implies x = bd / a.

The Macaulay duration of the other bond is bd / a years.

321. Solution: C
3x 4 −2 x 4
 0.04 
1000 1 +
 4 
 (
e0.05(3) )  0.06 
1 −


2 
= 1670.42

322. Solution: C
75.6
7 s45 i =
1.2i
7 (1 + i ) − 1 75.6
45
 =
i 1.2i
7 (1 + i ) − 7 =
45
63
(1 + i ) =
45
10
i = 0.0525
=X 7= s45 0.0525 1200

90
 323. Solution: C
  1.06 10 
1 −   
20, 000 = X   1.10  
 0.10 − 0.06 
 
 
X = 2584.39
 1.068 1.069 
LB8= X  + 2 
= 7353
 1.10 1.10 

324. Solution: D
t 1 
a (t ) = exp  ∫ dr 
 0 r +8 
= exp ln(t + 8) 0 
t
 
= exp [ ln(t + 8) − ln(8) ]
 t +8 t +8
= exp=  ln 
 8  8
a (5) 13 / 8
= = 1.08333
a (4) 12 / 8
i5 = 0.08333

325. Solution: D
=
98.5 3a2 j /2 + 100v 2
j
= 0.037929
2
j = 0.07586

326. Solution: D
=
Adjustment in book value ( g − i ) vin−t +1F
( 0.08 − 0.04 ) v0.04
= 13
F=
43.24
F = 1800
=P 1800 ( 0.08 ) a20 0.04 + 1800v420
= 144a20 0.04 + 1800v420 = 2778.50

91
 327. Solution: A
n
 1 
1−  
5.5554 =  1.0614 
0.0614
n=7

328. Solution: C
8000
15, 000 − =1000 + Xa36 0.01
1.0136
8408.60 = Xa36 0.01
8408.60 = X (30.10751)
X = 279.29

329.
Solution: B
20000 20000
=R1 = 10
 1.1  9.562
1−  
 1.09 
0.09 − 0.1
= 2091.61
The fourth payment is 2091.61(1.1) = 2300.71
The principal outstanding before the fourth payment is
9
 1.1 
1−  
2300.71  1.09 
= 19708.94
0.09 − 0.1
=
Interest in the fourth =
payment is 19708.94 ( 0.09 ) 1773.80
X = Principal repaid = 2300.71 − 1773.80 = 526.91

330. Solution: E
 ∫ 0 tdt+1 ∫ 0 tdt+1 
3 2

Interest earned on the first account is 3  e −e = 3 (1 + 3) − (1 + 2 ) = 3.

 
Interest on the second account is X (1.05 − 1.05 ) =
3 2
0.055125 X .
=3 0.055125 X=
⇒ X 54.42 .

92
 331. Solution: D
=
1.07255 1.05753 (1 + f ) 2
f = 0.0954

332. Solution: C
(
150, 000 14, 000 
= )
s5 0.08 + Xs2 0.08 1.085
=
150, 000 (88, 703.01 + 2.2464 X )1.46933
X = 5,958

333. Solution: A
I is false as it is true for small parallel changes in interest rates only.
II is false, as the durations will be equal.
III is false as the convexity of assets should be greater than the convexity of liabilities.

334. Solution: B
756.97 a20 0.04
9550(1 + i )5 =
9550(1 + i )5 =
10, 698.97
(1 + i )5 =
1.12031
i = 0.02298

335. Solution: B
600(1 + i ) n =
1000
10
(1 + i ) n =
6
v = 0.6
n

i
=
600 F an i + Fv n
2
 i 1 − vn 
=600 F  + vn 
2 i 
1 
600= F  (1 − 0.6 ) + 0.6 
2 
F = 750

93
 336. Solution: B
 s − 29 
 40( Is ) + =
30(1000)   40 29 0.03 + =
30(1000)  53, 433.89
 29 0.03 
 0.03 

337. Solution: C
5020 = 360an 0.0625
n = 33.85
Use n = 33
=
5020 360a33 0.0625 + Xv33
=
5020 4980.95 + Xv33
39.05 = Xv33
X = 288.75
B=
360 + 288.75 =
648.75

338. Solution: A
For a 7.5% yield rate, the present value and Macaulay duration of the assets are, respectively,

30, 000(28) + 20, 000(35)

30,000 + 20,000 = 50,000 and = 30.8 .
30, 000 + 20, 000

The present value and Macaulay duration, of the liabilities are, respectively,
50, 000(1.075) y
= 50, 000 and y.
(1.075) y

Note that the present values of assets and liabilities already match. Since Macaulay durations
must match, y = 30.8.

339. Solution: B
Use the full immunization equations and let N be the maturity value of the asset maturing in n
years.
242,180(1.07)7 + N (1.07) − ( n −12) − 1, 750, 000 =
0
242,180(7)(1.07)7 − N (n − 12)(1.07) − ( n −12) =
0
From the first equation:
N (1.07) −( n−12) =
1, 750, 000 − 242,180(1.07)7 = 1,361,112.
Substituting this in the second equation:
n − 12 242,180(7)(1.07)
= 7
/1,361,112 2 and so n = 14.

94
 340. Solution: B
2895.28 = Rv + R(1.01)v 2 + R(1.01) 2 v3 + ... + R(1.01) 29 v30 + 1000v30
  1.01 30 
1 −   
=
>R   1.031  
+ 1000v30 =
2895.28
 0.031 − 0.01 
 
 
=
>R= 113.75

341. Solution: B
=i e0.12 − 1
i = 0.12749685
 1 
3000  (1.12749685)
 0.12749685 − 0.07 
= 58,829.14

342. Solution: E

If accumulating the payments, they accumulate for 0, 1, …, 39 periods. This accumulation is

reflected in the left-hand sides of (A) and (D). Since the accumulated value is X, neither right-
hand side is correct. If discounting the payments to time zero, the payments are discounted for 1,
2, …, 40 periods as reflected in the left-hand side of (E). The right-hand side of (E) discounts the
accumulated value of X for 40 periods and hence is the correct value. Answers (B) and (C) do
not reflect the time-zero present value.

343. Solution: D

The cost to purchase the bond at the end of year 3 is 2000 × (1.03) −2 = 1885.19 . Subtracting this
cost from 2260.19 we get 375, the amount of interest paid which is 3.75% of 10000. Thus the
interest rate is 3.75%.

