Grade : 12 Marks :70

Sub : Biology. Time : 3hrs

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.All questions are compulsory.

(iii) Section -A has 16 questions of 1 marks each; Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section -C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section D has 2 case based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section -E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.diagrams

(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions.

(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section-A. (12×1=12)

1.Rewards and attractants are required for

(a)Entomophily. (b)Cleistogamy. (c)Anemophily. (d)Hydrophily

2.How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?

(a)34. (b)44. (c)54. (d)33

3.Cryptorchidism is a condition where _________.

(a)One of both testes are not developed

(b)One or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum

(c)One or both testes are not formed

(d)None of the above

4.By which name is family planning currently known?

(a)Reproductive and child care. (b)Family and child care

(c)Reproductive and child health. (d)Reproductive and child health care

5.The primer in DNA replication is

(a)Small ribonucleotide polymer. (b)Helix destabilizing protein

(c)Small deoxyribonucleotide polymer. (d)Enzyme joining nucleotides of new strands

6.Select the incorrectly matched pairs

(a)Purines – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil

(b)Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by joining the DNA segments from two different

sources

(c)rRNA – RNA found in ribosomes

(d)ATP – The energy-carrying compound in the cell

7.How many base pairs are present in Escherichia coli?

a) 9856 bases. b) 4.6 x 106 bp. c) 3.3 x 109 bp. d) 10,000 bases

8.In which year, Down’s syndrome was described?

a) 1866. b) 1986. c) 1898. d) 1968

9.Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the law of independent assortment?

a) Factors exist in pairs

b) Factors segregate such that each gamete gets a single copy

c) For multiple traits under consideration, each segregate independently of one another

d) For multiple traits under consideration, they segregate in a specific pattern

10.The Widal test is used for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases?

a) Malaria. b) Tuberculosis. c) Dengue fever. d) Typhoid fever

11.The transmission of a disease from an infected mother to her unborn child is called:

a) Vertical transmission. b) Horizontal transmission

c) Zoonotic transmission. d) Mechanical transmission

12.The process by which new species evolve from a common ancestor is called:
a) Speciation. b) Hybridization. c) Genetic drift. d) Mutation

Question no 13 to 16 consist of two statements. Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these

questions selecting the appropriate option given below. (4×1=4)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are of true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C.A is true but R is false.

D.A is false but R is true.

13.Assertion (A):Cheese is one of the oldestfood items in which microbes are used.

Reason(R): Different varieties of cheese are known by their charateristic texture,

flavour and taste, the specificity coming from the microbes were

used.(b)

14.Assertion (A):The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.

Reason (R) : The morula continuously divides to transform into trophoblast.(c)

15.Assertion (A): In dog flowers F1 plants produce pink flowers.

Reason (R): It is due to codominance of flower colour alleles with both genes

expressing themselves equally. (C)

16.Assertion (A) : Heroin is an opioid.

Reason(R) : Heroin is obtained from poppy plant. (b)

Section - B. (5×2=10)

17.Is it possible that an unfertilized apomictic embryo sac gives rise to a diploid

embryo? Give a reason in support of your answer.

Ans :

Yes, an unfertilized apomictic embryo sac can give rise to a diploid embryo. If the megaspore
develops into an embryo sac without mitotic division, it will give rise to a diploid embryo.

18. State the role of the epididymis in male fertility.

Ans :

It is situated along the posterior surface of each testis where spermatozoa acquire motility and
the capacity to fertilize the egg. The surface of the sperm is altered in response to secretions of
the epididymis, which is key to achieve the ability to fertilize an egg.

19.Differentiate between dominance, co-dominance and incomplete dominance.

Ans :

Dominance is the phenomenon in which one variant of a gene masks the effect of a different
variant of the same gene.

Co-dominance is the relationship between two alleles of a gene. In this none of the alleles are
recessive and the phenotype of all the alleles are expressed.

Incomplete dominance is a form of intermediate inheritance in which one allele for a specific
trait is not expressed completely over its paired allele.

20. Give a reason for the discontinuous synthesis of DNA on one of the parental strands?

Ans

The biological process of DNA synthesis naturally occurs in 5′ to 3′ direction.

