geogr

Chp 8
Choose the correct option
Question 1
Which of the following constituents add fertility to the soil?
Silica
Humus
Clay
Sand
Answer
Humus
Question 2
Which of the following are the characteristics of fertile soil?
Adequate amount of moisture
Rich in nutrients
Organic matter
All of the above.
Answer
All of the above
Question 3
Which of the following is a transported or ex situ soil?
Alluvial soil
Laterite soil
Red soil
Black soil.
Answer
Alluvial soil
Question 4
Which of the following soils vary from place to place on the basis of the parental rocks and climatic
conditions?
Black soil
Laterite soil
Alluvial soil
Red soil.
Answer
Red soil
Question 5
Farmers plant trees in several rows to check soil erosion by ............... .
floods
winds
drought
heavy rains
Answer
winds
Question 6
Alluvial soil is rich in which of the following minerals?
Iron
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
None of the above.
Answer
Iron
Question 7
Red soil gets its name from ................ .
its colour
its ferric oxide content
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above.
Answer
Both (a) and (b)
Question 8
Black soil is also known as ................ .
Bhangar
Khadar
Regur
Leached
Answer
Regur
Question 9
Laterite soil is mainly found in the highland areas of ............... .

the Himalayas
the Peninsular Plateau
the Aravali Range
the Karakoram Range
Answer
the Peninsular Plateau
Question 10
Why is Black soil highly moisture retentive?
It has fifty per cent of clay content
It is formed of weathered lava rocks
It has high quantities of lime and iron
All of the above.
Answer
It has fifty per cent of clay content
Question 11
Which of the following soils forms the second largest soil group in India?
Black soil
Red soil
Yellow soil
Brown soil
Answer
Red soil
Question 12
Why is the Red soil considered ideal for dry farming?
It is formed in areas with poor rainfall and responds to fertilizers.
It is red in colour.
It is rich in iron oxide.
It is rich in nitrogen.
Answer
It is formed in areas with poor rainfall and responds to fertilizers.
Question 13
Which of the following is correct about the Laterite soil?
It is the residual soil.
It is formed by leaching due to tropical rains.
Humus content of the soil is removed by bacteria.
All of the above.
Answer
All of the above
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is the soil? Name the four types of soil.
Answer
Soil is the thin mixture of small rock particles and rotting organic matter that covers the surface of
the earth. The four types of soil are-
Alluvial soil
Black soil
Red soil
Laterite soil
Question 1(b)
State any two factors responsible for the formation of soil.
Answer
Two factors responsible for the formation of soil are —
Weathering
Erosion
Question 1(c)
Give a geographical reason for each of the following:
(i) The colour of alluvium soil varies in different areas.
(ii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar soil.
(iii) Black soil has a kind of self-ploughing characteristic.
Answer
(i) The colour of alluvium soil varies in different areas because its shades depend on the depth of
deposition, the texture of the materials and the time taken for maturity.
(ii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar soil as new layers are deposited year after year during
monsoon floods.
(iii) Black soil has a kind of self-ploughing characteristic because during dry season, it shrinks and
develops big cracks which help in air circulation. This characteristic causes a kind of self-ploughing.
Question 1(d)
(i) How can you say that soil has evolved over millions of years?
(ii) Name one important constituent of soil that adds fertility to the soil.
Answer
(i) Soil changes with age - As a soil ages, it gradually starts to look different from its parent material.
That is because soil is dynamic. Its components—minerals, water, air, organic matter, and organisms
—constantly change.
(ii) One important constituent of soil that adds fertility to the soil is humus.
Question 2(a)
How are alluvial soils formed?
Answer
Alluvial soil is formed by the sediments brought down by rivers. The rivers deposit very fine particles
of soil called alluvium in their plains during the course of their long journey. The resultant alluvial soil
is known as riverine soil.
Question 2(b)
Mention any two advantages of alluvial soil.
Answer
Two advantages of alluvial soil are-
It is light and porous. So, it is easily tillable.
It is suitable for the growth of a large variety of rabi and kharif crops.
Question 2(c)
(i) Different regions in India have different kinds of soil for agriculture.
(ii) Alluvial soils vary in texture.
(iii) Nearly all types of crops grow well in riverine soils.
Answer
(i) Different regions in India have different kinds of soil for agriculture because India is a vast region
with varied natural environment. Several physiographic regions and different types of climate lead to
the formation of different types of soil in different regions.
(ii) Alluvial soils vary in texture as in the upper reaches of the river valleys, the soil is dry, coarse,
porous and sandy. Soil particles are large and non-uniform but as we move further down a river
valley, the soil particles become smaller and more uniform. They are more compact and more moist.
