Unit 1

Structure of Material
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a crystalline material?
a) Random arrangement of atoms
b) Long-range periodicity
c) Amorphous structure
d) Lack of definite melting point
Answer: b) Long-range periodicity
2. What is the coordination number in a face-centered cubic (FCC) structure?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 4
Answer: c) 12
3. The atomic packing factor (APF) for a body-centered cubic (BCC) structure is
approximately:
a) 0.52
b) 0.68
c) 0.74
d) 0.85
Answer: b) 0.68
4. Which crystal structure is the densest in terms of packing?
a) Simple cubic (SC)
b) Body-centered cubic (BCC)
c) Face-centered cubic (FCC)
d) Hexagonal close-packed (HCP)
Answer: c) Face-centered cubic (FCC)
5. The Miller indices (hkl) are used to describe:
a) The coordination number of atoms
b) Directions in a crystal lattice
c) Planes in a crystal lattice
d) Atomic positions in a unit cell
Answer: c) Planes in a crystal lattice
6. The number of atoms per unit cell in a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer: c) 4
7. Which of the following is NOT a crystal system?
a) Cubic
b) Hexagonal
c) Octagonal
d) Monoclinic
Answer: c) Octagonal
8. Miller indices are used to describe:
a) Atomic bonds
b) Crystallographic planes and directions
c) Coordination number
d) Atomic packing factor
Answer: b) Crystallographic planes and directions

9. What is the Miller index of a plane parallel to the x-axis and intersecting the y-axis at aaa and
the z-axis at aaa?
a) (100)
b) (011)
c) (110)
d) (011)
Answer: b) (011)
10. If a crystallographic plane intercepts the x, y, and z axes at a/2a/2a/2, aaa, and ∞\infty∞, the
Miller indices are:
a) (2 1 0)
b) (1 2 0)
c) (2 0 1)
d) (0 2 1)
Answer: a) (2 1 0)
11. What are the Miller indices of a plane passing through the origin of the unit cell?
a) Cannot be defined
b) (1 1 1)
c) (0 0 0)
d) (1 0 0)
Answer: a) Cannot be defined
12. Which of the following is NOT a type of crystal imperfection?
a) Point defects
b) Line defects
c) Volume defects
d) Atomic packing factor
Answer: d) Atomic packing factor
13. A vacancy defect in a crystal occurs when:
a) An extra atom is added in the lattice
b) An atom is missing from its lattice site
c) An atom is replaced by a different atom
d) A line of atoms is missing
Answer: b) An atom is missing from its lattice site

14. Which of the following is an example of a point defect?

a) Grain boundary
b) Dislocation
c) Substitutional impurity
d) Stacking fault
Answer: c) Substitutional impurity

15. The imperfection caused by the displacement of an atom from its normal lattice position to
an interstitial site is called:
a) Vacancy defect
b) Substitutional defect
c) Interstitial defect
d) Frenkel defect
Answer: d) Frenkel defect

16. A Schottky defect is a type of:

a) Line defect
b) Vacancy defect
c) Interstitial defect
d) Volume defect
Answer: b) Vacancy defect

17. Which of the following describes a dislocation in a crystal?

a) A missing row of atoms in the lattice
b) A plane of atoms displaced relative to another
c) A substitution of one atom by another
d) A cluster of point defects
Answer: b) A plane of atoms displaced relative to another

18. Grain boundaries are an example of:

a) Point defects
b) Line defects
c) Surface defects
d) Volume defects
Answer: c) Surface defects

19. Which of the following is true for edge dislocations?

a) They occur when an extra half-plane of atoms is inserted into a crystal lattice.
b) They are caused by the twisting of a crystal lattice.
c) They are examples of point defects.
d) They occur only in amorphous materials.
Answer: a) They occur when an extra half-plane of atoms is inserted into a crystal lattice.

20. A stacking fault is a type of:

a) Volume defect
b) Surface defect
c) Line defect
d) Planar defect
Answer: d) Planar defect

21. The total number of point defects in a crystal increases with:

a) Decreasing temperature
b) Increasing temperature
c) Increasing pressure
d) Decreasing pressure
Answer: b) Increasing temperature

22. Plastic deformation in polycrystalline materials primarily occurs through:

a) Grain rotation
b) Elastic stretching of atomic bonds
c) Movement of dislocations
d) Diffusion of atoms
Answer: c) Movement of dislocations

23. The term “slip system” in plastic deformation refers to:

a) The process of elastic deformation
b) A combination of slip planes and slip directions
c) The grain boundary sliding mechanism
d) A set of grains deforming simultaneously
Answer: b) A combination of slip planes and slip directions

24. Which of the following statements is true about polycrystalline materials?

a) All grains deform identically during plastic deformation.
b) Grain boundaries act as barriers to dislocation movement.
c) Plastic deformation occurs only through grain boundary sliding.
d) Dislocations can pass through grain boundaries without resistance.
Answer: b) Grain boundaries act as barriers to dislocation movement.

