GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY

1. Pharmacodynamics is the study of:

a. What the drug does to the body
b. What the body does to the drug
c. What the body and the drug do to each other
d. Absorption of the drug

2. The process/processes involved in elimination of drugs through the kidneys is/ are:
a. Glomerular filtration
b. Active tubular secretion
c. Passive tubular reabsorption
d. All of the above

3. The advantage/advantages of giving a drug intravenously are:

a. Useful in emergencies
b. Large volumes can be injected
c. Irritants can be given
d. All of the above

4. The following is a prodrug:

a. Penicillin
b. Levodopa
c. Insulin
d. Chlorthalidone

5. The following is/are special drug delivery systems:

a. Ocusert
b. Osmotic pump
c. Transdermal adhesive unit
d. All of the above

6. Ethyl alcohol is used:

a. To prevent bed sores
b. In treatment of neuralgias
c. For reduction of body temperature
d. All of the above

7. Intravenous regional anesthesia can be used to anesthetize:

a. The upper and lower limbs
b. The abdomen
c. The thorax
d. The head and the neck
8. The preferred route of administration in an unconscious patient is:
a. Sublingual
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. Nasal

9. The following is/are disadvantage of intravenous route:

a. Thrombophlebitis
b. Self medication is difficult
c. Only aqueous solutions can be given
d. All of the above

10. The following is true about plastic syringes:

a. Allow proper emptying of the syringe
b. Can break easily
c. Have higher risk of air embolism
d. Can be easily sterilized

11. Intra-articular route of administration involves injection into the

a. Arteries
b. Joints
c. Auricles
d. Atria

12. Transdermal adhesive units are made in order to deliver the drug:
a. Intermittently
b. For immediate action
c. Constantly over a long period
d. None of the above

13 . Paracetamol can be grouped under:

a. Dangerous drugs
b. Prescription drugs
c. Over the counter drugs
d. None of these

14. The Poisons Act was passed in:

a. 1878
b. 1919
c. 1930
d. 1940
15. The Dangerous Drugs Act prohibits:
a. Manufacture of opium products
b. Cultivation of opium products
c. Sale of opium products
d. All of the above

16. The following is/are true of Schedule H drugs:

a. Includes drugs to be sold under prescription only
b. Symbol Rx should be printed on the left hand top corner of the table
c. Warning to be sold on prescription of a RMP only should be given
d. All of the above

PHARMACEUTICAL PREPARATIONS

17. The following is/are true about powders:

a. Absorbed faster
b. Absorption is slow
c. Hygroscopic drugs can be given as powders
d. All of the above

18. The following is an example of dusting powder:

a. Seidlitz powder
b. Neosporin powder (Neomycin Bacitracin)
c. Atropine powder
d. Aspirin paracetamol caffeine (APC) powder

19. The following is true of liquid dosage forms:

a. Liquids are less stable than solid dosage forms
b. Drugs with unpleasant taste can be masked
c. Cannot be given in children
d. Hygroscopic drugs cannot be given as liquids

20. The following is/are true about linctuses:

a. May have glycerin as a vehicle
b. Are sweet viscous liquids
c. Cough remedies are available as linctuses
d. All of the above

21. Douche is:

a. A sweet liquid preparation
b. An aqueous solution for rinsing a body cavity
c. Meant for application to the throat
d. A solid preparation made of sugar and
22. An ointment:
a. Is a semisolid preparation
b. Contains greasy base
c May be absorbed from the skin
d. All of the above are true

23. An additive in a pharmaceutical prepa ration:

a. Has no pharmacological actions
b. Is the active principle
c. Is same as the base
d. Does not serve any purpose

24. The following statement about liniments is correct:

a. It is a liquid preparation for application on skin
b. To be applied without friction
c. Meant for oral use
d. It is a soothening agent

25. Lotions have the following properties:

a. Irritant effects
b. Counter irritant actions
c. Soothening and protective effects
d. None of the above

