2024 U.S.

NATIONAL
CHEMISTRY OLYMPIAD
NATIONAL EXAM PART I
Prepared by the American Chemical Society Chemistry Olympiad Examinations Task Force

OLYMPIAD EXAMINATIONS TASK FORCE

Seth N. Brown, Chair, University of Notre Dame, Notre Dame, IN
Monica Marie Arroyo, Pontifical Catholic University of Puerto Rico, Ponce, PR Paul Groves, South Pasadena HS, South Pasadena, CA (retired)
James Ayers, Colorado Mesa University, Grand Junction, CO Nicolas Hamel, Clackamas Community College, Oregon City, OR (retired)
Jerry Bell, Simmons University, Boston, MA (retired) John Kotz, State University of New York, Oneonta, NY (retired)
Jesse Bernstein, Miami Country Day School, Miami, FL (retired) Mariusz Kozik, Canisius College, Buffalo, NY
Alan D. Crosby, Newton South HS, Newton, MA (retired) Sarah Leite, Hopkins School, New Haven, CT
Mark DeCamp, University of Michigan, Dearborn, MI (retired) Michael A. Morgan, Francisco Bravo Medical Magnet HS, Los Angeles, CA
James Dohm, University of Pennsylvania, Philadelphia, PA Jane Nagurney, Scranton Preparatory School, Scranton, PA (retired)
Kimberly Gardner, United States Air Force Academy, CO Anne O'Connor, Cleveland State University, Cleveland, OH

DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINER

Part I of this test is designed to be taken with a Gradescope answer sheet on which the student records their responses. Only this
Gradescope sheet is graded for a score on Part I. Testing materials, scratch paper, and the Gradescope sheet should be made available to
the student only during the examination period. All testing materials including scratch paper should be turned in and kept secure until
April 22, 2024, after which tests can be returned to students and their teachers for further study.

Allow time for students to read the directions, ask questions, and fill in the requested information on the Gradescope sheet. The answer
sheet must be completed using a dark pencil or dark pen. When the student has completed Part I, or after one hour and thirty minutes
has elapsed, the student must turn in the Gradescope sheet, Part I of the testing materials, and all scratch paper.
There are three parts to the National Chemistry Olympiad Examination. You have the option of administering the three parts in any
order, and you are free to schedule rest breaks between parts.

Part I 60 questions single answer, multiple-choice 1 hour, 30 minutes

Part II 8 questions problem-solving, explanations 1 hour, 45 minutes
Part III 2 lab problems laboratory practical 1 hour, 30 minutes
A periodic table and other useful information are provided on page 2 for student reference.
Students should be permitted to use non-programmable calculators. The use of a programmable calculator, cell phone, watch,
or any other device that can access the internet or make copies or photographs during the exam is grounds for disqualification.
DIRECTIONS TO THE EXAMINEE – DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL DIRECTED TO DO SO.
Answers to questions in Part I must be entered on a Gradescope answer sheet to be scored. Be sure to write your name and assigned ID
number on the answer sheet. Make a record of this ID number because you will use the same number on Parts II and III. Each
item in Part I consists of a question or an incomplete statement that is followed by four possible choices. Select the single choice that
best answers the question or completes the statement. Then use a pencil or pen to blacken the space on your answer sheet next to the
same letter as your choice. You may write on the examination, but the test booklet will not be used for grading. Scores are based on the
number of correct responses. When you complete Part I (or at the end of one hour and 30 minutes), you must turn in all testing materials,
scratch paper, and your Gradescope answer sheet.

