PRE-ENTRANCE TEST AND SCIENCE COACHING ANSARI MUHALLA LARKANA

EXCELLENT COACHING BY EXPERIENCED TEACHERS

CLASS: INTER P.M TEST NO: 3rd DATE: 03/12/2023

“BIOLOGY”
1. Which one of the following identifies the role of acetylcholine in nerve physiology?
A) It increases the resting potential of the cell
B) It increases the selective permeability of the cell membrane
C) It activates the sodium pump mechanism of the cell
D) It increases the potassium concentration inside the cell
2. Impulses travel very rapidly along nerves from the leg muscles of a mammal because
A) There is high concentration of Na+ ions inside the axons
B) The nerves contain myelinated fibers
C) There is potential difference across the axon membranes
D) The cell bodies of the fibers are contained within the dorsal root ganglion
3. The diagram shows an action potential, what is represented by “ C”?

A) Depolarization B) Resting membrane potential

C) Repolarization D) Hyperpolarization
4. Conduction of action potential from one node of Ranvier to another in myelinated neurons
through
A) Hyperpolarization B) Depolarization C) RMP D) saltatory conduction
5. Depolarization occurs due to
A) Influx of Na+ B) Efflux of Na+ C) Influx of K+ D) Efflux of K+
6. Axoplasm have (polarized)
A) High K+ ions B) Low Na+ ion C) negatively charged proteins D) all of these
7. Which of the following system relays impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?
A) Somatic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) autonomic nervous system
8. Dendrites transmit impulse-------cell body and axon transmit impulse--------cell body
A) Towards, away from B) away, towards
C) Towards, towards D) away, away
9. The new potential developed on post-synaptic membrane is
A) Excitatory always B) inhibitory always
C) May be excitatory or inhibitory D) neither excitatory nor inhibitory
10. In Reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
A) Muscle, receptor, brain B) brain. spinal cord, muscle
C) Receptor, spinal cord, muscle D) receptors, muscle. Spinal cord
11. These processes occur during repolarization of nerve fiber
1. Open Na+ channels 2. Closed Na+ channels
3. Closed K+ channel 4. Open K+ channels
A) 2 & 4 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2
12. Which of the following substances leads to the inhibition of central nervous system?
A) Glycine B) GABA C) Nor-epinephrine D) both a & b
13. Identify the neuron, in following diagram
A) Sensory B) motor C) interneuron D) neuroglia