26. Flavoring agents are generally used to give:

a. A Pleasant color
b. A pleasant smell and taste
c. Antiseptic properties
d. A pleasant smell only

27. Saccharin sodium:

a. Is 500 times sweeter than sugar
b. Can be used as dilute solution
c. Is excreted unchanged in 24 hours
d. All of the above

28. Selection of a flavoring agent is a difficult task because:

a. Individual tastes differ
b. After prolonged use the person may dislike the particular flavor
c. Some tastes are difficult to mask
d. All of the above
WEIGHTS AND MEASURES

29. The standard unit of weight in metric system is:

a. Kilogram
b. Milligram
c. Gram
d. Pound

30. The symbol of grain is:

a. G
b. gr
c. grm
d. Gm

31. The standard unit of weight in apothe- caries system is:

a. Gram
b. Kilogram
c. Grain
d. Pound

32. The standard unit of weight in avoirdupois system is:

a. Kilogram
b. Grain
c. Gram
d. Pound

33. 1 gallon is equal to:

a. 160 fluid ounces
b. 100 fluid ounces
c. 30 fl oz
d. 40 fl oz

34. 1 kilogram is equal to:

a. 2 pounds
b. 1.2 pounds
c. 10 pounds
d. 2.2 pounds

35. 5 pints is equal to:

a. 1800 mL
b. 3000 mL
c. 1000 mL
d. 1500 mL
36. 1 fl ounce is same as:
a. 20 mL
b. 60 mL
c. 30 mL
d. 100 mL

37. Quantity of sodium chloride required to make 1 liter of normal saline is

a. 9 grams
b. 0.9 grams
c. 900 grams
d. 90 grams

38. Quantity of adrenaline present in 100 ml. of 1 in 1000 solution is:

a. 1 gram
b. 0.1 gram
c. 10 grams
d. 100 grams

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

39. All these are disease modifying agents used in rheumatoid arthritis:
a. Aspirin, gold, methotrexate
B. Gold, chloroquine, cyclophosphamide
C. Ibuprofen, methotrexate, sulphasalazine
D. prednisolone, paracetamol, indomethacin

40. This drug used in gout inhibits the synthesis of uric acid:
a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine
c. Probenecid
d. Sulfinpyrazone

41. Colchicine is useful in the treatment of:

a. Gouty arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

42. Haloperidol is an:

a. Antipsychotic
b. Antiseptic
c. Antidepressant
d. Antiarrhythmic
43. The following is an example of a neuroleptic:
a. Fluoxetine
b. Droperidol
c. Imipramine
d. Citalopram

44. Buspirone is:

a. A CNS stimulant
b. An analgesic
c. An antianxiety agent
d. An antiepileptic

45. The following is an atypical antipsychotic:

a. Risperidone
b. Fluoxetine
c. Trazodone
d. Venlafaxine

6. The following is an atypical anti-depressant:

a. Chlorpromazine
b. Olanzapine
c. Trifluperidol
d. Trazodone

47. The following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI):

a. Imipramine
b. Fluoxetine
c. Trazodone
d. Phenelzine

48. Olanzapine is an
a. Antidepressant
b. Antianxiety agent
c. Antipsychotic
d. Antiamebic

49. Risperidone is an:

a. Atypical neuroleptic
b. Anxiolytic
c. Antidepressant
d. Antiepileptic
50. Extrapyramidal symptoms can be produced by:
a. Haloperidol
b. Olanzapine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. All of these

51. The following is/are true about lithium:

a. Is used in bipolar mood disorder
b. Is a drug with low safety margin
c. Is also useful in mania
d. All of the above

52. The following is/are true about carbam- azepine:

a. Is an antihypertensive
b. Is an antiepileptic and a mood stabilizer
c. Is an antibiotic
d. Is an antiparkinsonian agent

53. Diazepam has the following therapeutic actions:

a. Antianxiety, hypnotic, muscle relaxant
b. Antipsychotic, hypnotic, CNS stimulant
c. Anticonvulsant, antiarrhythmic, anti- depressant
d. Antipsychotic, analgesic, antiparkin- sonian