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
Distributed by the American Chemical Society, 1155 16th Street, N.W., Washington, DC
20036 All rights reserved. Printed in U.S.A.
 ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS CONSTANTS
amount of substance n Faraday constant F molar mass M 1 1
ampere A free energy G mole mol R = 8.314 J mol– K–
1 1
atmosphere atm frequency ν Planck’s constant h R = 0.08314 L bar mol– K–
atomic mass unit u gas constant R pressure P 1
F = 96,500 C mol–
Avogadro constant NA gram g rate constant k 1
Celsius temperature °C hour h reaction quotient Q F = 96,500 J V–1 mol–
1
centi– prefix c joule J second s NA = 6.022 ´ 1023 mol–
coulomb C kelvin K speed of light c
h = 6.626 ´ 10–34 J s
density d kilo– prefix k temperature, K T 1
electromotive force E liter L time t c = 2.998 ´ 108 m s–
energy of activation Ea measure of pressure mm Hg vapor pressure VP 0 °C = 273.15 K
enthalpy H milli– prefix m volt V 1 atm = 1.013 bar = 760 mm Hg
entropy S molal m volume V
equilibrium constant K molar M year y Specific heat capacity of H2O =
1 1
4.184 J g– K–

EQUATIONS

RT æ -DH o ö æ 1 ö æk ö E æ 1 1 ö
E = Eo - ln Q ln K = ç ÷ ç ÷ + constant ln ç 2 ÷ = a ç - ÷
nF è R øè T ø è k1 ø R è T1 T2 ø

1 PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS 18

1A 8A
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
1.008 2A 3A 4A 5A 6A 7A 4.003

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012 10.81 12.01 14.01 16.00 19.00 20.18
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Al Si P S Cl Ar
22.99 24.31 3B 4B 5B 6B 7B 8B 8B 8B 1B 2B 26.98 28.09 30.97 32.07 35.45 39.95

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.10 40.08 44.96 47.88 50.94 52.00 54.94 55.85 58.93 58.69 63.55 65.39 69.72 72.61 74.92 78.97 79.90 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.47 87.62 88.91 91.22 92.91 95.95 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.8 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
Fr Ra Ac Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (266) (281) (272) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)

58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 231.0 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)

Page 2 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
 DIRECTIONS
§ When you have selected your answer to each question, blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a soft, #2
pencil. Make a heavy, full mark, but no stray marks. If you decide to change an answer, erase the unwanted mark very carefully.
§ There is only one correct answer to each question. Any questions for which more than one response has been blackened will not
be counted.
§ Your score is based solely on the number of questions you answer correctly. It is to your advantage to answer every question.

6. 10.0 mL of 0.50 M potassium sulfate and 10.0 mL of

1. What is the mole fraction of acetic acid (CH3COOH, M =
0.50 M silver nitrate solutions are mixed and the mixture
60.05) in an aqueous solution that is 11.7% by mass
is allowed to attain equilibrium. Which ordering of the
acetic acid?
concentrations of the ions in solution is correct?
(A) 0.00195 (B) 0.0382
(A) [K+] = [NO3–] > [Ag+] > [SO42-]
(C) 0.0398 (D) 0.195
(B) [K+] = [NO3–] > [SO42-] > [Ag+]
2. Hydrogen peroxide (M = 34.02) decomposes to give (C) [K+] > [NO3–] > [Ag+] > [SO42-]
water and oxygen gas. How much 3.00% by mass
aqueous H2O2 must decompose to afford 4.00 L of dry O2 (D) [K+] > [NO3–] > [SO42-] > [Ag+]
at STP?
7. A neutral organic compound is to be separated from a
(A) 6.08 g (B) 101 g (C) 203 g (D) 405 g basic impurity by washing a solution of the compound in
hexane with 5% aqueous HCl. Which apparatus is best
3. A diamagnetic compound that contains only carbon, suited to this operation?
hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen is 19.99% C, 3.35% H, (A) (B)
and 23.31% N by mass. Which is its molecular formula?
(A) CH2N2O (B) CH2NO2
(C) C2H3NO (D) C2H4N2O4

4. What is the chloride ion concentration in a solution

prepared by mixing 35.0 mL of 0.35 M sodium chloride
and 65.0 mL of 0.65 M calcium chloride?
(A) 0.50 M (B) 0.54 M (C) (D)
(C) 0.85 M (D) 0.97 M