(iii) Nearly all types of crops grow well in riverine soils because alluvial soil is a mixture of sand, clay
and silt. It is rich in mineral and easily tillable. Its composition makes it suitable for the growth of a
variety of crops.
Question 2(d)
(i) Why is soil a valuable resource for India?
(ii) Why is black soil considered a productive soil?
Answer
(i) Soil is a valuable resource for India because agriculture is the main occupation in India. Soil
supports agriculture and it is the source of nutrients for many forms of life.
(ii) Black soil is considered a productive soil because it has high moisture retention capacity and more
clay content which responds well to irrigation. It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton, jowar,
wheat, linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugarcane.
Question 3(a)
Give two characteristic features of the soil found most suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in
Maharashtra.
Answer
Black soil is suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra. Its characteristics are-
It is black in colour.
It has high quantities of lime, iron, magnesium and generally poor percentage of phosphorus,
nitrogen and organic matter.
Question 3(b)
Name one soil of volcanic origin commonly found in India. Name one crop widely grown on this soil.
Answer
One soil of volcanic origin commonly found in India is black soil. Cotton is widely grown on this soil.
Question 3(c)
(i) Deltaic alluvium is more fertile than the coastal alluvium.
(ii) Black soil is largely found in the Deccan Trap region.
(iii) Black soil is often referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil.
Answer
(i) Deltaic alluvium is more fertile than coastal alluvium as new layers are deposited year after year
during monsoonal floods. Also, deltaic alluvium is composed of fine silt and clay whereas coastal
alluvium is full of lime nodules.
(ii) Black soil is found in the Deccan trap region because this region is formed due to the deposition
of lava produced by the volcanic eruption. When lava rocks breaks down into finer particles due to
weathering, it results in the formation of the black soil.
(iii) Black soil is often referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil because it is black in colour and is
suitable for cotton cultivation.
Question 3(d)
(i) Name the process by which Laterite soil is formed.
(ii) Mention one disadvantage of Laterite soil.
Answer
(i) Laterite soil is formed as a result of atmospheric weathering of rocks under the conditions of high
rainfall and temperature with alternate wet and dry periods. It is the residual soil formed by leaching
due to tropical rains.
(ii) One disadvantage of Laterite soil is that it does not retain moisture and hence, is infertile.
Question 4(a)
State the two sub-categories into which alluvial soil is generally divided. Which one of them is
superior to the other? Why?
Answer
Two sub-categories into which alluvial soil is generally divided are khadar and bhangar.
Khadar is superior to bhangar because it is more fertile as new layers are deposited year after year
during monsoon floods.
Question 4(b)
What are the characteristics of alluvial soil?
Answer
The characteristics of alluvial soil are:
Colour — The colour of alluvial soil varies from light grey to deep black.
Texture — In the upper reaches of the valleys, the soil is dry, coarse, porous and sandy with large and
non-unifrom soil particles. In the lower reaches of the river valley, the soil particles become smaller
and more uniform and more moist.
Minerals — It varies in nature from sandy loam to clay. It is fertile with minerals like iron, magnesia,
alumina, potash and lime but poor in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter.
Question 4(c)
(i) Laterite soil is useful for construction purpose.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are affected by wind erosion.
(iii) The foothills of the Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion.
Answer
(i) Laterite soils are used as a building material because they become hard like iron when exposed to
air. So, they are used as a building material. Laterite soils are red in color due to the presence of iron
oxide. These soils are generally coarse in texture and friable and porous in nature.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are affected by wind erosion because a large chunk of Western zone is
arid or semi-arid and wind erosion is a result of extreme form of soil degradation due to aridity.
(iii) The foothills of the Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion because the vegetation over
there is very less. There are not many plant or tree roots to hold the soil in place, which makes the
foothills of the Himalayas prone to excessive soil erosion.
Question 4(d)
(i) Which soil is suitable for growing coffee in Karnataka?
(ii) Mention two main characteristics of this soil.
Answer
(i) Laterite soil is suitable for growing coffee in Karnataka.
(ii) Two main characteristics of this soil are-
It is red in colour due to the presence of iron oxide.
It is of a coarse texture, soft and friable.
Question 5(a)
Name two States in India where Regur soil is found.
Answer
Regur soil is found in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
Question 5(b)
Give two points of difference between Regur and Alluvial soil.
Answer
Regur soil Alluvial soil
It is formed by the weathering of lava rocks. It is formed by deposition of sediments by rivers.

It is of black colour. Its colour varies from light grey to deep black.
Question 5(c)
(i) Jowar is grown in Maharashtra.
(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan.
(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh.
Answer
(i) Jowar is grown in Maharashtra because of the black regur soil which is rich in lime, potash-
magnesium, carbonates, allumina and calcium.