In the double-stranded DNA, the strands are parallel and antiparallel to each other. During the
synthesis of DNA, both the strands act as templates and only one (3′ to 5′ direction) can
synthesize the parallel strand in 5’→3′ direction.

The other strand 5′ to 3′ is synthesized in the opposite direction producing small stretches of
DNA known as Okazaki fragments.

This is the reason for the discontinuous synthesis of DNA on one of the parental strands.

21.Name the common trait shared between Clostridium butylicum, Lactobacillus

and Aspergillus niger.

Ans:

As part of their metabolic activities, they produce organic acids which can be used for their
industrial and commercial production. Clostridium butylicum – butyric acid, Lactobacillus-lactic
acid and Aspergillus niger – citric acid.

Or
Write down the names of the causative agents of the diseases mentioned below.

Pneumonia, Typhoid, Common Cold, Ascariasis, Ringworm, Amebiasis

Ans. The causative of the diseases are as follows:

Diseases Causative Agents

Pneumonia Streptococcus

Typhoid Salmonella typhi

Common Cold Rhinovirus

Ascariasis Ascaris

Ringworm Microsporum species/Trichophyton species/Epidermophyton Species

Amebiasis Entamoeba histolytica

Section - C (7×3=21)

22. Fill in the missing boxes for the levels in the transformation of mother germ cells into a
mature follicle.

Ans

The various steps in the formation of the mature follicle are as follows:

Ans:

23.Why does corpus luteum stay active throughout pregnancy and in the absence of
fertilization, is active only for 10-12 days?

Ans :
During the luteal phase, the leftover parts of Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum.

It discharges large quantities of progesterone hormone which is required for the maintenance
of the endometrium.

The endometrium is important for implantation of the fertilized egg and various other stages of
pregnancy.

Hence, corpus luteum has a long life in pregnancy.

In the absence of fertilization, upholding of the corpus luteum is not required and thus it

declines within 10-12 days, which causes the lining of the endometrium to menstruate

and hence the onset of the new menstrual cycle.

24.Describe any three assisted reproductive techniques practised to treat infertility.

Ans

Assisted Reproductive Techniques refer to the medical procedures used to treat infertility.

Few of the assisted reproductive techniques are:

In-vitro fertilization involves the steps:

Stimulation of the ovaries by giving human gonadotropins ↓ Retrieving the released eggs ↓ Fertilization
of the eggs with the selected sperms.

↓ Development of eggs into embryos under laboratory environment ↓ The embryos are implanted in
the uterus of the female

Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection- In this method, one sperm is injected into the egg. But this procedure
might damage the egg. The babies might involve defects in the reproductive organs in case of the
abnormal Y chromosome.

Gamete Intrafallopian Tube Transfer- This method is used in case of fallopian tubes that are functioning
properly. In this technique, the eggs and sperms obtained are not fertilized in the laboratory. They are
inserted into the far end of the fallopian tube either through the vagina or through the abdomen with
the help of a laparoscope.

25.Why is Drosophila used extensively for genetic studies?

Ans

Drosophila is extensively for genetic studies because it has the following characteristics:
They have a life span of two weeks.

They can be grown in the laboratory on simple synthetic medium.

A large number of progenies are produced by a single mating.

The male and the female Drosophila can be differentiated easily.

It has many variations easily visible under a simple microscope.

26. What is an operon? Explain an inducible operon.

Ans

An operon is the functional unit of DNA that contains a cluster of genes controlled by a single
promoter.

It consists of the following components:

The DNA fragment that transcribes the mRNA.

Regulator gene that codes for a repressor protein.

Inducer that prevents the repressor from binding to the operator.

A promoter where the RNA polymerase binds and initiates the transcription.

An operator that is a DNA sequence adjacent to the promoter where the repressor protein
binds.

Or

Comment on the statement with reference to industrial melanism, “Evolution is apparently

reversible”.

Ans :

The peppered moth resided on the surface of the lichens and protected itself from the
predators due to camouflage.

During industrialization in Europe, the surface of the lichens turned black due to the emissions
from the coal-based industries.