5. 17.0 g Ba(NO3)2 (M = 261.32) is mixed with 11.5 g of an

alkali metal sulfate and the precipitated BaSO4 (M =
233.37) is collected by filtration, placed in a tared
crucible, and the crucible heated to drive off water. The
mass of BaSO4 obtained is 15.4 g. Which conclusion is
best supported by the data?
(A) The sulfate salt used was Na2SO4 (M = 142.05).
(B) The sulfate salt used was K2SO4 (M = 174.27).
8. Which substance may be treated with bleach (sodium
(C) The BaSO4 was not heated long enough to drive off hypochlorite) to render it less hazardous?
all the water.
(A) Sodium cyanide (B) Ammonia
(D) Some of the BaSO4 was spilled before it was
(C) Hydrochloric acid (D) Ozone
transferred to the crucible.

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024 Page 3
 13. A sample of pentane (bp = 36 °C) is in a rigid closed
9. Which indicator would be most suitable for a titration to
container at 50 °C and 1 atm. Which best describes what
determine the concentration of ammonia in a window
happens when the container is heated?
cleaning solution using aqueous HCl?
(A) Liquid pentane vaporizes.
(A) Eriochrome Black T (B) Ferroin
(B) The intermolecular forces between pentane
(C) Methyl orange (D) Phenolphthalein
molecules become stronger.
10. A test tube contains 4 mL of a solution that is 0.1 M in (C) The average kinetic energy of the pentane molecules
one or more of the following salts: AgNO3, Mn(NO3)2, increases.
and Al(NO3)3. 1 mL of 6 M HCl is added to the test tube,
which causes neither a color change nor formation of a (D) The density of the sample decreases.
precipitate. After subsequent addition of 1.5 mL aqueous
NaOH and 0.5 mL of 3% aqueous H2O2 and brief heating 14. Which compound has the highest normal boiling point?
in a hot water bath, there is a dark precipitate in the test (A) (B)
tube. What may be determined about the cations initially OH
OH
present?
Must be May be Must be (C) OH (D)
present present absent
(A) Ag+ Al3+ Mn2+ OH

(B) Al3+ Mn2+ Ag+

15. A mole of which gas has the smallest volume at 0 °C and
(C) Al3+ Ag+ Mn2+ 1 atm pressure?
(D) Mn2+ Al3+ Ag+ (A) He (B) CO2 (C) SO2 (D) Xe

11. Ethane, C2H6, and diborane, B2H6, do not adopt 16. Two compounds, A and B, are both solids at 20 °C. In
analogous molecular structures. Which experimental separate experiments, one mole of each is heated and its
technique would be least useful in establishing this fact? temperature measured as a function of the amount of heat
added. Which statement about the compounds is correct?
(A) Infrared spectroscopy
(B) Mass spectrometry
(C) Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
(D) X-ray crystallography

12. The concentration of a solution of potassium

permanganate is determined by titrating it into an
Erlenmeyer flask with solid ferrous ammonium sulfate
hexahydrate (Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2 • 6 H2O) dissolved in dilute
sulfuric acid. Which error would result in a measured
concentration of KMnO4 that is lower than the actual
concentration?
(A) The titration was begun before the ferrous
ammonium sulfate had fully dissolved in the sulfuric
acid.
(B) The sides of the Erlenmeyer flask were periodically
rinsed down with deionized water during the
titration. (A) The molar heat capacity of solid A is greater than
that of solid B.
(C) Some of the Fe(II) ions in the solid ferrous
ammonium sulfate had been oxidized to Fe(III) on (B) The molar heat capacity of liquid A is greater than
storage. that of liquid B.

(D) The buret was rinsed with distilled water and then (C) The melting point of A is less than that of B.
filled with KMnO4 solution while still wet. (D) The heat of fusion of A is less than that of B.

Page 4 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
 17. A sample of a pure substance is placed in a sealed, rigid 20. At what temperatures is the decomposition of tungstic
container and the pressure is measured as a function of acid, H2WO4(s), to tungsten trioxide and water vapor
temperature. Which is the best explanation for the result spontaneous under standard conditions?
shown?
H2WO4(s) ® WO3(s) + H2O(g)

Compound ∆H°f, kJ mol-1 S°, J mol-1 K-1

H2WO4(s) –1130 140
WO3(s) –840 80
H2O(g) –240 190

(A) T > 385 K

(B) T < 385 K
(C) The reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
(D) The reaction is not spontaneous at any temperature.