ANALGESICS

54. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because it causes:

a. Increased intracranial tension
b. Respiratory depression
c. Vomiting, miosis and mental clouding
d. All of the above

55. The following are synthetic opioids:

a. Morphine, Pethidine
b. Pethidine, Methadone
c. Codeine, Pethidine
d. Papaverine, Noscapine

56. Opioids can produce:

a. Sedation, euphoria and respiratory depression
b. Euphoria, diarrhea and CNS stimulation
c. Vomiting, respiratory stimulation and fever
d. Cough, vomiting and diarrhea
57. Fentanyl is:
a. A synthetic opioid
b. A benzodiazepine antagonist
c. A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
d. An antiepileptic

58. The following is/are true about piroxicam:

a. Is long acting
b. Less ulcerogenic
c. Good analgesic, anti-inflammatory agent
d. All of the above

59. The following is a selective COX-2 inhibitor:

a. Aspirin
b. Celecoxib
c. Indomethacin
d. Paracetamol

60. Methadone is used in the management of morphine addiction because:

a. It is orally effective and longer acting
b. Faster and shorter acting
c. Blocks the opioid receptors
d. It causes euphoria

61. The following is true about paracetamol:

a. A good anti-inflammatory agent
b. A good uricosuric
c. A good analgesic and antipyretic
d. A selective COX-2 inhibitor

62. Pethidine differs from morphine by being:

a. More potent and less addicting
b. More constipating and good antitussive
c. Less constipating and poor antitussive
d. Longer acting

63. Ibuprofen is:

a. Indole acetic acid derivative
b. Propionic acid derivative
c. Anthranilic acid derivative
d. Pyrazolon derivative
CHEMOTHERAPY

64. The following are narrow spectrum anti- biotics:

a. Penicillins and tetracyclines
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Pencillin G and aminoglycosides
d. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines

65. The following are ways by which transfer of resistance takes place:
a. Conjugation
b. Transduction
c. Transformation
d. All of them

66. Suprainfection is more likely to develop following the use of:

a. Narrow spectrum antibiotics
b. Broad spectrum antibiotics
c. All antibiotics
d. Very short course of antibiotics

67. Drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis:

a. Tetracyclines
b. Sulfonamides
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Penicillins

68. Cotrimoxazole is a combination of:

a. Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
b. Trimethoprim + dapsone
c. Trimethoprim + sulfadiazine
d. Trimethoprim + sulfadoxine

69. A pregnant lady complains of nonspecific urethritis. The doctor prescribed her certain
drugs. Later the child was born and when its teeth erupted, it was observed that milk teeth
were affected, they had brownish discoloration and the teeth were ill formed. The drug given
during pregnancy is likely to be:

a. Aminopenicillin
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Tetracyclines
d. Erythromycin
70. The following is an example where a combination of antibiotics is used to obtain
synergistic effect
a. Penicillin and gentamicin in bacterial endocarditis
b. Carbenicillin and gentamicin in pseudomonas infections
c. Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid in hospital acquired infections
d. All of these

71. The following are topical sulfonamides:

a. Sulfacetamide and mefenide
b. Sulfadoxine and sulfamethoxazole
c. Sulfasalazine and sulfadoxine
d. None of these

72. Cotrimoxazole has trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in the following ratio:

a. 1:20
b. 1:5
c. 1:8
d. 1:4

73. The following is generally the drug of first choice in typhoid:

a. Amoxicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Ciprofloxacin

74. Damage to growing cartilage and tendinitis can be caused by

a. Penicillin G
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Erythromycin

75. The following is/are B-lactam antibiotic

a. Cephalexin
b. Imipenem
c. Aztreonam
d. All of these

76. The following is a carbapenem

a. Carbenicillin
b. Meropenem
c. Aztreonam
d. Cilastatin
77. Imipenem, meropenem and ertapenem are:
a. Carbapenems
b. Monobactams
c. Carboxypenicillins
d. Fluoroquinolones