The moths were now easily visible to the predators and got eliminated gradually. A mutant of
peppered moth flourished during this period.

It was not visible to the predators due to its black colour and hence was selected by nature.
Clean air legislation was passed in Europe in 1956 as a result of which the emission of smoke
decreased. The non-melanic peppered moth is appearing again along with the lichens. This
proves that evolution is reversible.

27.(a)Suggest a method to ensure an anamnestic response in humans. (Delhi 2017)

Answer:

Anamnestic response is the quick and intense response, which occurs when an individual
encounters a particular antigen for the second time.

It is aided by the memory of primary response stored in B-cells.

By the administration of a dead or attenuated pathogen in the body of person, a

secondary immune response can be ensured due to the presence of memory cells in the body.

(b)Mention one application for each of the following

(i) Passive immunisation. (ii) Antihistamine.

(iii) Colostrum. (iv) Cytokinin-barrier

Answer:

Applications of given components are as follows

(i) Passive immunisation provides a faster immune response.

(ii) Antihistamine is used to reduce the symptoms of allergy, such as sneezing, watery eyes,
rashes, running nose, etc.

(iii) Colostrum consists of antibodies (e.g. IgA) that provide immunity to an infant against
infections.

(iv) Cytokinin barrier produces interferons and protects non-infected cells from further viral
infection.

28.(a)What are statins? Which microorganism produces this substance? Why is it

medically important?

Ans.

Statins are produced by Monascupurpureus, which are cholesterol-lowering drugs. They

completely block the enzymes involved in cholesterol production.
(b)Explain the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) test. This test is performed at what stage
of sewage treatment? The Biochemical Oxygen Demand level of three samples of water
labelled A, B, and C are 30 mg/L, 10 mg/L, and 500 mg/L, respectively. Out of these, which
sample of water is most polluted?

Ans.

(i) Biochemical Oxygen Demand test determines how quickly microorganisms in a water sample
absorb oxygen.

(ii) Biological treatment or secondary treatment

(iii) Sample C is the most polluted of the three water samples, as it has the greatest Biochemical
Oxygen Demand level.

Section - D. (2×4=8)

Q.No 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has sub-parts with internal choice in
one sub-part.

29.When you insert a piece of alien DNA into a cloning vector and transfer it into a bacterial,
plant, or animal cell, the alien DNA gets multiplied. In almost all recombinant technologies,
the ultimate aim is to produce a desirable protein. Hence, there is a need for the recombinant
DNA to be expressed. The foreign gene gets expressed under appropriate conditions. The
expression of foreign genes in host cells involves understanding many technical details. After
having cloned the gene of interest and having optimised the conditions to induce the
expression of the target protein, one has to consider producing it on a large scale. Can you
think of any reason why there is a need for large-scale production? If any protein encoding
gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called a recombinant protein. The cells
harbouring cloned genes of interest may be grown on a small scale in the laboratory. The
cultures may be used for extracting the desired protein and then purifying it by using
different separation techniques.

1. Which of the following should be chosen for the best yield if one were to produce a
recombinant protein in large amounts?

(a)A continuous culture system

(b)A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets

(c)Laboratory flask of the largest capacity

(d)None of the above

2: The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is

called

(a)Upstream processing. (b)Downstream processing

(c)Bioprocessing. (d)Postproduction processing

3.Genetically engineered bacteria are used for the production of:

(a)Thyroxine. (b)Human insulin

(c)Growth hormone. (d)None of the above

4: Construction of recombinant DNA involves:

(a)cleaving and joining of DNA segments with endonuclease

(b)cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and re-joining with ligase

(c)cleaving and re-joining DNA segments with ligase

(d)cleaving DNA segments with ligase and re-joining with endonuclease

30.Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for
the disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli (air-filled sacs) of the lungs. As a
result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in
respiration. The symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough, and headache. In severe
cases, the lips and fingernails may turn gray to bluish in colour. A healthy person acquires the
infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person or even by sharing
glasses and utensils with an infected person. Dysentery, plague, diphtheria, etc., are some of
the other bacterial diseases in man. Many viruses also cause diseases in human beings.
Rhinoviruses represent one such group of viruses that cause one of the most infectious
human ailments – the common cold. They infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the
lungs.The common cold is characterized by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat,
hoarseness, cough,headache, tiredness, etc., which usually lasts for 3-7 days. Droplets
resulting from the cough or sneezes of an infected person are either inhaled directly or
transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, doorknobs, computer
keyboards or mice, etc., and cause infection in a healthy person.