(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan because of the sandy soil found in this region. It is rich in soluble salts.
(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh because the climatic conditions and presence of alluvial soil
support the cultivation of sugarcane.
Question 5(d)
(i) Besides cotton, name the crops which grow well in Regur soil.
(ii) In what way does Regur soil help agriculture?
Answer
(i) Besides cotton, jowar, wheat, linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugarcane
grow well in Regur soil.
(ii) Regur soil helps agriculture as it is very fertile. In any season, it has moisture stored in its subsoil.
This allows dry farming as well. In dry season, it forms big cracks which help in air circulation, and
causes a kind of self ploughing.
Question 6(a)
Name two states where red soil is found. Mention two important crops grown in this soil.
Answer
Two states where red soil is found are Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Two important crops grown in this
soil are rice and tobacco.
Question 6(b)
State two advantages of this type of soil.
Answer
Two advantages of this type of soil are-
It is porous, loose and aerated.
It is ideal for dry farming.
Question 6(c)
(i) Black soil is also called lava soil.
(ii) Red soil is red in colour and its colour varies from yellow to brown.
(iii) Jute is cultivated in West Bengal.
Answer
(i) Black soil is also called lava soil because it is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks.
(ii) Red soil is red in colour as it contains large amounts f iron oxide. At several places, its colour
changes and it appears brown or grey. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
(iii) Jute is cultivated in West Bengal because the alluvial soil found in West Bengal is very fertile and
supports jute cultivation.
Question 6(d)
(i) How is red soil formed?
(ii) How is this soil suitable for dry farming?
Answer
(i) Red soil develops on old crystalline rocks. Under prolonged weathering by rainfall, ancient
crystalline and metamorphic rocks of the peninsular plateau break up to form this soil.
(ii) This soil suitable for dry farming as it is formed in areas with poor rainfall.
Question 7(a)
What is soil erosion? Name the areas of soil erosion in India-
(i) for wind erosion
(ii) for running water erosion
Answer
The removal of the top soil cover by water, wind and human activities is called soil erosion.
(i) Wind erosion affects the dry areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana
(ii) Running water erosion affects the badlands of Chambal and Yamuna river, the piedmont zone of
western Himalayas, the Chotanagpur plateau, the Tapi-Sabarmati valley and the regur soil area of
Maharashtra.
Question 7(b)
Give two methods used to prevent soil erosion.
Answer
Two methods used to prevent soil erosion are-
Terrace farming
Shelter belts
Question 7(c)
(i) Shelter belts reduce soil erosion in arid areas.
(ii) Rural development will influence soil conservation.
(iii) Water harvesting aids in soil conservation.
Answer
(i) Shelter belts reduce soil erosion in arid areas because planting trees in several rows checks wind
erosion.
(ii) Rural development will influence soil conservation as in the programmes of rural development,
villagers are provided with the techniques of how to improve vegetative cover and the steps required
to be taken for preventing soil erosion. The farmers are briefed about the farming methods (such as
strip cropping and shelter belts) to be followed to reduce soil erosion.
(iii) Water harvesting aids in soil conservation as it reduces soil erosion and flood hazards by
collecting rainwater and reducing the flow of water which causes the removal of fertile top soil.
Question 7(d)
(i) What is meant by soil conservation?
(ii) State two measures to conserve soil in hilly areas.
Answer
(i) Soil conservation means prevention of soil loss from erosion or prevention of reduced fertility of
soil caused by over-use, acidification, salinisation or other types of soil contamination.
(ii) Two measures to conserve soil in hilly areas are-
1. Terrace farming- Terraces act as bunds and prevent soil erosion by running water.
2. Contour Ploughing- Ploughing along contours on a slope prevents soil erosion by running water.
Question 8(a)
How does deforestation lead to soil erosion?
Answer
Deforestation exposes the soil to water and wind, which leads to soil erosion.
Question 8(b)
State two methods of controlling erosion of soil caused by running water.
Answer
Two methods of controlling erosion of soil caused by running water are construction of dams and
plugging gullies.
Question 8(c)
Name two important agents of erosion. For each, state one method of controlling the erosion
caused.
Answer
Two important agents of erosion are water and wind. Water erosion can be controlled by the
construction of dams. Wind erosion can be controlled by making shelter belts.
Question 8(d)
Explain briefly the need for conservation of soil as a natural resource.
Answer
There is an acute need for conservation of soil as a natural resource because of its adverse effects
which include the following-
Loss of fertile topsoil with its mineral content
Lowering of the water table
Drying of vegetation and extension of arid lands leading to an increase in the frequency of drought
and floods
Silting of river and canal beds
Recurrence of landslides
Adverse effect on economic prosperity and cultural development
Chp 9
Question 1
Which of the following is true about natural vegetation?