78. The following is an antibiotic:

a. Trimethoprim
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Sulfamethoxazole

79. The following is a first generation cephalosporin:

a. Cefotaxime
b. Cefepime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Cephalexin

80. The following is a third generation cephalosporin:

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefazolin
c. Cefaclor
d. Cefoxitin

81. The following is contraindicated in children below 8 years of age:

a. Tetracyclines
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. Gentamicin

82 Gray Baby syndrome can be produced by

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Gentamicin
c. Doxycycline
d. Azithromycin

83. The drug which is lonized, not absorbed orally, excreted unchanged in the urine and
needs parenteral administration is:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Streptomycin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Erythromycin
84. The following is an aminoglycoside
a. Azithromycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Doxycycline
d. Erythromycin

85. Toxicity, such as ototoxicity, nephro toxicity and neuromuscular blockade can result from
the use of
a. Sulfonamides
b. Cephalosporins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Macrolides

86. The following is a macrolide antibiotic

a. Streptomycin
b. Tobramycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Clarithromycin

87. In rickettsial infections the following is the drug of choice:

a. Penicillin
b. Tetracyclines
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Ciprofloxacin

88. The following antibiotics acts/act by inhibiting protein synthesis:

a. Erythromycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. All of these

89. Which one of the following is a newer macrolide:

a. Clarithromycin
b. Amikacin
c. Netilmycin
d. Clindamycin
d. Clindamycin

90. The following are both bacteriostatic

a. Sulfadoxine, doxycycline
b. Amoxicillin, streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol, ampicillin
d. Erythromycin, gentamicin
91. The first line antitubercular drug is:
a. Ethambutol
b. Ethionamide
c. Amikacin
d. Thiacetazone

92. The drug which acts on slowly dividing bacilli or persisters is:
a. INH
b.Ethambutol
c. Rifampicin
d. Streptomycin

93. The drug used for both intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is:
a. Chloroquine
b. Diloxanide furoate
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracyclines

94. The following drug is used in malaria:

a. Metronidazole
b. Clotrimazole
c. Chloroquine
d. Mebendazole

95. The first line drugs in tuberculosis are:

a. Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid, dapsone, thiacetazone c. Isoniazid, ethionamide, amikacin
d. Cycloserine, isoniazid, para-amino- salicylic acid (PAS)

96. The following drugs are used in leprosy:

a. Rifampicin and dapsone
b. Pyrazinamide and chloroquine
c. Cotrimoxazole and metronidazole
d. Penicillin and isoniazid

97. The following is used in roundworm infestation:

a. Metronidazole
b. Albendazole
c. Clotrimazole
d. Fluconazole
98. Albendazole is used in the treatment of 1 infestation with:
a. Roundworm
b. Hookworm
c. Pinworm
d. All of these

99. The most useful drug in amebic dysentry is:

a. Albendazole
b. Metronidazole
c. Miconazole
d. Clotrimazole

100. This anthelmintic acts probably by blocking glucose uptake in the parasite, depleting its
glycogen stores and by binding to the ẞ tubulin to inhibit its polymerization:
a. Diethyl carbamazine
b. Mebendazole
c. Niclosamide
d. Praziquantel

101. The drug of choice in filariasis is:

a. Mebendazol
b. Albendazole
c. Diethyl carbamazine citrate
d. Piperazine

102. The drug which inhibits the bacterial DNA gyrase is:
a. Doxycycline
b. Bacitracin
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Ciprofloxacin

103. The following is an extended spectrum penicillin:

a. Piperacillin
b. Clavulanic acid
c. Methicillin
d. Penicillin V

104. The drug which inhibits tetrahydrofolate synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase:
a. Trimethaprim
b. Tetracyclines
c. Streptomycin
d. Rifampicin
105. A patient was on an antitubercular regimen. He consults a physician and complains of
loss of visual acuity and impaired color vision. The drug responsible for this adverse effect
could be:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. INH
d. Streptomycin