95
 344. Solution: A
Let a, b, and c represent the face values of the three bonds. One, two, three, and four years from
now, respectively:

the 1-year bond provides payments of 1.01a, 0, 0, 0;

the 3-year bond provides payments of 0.05b, 0.05b, 1.05b, 0; and
the 4-year bond provides payments of 0.07c, 0.07c, 0.07c, 1.07c.

The total payments one, two, three, and four years from now must match the liabilities.
Therefore, we have

1.01a + 0.05b + 0.07c =

5766
0.05b + 0.07c = X
1.05b + 0.07c = 15421
1.07c = 7811

Note that to find X, we do not need the first equation.

7811
Solving the fourth equation for c yields= c = 7300 .
1.07
Substituting this value of c into the third equation and solving for b yields
15421 − 0.07(7300)
b = 14200 .
1.05
Finally, substituting these values of b and c into the second equation yields
X = 0.05(14200) + 0.07(7300) = 1221 .

345. Solution: E
49
=r = (2) 0.10
980
i (2) =0.10 + 0.018 =0.118
i (2)
= 0.059
2
=
915.70 49a2 n 0.059 + 1000v 2 n
2n = 12
n=6

96
 346. Solution: B
30 1030
The price of a one-year bond for 1000 is + = 1017.45 .
1.021 1.0212
1500
Therefore, to match the payment at time 2 we need to invest 1017.45 = 1481.72 in the one-
1030
year bond.
1500
The one-year bond gives a payment of 30 = 43.69 at time 0.5. Therefore, the amount that
1030
2000 − 43.69
needs to be invested in the six month zero coupon bond is = = 1922.66 .
1.0175
The total cost of the dedicated portfolio is: 1481.72 + 1922.66 = 3404.38.

347. Solution: A
260 1500e −0.1(4/12) −
The current value for couch #2 is = = X 1450.82 − X ⇒=
X 1190.82 .
The current value for couch #1 is 1500e−0.1(6/12) − 1190.82e0.1(2/12) = 1426.84 − 1210.83 = 216.

348.
Solution: A
  1.05  20 
1 −   
=   1.04  
= 52, 732.61
PVX 2500
 0.04 − 0.05 
 
 
Annuity Y has the same increasing percentage as interest rate, so:
PVY = 30k
PVX = PVY = >k = 1757.75

349. Solution: A
−0.5(0.4)
 d (1/2)   2.4 2 
1 −  exp  ∫
= dt 
2.0 10 − t
Solution: 
0.5   

(1 − 2d ) (1/2) −0.2
=exp  −2 ln(10 − t ) |2.4 
2.0 
2
 8 
(1 − 2d (1/2) )
−0.2
=  
 7.6 
d (1/2) = 0.20063

97
 350. Solution: D
The price of Bond A is 60(1.04−1 + 1.04−2 + 1.04−3 ) + 1000(1.04−3 ) =
1055.50, while the
60[1.04−1 + 2(1.04−2 ) + 3(1.04−3 )] + 3(1000)(1.04−3 )
Macaulay duration of Bond A is = 2.838.
1055.50
Note that the one-year zero-coupon bond has duration 1.

Let w denote the proportion of wealth to invest in Bond A; then, 1 − w is the proportion of wealth
invested in Bond B. Then= 2 2.838w + 1(1 − w), or w = 0.5440.

351. Solution: A
Let K be the amount that Bank B paid. Equating the amount borrowed (the 16 payments
discounted at 7%) to the actual payments received (using the 6% yield rate) gives the equation
K
=
1000 a16 7% 1000a8 6% +
1.068 .
Then,
=K 1000(a16 7% − a8 6% )1.068
= 1000(9.44665 − 6.20979)1.068
= 3236.86(1.59385)
= 5159.06.

352. Solution: A
640(1 + i ) n =
1000
(1 + i ) n =
1.5625
v n = 0.64
i
=640 F an i + Fv n
2
 i 1 − vn 
=640 F  + vn 
2 i 
1 
640= F  (1 − 0.64 ) + 0.64 
2 
F = 780.49

353. Solution: E
P' −4750
The price is P = 950. The modified duration is − =
− =
5.
P 950
Macaulay duration is (1.09)(5) = 5.45

98
 354. Solution: B
Because Bond A sold for its fact amount, the yield rate is the coupon rate of 6% per year.
The present values of the three bonds are:
Bond A: 1000 (given)
−5
Bond B: 1000(1.06) = 747.26
−10
Bond C: 1000(1.06) = 558.39
The durations are:
Bond A: 7.8017
Bond B: 5
Bond C: 10
The portfolio duration is the average of these three durations, weighted by the bond prices.
1000(7.8017) + 747.26(5) + 558.39(10)
Duration = = 7.426
1000 + 747.26 + 558.39

355. Solution: A
The present value of the two payments is:
1, 000, 000
1, 000, 000 + = 1,821,927.07
1.045
The present value of the perpetuity is:
 X 1000 
(1.04)  + = 1,821,927.07
 0.04 0.04 
2

 X 1000 
 0.04 + 0.042  = 1, 751,852.99

X
= 1,126,852.99
0.04
X = 45, 074.12

356.
Solution: C
 6 0.5 
X = 1000 exp  ∫ dt 
 2 5 + 0.5t 
= 1000 exp ln(5 + 0.5t ) |62 
8
= 1000 exp ( ln 8 − ln=
6 ) 1000  = 1333.33
6
−4(2)
 0.08 
= Y 1 −
1333.33
 4 
Y = 1134.35

99
357. Solution: D
The quarterly interest rate is 1.081/4 − 1 =0.01943

= X (1.08−1 + 1.08−3 + 1.08−5 )

1000a24 0.01943
19, 406.51 = 2.40034 X
X = 8085

358. Solution: E
365 20
 1 
  − 1 =44.6%
 0.98 

359. Solution: C
First calculate the three-year interest rate.
1.063 − 1 =0.191016
This is an arithmetic increasing perpetuity.
 1 1 
X + 2
= 655.56
 0.191016 0.191016 
X = 20.08

360. Solution: D
The present value of the first year’s payments is:
1
1.0812 − 1 =0.00643403
500a12 0.006434 = 5756.43

This perpetuity can be thought of as a geometrically increasing perpetuity-due with first payment
5756.43. The present value is:

 1 
5756.43  1.08
 0.08 − 0.05 
= 207, 231.44

361. Solution: D
5000 (1.01)
12
5000 5000
Xs60= = (1 + =
i )
(1.01) − 1
i 12
d i
44, 423.95 = 81.67 X
X = 543.94
100
 362. Solution: B

 s − 10 
10, 000(10) + 600 s10 0.04 + 600 10 0.04 =137, 295.27
 0.04 
55, 400(1 + i )10 =
137, 295.27
i = 0.095.