21. In a well-insulated container, 10.0 g solid octane at its

(A) At lower temperatures, the substance is a mixture of freezing point (–56.9 °C) is added to 300.0 mL liquid
solid and vapor, while at 60 °C the solid melts to octane at 0.0 °C (density = 0.71 g mL-1). After
give a mixture of liquid and vapor. equilibrium is achieved, the temperature is –6.3 °C.
(B) At lower temperatures, the substance is a mixture of When the experiment is repeated under the same
liquid and vapor, while at 60 °C only liquid is conditions except with 100.0 g solid octane, what is the
present. final temperature?
(A) –39.7 °C (B) –44.9 °C
(C) At lower temperatures, the substance is a mixture of
liquid and vapor, while at 60 °C only a supercritical (C) –51.7 °C (D) –56.9 °C
fluid is present.
–
(D) At lower temperatures, the substance consists of 22. Amphiphilic species like CH3(CH2)10COO can aggregate
vapor only, while at 60 °C only a supercritical fluid into micelles in water, as depicted schematically below.
is present. ΔS for micelle formation is positive. Which best explains
why?
18. Cesium chloride (M = 168.4) crystallizes in a primitive
cubic unit cell with each cesium ion surrounded by eight
chloride ions arranged in a cube. The density of solid
CsCl is 3.988 g cm-3. What is the Cs–Cl distance?
(A) 206.2 pm (B) 291.6 pm
(C) 357.1 pm (D) 412.4 pm

19. Steam turbines convert heat energy into mechanical (A) Amphiphilic compounds are solvated by an ordered
work. Which statement best describes the efficiency of layer of water molecules.
this process?
(B) Micelle formation involves converting many
(A) 100%, because energy is conserved independent amphiphilic compounds into a single
(B) Less than 100%, because the steam decreases in large micelle.
temperature (C) Water molecules are trapped in the hydrophobic
(C) Greater than 100%, because the turbine increases in interior of micelles.
kinetic energy (D) Water molecules form ordered structures around the
(D) Can be greater than, less than, or equal to 100% exterior of micelles.
depending on the design of the turbine.

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024 Page 5
 23. What is ∆G°f of C2H4(g) at 25 °C? 27. A reversible reaction occurs as follows:
2 A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g)
Substance ∆H°f, kJ mol-1 S°, J mol-1 K-1 Under a certain set of conditions, the rate law for the
forward reaction is determined to be Rate = kf[A][B].
C2H4(g) 52.4 219.3 Under these conditions, what is the rate law for the
reverse reaction?
H2(g) 0 130.7 (A) Rate = kr[C][D]
C(s, graphite) 0 5.7 !r [C][D]
(B) Rate = =
[A]
(A) –13.0 kJ mol-1 (B) 27.7 kJ mol-1
!r [C][D]
(C) 46.9 kJ mol-1 (D) 68.3 kJ mol-1 (C) Rate = =
[A]# [B]
24. The ∆H°f of CH4(g) is –74.6 kJ mol-1 and the bond (D) It cannot be determined from the information given.
dissociation enthalpies (BDEs) of several bonds are given
in the table. 28. A compound A reacts by two independent irreversible
pathways to give two products, B and C. At 300 K, 35%
Bond BDE, kJ mol-1 of the product is B, while at 320 K, 70% of the product is
C–C 347 B. What may be concluded about the activation energy
C–H 413 of the pathway to form B compared to the activation
H–H 432 energy of the pathway to form C?
Based on these data, what is the molar enthalpy of (A) The Ea for the pathway to form B is higher by 28 kJ
sublimation of C(s,graphite) to form C(g)? mol-1.
(A) 713 kJ mol-1 (B) 788 kJ mol-1 (B) The Ea for the pathway to form B is higher by 59 kJ
(C) 1061 kJ mol -1
(D) 1135 kJ mol -1 mol-1.
(C) The Ea for the pathway to form B is lower by 28 kJ
25. For a reaction X + Y ® Z, data for three experiments are mol-1.
given.
(D) The Ea for the pathway to form B is lower by 59 kJ
[X]0, M [Y]0, M Initial rate, M-1 min-1 mol-1.
0.10 0.10 2.0 ´ 10-4
0.30 0.10 6.0 ´ 10-4 29. The irreversible reaction A + B ® C takes place by the
0.30 0.30 5.4 ´ 10-3 following two-step mechanism involving an intermediate
X whose concentration is low throughout the reaction:
Which mechanism is consistent with the above data? k1
(Reactions shown as reversible are assumed to be rapid A X
and unfavorable.) k–1
(A) X+Y®Z (B) 2 X ⇌ X2 k2
X+B C
X2 + Y ® Z + X
Which statement cannot be correct regardless of the
(C) 2 Y ⇌ Y2 (D) X + Y ⇌ XY values of k1, k–1, and k2?
Y2 + X ® Z + Y XY ® Z
(A) The reaction is 0th order in A.
208 204
26. Po undergoes a decay to form stable Pb with a half- (B) The reaction is 1st order in A.
life of 2.90 years. A sample of 208Po was measured with
(C) The reaction is 0th order in B.
a Geiger counter 5.20 years ago as having an activity of
1320 disintegrations per second. What is its activity (D) The reaction is 1st order in B.
today?
(A) 137 s-1 (B) 381 s-1
(C) 736 s-1 (D) 1320 s-1