1.which organ in humans gets affected by pneumonia disease?

(a)Stomach. (b)Heart. (c)Lungs. (d)Bladder

2.Rhinovirus can infect ................... in humans.

(a)Hand. (b)Nose. (c)Ear. (d)Hairs

3. By which of the following reason, a healthy person can acquire pneumonia disease?

(a)By exhaling droplets of a non-infected person.

(b)By headache or leg pain.

(c)By eating fast food.

(d)By inhaling droplets of an infected person.

4.How long does the common cold last?

Answer: 3-7 days

Or

5: Write any two symptoms of the common cold and pneumonia.

Answer: Cough and nasal congestion

Section - E. (3×5=15)

31.Describe the structure of the embryo sac of a mature angiosperm. Explain the role of
synergids in it.

Ans :

The cell walls of the 8 nucleate stage are organized in the form of a female gametophyte or
embryo sac.

Six out of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls.

The egg apparatus comprises two synergids and one egg cell.

Three cells called the antipodals are present at the chalazal end.

The central cell is formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei.

On maturity, the embryo sac of the angiosperms consists of 8 nuclei and 7 cells.

A single megaspore gives rise to the embryo sac, hence called monosporic embryo sac.
Role of Synergids

The synergids are responsible for the reproduction in an angiosperm.

During fertilization, a pollen tube grows into one of the synergids.

The tube ceases growth, ruptures and releases two sperm cells.

Or

Explain in detail the difference between the meiotic division of oogenesis and
spermatogenesis.

Spermatogenesis is the production process of sperm from the male germ cell whereas
oogenesis is the production process of the eggs from the oogonia in females. Meiosis is
different in spermatogenesis and oogenesis in the quantity of the end product. This unequal
division is necessary to maintain the essential part of the cytoplasm. One minor part is
detached as the polar body where a single daughter cell called the ovum is formed which is
functional. But in spermatogenesis, four spermatids are produced which are functional and that
later develops into spermatozoa.

Oogenesis

Production of eggs from oogonia

Takes place inside the ovary in females

All except the last phase takes place inside the ovary

Early stages observed during the fetal period.

Rest stages observed between puberty and menopause

Matured from germinal epithelium overlying the ovary

Sertoli cells not found in germinal cell epithelium

Few oogonia divide to produce eggs, one at a time

Lengthy growth phase in oogonia Generates non-motile gametes

Primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and polar body during meiosis-I
Spermatogenesis

Production of sperm from spermatogonia

Takes place inside the testes in males

Sertoli cells found in germinal cell epithelium

Spermatogonia are divided by meiosis to produce sperms

The growth phase of spermatogonia is short

All phases occur inside the testis

A continuous process that is initiated from puberty and lasts until death

Produces motile gametes

Developed from the germinal epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules

During meiosis-I, primary spermatocyte divides to form two secondary spermatocytes

32.(A)Sometimes, the young ones born have an extremely different set of eyes or

limbs. Give a relevant explanation for the abnormality.

Ans

This abnormality is caused by many factors, including alcohol abuse by the mother during her
pregnancy, medicine side effects or reactions caused to the womb, environmental factors, such
as maternal exposure to the chemicals, radiations, virus, and it can also be due to the genes and
non-coordination in the regulation of expression in the set of genes associated with the
development of organs.

(B).Enumerate the post-transcriptional modifications in a eukaryotic mRNA.

Ans

Transcription is the process of conversion of DNA to mRNA. The post-transcriptional

modifications include:

Capping at 5’-end

Poly-A tail at 3’-end

mRNA splicing

The 5′ cap protects the RNA from ribonuclease. The poly-A tail protects the mRNA from
enzymatic degradation.
The introns are spliced during mRNA splicing and the exons are joined together to form a
continuous sequence that codes for a functional protein.