363. Solution: E
 s − 5 
1000(5) + 50 s5 0.04 + 50  5 0.04  =
5791.22
  0.04  

364. Solution: A
The total amount paid is n. The initial loan amount is an i
The total interest paid equals n − an i .

365.
Solution: C
 5 1 
100 (1 + 0.05 ) exp  ∫ = 100 (1.1025 ) exp ln(1 + t ) 2 
2 5
2 1+ t   
 
6
= 110.25
=   220.50
3
100
= 220.50
(1 − d )
5

100
(1 − d =
) = 0.453515
5

220.50
1− d = 0.853726
d = 0.1463

366. Solution: A
100 s3 0.13  (1.13) =
s5 0.13 + 50
5
1703.81
 
x
= 1703.81
1.12 − 1
12

X = 99.33

101
367. Solution: B
(1 + j )12 =
1.08
j = 0.006434
225
s240 0.006434 = 128,848.51
128,848.51 = Xa30 0.07
128,848.51 = X (13.27767)
X = 9704.15

368. Solution: C
10, 000 = Pa20 0.015
P = 582.46
OB4 = 582.46a16 0.015
OB4 = 8230.86
Remaining payments total:
16(582.46) = 9319.32
9319.32 − 8230.86 =
1088.46.

369. Solution: A
1.0912= (1 + j )12
j = 0.0073
100, 000 = Pa180 0.0073
P = 1000.02
OB59 = 1000.02a121 0.0073
OB59 = 80,174.59
1.0576= (1 + j )12
j = 0.004678
Interest portion of first revised payment:
80,174.59(0.004678) = 375.04.

102
 370. Solution: A
Define i′ as the quarterly effective interest rate for the loan
Solve for i′
291.23a20 i′ = 5000
i′ = 1.5%
Then, solve for j using the formula
12
 j 
+  = (1 + 0.015)
4
 1
 12 
j = 0.0597.

371. Solution: B
All prices imply an interest rate of 6% indicating that the yield rate does not change with
duration, that is. the yield curve is flat.

372. Solution: E
Macaulay duration at an interest rate of 5% is
100 ( Ia )5 + 5000v5
100a5 + 1000v5
100(12.56639) + 3917.63
= 4.2535
100(4.32947) + 783.53

373. Solution: C
= =
OB12 1000 a24 0.0075 21,889.15
21,889.15 = 2000an 0.0075
n = 11.46
Drop payment will be made at the 12th month.

374. Solution: E
30, 000 = Pa120 0.0075
P = 380.03
33, 000 = 380.03an 0.0075
n = 141

103
 375. Solution: B
d
v=
1+ r
6
5.76 =
1+ r
r = 0.041667
5
=v = 4.8
1.041666

376. Solution: D
10
9.26 =
1+ i
i = 0.079914
( Ia )10 32.70395
=d = = 4.8720.
a10 6.71270

377. Solution: E
Xan 0.01 = 2.01Xa200 0.0201
an 0.01 = 2.01a200 0.0201
an 0.01 = 98.13168
n = 400

378. Solution: C
Let r be the coupon rate.
=2300 2000ra20 0.07 + 2000v 20
2000r = 168.32
Bond is bought at a premium, so assume called as early as possible at year 18.
=P 168.32a18 0.07 + 2000v18
P = 2284.85

104
 379. Solution: C
Since the annual effective discount rate is 3.2%, the present value of an amount is calculated by
multiplying it by a discounting factor of (1 − 0.032)t =(0.968)t , where t is the number of years
since the deposit.

At time t = 0, an initial deposit of 50,000 is made just after the balance is 0 (the account is new
just before the deposit). The withdrawals are then X at each of times t = 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 or
equivalently at time t = 2k for each whole number k from 1 to 6 inclusive.

Then to make the final balance 0, an additional withdrawal of 45,000 at time t = 12 would be
needed.

Since the net present value of the cash flows (withdrawals minus deposits) must be zero, in a
time period from a zero balance to another zero balance, we have

6
45, 000(0.968)12 + X ∑ (0.968) 2 k − 50, 000 =
0
k =1
6
45, 000(0.968)12 + X ∑ (0.968) 2 k =
50, 000
k =1 .

380. Solution: E
3400 = 240an 0.045
n = 23.05
Use 23 for the number of full payments of 240. X will be paid at time 24.
=
3400 240a23 0.045 + Xv 24
=
3400 3395.47 + Xv 24
4.53 = Xv 24
X = 13.04

381. Solution: C
The minimum yield will occur at the earliest redemption date since the bond is brought at a
premium. Therefore n = 18.
=
1321 111.10a18 i + 1111v18
i = 0.07985

105
382. Solution: A
Conditions for full immunization of a single liability cash flow are:

1. PV (Assets) = PV (Liability)
2. Duration (Assets) = Duration (Liability)
3. The asset cash flows occur before and after the liability cash flow.

Checking Condition 1, only I and II are present value-matched, so can rule out III at this point.
Checking Condition 2, only I is duration-matched, so can rule out II at this point.
Checking Condition 3, the asset cash flows do occur before and after the liability for I.

So only I fully immunizes the liability.

383. Solution: B
1
Let i represent the effective market annual yield rate and v = . The Macaulay duration is
1+ i
3.70 years, which is equal to the present-value-weighted times of the liabilities. Therefore, we
have
20, 000(0) + 100, 000v5 (5) 25v5
3.70 =
20, 000 + 100, 000v5 1 + 5v5
3.70 + 18.5v5 =
25v5
3.70 = 6.5v5
v = 0.89342
1+ i =1.11929 .
Modified duration equals Macaulay duration divided by (1 + i), so the modified duration is
3.70
= 3.30567 years.
1.11929

384. Solution: A
Using the basic formula:
BV2 − BV3 = 6.88
(87.5a 58| ) ( )
+ Cv 58 − 87.5a57| + Cv 57 =
6.88
39.0667 − 0.00625C =
6.88
C = 5150

106
 385. Solution: E
=P Xa12 0.02 + 1000v12
500=
+ P 2 Xa12 0.02 + 1000v12
Subtract the first equation from the second.
500 = Xa12 0.02
X = 47.28

386. Solution: C
First, note that the monthly rate of interest is 0.072/12 = 0.006.
Also, the first payment occurs 60 months out, and the last payment occurs 240 months out.
Thus, there are 181 payments in total.