25. Twinning is an alternative mode of plastic deformation. It involves:

a) The slipping of atomic planes along a specific direction
b) The formation of a mirror image of the crystal structure across a plane
c) Dislocation annihilation
d) The rotation of grains during deformation
Answer: b) The formation of a mirror image of the crystal structure across a plane
 Unit 2
Mechanical Properties and their Testing
1. A tensile test is primarily used to determine:
a) Hardness
b) Ductility and strength properties
c) Impact resistance
d) Creep behavior
Answer: b) Ductility and strength properties
2. In a tensile test, the gauge length refers to:
a) The length of the entire specimen
b) The length of the grip section
c) The original length over which elongation is measured
d) The length of the necked region
Answer: c) The original length over which elongation is measured
3. The stress-strain curve obtained during a tensile test shows the elastic limit at:
a) The point of ultimate tensile strength
b) The highest point on the curve
c) The point where the curve transitions from linear to non-linear
d) The point of fracture
Answer: c) The point where the curve transitions from linear to non-linear
5. The ultimate tensile strength (UTS) of a material is defined as:
a) The stress at which permanent deformation begins
b) The maximum stress a material can withstand
c) The stress at the breaking point
d) The strain corresponding to the yield point
Answer: b) The maximum stress a material can withstand
6. The area under the stress-strain curve up to the point of fracture is a measure of:
a) Elastic modulus
b) Yield strength
c) Toughness
d) Ductility
Answer: c) Toughness
8. The point at which the material transitions from elastic deformation to plastic deformation is
known as:
a) Ultimate tensile strength
b) Yield point
c) Fracture point
d) Elastic limit
Answer: b) Yield point
9. In a ductile material, after the tensile strength point is reached, the material undergoes:
a) Fracture immediately
b) Continuous uniform deformation
c) Necking
d) Elastic recovery
Answer: c) Necking
10. Engineering stress is defined as:
a) Force divided by the original cross-sectional area
b) Force divided by the instantaneous cross-sectional area
c) The natural logarithm of strain
d) The ratio of final length to initial length
Answer: a) Force divided by the original cross-sectional area

11. True stress is defined as:

a) Force divided by the original cross-sectional area
b) Force divided by the instantaneous cross-sectional area
c) Stress at the elastic limit
d) Stress at the fracture point
Answer: b) Force divided by the instantaneous cross-sectional area

12. Engineering strain is defined as:

a) Change in length divided by the original length
b) Change in length divided by the instantaneous length
c) The natural logarithm of the ratio of final length to original length
d) The ratio of original cross-sectional area to instantaneous area
Answer: a) Change in length divided by the original length
13. During necking, which of the following is true?
a) True stress continues to increase while engineering stress decreases.
b) Both true stress and engineering stress decrease.
c) True stress decreases while engineering stress increases.
d) True strain is zero.
Answer: a) True stress continues to increase while engineering stress decreases.
14. Which of the following statements is TRUE for engineering stress-strain curves?
a) They account for changes in cross-sectional area.
b) They assume constant cross-sectional area.
c) They are derived using the logarithmic strain.
d) They always show the necking phenomenon.
Answer: b) They assume constant cross-sectional area.
15. The true stress-strain curve is more accurate than the engineering stress-strain curve
because:
a) It considers the instantaneous dimensions during deformation.
b) It ignores elastic deformation.
c) It is easier to calculate.
d) It uses the original cross-sectional area throughout.
Answer: a) It considers the instantaneous dimensions during deformation.

16. The stress-strain curve of a ductile material is characterized by:

a) A high slope with no plastic region
b) A clear yield point and significant plastic deformation before fracture
c) A sharp drop in stress after elastic deformation
d) No visible elastic region
Answer: b) A clear yield point and significant plastic deformation before fracture

17. In the stress-strain curve of a brittle material, which of the following is true?
a) It has a long plastic deformation region.
b) It fractures shortly after the elastic limit.
c) It exhibits a clear yield point.
d) It has a high toughness value.
Answer: b) It fractures shortly after the elastic limit.