Page 6 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
 30. Nitramide decomposes to nitrous oxide in aqueous 35. A mixture containing CO(g), H2O(g), CO2(g), and H2(g)
solution: is allowed to reach equilibrium at 120 °C in a container
NH2NO2(aq) ® N2O(g) + H2O(l) that maintains a constant total pressure of 1.0 bar.
In solutions with pH ≥ 12, the rate law for this reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)
is:
[NH# NO# ] 5.0 g of H2O is added to this container, which is allowed
Rate = k
[H% O ]& to reattain equilibrium (still at 120 °C and 1 bar total
pressure). How does the partial pressure of H2(g) change
The reaction is monitored with pH = 12.0 (solid line) and as a result of the addition of H2O?
with pH = 12.3 (dashed line). Which graph best
represents the time-dependence of the nitramide (A) The partial pressure of H2(g) increases.
concentrations in the two experiments? (B) The partial pressure of H2(g) decreases.
(A) (B) (C) The partial pressure of H2(g) does not change.
(D) The effect on the partial pressure of H2(g) cannot be
determined from the information given.

36. 0.01 mol of AgNO3 is dissolved in 1.00 L of 1.00 M

aqueous NH3. What is the minimum amount of HCl that
would need to be added to this solution to induce
(C) (D) precipitation of AgCl? The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 ´ 10-10; the
Kf of Ag(NH3)2+ is 1.6 ´ 107; and the Ka of NH4+ is 5.6 ´
10-10.
(A) 1.8 ´ 10-8 mol (B) 1.3 ´ 10-5 mol
(C) 0.18 mol (D) 0.28 mol

37. In which compound does the oxidation number of oxygen

31. A sample of 0.320 mol of a weak monoprotic acid in 1.00
differ from –2?
L of solution is 10.2% ionized. What is Ka for this acid?
(A) NaBO3 (B) NaNO3
(A) 3.3 ´ 10-3 (B) 3.7 ´ 10-3
(C) K3PO4 (D) K2Cr2O7
(C) 3.2 ´ 10-2 (D) 1.1 ´ 10-1
38. Copper metal reacts with nitric acid to form NO(g) as
32. Typically, the molar solubility x of an ionic compound in shown in the unbalanced reaction shown below. When
pure water and its Ksp are related by a simple formula. the reaction is balanced using lowest whole number
Which formula is not expected for Ksp for an ionic coefficients, what is the coefficient of H+(aq)?
compound?
Cu(s) + H+(aq) + NO3–(aq) ®
(A) Ksp = 4x3 (B) Ksp = 4x4 Cu2+(aq) + NO(g) + H2O(l)
(C) Ksp = 27x4 (D) Ksp = 81x5 (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