Then, the present value of the annuity is

750  1.01  1.01  
180

1 + + ... +   
(1.006)60  1.006  1.006  
  1.01 181 
1 − 
750  180  1.01   750   1.006  
180

= ∑   
(1.006)60  k =0  1.006   (1.006)60   1.01  
 1 −  1.006  
   
=
523.82(1.05085 / 0.0039761) 138, 440.

387. Solution: C
The price of the geometric perpetuity-due, as a function of the annual effective interest rate i, is
given by
1+ i
2 3
0.99  0.99   0.99  1 0.99
P(i ) =1 + +  +  + ... = 0.99 = =1 +
1+ i  1+ i   1+ i  1− 0.01 + i 0.01 + i
1+ i .
Therefore, the modified duration is given by
0.99
−
P′(i ) (0.01 + i ) 2 0.99
− =
− =
P(i ) 1+ i (0.01 + i )(1 + i )
0.01 + i .
Since Macaulay duration is modified duration times (1 + i ) , the Macaulay duration is
0.99
= 12 . Solving for i gives i = 0.0725 .
0.01 + i
Therefore, the modified duration= is 12 12
= 11.18881 years.
1 + i 1 + 0.0725

107
388. Solution: E
Since the annual nominal interest rate is 6%, compounded monthly, the monthly effective
interest rate is 6% = 0.5% and the monthly discounting factor is 1
.
12 1.005
The 10,000 borrowed today is the present value of a 30-month annuity immediate with monthly
payments of P each, followed by a 40-month annuity immediate with monthly payments of 1.1P
but with payments deferred by 30 months, followed by a 50-month annuity immediate with
monthly payments of 1.2P but with payments deferred by 30 + 40 = 70 months. Therefore,
Pa30 0.005 + (1.005 )
10, 000 =
−30
(1.1Pa40 0.005 ) + (1.005) (1.2Pa
−70
50 0.005 ).
389. Solution: C
Since the Macaulay duration of a set of cash flows is a weighted sum of the payment times,
deferring by six years must add exactly 6 to this duration. The Macaulay duration is (1 + j) times
the modified duration, so that (1 + j )(9 − 4) =
6 , which implies j = 0.2.
If P(i) denotes the present value of the original set of cashflows at rate i, we know that the
− P '( j ) − P '( j )
modified duration 4 = = ⇒ P '( j ) =
−40 .
P( j ) 10
0 + P '( j ) 40
The modified duration of the altered payments is − = =
3.077.
3 + P( j ) 13
The Macaulay duration is 1.2(3.077) = 3.69.

390. Solution: B
For all 3 investments, convexity is P′′(i ) / P(i ) . Let C be the redemption value of the bond and
the initial payments of the perpetuities (it turns out the value is irrelevant).

For i)
P(i ) =C (1 + i ) −50 , P′(i ) =
−50C (1 + i ) −51 , P′′(i ) =
2550C (1 + i ) −52
Convexity 2550(1.05) −=
= 52
/1.05−50 2550=/1.052 2313.
For ii)
P(i ) = Ci −1 , P′(i ) =
−Ci −2 , P′′(i ) =
2Ci −3
= 2(0.05) −3 =
Convexity / 0.05−1 2= / 0.052 800.
For iii)
P(i ) = C (i − 0.03) −1 , P′(i ) =
−C (i − 0.03) −2 , P′′(i ) =
2C (i − 0.03) −3
Convexity =2(0.05 − 0.03) −3 / (0.05 − 0.03) −1 =2 / 0.022 =5000.
Thus, convexity when ranked from lowest to highest is:
800 < 2,313 < 5,000, or y < x < z.

108
 391. Solution: E
Xv 2 − Yv 4 + Xv 6 =
0
Xv 4 − Yv 2 + X =
0
Y ± Y 2 − 4X 2
v2 =
2X
2X
(1 + i ) = 2
2

Y ± Y − 4X 2
2X
(1 + i ) =
Y ± Y 2 − 4X 2
2X
i −1
Y ± Y 2 − 4X 2

392. Solution: A
 
s5 0.06 − 5 
200(5) + 200i ( Is )5 0.06 =
1260 = 1000 + 200 i  
 0.06 
= 1000 + 200 i (16.2553)
i = 0.08

393. Solution: C
1, 000, 000 20, 000a5 0.03 + (1.03) −5 50, 000a∞ i
=
1+ i
000, 000 94,341.97 + (1.03) −5 50, 000
1,=
i
50, 000(1 + i )
1, 049,905.88 =
i
i = 0.05

394. Solution: D
5 1

1 + i5 =e ∫4 t +8
dt

5
ln( t +8)
=e 4

13
=
12
= 1.08333
i5 = 8.3%

109
 395. Solution: D
 1 1 
 0.05 + 0.052  (1.05 ) =
441.

396. Solution: E
If j is the semi-annual effective interest rate, then

1 + (1/j) = 23
j = 1/22

Then the annual effective interest rate is (1 + 1/ 22) 2 − 1 =0.093.