18. The stress-strain curve of an elastic material is:

a) Linear throughout the deformation until fracture
b) Non-linear from the start
c) Linear only up to the elastic limit
d) Linear and extends into the plastic region
Answer: c) Linear only up to the elastic limit

19. Which type of material typically exhibits a stress-strain curve with a yield plateau?
a) Brittle materials
b) Polymers
c) Mild steel
d) Ceramics
Answer: c) Mild steel
20. A compression test is primarily used to measure:
a) Tensile strength
b) Compressive strength
c) Hardness
d) Fracture toughness
Answer: b) Compressive strength

21. During a compression test, the specimen typically:

a) Elongates in the direction of the applied load
b) Shrinks in height and expands laterally
c) Maintains its original dimensions
d) Fractures without deformation
Answer: b) Shrinks in height and expands laterally
22. Which of the following materials is most commonly tested in compression?
a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Plastics
d) Elastomers
Answer: b) Ceramics

23. A common problem in compression testing is barreling of the specimen. This occurs due to:
a) Tensile forces within the material
b) High strain rate deformation
c) Friction between the specimen and the testing platens
d) Material anisotropy
Answer: c) Friction between the specimen and the testing platens
24. Formability is defined as:
a) The ability of a material to resist deformation
b) The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without failure
c) The ability of a material to retain its elastic properties
d) The ability of a material to fracture under tensile stress
Answer: b) The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without failure

25. Which of the following tests is commonly used to assess formability?

a) Hardness test
b) Tensile test
c) Erichsen cup test
d) Charpy impact test
Answer: c) Erichsen cup test
26. The formability of sheet metals is often expressed using:
a) Fracture toughness
b) Elastic modulus
c) Limiting drawing ratio (LDR)
d) Shear strength
Answer: c) Limiting drawing ratio (LDR)
27. Hardness is defined as the ability of a material to:
a) Resist tensile deformation
b) Absorb energy before fracture
c) Resist localized plastic deformation or indentation
d) Withstand repeated loading without failure
Answer: c) Resist localized plastic deformation or indentation
28. Which of the following is NOT a hardness testing method?
a) Brinell hardness test (BHN)
b) Rockwell hardness test (HR)
c) Charpy impact test
d) Vickers hardness test (VHN)
Answer: c) Charpy impact test

29. The Brinell hardness test uses:

a) A steel or tungsten carbide ball indenter
b) A diamond cone or pyramid-shaped indenter
c) A sharp knife-edge indenter
d) A cylindrical punch indenter
Answer: a) A steel or tungsten carbide ball indenter
30. In the Rockwell hardness test, hardness is determined by measuring:
a) The diameter of the indentation
b) The depth of penetration under load
c) The time taken for indentation
d) The elastic recovery after indentation
Answer: b) The depth of penetration under load
31. The Vickers hardness test uses which type of indenter?
a) A steel ball
b) A diamond cone
c) A square-based diamond pyramid
d) A flat cylindrical punch
Answer: c) A square-based diamond pyramid

32. Which of the following factors affects the hardness measurement?

a) Surface roughness of the specimen
b) Test load and duration of application
c) Indenter geometry and material
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
33. The primary purpose of an impact test is to measure:
a) Tensile strength of a material
b) Fracture toughness or resistance to impact loading
c) The ductility of a material
d) The hardness of a material
Answer: b) Fracture toughness or resistance to impact loading

34. Which of the following impact tests is most commonly used to evaluate the toughness of
materials?
a) Brinell hardness test
b) Charpy impact test
c) Rockwell hardness test
d) Vickers hardness test
Answer: b) Charpy impact test

35. In the Charpy impact test, the specimen is typically placed:

a) With the notch perpendicular to the direction of the applied load
b) With the notch parallel to the direction of the applied load
c) In compression
d) At an elevated temperature
Answer: a) With the notch perpendicular to the direction of the applied load

36. The Izod impact test differs from the Charpy test mainly in:
a) The shape of the specimen
b) The test temperature
c) The location of the notch
d) The type of material being tested
Answer: c) The location of the notch

37. A material that exhibits a high toughness will have a:

a) High strength and low ductility
b) Low energy absorption before fracture
c) High resistance to fracture under impact loading
d) Low yield strength
Answer: c) High resistance to fracture under impact loading
 Unit 3
Equilibrium Diagrams
1. A solid solution is formed when:
a) Two metals react chemically to form a compound
b) One element dissolves into another element to form a single-phase material
c) Two elements combine to form a new phase with a different composition
d) A gas dissolves into a liquid
Answer: b) One element dissolves into another element to form a single-phase material