106. A child on antitubercular regimen devel- oped deafness. The drug given to her is likely
to be:
a. INH
b. Rifampicin
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide

107. Which one of the antifungal agent has been known to cause gyneco- mastia, infertility,
decreased androgen production and reduced libido:
a. Ketoconazole
b. Griseofulvin
c. Terbinafine
d. Flucytosine

108. An antitubercular drug which is responsible for peripheral neuritis and is treated with
pyridoxine is one of the following:
a. Rifampin
b. Isoniazid
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin

109. The drug which inhibits protein synthesis:

a. Tetracyclines
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. All of the above

110. The drug which can cause dangerous bone marrow depression is one of the following:
a. Sulfonamides
b. Penicillins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Chloramphenicol

111. Mebendazole is used in:

a. Amebiasis
b. Giardiasis
c. Filariasis
d. Pinworm

112. Tapeworm infestation can be treated with:

a. Niclosamide
b. Praziquantel
c. Albendazole
d. All of these

113. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are the most common adverse effects of all:
a. Cephalosporins
b. Macrolides
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Tetracyclines

114. Acyclovir is used in:

a. Bacterial endocarditis
b. Herpes simplex infections
c. Influenza
d. Staphylococcal infections

115. The following is the most useful in the treatment of HIV infection:
a. Amantadine
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovudine
d. Vidarabine

116. The following are azole antifungal drugs:

a. Cotrimoxazole, metronidazole
b. Clotrimazole, miconazole
c. Secnidazole, tinidazole
d. Mebendazole, thiabendazole

117. Fluconazole is an
a. Antifungal drug
b. Antibiotic
c. Antitubercular drug
d. Antiamebic drug

118. Chloroquine is used in the treatment of:

a. Malaria
b. Amebiasis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. All of these
119. The following drug is used in malaria:
a. Mebendazole
b. Mefloquine
c. Metronidazole
d. Methotrexate

120. The following is an alkylating agent:

a. Etoposide
b. Vincristine
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Methotrexate

121. Bone marrow depression may be produced by:

a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Methotrexate
c. Daunorubicin
d. All of the above

122. The common adverse effects of most anticancer drugs are:

a. Vomiting, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
b. Vomiting, alopecia, bone marrow depression
c. Nausea, renal failure, cerebral edema
d. Vomiting, weight gain, psychosis

123. Methotrexate is used in:

a. Choriocarcinoma
b. Acute leukemia
c. Breast cancer
d. All of these

124. The following drug is used in the treatment of cancers:

a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Carbamazepine
c. Captopril
d. Cyclopropane

125. Formaldehyde:
a. Has a pungent odor
b. Is a gas at room temperature
c. Is a carcinogen
d. All of the above are true
126. Which of the following is a surfactant?
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Sodium lauryl sulfate
c. Chlorhexidine
d. Benzoyl peroxide

127. Hydrogen peroxide is:

a. A halogen
b. An aldehyde
c. An oxidizing agent
d. A dye

128. Cetrimide and benzalkonium chloride are:

a. Surfactants
b. Oxidizing agents
c. Aldehydes
d. Dyes.

129. Cresol, lysol, and chloroxylenol are:

a. Halogens
b. Phenols
c. Acids
d. Aldehydes.

HORMONES

130.Carbimazole is:
a. An antithyroid drug
b. An antifungal drug
c. An antihelminthic drug
d. An antiamebic drug

131. Which of these is a long acting insulin?

a. Regular insulin
b. Lente insulin
c. Ultra Lente insulin
d. Semilente insulin.

132. Which of these is a sulfonylurea derivative used in diabetes mellitus?

a. Glipizide
c. Troglitazone
b. Phenformin
d. Glargine.
133. Norplant, a hormonal contraceptive is:
a. A combined pill
b. Mini pill
c. Intramuscular injection
d. Subcutaneous implant.