397. Solution: E
First determine the present value of the four payments within a year. Then determine the present
value of ten of these.
4
 0.012 
1 +  − 1 =0.12551
 4 
P = 100( Ia ) 4 0.03  a10 0.12551

398. Solution: D
1 1 1 1
( Ia )∞ = + 2 = + =134.5679
i i 0.09 0.092
X= ( Ia )∞ − 2v10 ( Ia )∞ + v15 ( Ia )∞
= 134.5679 (1 − 2 × 0.42241 + 0.274538 )
= 57.83

399. Solution: A
Accumulate values to time ten.
X (=
1.085 ) 500 s10 0.08 + 10, 000
10

s10 0.08 500 + 10, 000

X=
1.08510
7, 243.28 + 10, 000
=
1.08510
= 7626.45

110
 400. Solution: D
1000
 12.13276
a120 .08/12
Repayment =
Accumulated loan repayments at 6% = 12.13276 s120 .005  1988.31
1000(1 +=
j )10 1988.31 =
⇒ j 0.0711

401. Solution: A
65.42 = P(1 − v n − n +1 ) =
P(1 − 1/1.07)
P = 1000
= =
I1 13, 650(0.07) 955.50
P1 =
1000 − 955.50 =44.50

402. Solution: B
(1 + i ')(1 + r ) = (1 + i )
1 + i '+ r + i ' r = 1 + i
i = i '+ r + i ' r

403. Solution: B
= =
0.09 4 0.0225 1.0225 ^ 4 1.09308 =
0.093083*10, 000 930.83
5461 = 930.83s5 i
i = 8.00%

404. Solution: D
100 100 1100
MV = + + =1168.33
1.03 1.035 1.043
2

= 100a3 i + 1000v 3
1168.33
i = 3.94%

111
 405. Solution: A
Let P be the initial payment. Then,
∑ t −1
60
=
12, 000 t =1
=
P(1.01) / (1 + i )t 60 P /1.01
P = 202.

The interest in the first month is 0.01(12,000) = 120.

The principal being repaid in the first month is 202 – 120 = 82.

406. Solution: B
1.09
− 1 =0.038
1.05

407. Solution: E
At the end of 5 years and 60 payments, the borrower still owes 150,000.
It will take n monthly payments of 1000 to retire the loan where
1000an 0.005 = 150, 000
n = 278
Thus, it will take 338 total payments.

408. Solution: C
Suppose level payment is 500.
500 500 500 500
PV = + 2
+ 3
+
1.0425 1.045 1.0475 1.054
= 479.62 + 457.86 + 435.02 + 411.35
= 1783.85

500a4 i = 1783.85
i = 4.74%

409. Solution: B
( Ia )10 0.06 36.96241
=d = = 5.02201
a10 0.06 7.36009

112
 410. Solution: A
The percentage by which the balance accumulates each year is the effective interest rate.

411. Solution: E
We have
P (i ) =1/ i, P′(i ) =−1/ i 2 , d mod =1/ i =15 ⇒ i =1/15
d mac= d mod (1 + i )= 15(1 + 1/15)= 16

412. Solution: A
The Macaulay duration is
e
−δ
+ 2e −2 δ 1 + 2e
−δ

−δ −2 δ
= −δ
.
e +e 1+ e

413. Solution: E
0.03
The effective rate per month is i = = 0.0025 . Hence the original loan amount is
12
L  Pa60 i  359.37 a60 i  20, 000 . Using the retrospective approach, the outstanding loan
balance is given by
OLB36  L(1  i )36 {Ps36 i  P(1  i )11  P(1  i )10 }
 20, 000 (1.0025)36 {359.37 s36 i  359.37  (1.0025)11  359.37  (1.0025)10 }  9099.17

414. Solution: C
The total interest payment of 400 in the 1-year period is 5% of the new balance of 8000, so by
definition, 5% is the effective discount rate.

415. Solution: A
0.072
The effective monthly interest rate=
is i= 0.006 . Let
12
LA = the amount of Loan A and LB = the amount of Loan B. We then have
LA = m ⋅ a48 i + 1.5 ⋅ m ⋅ a48 i / (1 + i ) 48
LB = 1.2 ⋅ m ⋅ a48 i + 0.9 ⋅ m ⋅ a48 i / (1 + i ) 48
LA ma48 i + 1.5ma48 i / (1 + i ) 48 1 + 1.5 /1.00648
= = = 1.12668
LB 1.2ma48 i + 0.9ma48 i / (1 + i ) 48 (1.2 + 0.9 /1.00648 )1.006
Hence

113
416. Solution: C
Let i = yield rate. Then, for bond A:
800= 1000(i / 2)am i + 1000v m= 500(1 − v m ) + 1000v m ⇒ v m= 0.6.
The price of bond B is:
1000(i / 2)a3m i + 1000v3m =
500(1 − v3m ) + 1000v3m =
500(1 + v3m ) =
500(1 + 0.63 ) =
608.

417. Solution: D
No computations are needed. Since the desired yield rate of 6% is higher than the coupon rate of
5%, the investor is at the greatest disadvantage when the bond is called at maturity.

Note that the two bonds are alike in all other ways, with the same maturity date, face value,
desired yield rate, and coupon rate. So, the maximum price the investor should be willing to pay
for the callable bond matches the price of the non-callable bond, namely 4361.

418. Solution: A
The amount charged to the card was 1500 immediately. The annual fees were 20 after 1 year
and 20 after 2 years.

k
The monthly payments were X after years, for each whole number k from 1 to 24 inclusive.
12
Then to make the final balance 0, the final payment would have been 200 after 2 years.

Therefore,

k 
24 −0.18 
1500 + 20e −0.18(1)
+ 20e −0.18(2)
− X ∑e  12 
− 200e −0.18(2) =
0
k =1
24
1500 + 20e −0.18 + 20e −0.36 − X ∑ e −0.015 k =
200e −0.36
k =1 .

419. Solution: D
Let j be the quarterly interest rate. Then,
3, 000 = 5, 000v 40
j = .01285
= 950ra60 0.01285 + 950v=
1, 000 60
39,565.26r + 441.59
r= (1, 000 − 441.59) / 39,565.26 =0.014114.
This is the quarterly rate. The annual rate is 0.014114(4) = 0.056456 = 5.65%.

114
420. Solution: D
 1− 1.03  
5

 1 
X 350(1.07)  0.07 −0.03  + 350(1.03) 4 v 4 
 1.07 

   0.07 
 
X =1623.96 + 4293.23 = 5917.19.