2. In a substitutional solid solution, atoms of the solute replace atoms of the solvent. This can
occur when:
a) The solute and solvent have similar atomic sizes and crystal structures
b) The solute has a significantly larger atomic size than the solvent
c) The solute has a completely different crystal structure than the solvent
d) The solute and solvent have no difference in electronegativity
Answer: a) The solute and solvent have similar atomic sizes and crystal structures

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of an interstitial solid solution?

a) The solute atoms occupy positions between the solvent atoms in the crystal structure
b) The solute atoms completely replace solvent atoms in the crystal structure
c) The solute and solvent have a large difference in atomic size
d) The solid solution forms a new phase with different properties from the original materials
Answer: a) The solute atoms occupy positions between the solvent atoms in the crystal structure
4. The solubility limit in a solid solution refers to:
a) The maximum temperature at which the solution can exist
b) The maximum amount of solute that can dissolve in the solvent without forming a second phase
c) The minimum amount of solute that can dissolve in the solvent
d) The amount of energy required to form a solid solution
Answer: b) The maximum amount of solute that can dissolve in the solvent without forming a second
phase

5. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the formation of a solid solution?
a) Atomic size difference between solute and solvent
b) Crystal structure compatibility
c) Temperature
d) Solubility of the solvent in a liquid phase
Answer: d) Solubility of the solvent in a liquid phase
6. The Hume-Rothery rules are used to determine:
a) The density of a solid solution
b) The phase diagram of a material
c) The solubility of one element in another to form a solid solution
d) The hardness of a material
Answer: c) The solubility of one element in another to form a solid solution
7. Gibbs' Phase Rule provides a relationship between:
a) Temperature, pressure, and volume of a system
b) The number of components, phases, and degrees of freedom in a system
c) The solubility of a substance in a solution
d) The crystallization rate of a material
Answer: b) The number of components, phases, and degrees of freedom in a system
8. In the equation F=C−P+2, the term F represents:
a) The number of phases
b) The degrees of freedom (independent variables)
c) The number of components
d) The pressure of the system
Answer: b) The degrees of freedom (independent variables)
9. The temperature at which a pure metal begins to solidify is called the:
a) Melting point
b) Solidus temperature
c) Liquidus temperature
d) Freezing point
Answer: b) Solidus temperature

10. The eutectic point in a phase diagram refers to:

a) The temperature and composition at which a phase transition occurs
b) The point where a solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium
c) The composition where the material exhibits maximum solubility
d) The composition and temperature at which two liquids form a solid simultaneously
Answer: b) The point where a solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium
11. The lever rule is used in equilibrium diagrams to calculate:
a) The temperature at which two phases coexist
b) The fraction of each phase present in a two-phase region
c) The total amount of solute in a system
d) The slope of the phase boundary line
Answer: b) The fraction of each phase present in a two-phase region
12. The iron-carbon equilibrium diagram is a graphical representation of the relationship
between:
a) Temperature and time for different steel grades
b) Temperature, composition, and phases of iron-carbon alloys
c) Pressure, temperature, and solubility of carbon in iron
d) The cooling rate and hardness of carbon steels
Answer: b) Temperature, composition, and phases of iron-carbon alloys
13. The eutectoid composition in the iron-carbon equilibrium diagram is:
a) 0.8% carbon
b) 1.4% carbon
c) 0.5% carbon
d) 4.3% carbon
Answer: a) 0.8% carbon
14. In the iron-carbon diagram, the eutectoid transformation involves the transformation of:
a) Austenite to ferrite and cementite
b) Austenite to pearlite
c) Cementite to ferrite
d) Ferrite to pearlite
Answer: b) Austenite to pearlite
15. The maximum solubility of carbon in iron occurs at the temperature of:
a) 727°C
b) 1493°C
c) 1147°C
d) 900°C
Answer: b) 1493°C

16. In the iron-carbon equilibrium diagram, the region above 727°C and below the eutectoid
composition (0.8% C) is known as:
a) Pearlite
b) Ferrite
c) Austenite
d) Cementite
Answer: c) Austenite
17. At the eutectoid temperature (727°C), the composition of the mixture of pearlite in the iron-
carbon diagram is:
a) 100% ferrite
b) 100% cementite
c) 0.8% carbon
d) 100% austenite
Answer: c) 0.8% carbon
18. The critical temperature A3A_3A3 in the Fe-Fe₃C diagram represents:
a) The temperature at which austenite transforms into ferrite
b) The temperature at which cementite decomposes into ferrite
c) The temperature at which the solid phase starts to melt
d) The temperature at which austenite transforms into pearlite
Answer: a) The temperature at which austenite transforms into ferrite
19. Plain carbon steels primarily contain:
a) Carbon and iron
b) Carbon, chromium, and iron
c) Iron, manganese, and silicon
d) Iron and nickel
Answer: a) Carbon and iron