134. Nandrolone decanoate is:

a. An anabolic steroid
b. An antiestrogen
c. An antiprogestin
d. An oral contraceptive.

135. Which of these is an insulin analog?

a. Insulin Lispro
b. Isophane insulin
c. Regular insulin
d. None of the above.

136. Which of these has selective glucocorticoid actions without mineralocorticoid activity?
a. Prednisolone
c. Hydrocortisone
b. Dexamethasone
d. Fludrocortisone.

137. Bisphosphonates can be used in:

a. Paget's disease of the bone
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
d. All of the above.

138. Bone resorption can be prevented by:

a. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
b. Estrogens
d. All of the above.

139. Which of these is not an inhalational glucocorticoid?

a. Beclomethasone
c. Budesonide
b. Prednisolone
d. Fluticasone.
140. The following are used as postcoital contraceptives except:
a. Minipill
c. Mifepristone
b. Diethyl stilbestrol
d. Combined pill.

141. Centchroman (SAHELI) is:

a. A nonsteroidal contraceptive
b. Developed by CDRI Lucknow
c. Long acting
d. All of the above.

142. Mifepristone is:

a. Progesterone antagonist
b. Estrogen antagonist
c. Androgen antagonist
d. Prolactin releasing factor.

143. The following is a short-acting glucocorticoid:

a. Paramethasone
b. Dexamethasone
c. Betamethasone
d. Hydrocortisone

TREATMENT OF POISONING

144. Vomiting should not be induced in the treatment of:

a. Poisoning with corrosives
b. Warfarin poisoning
c. Atropine poisoning
d. Paracetamol poisoning.

145. 'Coma cocktail used in comatose patients consists of:

a. Promethazine + pethidine + chlorpromazine
b. Naloxone + thiamine + dextrose
c. Thiamine + riboflavine + ascorbic acid
d. Ethyl alcohol + naloxone + paracetamol.

146. The antidote in morphine overdosage is:

a. Naloxone
b. Nalbuphine
c. Buprenorphine
d. Pentazocine.
147. The following is/are true about stomach wash:
a. Should be done in a conscious patient
b. Warm water or saline should be used
c. The patient is put in left lateral position
d. All of the above.

148. Stomach wash is contraindicated in:

a. Poisoning with corrosives
b. Poisoning with petroleum products
c. Foreign body ingestion
d.All of the above

149. The following is true about activated charcoal:

a. Can adsorb poisons on to its surface
b. Chemically reacts with poisons
c. Can destroy all poisons
d. None of the above.

150. The antagonist used in Benzodiazepine overdosage is:

a. Naloxone
c. Flumazenil
b. Fentanyl
d. Fluoxetine.

151. The following drug is used in the treatment of organophosphorous poisoning:

a. Pilocarpine
c. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
d. Edrophonium.

152. Atropine poisoning is treated with:

a. Oximes
c. Hyoscine
b. Physostigmine
d. Adrenaline.

153. The preferred antidote in copper poisoning is:

a. Dimercaprol
b. Penicillin
c. Desferrioxamine
d. d-penicillamine.
154. The drug of choice in insulin overdosage is:
a. Glucagon
b. Adrenaline
c. Glucose
d. Tolbutamide.

155. The drug of choice in arsenic poisoning is:

a. Dimercaprol
b. d-penicillamine
c. Desferrioxamine
d. N-acetylcystiene.

156. The antidote of choice in lead poisoning is:

a. Dimercaprol
b. Calcium disodium edetate
c. Desferrioxamine
d. d-penicillamine.

157. The antidote in atropine poisoning is:

a. Penicillamine
c. Physostigmine
b. Pralidoxime
d. Naloxone.

158. The preferred antidote in methanol poisoning is:

a. Ethanol
c. Fomepizole
b. Oxygen
d. Flumazenil.