421. Solution: E
The definition of “purchased at premium” is P > C; purchase price greater than redemption
value.

422. Solution: A
225, 000 = 1960a180 i
i = 0.0054167
225, 000 = Xa360 0.0054167
X = 1414.50

423. Solution: A
The Macaulay duration of bond B is MacD B = 10 .
The Macaulay duration of bond A is MacD A = 2 MacD B = 20
1
The price of bond A is P = , where i is the annual yield. So, the modified duration of bond A is
i
P′(i ) 1
ModD A = − = .
P (i ) i
1 1
MacD A = ModD A × (1 + i ) = (1 + i ) = 20 ⇒ i = 1/19 , therefore ModD A= = 19 .
i i

424. Solution: D
 1 
PV = 1500  
 0.087 − (−0.02) 
PV = 14, 018.69
 1 
14, 018.69 = P  
 0.078 − (−0.02) 
P = 1373.83 .

115
 425. Solution: C
PV = 0= 1000(1 + i ) −2 + 750(1 + i ) −4 − X − Y (1 + i ) −3
PV ' =
0=−2000(1 + i ) −3 − 3000(1 + i ) −5 + 3Y (1 + i ) −4
2000(1.06) −3 + 3000(1.06) −5 =
3Y (1.06) −4
1679.24 + 2241.77 = 2.37628Y
Y = 1650.06

426. Solution: B
Matching the asset and liability present values and durations, we have the system of equations
Xv 0.5 + Yv =
10, 000v 0.75
0.5 Xv 0.5 + Yv =
7,500v 0.75
0.5 Xv 0.5 = 2,500v 0.75
−0.25
=X 5,= =
000v 0.25 5, 000(1.02) 4,975

427. Solution: D
Each coupon payment is 7000(0.06) = 420 .
The accumulated value of the reinvested coupons after 18 years is: 420 s18 0.057 = 12, 617.50.
Therefore,
P(1.0518)18 =12, 617.50 + 7,500 =>P= 8105.45
Finally,
P= 8105.45 =420a18 i + 7500v18 =
> i =4.91%

428. Solution: A
3000
The PV of perpetuity X is + 3000 = 125,939.41, where (1.0494) = (1 + j1 ) 2
j1
1.0494k
The PV of perpetuity Y is = 10.36543134k , where 1.04942 = 1 + j2
j2
Setting PV’s equal gives k = 12,149.94.

116
 429. Solution: A
0.09( Ia )10 0.10 + 10v10
d=
0.09a10 0.10 + v10
2.61323 + 3.85543
= 6.8922
d
0.55301 + 0.38554
6.8922
=v = 6.2656
1.10

430. Solution: B
Let i = yield rate.
Let n be the term in years of the two bonds.
Let F = the face value of the second bond.

Then the coupon rate for the second bond = i/2.

The equation of value for the first bond is 890  1000v n  v n  0.89.
For the second bond we have
i i 1 v n F F
890  Fan i  Fv n  F  Fv n  (1 v n  2v n)  (1  v n)
2 2 i 2 2
1780 1780
F   941.80.
1  v n 1.89

431. Solution. E
= = 30
Fr 1000(0.03)
=j (1.05)=
1/2
− 1 0.024695
B11 = 1000v9j + 30a9 j = 1042.35
B12 = 1000v8j + 30a8 j = 1038.09
1042.35 − 1038.09 =
4.26

432. Solution: E
(A) It does need to be satisfied
(B) Requires more rebalancing
(C) Convexity of assets must be greater than for liabilities
(D) Convexity is greater than 0
(E) True

117
433. Solution: A
OB, after=
year 5 v=
5
100a10 378.17
=
OB, after year 15 100= a5 378.11
|378.17 – 378.11| = 0.06, round to 0

434. Solution: E
First, use bond A to determine the interest rate. Because the equation for the interest rate cannot
be solved algebraically, use a financial calculator to get i/2, which yields i/2 = 0.035, or
i (2) = 0.07 .

For bond B,
P= 1000(0.08 / 2)a30 0.035 + 1000(0.10 / 2)1.035−30 a30 0.035 + 1000(1.035) −60
= 735.68 + 327.63 + 126.93 = 1190.24,

435. Solution: A
Call after 20 years:30a40 0.025 + 1000v 40 =
1125.51
Call after 15 years :30a30 0.025 + 1030v 30 =
1118.95
Call after 10 years :30a20 0.025 + 1060v 20 =
1114.56
The correct price is then the smallest or 1115.

436. Solution: B
First, calculate the initial payment P as follows:
P Q
 + 2  (1.10) = 1, 000, 000
i i 
 P 1000 
 + 2 
= 909, 090.91
 0.1 0.1 
P = 80,909.09.
Thus, the payment on January 1, 2020 will be P + 20Q = 80,909 + 20(1000) = 100,909.
The balance on 1 January 2020, immediately after the payment at that time, will be
 100,909.09 + 1000 1000 
 + = 1,119, 090.90.
 0.10 0.102 

118
 437. Solution: D
The accumulation of discount at time 8 is 491.51, which is equal to 50 s8 i . Using a BA-II
calculator, i can be computed as 5.8099441%. The accumulation of discount at time 25 is 50
s25 i , or 2670.91, the bond’s redemption value is therefore 20,000+2671=22,671.

438. Solution: E
0.975 X = 250 + ( X − 250)v (60−15)/365
0.975 X = 250 + ( X − 250)(1.242) −45/365
X = 4827.18

439. Solution: D
20, 000 a40 0.08 = 1677.20
1677.20a20 0.08 = 16, 467.03
16, 407.03 a20 0.06 = 1435.67
20 (1677.20 + 1435.67 ) =
62, 257

440. Solution: C
The present value of the perpetuity-due, at annual effective interest rate i, is given by
1 + i 1.0625
P=
(i ) = = 17
i 0.0625
−1
P '(i ) = 2 .
i
1
− P '(i ) i2 1 1
=v = = = = 15.058824.
P(i ) 1 + i i (1 + i ) 0.0625(1 + 0.0625)
i
The first-order modified approximation of the present value, at an interest rate i near an initial
interest rate i0 , is therefore given by
i ) P ( i0 ) 1 − ( i − i0 ) Dmod ( i0 =
Papprox (= ) 17 1 − ( −0.005) (15.058824)= 18.28.