20. Plain carbon steel with a carbon content of 0.25% is classified as:
a) Low-carbon steel
b) Medium-carbon steel
c) High-carbon steel
d) Ultra-high-carbon steel
Answer: b) Medium-carbon steel
21. Plain carbon steels are generally classified into which of the following categories based on
carbon content?
a) Austenitic, ferritic, and martensitic
b) Low-carbon, medium-carbon, and high-carbon
c) Ferritic, pearlitic, and cementitic
d) Malleable, ductile, and brittle
Answer: b) Low-carbon, medium-carbon, and high-carbon
22. The TTT diagram is used to predict the formation of:
a) Phases in a metal at a constant temperature
b) The microstructure of a material as it cools over time
c) The rate of solidification of a metal
d) The melting temperature of an alloy
Answer: b) The microstructure of a material as it cools over time
23. In the TTT diagram, the curve that separates the region where pearlite forms from the
region where bainite forms is called the:
a) Liquidus line
b) Eutectoid line
c) Eutectic line
d) Isothermal transformation curve
Answer: d) Isothermal transformation curve
24. The TTT diagram is primarily used for which of the following materials?
a) Polymers
b) Ceramics
c) Steels
d) Composites
Answer: c) Steels
25. In a TTT diagram for steel, the nose of the curve corresponds to the temperature at which:
a) The transformation to pearlite occurs at a specific time
b) The austenite starts to solidify
c) Bainite and martensite form at a rapid rate
d) Ferrite and cementite coexist in equilibrium
Answer: a) The transformation to pearlite occurs at a specific time
26. The transformation from austenite to martensite in steels occurs at:
a) A slow cooling rate
b) A fast cooling rate
c) At the eutectoid temperature
d) At the peritectic temperature
Answer: b) A fast cooling rate
 Unit 4
Heat Treatment
1. The primary purpose of heat treatment of steels is to:
a) Improve corrosion resistance
b) Increase strength, hardness, and toughness
c) Improve electrical conductivity
d) Reduce weight and cost
Answer: b) Increase strength, hardness, and toughness
2. Which of the following heat treatments involves heating the steel to a temperature above its
critical temperature and then cooling it slowly in air or furnace?
a) Hardening
b) Annealing
c) Quenching
d) Tempering
Answer: b) Annealing
3. In the heat treatment process of quenching, the steel is cooled rapidly by immersing it in:
a) Air
b) Water
c) Oil
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
4. The main objective of tempering after quenching is to:
a) Increase hardness
b) Reduce brittleness
c) Increase ductility
d) Improve weldability
Answer: b) Reduce brittleness
5. In which heat treatment process is the steel heated to a temperature just above the critical
point and then cooled very slowly to room temperature?
a) Normalizing
b) Hardening
c) Annealing
d) Tempering
Answer: c) Annealing
6. The process of normalizing steel involves:
a) Heating the steel to above the critical temperature and then cooling it in air
b) Heating the steel to below the critical temperature and cooling in air
c) Heating the steel to above the critical temperature and then cooling it rapidly in water
d) Heating the steel to a low temperature and then quenching
Answer: a) Heating the steel to above the critical temperature and then cooling it in air
7. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of annealing steel?
a) Increased ductility
b) Reduced hardness
c) Increased internal stress
d) Improved machinability
Answer: c) Increased internal stress
8. Martensite is formed in steel when it is cooled rapidly from the austenite phase by:
a) Air cooling
b) Water or oil quenching
c) Furnace cooling
d) Slow cooling
Answer: b) Water or oil quenching
9. The term "critical temperature" in the context of heat treatment of steels refers to:
a) The temperature at which steel starts to melt
b) The temperature above which the material is fully solid
c) The temperature at which the material transforms from one phase to another
d) The temperature at which the material becomes non-magnetic
Answer: c) The temperature at which the material transforms from one phase to another
10. The hardenability of steel is best measured by the:
a) Rockwell hardness test
b) Jominy end-quench test
c) Vickers hardness test
d) Charpy impact test
Answer: b) Jominy end-quench test
11. Case hardening is a heat treatment process that:
a) Increases the hardness of the entire material
b) Increases the hardness of the surface layer while maintaining a softer core
c) Increases the ductility of the material
d) Reduces the hardness of the material
Answer: b) Increases the hardness of the surface layer while maintaining a softer core
12. Which of the following is a method of case hardening?