159. The antidote in warfarin overdosage is:

a. Vitamin C
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K, oxide
MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS

Enzymes

160. Hyaluronidase is a:
a. Mammalian enzyme
b. Bacterial enzyme
c. Plant enzyme
d. Viral enzyme.

161. The following is/are true of trypsin:

a. Is a proteolytic enzyme
b. Digests dead tissue
c. May be used topically or intramuscularly
d. All of the above.

162. Serratiopeptidase is obtained from:

a. Streptococci
b. Serratia species
c. Staphylococci
d. Clotsidium histolyticum.

163. The following are all mammalian enzymes:

a. Chymotrypsin, hyaluronidase, pancreatic dornase
b. Streptokinase, hyaluronidase, papain
c. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, papain
d. Collagenase, trypsin, chymotrypsin.

164. Active immunization is administration of:

a. Antigen to the host
b. Antibodies to the host
c. Both antigen and antibodies
d. Antitoxic sera to the host.

165. DPT vaccine should be given:

a. At birth
b. On exposure to the diseases
c. At 6, 10, and 14 weeks of age
d. Between 12-15 months.
166. The following vaccine is given intradermally:
a. Cholera
b. BCG
c. Typhoid
d. Hepatitis A.

167. Rabies immunoglobulin is indicated in:

a. All people having a dog at home
b. Postexposure prophylaxis along with rabies vaccine
c. In dog bite cases instead of rabies vaccine
d. None of the above.

168. Booster dose of DPT vaccine is given at:

a. 18 weeks
b. 12 months
c. 18 months and at 4-6 years
d. Every 4 months.

169. Which of the following is true of polio vaccine (OPV):

a. It is a live viral vaccine given orally
b. It is a bacterial vaccine given orally
c. It is a killed viral vaccine given orally
d. It is a live viral vaccine used only for post exposure prophylaxis.

Vitamins

170. The following statement about vitamin A is correct:

a. It is a water soluble vitamin
b. Gooseberry is rich in vitamin A
c. Deficiency results in night blindness and rough skin
d. Deficiency results in megaloblastic anemia.

171. Retinoic acid used in acne (pimples) is a form of:

a. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E.

172. Megaloblastic anemia results from deficiency of:

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B12 and Folic acid
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E.

173. Rice polishing is rich in:

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B₁
d. Vitamin D.

174. Pellagra is due to deficiency of:

a. Biotin
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Folic acid
d. Niacin

175. Beriberi results from deficiency of:

a. Riboflavin
b. Niacin
c. Thiamine
d. Pyridoxine.

176. Rickets is due to deficiency of:

a. Vitamin D
b. Retinoic acid
c. Alpha tocopherol
d. Riboflavin.

177. Vitamin B12 is also called:

a. Niacin
b. Biotin
c. Cyanocobalamin
d. Aneurine.

178. Hypervitaminosis due to excess storage can result C due to administration of the
following:
a. Vitamin C
c. Folic acid
b. Vitamin A
d. Riboflavin.

179. Excess administration of the following vitamin is a waste because it is not stored in the
body and gets excreted.
a. Vitamin B complex
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin K
Minerals

180. Tender coconut water is rich in this mineral:

a. Calcium
C. Potassium
b. Iron
d. Magnesium.

181. The following minerals are absolutely essential for the formation of bones and teeth:
a. Calcium and phosphorus
b. Sodium and iron
c. Potassium and iron
d. Manganese and magnesium

182. The chief cation in the cell is:

a. Magnesiune
c. Sodium
b. Potassium
d Calcium.

183. Milk is a very poor source of:

a. Calciumb
b.. Zinc
c. Iron
d. Phosphorus.

184. The following is injected deep IM by 'Z' technique:

a. Calcium
c. Vitamin C
b. Zinc
d. Iron.

185. The following preparation of iron can be given both IM and IV:
a. Iron sorbital citric acid
b. Iron Dextran
c. Ferrous gluconate
d. Iron carbohydrate complex.

OTHER COMMON DRUGS

186. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is:
a. Acetylcholine
c. Physostigmine
b. Adrenaline
d. Atropine.