14. The release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicles is under the influence of these ions
A) Cl- B) Ca++ C) Fe+ and S++ D) Mg++
15. Which of the following is most abundant type of neurons in CNS?
A) Sensory neurons B) associate neurons C) motor neurons D) neuroglial cells
16. Which of the following causes the hyperpolarization across the neurolemma?
A) Distribution of charge B) Influx of Na+
C) Late closing of K+ channels D) outward diffusion of Na+
17. Pick out the pressure receptors
A) Mechanoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) thermoreceptors D) photoreceptors
18. Which of the following is common to all neurons?
A) Cell body which contains a nucleus B) a thick myelin sheath
C) Presence of node of ranvier D) presence of schwann cells
19. Unidirectional transmission of the nerve impulse is maintained by
A) Interneurons B) myelin sheath C) synapse D) membrane polarity
20. Which of the following is true about neural membrane?
A) Different type of ion channels present
B) Ion channels are selectively permeable
C) Impermeable to negatively charged protein present in axoplasm
D) All the above
21. The part of brain located between the thalamus, hypothalamus of fore brain and pons is
known as
A) Mid brain B) Hind brain C) limbic system D) all of these
22. The major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling is
A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Medulla D) pons
23. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is
A) Cerebral cortex B) cerebellum C) limbic system D) medulla
24. Cerebrospinal fluid is present
A) Beneath the pia mater B) between pia mater and arachnoid mater
C) Between arachnoid and dura mater D) in extra dura mater
25. In an accident, a person’s brain was injured due to which he could not regulate body
temperature, Hunger and water balance, which one of the following parts of his brain was
affected?
A) Medulla oblongata B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) pons
26. A typical value of resting membrane potential is
A) – 40 mv B) – 60 mv C) – 70 mv D) – 80 mv
27. The cerebral cortex is
A) The outer layer of cerebrum, called white matter B) Inner layer of cerebrum, called white matter
C) The outer layer of cerebrum, called grey matter D) Inner layer of cerebrum, called grey matter
28. Following does not participate in the formation of brain stem?
A) Mid brain B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) cerebellum
29. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and mouth is dry.
it is Because of
A) Fight and flight response B) sympathetic nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) both a and b
30. Which part of the brain is involved in loss of control when a person drink’s alcohol?
A) Thalamus B) cerebrum C) pons D) cerebellum
 “CHEMISTRY-XII”
31. When propene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide, it gives rise to
A) Allyl bromide B) Isopropyl bromide C) n-propyl bromide D) 3-bromopropane
32. The most reactive alkyl halide is
A) Methyl fluoride B) Ethyl chloride C) Methyl iodide D) Ethyl bromide
33. Which type of reaction is given C2H5Br + KCN (aq) C2H5CN + KBr
A) Elimination reaction B) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
C) Electrophilic substitution reaction D) addition reaction
34. Ethyl chloride can be converted into ethyl alcohol by the
A) Addition reaction B) Substitution reaction
C) Dehydrohalogenation reaction D) Elimination reaction
35. Which mechanisms the first step involved is the same?
A) E1 + E2 B) E2 + SN2 C) E1 and SN1 D) SN1 and SN2
36. β-elimination reactions are due to:
A) Attack of nucleophile on alpha hydrogen B) Attack of nucleophile on acidic hydrogen
C) Attack of electrophile on beta hydrogen D) Attack of nucleophile on basic hydrogen
37. Most stable carbonium ion is:
A) (CH3)3C + B) +CH3 C) (CH3)2CH+ D) CH3CH2+
38. Which is true for E1 reaction?
A) The E1 reaction requires strong base. B) Pri;and sec: RX are most favourable for E1 reaction.
C) The E1 reaction is most favourable in tertiary alkyl halides.
D) The rate of the E1 and. SN1 reaction increases at lower temperature.
39. If the concentration of attacking nucleophile is doubled in E1 reaction, the affect will be
A) The rate is doubled. B) The rate is halved.
C) The rate quadruples. D) The rate is unchanged.
40. During SN2 mechanism, carbon atom changes it state of hybridization from___________
A) sp→sp2 B) sp2→sp3 C) sp3→sp D) sp3→sp2
41. When CO2 react with ethyl magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrolysis, to form
A) Propane B) Propanoic acid C) Propanal D) Propanol
42. The reaction of Alcohol and SOCl2 requires- -as a solvent to prepare Alkyl halides.
A) Ether B) Water C) Pyridine D) Acetone
43. Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to form
A) Primary alcohol B) Tertiary alcohol C) Acetic acid D) Ketone
44. 50% inversion of configuration of molecules take place in a
A. E1 - reaction B) E2 – reaction C) SN1 - reaction D) SN2 – reaction
45. Which is activating group in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A) -NO2 B) -COOH C) –CN D) -NH2
46. Tertiary alcohol is prepared by reacting the Grignard reaction with -------?
A) A ketone B) An aldehyde C) An alcohol D) A carboxylic acid
47. The Oxidation of methylbenzene produces
A) Phenol B) Benzoic acid C) Benzyl formate D) Methyl benzoate
48. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration?
A) Toluene B) Benzenaldehyde C) Benzoic Acid D) Nitrobenzene
49. The electrophile in electrophilic substitution reaction of benzene using pyro sulphuric acid is
A) SO3 B) SO3H+ C) NO2+ D) NO+
50. Grignard’s reagent reacts with CO2 to form all carboxylic acids except
A) Acetic acid B) methanoic acid C) butyric acid D) propionic acid
51. The reactivity of Grignard’s reagent is due to
A) The presence of halogen atom B) the presence of magnesium atom
C) The polarity of C-Mg bond D) ionic nature of Mg-X
52. Which is incorrect?
A) CH3; activating; o- and p-directing. B) OH-; activating; o- and p-directing.
C) NO2; deactivating; m-directing. D) OR-; activating; m-directing.
53. Which pair of groups contains both ortho & para directing groups
A) OH –OR B) NO2 –CN C) OCH3 –CHO D) NH2 -COOH
54. Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reagents by _______________
A) Boiling them with Mg in alcoholic solution B) heating them with magnesium in dry ether
C) Boiling them with MgCl2 solution D) warming them with MgCl2
55. Alcohol can not be formed by reacting RMgX with
A) Formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde C) Propanone D) Carbon dioxide
56. Benzene is converted into n-propyl benzene by?
A) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation B) Friedel-Crafts Acylation C) reduction D) oxidation
57. The reaction given CH3CH2OH + PBr3 produces
A) CH3CH2Br + H3PO3 B) CH3CH2Br + POBr3 + HCl
C) CH3CH2Br + H3PO4 D) CH3CH2Br + H2O
58. In elimination reaction of Halogenoalkanes, the reagent use is
A) Alcoholic KOH B) ethanoic acid C) Acidic KOH D) Pyridine
59. Which of the following statements apply to E1 reactions of alkyl halides?
i. Rate = k[base] ii. Rate = k[base][RX] iii. Rate = k[RX]
A) i only B) ii only C) iii only D) all of these
60. Phenyl ethanone is prepared by reaction between
A) Phenol and ethane B) phenol and acetone
C) Benzene and acetone D) benzene and acetyl chloride
 “PHYSICS-XII”
61. A positive charge of +2 μC experiences a force of 1 N in an electric field. What is the strength
1 of the electric field?
A) 8 N/C B) 2 N/C C) 1 N/C D) 0.5 N/C E) NOT
62. The electric field lines due to a point charge:
A) Always start from the charge and end at infinity
B) Always start and end at other charges
C) Always start from the charge and form closed loops
D) Always start from infinity and end at the charge
63. When a positive charge is placed in an electric field, in which direction does the force act?