Or

Describe the phenomenon in which two organisms occupying the same geographical area
show the same strategies of adaptation.

Ans:

(a)The phenomenon is convergent evolution.

In this process, two organisms belonging to different species, descending from different
ancestors, evolve similar traits in order to adapt to a similar environment.

For eg., the streamlined body of sharks and dolphins.

Sharks are fishes while dolphins are mammals but both of them have developed streamlined
bodies to adapt themselves to swift swimming. Spines are modified leaves and thorns are
modified stems. Both look alike and have a similar function of protecting the plants, but are
distantly related to each other.

(b)What is the driving force behind divergent evolution? Explain.

Ans :

Adaptation is the driving force behind divergent evolution.

Divergent evolution is the phenomenon in which the organisms descending from common
ancestors evolve gradually into a new species.

The new species thus formed adapt themselves to the new habitat and environmental
conditions. For eg., the forelimbs of bats, cheetahs, whales and humans have the same
anatomical structures but perform different functions.

Thus, in these animals, the same structure evolved into different forms according to the needs
of the animals.

33.Write a brief note on the role of lymphoid organs in the immune response. Elaborate on
the different types of lymphoid organs in the human body with examples.
Ans:

Lymphoid organs in the human body track microbes and foreign substances and stimulate an
immune response against them. These organs can be divided into the following categories:

Primary Lymphoid Organs: These organs produce the cells of the immune system. They are also
known as central lymphoid organs. Bone marrow and Thymus come under this category.

(a) Bone Marrow: It is the main lymphoid organ that actively produces all types of blood cells
including lymphocytes. It helps in the development and maturation of T lymphocytes and B
lymphocytes by providing a micro-environment. The mature B cells travel to the circulatory
system to detect the pathogens.

(b) Thymus: It is located beneath the breastbone near the heart. T lymphocytes are also
produced and nurtured in the thymus. The thymus is large at the time of birth but keeps
shrinking with age.

Secondary Lymphoid Organ: They help the lymphocytes to interact with the antigen and
destroy them.

(a) Spleen: It is a large bean-shaped organ that contains mainly lymphocytes and phagocytes. It
is regarded as the graveyard of RBC. It acts as a filter for blood by trapping blood-borne
microorganisms.

(b) Lymph Node: They are responsible for trapping the microorganisms and antigens that enter
the lymph and tissue fluid. The lymphoid tissues located within major tracts are called mucosa-
associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

Or

(a)Explain biogas. How is biogas produced and which are microbes invaded in biogas

production?

Ans.

Gas produced by anaerobic fermentation of waste biomass is known as biogas. Biogas

comprises methane, CO2, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen sulphide. There are
microbes involved in the production of biogas, such as:

Hydrolytic bacteria such as clostridium, cellulosomes, etc.

Bacteria which produce hydrogen sulphide, such as wolfei

A methanogenic bacteria example is methanobacterium omelianskii

A concrete tank is used for feeding Biogas plants. The biogas slurry is covered with a floating
cover, which rises when the gas is created in the tank. Output in a biogas plant connects to a
pipe that distributes biogas to surrounding residences. Microbes transform the part of
biodegradable organic solid waste into energy in the form of biogas and humus while producing
biogas.

CO + H2O -> CO2 + H2

CO2 + 4H2 -> CH4 + 2H2O

CH3OH -> CH4 + 02

(b)What is the difference between primary sludge and activated sludge? What changes in the
sludge are carried out in an anaerobic sludge disaster? What is the composition of biogas in
the sewage treatment plant?

Ans.

Primary sludge is made of solids, such as soil and small stones that settle in the tank during
sewage treatment.

Activated sludge is the sediment of bacterial flocs in the settling tank following biological
treatment.

Slime and fungal filaments bind bacteria together to form flocs.

From the activated sludge, a portion is used as inoculum in the aeration tank, and the
remaining is sent to the anaerobic sludge disaster, a big tank.

Other than this, the bacteria that grow anaerobically in this tank consume the bacteria and
fungus in the sludge.

Biogas is the mixture of methane, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide created in sewage treatment
plants.
.