It refers to the plant community which has grown naturally.
It has not been disturbed over a long time.
It allows its individual species to adjust themselves to the climate and soil conditions.
All of the above.
Answer
All of the above
Question 2
Plants of a particular region or period, listed as species and considered as a group is called .................
.
Flora
Vegetation
Forest
All of the above.
Answer
Flora
Question 3
The assemblage of plant species living in association with each other in a given environmental set-up
is called ................. .
Forest
Vegetation
Flora
None of the above.
Answer
Vegetation
Question 4
What are the chief characteristics of Tropical Rain forests?
They appear green all the year round.
They have dense canopy of trees.
The trees do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves.
All of the above.
Answer
All of the above.
Question 5
Why are the Tropical Evergreen forests not fully exploited?
Because they do not shed their leaves and have dense canopy of trees.
Because they are found in highly inaccessible areas.
Because of tangled mass of canes, palms and bamboos.
Because they have dense undergrowth.
Answer
Because of tangled mass of canes, palms and bamboos.
Question 6
Tropical Deciduous forests are also known as ................... .
Rain forests
Monsoon forests
Tidal forests
None of the above
Answer
Monsoon forests
Question 7
Sandalwood belongs to ............... category of forests.
the Moist Deciduous forests
the Dry Deciduous forests
the Rain forests
the Mountain forests
Answer
the Moist Deciduous forests
Question 8
The type of vegetation found in Tropical Thorn forests is ................ .
Thyrophytic
Thornyphytic
Xerophytic
Phylophytic
Answer
Xerophytic
Question 9
At which of the following places Tidal forests are found?
Wet marshy areas
River deltas and along sea coasts
Swampy areas
All of the above
Answer
All of the above
Question 10
Why do Tidal forests have a profuse growth with tangle of climbers?
To adapt themselves to survive in soft and shifting mud in wet marshy areas and river deltas.
To breathe while being submerged under water through pores.
To adapt themselves to live in damp and moist conditions.
None of the above.
Answer
To adapt themselves to survive in soft and shifting mud in wet marshy areas and river deltas.
Question 11
Littoral forests have breathing roots called ................ .
Pneumatophores
Pinophores
Phytopores
None of the above.
Answer
Pneumatophores
Question 12
Mangrove trees are utilised for which purpose?
Timber
Fruit
Ornamental objects
Fuel
Answer
Fuel
Question 13
For which purpose are Sundari trees utilised?
Rearing shellac worms.
Furniture, railway carriages and bridges.
Hard durable timber for construction purposes and boat making.
None of the above.
Answer
Hard durable timber for construction purposes and boat making.
Question 14
Why do tropical deserts have stunted growth?
Due to high temperature these trees do not grow to great heights.
Due to scarcity of rain water the trees do not get enough water for their growth.
Due to long roots that reach deep underground and therefore do not attain height.
None of the above.
Answer
Due to scarcity of rain water the trees do not get enough water for their growth.
Question 1(a)
What is meant by natural vegetation?
Answer
Natural vegetation refers to the plant community which has grown naturally without any human
assistance and has not been disturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust
themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions.
Question 1(b)
Give two points of difference between vegetation and forests.
Answer
Vegetation Forests
Vegetation refers to the assemblage of plant species living in association with each other in a given
environmental set-up. Forest refers to a large tract of land covered with trees and accompanying
undergrowth of shrubs, herbs and sustaining thousands of life forms.
Vegetation includes only plant species. Forests sustain both plant and animals.
Question 1(c)
(i) The Western Ghats are covered with thick evergreen forests while the Eastern Ghats are coven by
deciduous forests.
(ii) Tropical evergreen forests have tall trees and appear green all the year round.
(iii) Deciduous forests are commercially most exploited.
Answer
(i) Evergreen forests are found in areas of high temperature, having high annual rainfall. Western
Ghats receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual temperature between
25°C and 27°C. Similarly, deciduous forests are found in areas with moderate rainfall and the eastern
ghats receive annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm with mean annual temperature range of
24°C and 27°C. Hence, the Western Ghats are covered with thick evergreen forests while the Eastern
Ghats are coven by deciduous forests.
(ii) Tropical evergreen forests have tall trees as this region remains warm and wet throughout the
year. Since the trees do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves, to flower or for fruition, the forest
appears green all the year round.
(iii) Deciduous forests are commercially most exploited because besides providing valuable timber,
they provide various other valuable products, like sandalwood, which are in great demand in India
and abroad. Moreover, they are less dense which makes transport between these forests and
markets easier and economical.