A) In the same direction as the electric field
B) Opposite to the direction of the electric field
C) Perpendicular to the electric field
D) There is no force acting on the charge
64. When two charges experience a force of 24 N and the distance between them is doubled while
keeping the charges constant, what will be the new force between them?
A) 6 N B) 12 N C) 48 N D) 96 N E) NOT
65. The electric force between two charges is 36 N. If one of the charges is doubled while keeping
the other constant, what will be the new force between them?
A) 18 N B) 72 N C) 144 N D) 9 N E) NOT
66. How does the electric force between two charges change if both charges are doubled while
maintaining the distance between them?
A) Quadruples B) Doubles C) Halves D) Remains the same
67. Coulomb's law is not valid for charges:
A) At rest B) Moving at a constant speed C) Accelerating D) In a vacuum
68. The intensity of the electric field at a point is defined as:
A) The electric potential at that point
B) The force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at that point
C) The work done to bring a charge from infinity to that point
D) The charge density at that point
69. Electric field lines are closer together when:
A) The charge magnitude is larger
B) The charge magnitude is smaller
C) The distance from the charge is larger
D) The distance from the charge is smaller
70. The electric field intensity near a charged conductor is greatest:
A) At its surface B) Inside the conductor
C) Away from the conductor D) Depends on the charge magnitude
71. The SI unit of electric flux is:
A) Newton per Coulomb (N/C) B) Coulomb (C) C) Newton (N)
D) Newton-meter squared per Coulomb
72. Electric flux passing through a closed surface is maximum when:
A) The surface is concave
B) The surface encloses a large amount of charge
C) The surface is flat
D) The surface encloses no charge
73. Electric flux density (D) is defined as:
A) Electric field strength in a medium B) Electric flux per unit area
C) Electric potential difference per unit charge D) Electric charge enclosed by a surface
74. According to Gauss's law, the electric flux through a closed surface is equal to:
A) The charge enclosed divided by the area of the surface
B) The electric field multiplied by the area of the surface
C) The charge enclosed divided by the permittivity of the medium
D) The charge enclosed divided by ε₀
75. Gauss's Law is a consequence of:
A) Conservation of charge B) Conservation of energy
C) Conservation of momentum D) Conservation of electric potential
76. What can be said about the electric intensity inside a solid positively charged sphere?
A) It is zero at all points inside the sphere
B) It is uniform and radially outward
C) It increases linearly with the distance from the center
D) It decreases linearly with the distance from the center
77. The direction of the electric intensity between two oppositely charged parallel plates is:
A) Away from the positively charged plate B) Towards the positively charged plate
C) Parallel to the plates D) Perpendicular to the plates
78. Electric potential at a point in an electric field is defined as:
A) The work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to that point
B) The ratio of charge to distance
C) The force experienced by a charge at that point
D) The square of the electric field at that point
79. The relationship between electric potential and electric potential difference is:
A) Electric potential is the difference in electric potential energy between two points
B) Electric potential is the negative of electric potential difference
C) Electric potential is the ratio of electric potential difference to the charge
D) Electric potential difference is the change in electric potential energy per unit charge
80. What does a potential difference of 1 volt between two points indicate?
A) 1 joule of work done in moving a unit positive charge between those points
B) 1 coulomb of charge present between those points
C) 1 newton of force acting between those points
D) 1 coulomb per meter of charge density between those points
81. The potential difference between two points in an electric field is 24 V. What is the energy
transferred when a charge of 6 C is moved between these points?
A) 4 J B) 144 J C) 0.25 J D) 1440 J E) NOT
82. What happens to the charge stored in a capacitor if the capacitance is doubled while keeping
the potential difference constant?
A) Doubles B) Halves C) Quadruples D) Becomes zero E) NOT
83. The presence of a dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor affects the
Capacitance by:
A) Decreasing the charge stored on the plates
B) Increasing the potential difference between the plates
C) Increasing the capacitance
D) Decreasing the area of the plates
84. The potential difference across each capacitor in a series combination is:
A) Equal to the total potential difference applied
B) Proportional to the square of the individual capacitances
C) Different for each capacitor
D) Equal to the reciprocal of the total capacitance
85. The potential difference across each capacitor in a parallel combination is:
A) Equal to the total potential difference applied
B) Proportional to the square of the individual capacitances
C) Different for each capacitor
D) Equal to the reciprocal of the total capacitance
86. Which application commonly uses a variable capacitor to adjust frequencies?
A) Voltage regulators B) Amplifiers C) Radio tuners D) Electric motors
87. Which statement about variable capacitors is true?
A) They have fixed capacitance values
B) They are not used in tuning circuits
C) They are usually non-adjustable
D) They allow capacitance adjustment
88. What does the term "potential gradient" refer to in physics?
A) The rate of change of potential with respect to time
B) The rate of change of potential energy
C) The rate of change of potential with respect to distance
D) The rate of change of electric field strength
89. How is the potential gradient related to the electric field strength in a uniform field?
A) Potential gradient is inversely proportional to the electric field strength
B) Potential gradient is directly proportional to the electric field strength
C) Potential gradient is unrelated to the electric field strength
D) Potential gradient is the same as the electric field strength
90. What is the function of a multiplate capacitor in an electrical circuit?
A) To store energy in the form of a magnetic field
B) To limit the current flow in the circuit
C) To store and release electrical energy
D) To increase the voltage of the circuit
 “ENGLISH-XII”
91. The idiom „Broke into a trot‟ means,
A) Laughing B) Running C) Weeping D) Scratching E) A.O.T
92. What is a synonym for „Veteran‟?
A) Dangerous B) Enemy C) Bad D) Experienced E) A & C
93. What is a synonym for „Engulfed?
A) Embarrassed B) Urged C) Overwhelmed D) Preserved E) NOT
94. Not only the students but also the instructor were laughing at the joke he cracked.
A) The students B) the instructor C) were D) at E) No error
95. The collection of rare coin in the museum is worth a considerable amount.
A) The collection B) rare coin C) is D) a considerable amount E) No error
96. Drinking and driving are a major cause of accidents.
A) Drinking B) are C) a major cause D) accidents E) No error
97. ________the houses on this street ____ beautiful gardens.
A) All of/has B) some of/has C) Most of/have D) Any of /have E) C & D
98. This is one of the few corporations that have done fine for the past five years.
A) is B) corporations C) have D) for E) No error
99. Which of the following is a Fragment?
A) Because of the rain, the party was canceled.
B) Order your priorities before starting the project.
C) Ordered the Central Army in the Revolutionary Combat.
D) What a stunning sunset over the ocean!
E) C & D
100. A hundred dollars is more than enough to cover the cost of dinner for two.
A) A B) is C) to cover D) cost of E) No error