187. The following drugs are useful in the treatment of peptic ulcer:
a. Ranitidine and paracetamol
b. Ranitidine and omeprazole
c. Omeprazole and ibuprofen
d. Prednisolone and phenylbutazone.

188. Sucralfate is:

a. An ulcer protective agent
b. An antacid
c. A H₂ receptor blocker
d. A proton pump inhibitor.

189. Loperamide is useful in the treatment of:

a. Vomiting
c. Headache
d. Diarrhea.
b. Peptic ulcer
b. Magnesium sulfate

190. The following is a bulk laxative:

a. Ispagula
b. Magnesium sulphate
c. Liquid paraffin
d. Castor oil.

191. Salbutamol (Asthalin) and Terbutaline used in bronchial asthma are:

a. Mast cell stabilizers
b. B₂ adrenergic agonists
c. Anticholinergic drugs
d. Steroids.

192. The main adverse effects of salbutamol are:

a. Bradycardia and heart block
b. Palpitation and muscle tremors
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Diarrhea and hypotension.

193. The following is a cough suppressant acting on the CNS:

a. Codeine
b. Bromhexine
c. Potassium iodine
d. Cough drops.

194. The only type of cough that should be suppressed with an antitussive is:
a. Productive cough
b. Cough due to infection
c. Dry irritant cough
d. Cough in tuberculosis.

195. The anticoagulant that should be given only SC/ IV is:

a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Nicoumalone C
d. Phenindione

196. The following is true of warfarin:

a. The action is antagonized by protamine sulfate
b. The duration of action is a few minutes
c. It acts immediately
d. It is an oral anticoagulant.

197. Frusemide (LASIX) is the preferred diuretic in the treatment of:

a. Forced diuresis in poisoning
b. Acute pulmonary edema
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. All of the above

198. The following drug is used in acute angina pectoris

a. Adrenaline
b. Nitroglycerine
c. Atropine
d. Salbutamol

199. Digoxin ( cardiac glycoside) is used in

a. Congestive cardiac failure
b. Angina pectoris
c. Hypertension
d. Shock

200. Enalapril is used in the treatment of

a. Congestive cardiac failure
b. Hypertension
c. Myocardial infarction
d. All of the above
ANSWERS

1. a
2. d
3. d
4. b
5. d
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. d
10. a

11. b
12. c
13. c
14. b
15. d
16. d
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. d

21. b
22. d
23. a
24. a
25. c
26. b
27. d
28. d
29. a
30. b

31. c
32. d
33. a
34. d
35. b
36. c
37. a
38. b
39. b
40. a

41. a
42. a
43. b
44. c
45. a
46. d
47. b
48. c
49. a
50. d

51. d
52. b
53. a
54. d
55. b
56. a
57. a
58. d
59. b
60. a

61. c
62. c
63. b
64. c
65. d
66. b
67. d
68. a
69. c
70. d

71. a
72. b
73. d
74. b
75. d
76. b
77. a
78. c
 79. d
80. a

81. a
82. a
83. b
84. b
85. c
86. d
87. b
88. d
89. a
90. a

91. a
92. c
93. c
94. c
95. a
96. a
97. b
98. d
99. b
100. b
101. c
102. d
103. a
104. a
105. b
106. c
107. a
108. b
109. d
110. d
111. d
112. d
113. c
114. b
115. c
116. b
117. a
118. d
119. d
120. c
121. d
122. b
123. d
124. a
125. d
126. b
127. c
128. a
129. b
130. a
131. c
132. a
133. d
134. a
135. a
136. b
137. d
138. d
139. b
140. a
141. d
142. a
143. d
144. a
145. b
146. a
147. d
148. d
149. a
150. c
151. c
152. b
153. d
154. c
155. a
156. b
157. c
158. c
159. d
160. a
161. d
162. b
163. a
164. a
165. c
166. b
167. b
168. c
169. a
170. c
171. c
172. b
173. b
174. d
175. c
176. a
177. c
178. b
179. a