a) Annealing
b) Normalizing
c) Carburizing
d) Tempering
Answer: c) Carburizing
13. In the carburizing process of case hardening, the steel is heated in a medium that introduces:
a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Oxygen
Answer: c) Carbon
14. Which of the following methods is used to introduce nitrogen into the surface layer of a
material for case hardening?
a) Nitriding
b) Carburizing
c) Induction hardening
d) Tempering
Answer: a) Nitriding
15. In the nitriding process, nitrogen is introduced into the steel surface by:
a) Heating the steel in a carbon-rich atmosphere
b) Immersing the steel in liquid nitrogen
c) Heating the steel in an ammonia gas environment
d) Using electric arc heating
Answer: c) Heating the steel in an ammonia gas environment
16. The main difference between carburizing and nitriding is that carburizing introduces:
a) Nitrogen into the surface
b) Oxygen into the surface
c) Carbon into the surface
d) Sulfur into the surface
Answer: c) Carbon into the surface
17. Induction hardening involves heating the workpiece using:
a) A direct flame
b) Induced electric currents
c) Electric arc welding
d) Infrared radiation
Answer: b) Induced electric currents
18. In induction hardening, the workpiece is quenched immediately after heating to:
a) Enhance ductility
b) Increase surface hardness
c) Reduce the carbon content in the surface
d) Reduce internal stresses
Answer: b) Increase surface hardness
19. The main advantage of induction hardening is:
a) The entire workpiece is hardened uniformly
b) It is a selective surface hardening process, only the surface is heated
c) It can be used for materials that are difficult to harden
d) It requires no quenching after heating
Answer: b) It is a selective surface hardening process, only the surface is heated
20. In flame hardening, the heat source used to heat the workpiece is:
a) Induction coil
b) Flame generated from a fuel gas and oxygen
c) Laser beam
d) Electrical arc
Answer: b) Flame generated from a fuel gas and oxygen
21. Flame hardening is typically used for hardening parts such as:
a) Thin sheets of metal
b) Large surface areas like shafts, rolls, and gears
c) Small precision parts
d) Soft ferrous metals
Answer: b) Large surface areas like shafts, rolls, and gears
22. Which of the following is a key difference between induction hardening and flame
hardening?
a) Induction hardening uses a flame as the heat source
b) Induction hardening is faster and more localized than flame hardening
c) Flame hardening is more suitable for surface-hardening thin sections
d) Induction hardening requires quenching in a molten medium
Answer: b) Induction hardening is faster and more localized than flame hardening
23. Flame hardening typically requires which of the following to control the cooling rate?
a) Furnace cooling
b) Quenching with water or oil
c) Slow cooling in air
d) A rapid spray of liquid nitrogen
Answer: b) Quenching with water or oil
24. In induction hardening, the depth of the hardened layer depends on:
a) The duration of the flame exposure
b) The strength of the electrical current and coil frequency
c) The cooling medium used
d) The carbon content of the workpiece
Answer: b) The strength of the electrical current and coil frequency
25. The primary disadvantage of flame hardening compared to induction hardening is:
a) It is more localized and selective
b) It can lead to uneven hardening and distortion due to the flame
c) It is less efficient for large parts
d) It requires more complex equipment and is more costly
Answer: b) It can lead to uneven hardening and distortion due to the flame
26. The primary purpose of induction and flame hardening is to:
a) Improve corrosion resistance
b) Increase the hardness and wear resistance of the surface
c) Improve machinability
d) Remove residual stresses
Answer: b) Increase the hardness and wear resistance of the surface
 Unit 5
Metallography
1. The first step in preparing a metallographic specimen for microscopic study is:
a) Etching
b) Polishing
c) Cutting and sectioning
d) Mounting
Answer: c) Cutting and sectioning
2. In the metallographic preparation process, which of the following is used to remove the
surface irregularities after sectioning?
a) Etching
b) Grinding
c) Mounting
d) Polishing
Answer: b) Grinding
3. The purpose of polishing a metallographic specimen is to:
a) Remove the oxide layer
b) Remove large scratches and prepare a smooth surface for etching
c) Hardening the surface for analysis
d) Increase the contrast of phases for better visibility
Answer: b) Remove large scratches and prepare a smooth surface for etching
Here are multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on specimen preparation for microscopic study in
metallurgy:

1. The first step in preparing a metallographic specimen for microscopic study is:
a) Etching
b) Polishing
c) Cutting and sectioning
d) Mounting
Answer: c) Cutting and sectioning

2. In the metallographic preparation process, which of the following is used to remove the
surface irregularities after sectioning?
a) Etching
b) Grinding
c) Mounting
d) Polishing
Answer: b) Grinding
3. The purpose of polishing a metallographic specimen is to:
a) Remove the oxide layer
b) Remove large scratches and prepare a smooth surface for etching
c) Hardening the surface for analysis
d) Increase the contrast of phases for better visibility
Answer: b) Remove large scratches and prepare a smooth surface for etching

4. The final step in specimen preparation for microscopic study is typically:

a) Grinding
b) Etching
c) Mounting
d) Polishing
Answer: b) Etching
5. Etching a metallographic specimen helps to:
a) Remove the rough surface of the material
b) Make the surface smooth for imaging
c) Highlight the microstructural features of the material
d) Increase the material's hardness
Answer: c) Highlight the microstructural features of the material
7. Which of the following is commonly used to etch steel specimens for microscopic
examination?
a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Nitric acid mixed with alcohol
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Acetone
Answer: b) Nitric acid mixed with alcohol
8. The sulfur printing test is primarily used to:
a) Identify the chemical composition of the metal
b) Detect the presence of sulfur in metals and alloys
c) Increase the strength of metals through sulfur infusion
d) Determine the hardness of the metal
Answer: b) Detect the presence of sulfur in metals and alloys
9. Flow line observations in forging are primarily used to study:
a) The uniformity of the material hardness
b) The distribution of grain structure in the forged part
c) The flow of metal during the forging process
d) The cooling rate of the material
10. In forging, flow lines are important because they indicate:
a) The melting temperature of the material
b) The movement and deformation of metal during shaping
c) The chemical composition of the metal
d) The thickness of the forged part
Answer: b) The movement and deformation of metal during shaping
11. The spark test in metallurgy is primarily used to:
a) Determine the hardness of a material
b) Identify the composition of a metal based on the characteristics of its sparks
c) Measure the tensile strength of a material
d) Test the surface finish of a metal
Answer: b) Identify the composition of a metal based on the characteristics of its sparks
12. Which of the following characteristics of the sparks is analyzed in the spark test?
a) The color, length, and frequency of the sparks
b) The temperature of the sparks
c) The sound produced during the spark generation
d) The chemical odor of the sparks
Answer: a) The color, length, and frequency of the sparks
13. The spark test is most commonly used to distinguish between:
a) Ferrous and non-ferrous metals
b) Different grades of stainless steel
c) Steel and cast iron
d) Copper and aluminum alloys
Answer: c) Steel and cast iron

14. What is a key feature of the sparks generated during the spark test of high-carbon steel?
a) The sparks are short and bright with many small bursts
b) The sparks are long, straight, and produce few bursts
c) The sparks have no distinct pattern or color
d) The sparks are very weak and dim
Answer: a) The sparks are short and bright with many small bursts
15. What type of equipment is typically used for performing a spark test?
a) A high-frequency induction coil
b) A grinding wheel or abrasive surface
c) A laser scanner
d) A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machine
Answer: b) A grinding wheel or abrasive surface
16. Which of the following metals would likely produce a continuous spark stream with no
bursts in a spark test?
a) High-carbon steel
b) Low-carbon steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Cast iron
Answer: d) Cast iron
17. What does the presence of a "cup and cone" fracture surface typically indicate?
a) Brittle fracture in a high-carbon steel
b) Ductile fracture in a metal subjected to tensile stress
c) Fatigue fracture in a metal exposed to cyclic loading
d) Stress corrosion cracking in the material
Answer: b) Ductile fracture in a metal subjected to tensile stress
18. The fracture mode where the material breaks without significant plastic deformation is
called:
a) Ductile fracture
b) Fatigue fracture
c) Brittle fracture
d) Creep fracture
Answer: c) Brittle fracture.