Question 1(d)
(i) Name one area where tropical rain forests are found.
(ii) Mention two main characteristics of tropical rain forests.
Answer
(i) Tropical rain forests are found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats.
(ii) Two main characteristics of tropical rain forests are-
Trees reach great heights of more than 60 m.
Since this region remains warm and wet throughout the year, it has a luxuriant vegetation of all
kinds- trees, shrubs and creepers which give it a multi-layered structure.
Question 2(a)
Give two points of difference between Tropical Evergreen and Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Answer
Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous Forests

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in areas which receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall.
Tropical Deciduous Forests are found in areas which receive annual rainfall between 100 cm
and 200 cm.
Trees in tropical evergreen forests do not shed their leaves. Tress in deciduous forests shed their
leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.
Question 2(b)
What are the climatic conditions under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop?
Answer
The climatic conditions under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop are-
Annual rainfall of more than 200 cm
Average annual temperature between 25°C and 27°C
Average annual humidity exceeds 77 percent
Question 2(c)
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes.
(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is called Sunderbans.
(iii) Forests are grown in and around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power
Plants.
Answer
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes because of the tangled
mass of canes, palms, bamboos, ferns and climbers along with the lack of means of transport.
(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is called Sunderbans because the forests in this area have sundari trees.
(iii) Forests are grown in and around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power
Plants because the level of pollution is much higher in areas where industries are located and forests
prevent pollution and act as a barrier for the dust and purify the air.
Question 2(d)
(i) What are the characteristic features of deciduous forests?
(ii) Name the two types of deciduous forests.
Answer
(i) The characteristic features of deciduous forests are-
The trees in these forests shed their leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.
A particular species can be found over a large area.
They are commercially most exploited.
(ii) The two types of deciduous forests are-
Moist Deciduous Forests
Dry Deciduous Forests
Question 3(a)
Mention the areas where Tropical Desert Vegetation thrives.
Answer
Tropical Desert Vegetation thrives in south-western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and
eastern Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh.
Question 3(b)
Under what climatic conditions do Littoral forests develop?

Answer
These forests thrive in areas where temperature remains between 26°C to 29°C and the rainfall is not
more than 200 cm.
Question 3(c)
(i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India.
(ii) The Tropical Evergreen forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats.
(iii) Acacia has long roots.
Answer
(i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India as forests have been cleared for the purpose of
cultivation. Timber has become an important commercial resource. Rapid industrialization,
urbanisation and expansion of cities has also led to the destruction of forest cover in the country.
(ii) The Tropical Evergreen forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats because
evergreen forests are found in areas of high temperature and high annual rainfall. Western Ghats
receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual temperature between 25°C and
27°C.
(iii) Acacia has long roots so that the roots can reach deep, ground water resources and therefore,
survive drought like conditions.
Question 3(d)
(i) State two characteristic features of tropical desert vegetation. Name two typical trees found here.
(ii) Why tropical deserts have stunted trees.

Answer
(i) Two characteristic features of tropical desert vegetation are-
These forests have Xerophytic vegetation. Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted with large
patches of coarse grasses.
Plants remain leafless for most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.
Two typical trees found here are babool and date palm.
(ii) Tropical deserts have stunted trees due to paucity of rainfall.
Question 4(a)
What are 'Tidal forests'? Name two typical trees found there.
Answer
Tidal forests are one of the most specialised tropical natural vegetation types. India has a variety of
wetlands habitats. These lands are between terrestrial and aquatic system where the water table is
usually at or near the surface of land.
Two typical trees found here are Keora and Amur.
Question 4(b)
Name the type of forests found in the western part of the Western Ghats. Give two reasons why
these forests are so named.
Answer
Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western part of the Western Ghats. They are named so
because they remain green throughout the year as they do not have any particular season to shed
their leaves and also because they grow in the regions receiving annual rainfall of more than 200 cm.
Question 4(c)
(i) Forests constitute an important natural resource.
(ii) Agro forestry is not vulnerable to population stress.
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers.
Answer
(i) Forests constitute an important natural resource because trees provide us with products such as
fruits, leaves, roots and tubers of plants. Wood is used for making furniture and as a source of
energy. Wood and bamboo pulp is used to make paper. Forests also provide fibers, essential oils,
edible plants etc.
(ii) Agro forestry is not vulnerable to population stress as agro forestry co-ordinates with the local
population and reduces the pressure of population on traditional forestry.
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers to survive in soft and shifting mud.
Question 4(d)
Describe the methods of protecting forests under the following heads:
(i) Afforestation.
(ii) Using alternative sources of energy.
Answer
(i) Afforestation means planting trees on lands which are not previously covered with forest
vegetation.