1.0575
Actual new price is = 18.39130.
.0575

X − Y 18.28 − 18.39130
= =
−0.00605 =
−0.61%.
Y 18.39130

119
 441. Solution: E
Let denote the discount factor applicable to a period of one month and let X be the constant
X
periodic amount received by both charities. For Charity A, 198, 000 = .
1− v
X
Since is the discount factor applicable to a two-month period, for Charity B, 100, 000 = .
1 − v2
Dividing the first equation by the second gives so that The yearly discount
factor is so that the annual effective interest rate is
1
=
− 1 0.274
= 27.4%.
0.78472

442. Solution: C
5 1  25
1 + i exp  ∫ =
= dt  exp ln(20=
+ t ) 4  exp(ln 25 −=
5
ln 24)
 
 4 20 + t  24
1
i = 0.041667
= = 4.17%
24

443. Solution: C
Let X be the monthly deposit of year 1. Then determine the present value of the first year’s
monthly payments and then use geometric formula to accumulate to year 10.
12
 0.024 
i = 1 + − 1 = 0.024266.
 12 
  1.10 10 
1 −   
Xa12 0.002   1.024266  
(1.024266)(1.024266)10 = 21, 234.05
 0.024266 − 0.10 
 
 
X (11.869136)[13.74278] = 16,311.46
X = 100
The payments in year 5 will be 100(1.1) 4 = 146.41.

120
 444. Solution: D
The yield rate is equal to the coupon rate for Bond Z, so the price of Bond Z is 1000. This
implies the price of Bond Y is 1,169.30.
1169.30 = 20a4 n j + 1000v 4j n , where 1.0325 =+
(1 j ) 2 =
> 4n =76 =>n= 19
1169.30 − 401.50 =Ra19 i + 1000vi19 , where 1.03252 =+
1 i=
> R =44.25

445. Solution: E
1 + i0
Use Bond 1 to find information about :
1+ i
11.735*(1+ i )
 1 + i0   1 + i0 
Dmac

P(i ) ≈ P(i0 )   =
> 21, 635.83 =
20, 400   =
>
 1+ i   1+ i 
11.735*(1+ i )
 1 + i0 
  = 1.060579902
 1+ i 
Next,
13.101*(1+ i )
 1 + i0 
=
  =
1.060579902 13.101/11.735
1.067865963
 1 + i 
The first-order Macaulay approximation for Bond 2 is:
13.101*(1+ i )
 1 + i0 
P(i ) 20, = 400   21, 784.47
 1+ i 

446. Solution: D
There are two blocks of 42 payments (paid every two months) increasing in an arithmetic
progression. The value of each of these blocks two months before the first payment is:
 a42| j − 42v 42   35.54114068 − 30.03429308 
100a42| j + 5  =3554.1141 + 5  =6989.024,
 j   0.008016 
 
where j = (1 + 0.048 /12) 2 − 1 = 0.008016
The present value is then:
6989.024(1.008016) + 6989.024(1 + .048 /12) = 14, 062.03.

121
447. Solution: A
First, the size of the level payment does not have an impact on the duration. So, for the
perpetuity-immediate:
1 1
+ 2
1+ i 1
Dmac (i ) =32.25 =i i = = >d = =>i= 3.2%
1 i 32.25
i
Next, the Macaulay duration of a perpetuity-due is:
1 1 1+ i
+ 2
i i = i2 = 1 1 31.25
Dmac (i ) = = = 31.25 = > Dmod (0.032) = =30.281
1 1 + i i 0.032 1.032
d i

448. Solution: D
Using the financial calculator to solve for the yield rate with
N= 15, PV = 2092.88, PMT = −30.25 [because 2500(.0484) / 4 =
30.25], FV = −2316.20 , i =
2.06% is the nominal quarterly yield rate.
2316.3(0.0206) − 30.25 = 17.46578 is the amount for accumulation of discount in the 20th coupon
and 17.46578(1.0206) 28 = 30.91 is the amount for accumulation of discount in the last coupon.

449. Solution: C
Just after the 20th coupon is paid, there are still 40 coupon periods left, and the book value of the
bond is B20 = PV(remaining cash flows) =
PV(10 coupons of 35, 30 coupons of 45, and 1 redemption value of 1,000) =
35a10 0.04 + 45a30 0.04 (1.04) −10 + 1000(1.04) −40 = 283.88 + 515.68 + 202.29 = 1017.85.

122
450. Solution: B
The PV and duration of the assets must match the liabilities, 24,000 + 1,000 = 25,000 and
[24,000(7.5) + 1,000(20)]/25,000 = 8. The convexity of the assets must be greater than
[24,000(7.52) + 1,000(202)]/25,000 = 70.

Let f represent the fraction of 25,000 that is invested in the n-year bond. The duration of the
assets is fn + (1 – f)2n and the convexity is fn2 + (1 – f)4n2.

For duration, 8 = fn + (1 – f)2n which implies f = 2 – 8/n. Since f must be between 0 and 1, n
must be between 4 and 8 (inclusive).

Substituting for f, for convexity:

(2 − 8 / n)n 2 + (1 − 2 + 8 / n)4n 2 > 70
−2n 2 + 24n > 70
n 2 − 12n + 35 < 0
(n − 7)(n − 5) < 0.
This forces n to be between 5 and 7 which is the answer.

451. Solution: E
The quarterly rate of interest is 0.05/4 = 0.0125.
There are 20 deposits of 1,000, and 60deposits that are geometrically increasing above 1,000.
 1.02  1.02  
59

Then, AV20 = 1, 000 s20 0.0125 (1.0125)60 + 1, 000(1.02)(1.0125)60 1 + + +   

 1.0125  1.0125  
  1.02 60 
1 −   
1, 000
s20 .0125 (1.0125) + 1, 000(1.02)(1.0125)
60 60   1.0125  
  1.02  
 1 −  1.0125  
   
=48,138.59 + 161, 639.07 =209, 778.

123
452. Solution B
Because the outlays all occur before the inflows, there is a unique yield rate. At a 50% interest
rate, the equation is −30 − 40 /1.5 + 60 /1.52 + 90 /1.5n =0 ⇒ 1.5n =3 for
= = 2.71 < 3 .. For the final payment to be later, the yield rate must less than 50%.
n ln(3) / ln(1.5)

453. Solution: D
The accumulation of discount of at time 8 is 491.51, which is equal to 50 s8 i . Using a BA-II
Plus calculator, i can be computed as 5.8099441%. The accumulation of discount at time 25 is
50 s25 i , or 2670.91, the bond’s redemption value is therefore 20,000+2671=22,671.

There is also an algebraic solution for the interest rate:

(1 + i )8 − 1
= s=
491.51 8
i
(1 + i )16 − 1
= s=
1263.74 16
i
(1 + i ) − 1 [(1 + i )8 + 1][(1 + i )8 − 1]
16
2.57114 = = =(1 + i )8 + 1
(1 + i ) − 1
8
(1 + i ) − 1
8

(1 + i )8 =
1.57114
i = 0.0581.