SUM/03/XII COACHING 2023-24/03-12-2023

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PRE-ENTRANCE TEST AND SCIENCE COACHING ANSARI MUHALLA LARKANA
EXCELLENT COACHING BY EXPERIENCED TEACHERS

Answers Key Intermediate

Test 3rd Coaching 2023-24
Test Held on: Sunday 3rd December 2023

Q# ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS Q # ANS

1 B 21 A 41 B 61 D 81 B
2 B 22 A 42 C 62 A 82 A
3 C 23 C 43 A 63 A 83 C
4 D 24 B 44 C 64 A 84 C
5 A 25 C 45 D 65 B 85 A
6 D 26 C 46 A 66 D 86 C
7 A 27 C 47 B 67 C 87 D
8 A 28 D 48 A 68 B 88 C
9 C 29 D 49 A 69 A 89 B
10 C 30 D 50 B 70 A 90 C
11 A 31 B 51 C 71 D 91 B
12 D 32 C 52 D 72 B 92 D
13 A 33 B 53 A 73 B 93 C
14 B 34 B 54 B 74 D 94 C
15 B 35 C 55 D 75 A 95 B
16 C 36 B 56 A 76 A 96 B
17 A 37 A 57 A 77 D 97 C
18 A 38 C 58 A 78 A 98 E
19 C 39 D 59 C 79 D 99 C
20 D 40 D 60 D 80 A 100 E

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