(ii) To conserve forests, we can use non-conventional or renewable sources of energy like solar
energy, tidal energy, hydel energy etc.
Question 5(a)
What is social forestry?
Answer
Social forestry refers to the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands
with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
Question 5(b)
Give two points of difference between agro-forestry and traditional forestry.
Answer
Agro-forestry Traditional forestry
Agro forestry provides a combined produce of forest and agricultural crops. Traditional forestry
only provides the produce of forest products.
It is not vulnerable to population stress. It is vulnerable to population stress.
Question 5(c)
Mention any three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India.
Answer
Three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India are-
Increasing the area under forests
Afforestation around industrial units
Using alternative sources of energy
Question 5(d)
State three objectives of agro-forestry.

Answer
Three objectives of agro-forestry are-
To reduce pressure on natural forests for obtaining timber as well as non-timber forest produce.
To check soil erosion and to maintain the natural fertility of the soil.
To maintain ecological balance along with proper utilisation of farm resources.
Question 6(a)
Why does the vegetation in the Himalayas vary with altitude?
Answer
The vegetation in the Himalayas vary with altitude because in the mountain regions, temperature
decreases with altitude.
Question 6(b)
Why does Tropical Evergreen forests appear dark inside the forests.
Answer
Tropical Evergreen forests appear dark inside the forests because of the dense canopy of trees which
do not allow enough sunlight to reach the ground.
Question 6(c)
(i) Nilgiri region has variety of vegetation type.
(ii) Sundari trees are used for boat making and construction purposes.
(iii) Littoral forest is also called tidal forest.

Answer
(i) In mountain regions, temperature decreases with increase in altitude. This has a corresponding
effect on the natural vegetation of the mountain region. Thus, vegetation in lower regions of Nilgiri is
sub tropical and vegetation in upper regions of Nilgiri is temperate.
(ii) Sundari trees are used for boat making and construction purposes because these trees provide
hard durable timber.
(iii) Littoral forest is also called tidal forest because they are found in tidal zone, an area that is above
water at low tide and under water at high tide.
Question 6(d)
Explain how is man responsible for the reduction of forest cover in India.
Answer
The felling of the trees for the purpose of obtaining timber is an important cause of reduced forest
cover in India. Rapid industrialization, urbanisation and expansion of cities has also led to the
destruction of forest cover in the country.
Question 7(a)
Name two areas where Tropical deciduous vegetation is found.
Answer
Tropical deciduous vegetation is found in north-eastern part of the peninsula and along the foothills
of the Himalayas.
Question 7(b)
Why do the Coniferous trees of mountain forests have conical shape?

Answer
Since coniferous trees are found in cold regions, they are well adapted to the cold climate. Their
leaves are conical in shape so that the snow slides off easily from the branches without causing any
damage to them.
Question 7(c)
(i) Littoral forest vegetation has breathing roots.
(ii) Forests are often compared to human lungs.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated in our country every year.
Answer
(i) Littoral forest vegetation has breathing roots because these root enable the plants to breathe
during the waterlogged conditions which occur when high tide comes.
(ii) Forests are compared to human lungs as the trees which make up a forest act as the
compartment of lungs which help in inhalation and exhalation of the air. But in lungs, Oxygen is taken
in and Carbon dioxide is given out whereas in trees carbon dioxide is inhaled and oxygen is exhaled.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated in our country every year to create awareness about the importance
of trees and encourage community participation in planting trees.
Question 7(d)
What is meant by 'farm forestry'? State two of its advantages for farmers.
Answer
Farm forestry is the practice of growing trees on the farm land to produce saleable products like
timber, tannin, charcoal, etc. and to provide shade and shelter for stock and crops.
Two advantages of farm forestry are-
It increases farm income.
It supports community development
Chp 10
Question 1
What is an aquifer?
An underground well that readily gives out water on digging the land.
An underground pond that was once a source of water and is now buried under rocks.
An underground stream saturated with water that is transmitted readily on to the surface.
None of the above.
Answer
An underground stream saturated with water that is transmitted readily on to the surface.
Question 2
Which of the following measures are not used to conserve water?
Rainwater harvesting
Using bottled drinking water only
Water recycling
Preventing water pollution
Answer
Using bottled drinking water only

Question 3
Which of the following is not a secondary source of water?
Rivers
Groundwater
Lakes and ponds
Rain
Answer
Rain
Question 4
Sprinkler irrigation is also known as ................ .
Seepage irrigation
Overhead irrigation
Protected irrigation
Nozzle irrigation
Answer
Overhead irrigation
Question 5
Tanks form the main source of irrigation in ............... .
Punjab and Haryana
the Deccan Plateau
Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
All of the above.