19. The "beach marks" or "striations" on a fracture surface typically indicate:

a) A fracture caused by low-temperature brittle behavior
b) A fracture due to high-speed impact
c) A fatigue fracture due to cyclic loading
d) A fracture due to excessive corrosion
Answer: c) A fatigue fracture due to cyclic loading
20. The appearance of a "fracture surface with shiny and smooth regions" usually suggests:
a) Ductile fracture under high stress
b) Intergranular fracture in low-alloy steel
c) Brittle fracture at low temperatures
d) A fracture due to a manufacturing defect
Answer: c) Brittle fracture at low temperatures
 Unit 6
Strengthening Mechanisms and NDT
1. Which of the following is NOT a common strengthening mechanism in metals?
a) Grain size reduction
b) Solid solution strengthening
c) Work hardening
d) Creep strengthening
Answer: d) Creep strengthening
2. Grain size reduction strengthens a material by:
a) Increasing the number of dislocations
b) Increasing the number of grain boundaries, which hinder dislocation movement
c) Increasing the density of point defects
d) Enhancing the ability of atoms to diffuse
Answer: b) Increasing the number of grain boundaries, which hinder dislocation movement
3. The strengthening mechanism that involves the addition of solute atoms to a solvent metal is
called:
a) Precipitation hardening
b) Work hardening
c) Solid solution strengthening
d) Grain boundary strengthening
Answer: c) Solid solution strengthening
4. Work hardening, or strain hardening, is achieved by:
a) Increasing the material’s grain size
b) Increasing the number of dislocations through plastic deformation
c) Decreasing the number of solute atoms in the material
d) Increasing the temperature during deformation
Answer: b) Increasing the number of dislocations through plastic deformation
5. Precipitation hardening involves:
a) Adding small solute atoms to increase dislocation motion
b) Forming small precipitates that act as obstacles to dislocation movement
c) Decreasing the grain size of the material
d) Increasing the material's elasticity
Answer: b) Forming small precipitates that act as obstacles to dislocation movement
6. Which of the following materials is typically strengthened by precipitation hardening?
a) Aluminum alloys
b) Pure copper
c) Low-carbon steel
d) Lead alloys
Answer: a) Aluminum alloys
7. Which strengthening mechanism is most effective in materials with high solubility of solute
atoms in the matrix?
a) Precipitation hardening
b) Work hardening
c) Solid solution strengthening
d) Grain boundary strengthening
Answer: c) Solid solution strengthening
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of the strengthening mechanism known as
"dislocation locking" in precipitation hardening?
a) The dislocations are free to move without resistance
b) Dislocations are hindered by precipitates, which increases the material's yield strength
c) The metal becomes brittle due to the loss of dislocations
d) The material undergoes uniform plastic deformation
Answer: b) Dislocations are hindered by precipitates, which increases the material's yield strength
9. Non-destructive testing (NDT) is primarily used to:
a) Improve the strength of materials
b) Detect material defects without altering or damaging the material
c) Measure the hardness of materials
d) Evaluate the chemical composition of metals
Answer: b) Detect material defects without altering or damaging the material
10. Which of the following is NOT a common non-destructive testing (NDT) method?
a) Ultrasonic testing
b) X-ray inspection
c) Visual inspection
d) Tensile testing
Answer: d) Tensile testing
11. In ultrasonic testing, sound waves are used to detect:
a) Surface cracks and corrosion
b) Internal flaws such as voids and inclusions
c) The hardness of a material
d) The temperature of the material
Answer: b) Internal flaws such as voids and inclusions
12. Which NDT method uses electromagnetic induction to detect surface cracks or defects?
a) Ultrasonic testing
b) Magnetic particle testing
c) Radiographic testing
d) Dye penetrant testing
Answer: b) Magnetic particle testing

13. In dye penetrant testing, the presence of cracks or defects is indicated by:
a) The formation of a spark at the defect site
b) A visible dye that is drawn into cracks and highlighted under ultraviolet light
c) A change in the electrical resistance of the material
d) The production of high-frequency sound waves
Answer: b) A visible dye that is drawn into cracks and highlighted under ultraviolet light
14. X-ray or gamma ray testing is primarily used to detect:
a) Surface defects like cracks or pits
b) Subsurface or internal structural defects
c) The tensile strength of the material
d) The chemical composition of a material
Answer: b) Subsurface or internal structural defects
15. Which of the following NDT methods is most commonly used for inspecting welded joints?
a) Eddy current testing
b) Ultrasonic testing
c) Magnetic particle testing
d) Visual inspection
Answer: b) Ultrasonic testing
16. In eddy current testing, the material's electrical conductivity is measured to detect:
a) The density of cracks
b) Material composition
c) Surface and near-surface defects
d) Internal voids and inclusions
Answer: c) Surface and near-surface defects

17. Which NDT method is best suited for detecting very fine surface cracks in non-ferrous
materials?
a) Ultrasonic testing
b) Magnetic particle testing
c) Eddy current testing
d) Dye penetrant testing
Answer: d) Dye penetrant testing
18. The primary advantage of non-destructive testing methods is that they:
a) Can be applied to materials at extremely high temperatures
b) Allow for the detection of material properties without damaging the sample
c) Provide more accurate results than destructive tests
d) Are able to analyze the chemical composition of the material
Answer: b) Allow for the detection of material properties without damaging the sample