454. Solution: E
The amounts for accumulation of the discount in the annual coupon payments (amounts of
increase in book value) form a geometric progression with common ratio (1 + i ) , where i is the
annual effective yield rate.

The amount for accumulation of discount in the 9th coupon payment is 4730 − 4478 = 252 .
Since the redemption value is the book value just after the last (in this case 10th) coupon
payment but before the redemption payment, the amount for accumulation of the discount in the
10th coupon payment is 5000 − 4730 = 270 .

270
Therefore, 1 + i = , which leads to the conclusion that the annual effective yield rate is
252
270
=
i −=1 0.071429. .
252

124
 455. Solution: E
First note that the yield rate is equal to the coupon rate for Bond Z, so the price of Bond Z is
1000. This implies the price of Bond Y is 1,073.78. The semiannual yield rate is
1.0152 − 1 =0.030225. Then, 1073.78 = 34a2 n 0.030225 + 1000(1.030225) −2 n ⇒ 2n = 30 ⇒ n = 15. The
price of bond X is 1073.78 – 138.88 = 934.90. The annual yield rate is 1.0154 − 1 =0.06136.
Then,
−15
= Ra15 0.06136 + 1000(1.06136)
934.90 = 9.62652 R + 409.3165=⇒ R 54.60.

456. Solution: E
Assume the face amount is 1. The price of the bond is 0.015a40 0.01 + 1.01−40 =
1.1642.
At the given coupon and return rates, the premium is 1.1642 – 1 = 0.1642.
We are looking for the time at which the book value is 1 + 0.1642/2 = 1.0821.
Then,
1.0821 0.015a40− k 0.01 + 1.01− (40− k )
=
1 − 1.01− (40− k )
= 0.015 + 1.01− (40− k )
0.01
= 1.5 − 0.5(1.01) − (40− k )
0.8328 = 1.01− (40− k )
ln 0.8328
40 − k =− =18.03
ln1.01
k = 21.97.
For the book value to exceed 1.0821, round up to k = 22.

457. Solution: B
Let x be the amount of a coupon payment. The book value right after the nth coupon is
= xan 0.02 + 100v n
95.5087
The price of the bond is the present value of the time n book value plus the present value of the
first n coupons.
91.8243 = 95.5087v n + xan 0.02
= 95.5087v n + 95.5087 − 100v n
3.6844 = 4.4913v n
n= − ln(3.6844 / 4.4913) / ln(1/1.02) =
10.

125
 458. Solution: B
) 1000(1 + i ) −2 + 3000(1 + i ) −3 + X (1 + i ) −5
PA (i=
=
PA (0.1) 3089.39 + 0.62092 X
) 2000(1 + i ) −3 + 9000(1 + i ) −4 + 5 X (1 + i ) −6
− P ' A (i=
− P ' A (0.1) = 7649.75 + 2.82237 X
7649.75 + 2.82237 X
4=
3089.39 + 0.62092 X
X = 13, 793.98

) 1000(1 + i ) −3 + 3000(1 + i ) −4 + 13, 793.98(1 + i ) −7

PB (i=
PB (0.1) = 9878.85
) 3000(1 + i ) −4 + 12, 000(1 + i ) −5 + 7(13, 793.98) X (1 + i ) −8
− P 'B (i=
− P 'B (0.1) =
54,545.05
54,545.05
=Y = 5.5214
9878.85

459. Solution: A
10, 000
= L = (1.07) 152,857.14
0.07
1 1
+
( Ia ) n 0.07 (0.07) 2
=d = = 14.2857
an  1 
 1.07
 0.07 
14.285714
= v = 13.351135
1.07
= M 152,857.14 [1 − (−0.02)(13.351135
= ] 193, 673.47
=M − L 193, 673.47 − 152,857.14 = 40,816.33

126
 460. Solution: B
The present value of the geometric payment perpetuity-immediate, at annual effective interest
rate i and with payment growth rate r = −0.005 , is given by
1 1
P=
(i ) =
i − r i + 0.005 .
The modified duration is therefore given by
1
−
′
P (i ) (i + 0.005) 2 1
v= − =
− =
P (i ) 1 i + 0.005
i + 0.005 .
The first-order modified approximation of the present value, at an interest rate i near an initial
interest rate i0 , is therefore given by
1  i − i0 
=E P ( i0 ) 1 − ( i − i0=
) v  1 − 
i0 + 0.005  i0 + 0.005 
.
Therefore, using 0.065 for i0 and 0.055 for i, we find that the percentage error in this
approximation is
 1   0.055 − 0.065   1 
1− −
E − P  0.065 + 0.005   0.065 + 0.005   0.055 + 0.005 
   
= = −0.0204 = −2.04%.
P  1 
 
 0.055 + 0.005 

127
461. Solution: D
The present value of the geometric payment perpetuity-due, at annual effective interest rate i and
with payment growth rate r = −0.02 , is given by
1+ i 1+ i
P=
(i ) =
i − r i + 0.02 .
The Macaulay duration is therefore given by
 0.02 − 1  1 − 0.02
(1 + i )  2 
(1 + i ) ( − P '(i ) )  (i + 0.02) =(i + 0.02) 2 0.98
d= (1 + i )v = =
− =
P(i ) 1 + i 1 i + 0.02
i + 0.02 i + 0.02 .
The first-order Macaulay approximation of the present value, at an interest rate i near an initial
interest rate i0 , is therefore given by
1− 0.02
mac ( 0 )
 1 + i0   1 + i0   1 + i0  i0 + 0.02
D i

E ( i0 ) 
P=    
 1+ i   i0 + 0.02   1 + i  .

Using 0.08 for i0 and 0.07 for i, we find that the percentage error in this approximation is
 0.98

 1.08  1.08  + 0.02  1.07
0.08
   −
 0.08 + 0.02   1.07   0.07 + 0.02
E − P  
= =
−0.004883 =
−0.49%.
P 1.07
0.07 + 0.02

462. Solution: D
The outstanding loan balance here can be calculated using either the prospective approach or the
retrospective approach, although the retrospective approach is easier, since it does not require the
value of n.
5, 000, 000(1.0325)10 − 303, 244.53s10 0.0325 =
3,367,821.18.

128