Answer
the Deccan Plateau
Question 6
................ is not a conventional means of irrigation.
Furrow irrigation
Wells
Tanks
Inundation canals
Answer
Furrow irrigation
Question 7
The most advanced and efficient method of irrigation is ............... .
Tank irrigation.
Drip irrigation.
Canal irrigation.
Well irrigation.
Answer
Drip irrigation
Question 8
Most of the canals in India belong to which category?
Perennial canals
Inundation canals
Navigation canals
None of the above.
Answer
Perennial canals
Question 9
Which of the following least irrigated state of India is solely dependent on canals?
Assam
Mizoram
Tripura
Arunachal Pradesh
Answer
Mizoram
Question 10
Which of the following is the most advanced and efficient method of irrigation?
Furrow irrigation
Spray irrigation
Drip irrigation
Sprinkler irrigation
Answer
Drip irrigation
Question 1(a)
What do you understand by the term 'water resource'?

Answer
The term 'water resource' refers to any of the entire range of natural waters that occur on the earth
and are of potential use to living beings.
Question 1(b)
Give two points of difference between 'surface water' and 'ground water'.
Answer
Surface water Ground water
Surface water forms streams, lakes, rivers and ponds flowing on land. The water which seeps
through the cracks and crevices under the surface of the land is known as ground water.
It can be used directly without pumping. It needs to be pumped out of the ground before it
can be used.
Question 1(c)
(i) Need to adopt different means of irrigation.
(ii) Need for conserving water.
(iii) Man is responsible for water crisis in India.
Answer
(i) There is a need to adopt different means of irrigation because of uncertainty of rainfall, uneven
distribution of rainfall, crop requirements, nature of the soil, effective utilisation of river water and to
maximise production.
(ii) There is a need for conserving water for the following reasons-
The over exploitation of ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
The loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
Irrigation utilises more than 90% of the total freshwater.
The increase in population results in water scarcity.
Our water resources are polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.
(iii) Man is responsible for water crisis in India because due to increase in population, irrigation and
industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in groundwater levels in
various parts of the country.
Question 1(d)
(i) What is meant by rainwater harvesting?
(ii) Mention any two rainwater harvesting systems practised in India.
Answer
(i) Rainwater harvesting is the process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and
storing rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.
(ii) Two rainwater harvesting systems practised in India are-
Khatri in western Himalayas
Johads in central India
Question 2(a)
What is meant by the term irrigation?
Answer
Irrigation refers to the process of watering of agricultural plants through artificial means from wells,
tanks, tube wells, canals, etc.
Question 2(b)
What is meant by the term 'water scarcity'? What has caused this scarcity in India?
Answer
Water scarcity is the lack of sufficient available water resources to meet the demands of water usage
within a region.
Growing population, over-exploitation and unequal distribution of water among social groups are the
main causes of water scarcity in India.
Question 2(c)
(i) Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals.
(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India.
(iii) Groundwater reserves are depleting at a fast rate.
Answer
(i) Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals because inundation canals get supply of
water only when the rivers are in flood while perennial canals can draw water throughout the year
and irrigate large areas.
(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India because-
The rivers of Deccan are mainly dependent on the rainwater.
Many streams become torrential during the rainy season but dry up when the rain ceases.
The hard rocks in the area do not absorb waters, wells cannot be made there.
The terrain is uneven with many natural depressions where tanks can be easily built.
(iii) Groundwater reserves are depleting at a fast rate due to increase in population, irrigation and
industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in groundwater level in
various parts of the country.
Question 2(d)
(i) What is meant by traditional or conventional methods of irrigation?
(ii) Name any two conventional methods of irrigation.
Answer
(i) Traditional methods of irrigation means to supply water to the plant zone by pumped water from
surface or subsurface sources like ponds, rivers, channels or groundwater through earthen channels
or pipes with gravitational force.
(ii) Two conventional methods of irrigation are wells and tanks.
Question 3(a)
State any two drawbacks of conventional methods of irrigation.
Answer
Two drawbacks of conventional methods of irrigation are-
A large quantity of water is not properly utilised.
The fields situated in low areas always get excess water causing prolonged water logging.
Question 3(b)
Give two advantages and two disadvantages of well irrigation.
Answer
Two advantages of well irrigation are-
Wells can be dug at a very low cost which is well within the means of poor farmers.
By the use of pumps and tubewells, water can be lifted even from great depths.
Two disadvantages of well irrigation are-
Wells depend on underground water resources whose distribution varies from region to region.
The traditional wells dry up due to over withdrawal of the ground water and lowering of the water
table.
Question 3(c)
(i) Well irrigation is confined mainly to the alluvial plains.
(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation.