33. Equal volumes of 0.1 M solutions of NaH2PO4 and 39. In the Hall-Héroult process for producing aluminum,
Na3PO4 are mixed. What is the pH of the resulting aluminum is electrolytically reduced from Al2O3
solution? For H3PO4, pKa1 = 2.12, pKa2 = 7.21, pKa3 = dissolved in molten cryolite, Na3AlF6, while a graphite
12.32. anode is oxidized to CO2. What is the ratio of the mass
of Al deposited on the cathode to the mass of C lost from
(A) 4.66 (B) 6.66 (C) 7.21 (D) 9.76
the anode?
34. 5.00 g of nitrogen dioxide is introduced into an (A) 1.50:1 (B) 2.25:1 (C) 3.00:1 (D) 3.36:1
evacuated, rigid 1.00 L container. It is allowed to
equilibrate according to the reaction below at 310 K, and
the total pressure in the vessel is 1.71 bar. What is Kp for
the reaction at 310 K?
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g)
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.57 (C) 2.28 (D) 2.92

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024 Page 7
 40. The cathode of an electrolytic cell with a copper 45. How many electrons in a ground-state gas-phase atom of
electrode initially has 100.0 mL of a solution that is 1.00 arsenic (As) have a quantum number ml = 1?
M in both Cu2+(aq) and Fe(CN)63-(aq). The solution is
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 15 (D) 18
electrolyzed with a constant current of 0.500 A at a
constant temperature of 298 K. How much time elapses
46. Which orbital has the same number of radial nodes as a
before Cu(s) begins to deposit on the electrode?
3s orbital?
Half-reaction E°, V (A) 3p (B) 4s (C) 4f (D) 5d
3- – 4-
Fe(CN)6 (aq) + e ® Fe(CN)6 (aq) 0.370
47. Which lanthanide has a common oxidation number
Cu2+(aq) + 2e– ® Cu(s) 0.337 different from +3?

(A) 0 min (B) 89.4 min (A) Ce (B) Gd (C) Er (D) Lu

(C) 252 min (D) 322 min 48. Which radioisotope decays by beta (b–) emission?
20 52 54 62
41. A molecule absorbs a photon of light to form an excited (A) Na (B) V (C) Co (D) Cu
state. How do the redox properties of the excited state
compare to those of the ground state? 49. Which is a valid Lewis structure for nitric acid, HNO3?

(A) The excited state is both a stronger oxidizing agent (A) (B) O
and a stronger reducing agent than the ground state. O
H N O
(B) The excited state is both a weaker oxidizing agent H N O
O
and a weaker reducing agent than the ground state. O
(C) The excited state is a stronger oxidizing agent but a
weaker reducing agent than the ground state. (C) (D) O
O
(D) The excited state is a weaker oxidizing agent but a H O N O
stronger reducing agent than the ground state. H O N O

42. What is ∆G° at 298 K for the disproportionation of

PbO(s)? 50. Which statements about carbon-oxygen bond lengths are
correct?
2 PbO(s) ® PbO2(s) + Pb(s) ∆G° = ??? I. The carbon-oxygen bond in carbon dioxide, CO2,
is shorter than the carbon-oxygen bond in
Half-reaction E°, V
carbonyl sulfide, COS.
+ –
PbO2(s) + 4 H (aq) + 4e ® Pb(s) + 2 0.671 II. The carbon-oxygen bond in phosgene, COCl2, is
H2O(l) shorter than the carbon-oxygen bond in urea,
CO(NH2)2.
PbO(s) + H2O(l) + 2e– ® Pb(s) + 2 OH–(aq) –0.580
(A) I only (B) II only
(A) 163 kJ mol-1 (B) 241 kJ mol-1
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) 403 kJ mol-1 (D) 483 kJ mol-1
51. Which statement best describes the relative Lewis acidity
43. For which gas-phase atoms is addition of an electron of BF3 and BCl3?
endothermic?
(A) BF3 is a weaker Lewis acid than BCl3 because F is
I. Li II. N more electronegative than Cl.
(A) I only (B) II only (B) BF3 is a weaker Lewis acid than BCl3 because F is a
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II better π donor than Cl.
(C) BF3 is a stronger Lewis acid than BCl3 because F is
44. Which atom has the lowest first ionization energy? more electronegative than Cl.
(A) Be (B) B (C) Mg (D) Al (D) BF3 is a stronger Lewis acid than BCl3 because F is
a better π donor than Cl.

Page 8 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
 52. Which comparisons of bond angles are correct? 58. Which product would be obtained in the greatest quantity
I. The bond angle in NH3 is greater than the bond from bromination of 4-nitrotoluene using an aluminum
angle in NF3. bromide catalyst?
CH3
II. The bond angle in NH3 is greater than the bond
angle in PH3. Br2
(A) I only (B) II only
cat. AlBr3
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

53. The gas-phase molecules B2 and O2 are both NO2

paramagnetic. Which statement about the relative
energies of their molecular orbitals explains these (A) Br (B) CH3
observations? Br
I. The s2p MO is higher in energy than the π2p
MO’s.
II. The s*2p MO is higher in energy than the π*2p NO2 NO2
MO’s.
(C) CH3 (D) CH3
(A) I for B2, II for O2 (B) I for O2, II for B2
(C) I for both B2 and O2 (D) II for both B2 and O2

54. How many stereoisomers are there of the octahedral

Br
coordination complex Co(NH2CH2CO2)3?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 NO2 Br

55. How many tertiary alcohols have the formula C5H12O? 59. Which compound is least reactive toward
ethylmagnesium bromide, CH3CH2MgBr?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) O (B) O
56. Which difluorocyclohexanes are optically active?
I. II. O
F F
F
(C) (D) H
F O
(A) I only (B) II only O
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

57. Which best describes the outcome of extracting a dilute 60. Which statements describe significant differences
solution of benzoic acid in diethyl ether with 5% aqueous between RNA and DNA?
NaHCO3? I. The bases used in RNA include three purines and
(A) Benzoic acid is present in the bottom layer. one pyrimidine, while those in DNA include two
purines and two pyrimidines.
(B) Benzoate ion is present in the bottom layer.
II. Hydrolysis of RNA frequently involves cyclic
(C) Benzoic acid is present in the top layer. phosphate intermediates, while hydrolysis of
DNA never does.
(D) Benzoate ion is present in the top layer.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

END OF TEST

Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024 Page 9
 THIS PAGE IS LEFT
INTENTIONALLY BLANK

Page 10 Property of ACS USNCO – Not for use as USNCO National Exam after April 21, 2024
 Olympiad 2024
USNCO National Exam
KEY

Number Answer %Correct Number Answer %Correct

1. B 54% 31. B 52%
2. D 54% 32. D 29%
3. D 54% 33. D 33%
4. D 71% 34. A 36%
5. C 52% 35. D 9%
6. D 51% 36. C 33%
7. A 44% 37. A 74%
8. A 19% 38. D 56%
9. C 52% 39. C 44%
10. D 46% 40. C 32%
11. B 63% 41. A 15%
12. D 55% 42. A 11%
13. C 90% 43. B 30%
14. A 70% 44. D 45%
15. C 35% 45. B 52%
16. D 69% 46. D 33%
17. B 5% 47. A 28%
18. C 40% 48. B 52%
19. B 81% 49. C 63%
20. A 74% 50. B 30%
21. B 39% 51. B 16%
22. A 32% 52. C 15%
23. D 60% 53. A 37%
24. A 36% 54. D 22%
25. C 84% 55. A 37%
26. B 74% 56. A 27%
27. B 40% 57. B 39%
28. B 34% 58. B 43%
29. A 48% 59. C 61%
30. D 47% 60. B 25%