Answer
(i) Well irrigation is confined mainly to the alluvial plains as owing to the soft nature of the soil, wells
can be easily dug and the yield of crops from the land after irrigation is considerably high.
(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation because Tamil
Nadu receives rainfall during the winter season while summer season remains dry. Thus, irrigation is
needed in summer to make up the lack of rainfall.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation as this system consists of perforated
pipes that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines and give water directly
on to the crops.
Question 3(d)
(i) Name any two states where well irrigation is practised.
(ii) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of tubewell irrigation.
Answer
(i) Two states where well irrigation is practised are Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.
(ii) One advantage of tubewell irrigation is that it brings up clean water.
One disadvantage of tubewell irrigation is that it is useless if the water is brackish.
Question 4(a)
Name the two types of canals. Name two states where perennial canals are widely used.
Answer
Two types of canals are-
Inundation canals
Perennial canals
Two states where perennial canals are widely used are Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Question 4(b)
How are the fields irrigated using the Persian wheel method?
Answer
Persian wheel method is a partly submerged vertical wheel with buckets attached to the rim. As the
wheel is turned by draught animals rotating a geared horizontal wheel, the buckets are filled and
emptied into a trough above, which carries the water to crop-sown fields.
Question 4(c)
(i) Canals make the soil infertile.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite expensive.

(iii) Excessive accumulation of salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation.
Answer
(i) Canals make the soil infertile because in canal irrigation, where water table is a few feet below the
ground, the alkaline salts come to the surface, mix with the soil and make it unproductive.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite expensive as it requires continuous supply of electricity.
(iii) Excessive accumulation of salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation because when salt
concentrations in the soil are high, the movement of water from the soil to the root is slowed down.
When the salt concentrations in the soil are higher than inside the root cells, the soil will draw water
from the root, and the plant will wilt and die. Hence, the soil becomes unsuitable for cultivation.
Question 4(d)
(i) Name two states in which tubewells are extensively used.
(ii) State why tubewell irrigation is important in Punjab.
Answer
(i) Two states in which tubewells are extensively used are Punjab and Haryana.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is important in Punjab because it irrigates large areas of land in comparatively
less time and it can irrigate the fields throughout the year.
Question 5(a)
What is meant by rainwater harvesting?
Answer
Rainwater harvesting is the process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and
storing rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.
Question 5(b)
State any two methods of rainwater harvesting.
Answer
Two methods of rainwater harvesting are-
Khatri in western Himalayas
Johads in central India
Question 5(c)
(i) Many farmers in India still use wells.
(ii) There is very little recharge of groundwater.
(iii) The traditional wells dry up.
Answer
(i) Many farmers in India still use wells because wells can be dug at a very low cost and the oxen
which are kept for ploughing the land can be utilised for drawing water from the well.
(ii) There is very little recharge of groundwater as only a small amount of rain water runs down the
earth surface and gets stored in the form of groundwater. So, only a small percentage of water gets
down to the water table and forms ground water.
(iii) The traditional wells dry up due to the over-withdrawal of the groundwater and lowering of the
water table.
Question 5(d)
(i) What is watershed management?
(ii) How is it beneficial for farmers in the long run?
Answer
(i) Watershed management refers to the efficient management and conservation of both the surface
and groundwater resources. It includes the prevention of run-off as well as storage and recharge of
groundwater by various methods like percolation pits, recharge wells, borewells, dugwells etc.
(ii) Watershed management is beneficial for farmers as it is aimed at conserving both soil and water.
Since both soil and water are indispensible for the cultivation of crops, watershed management helps
farmers to maximize their crop production and income.
Question 6(a)
What is 'drip irrigation'? How is it useful?
Answer
Drip irrigation is the most advanced and efficient method of irrigation. This system consists of
perforated pipes that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines and give
water directly on to the crops.
It is useful as it reduces evaporation drastically and irrigation water is conserved. It also allows the
grower to customise an irrigation programme most beneficial to each crop.
Question 6(b)
Explain briefly the need to conserve water.
Answer
We need to conserve water for the following reasons-

The over exploitation of ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
The loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
Irrigation utilises more than 90% of the total freshwater.
The increase in population results in water scarcity.
Our water resources are polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.
Question 6(c)
(i) Modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity.
(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps in conserving water.
(iii) Spray irrigation is quite expensive.
Answer
(i) Modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity because of the following reasons-
No loss of water due to seepage or evaporation
Conserve water
Prevent soil erosion
Suitable for areas where the rainfall is low
High efficiency
(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps in conserving water as water is sprayed directly to the required plants so
there is no loss of water through seepage or evaporation.
(iii) Spray irrigation is quite expensive because it requires complex machinery.
Question 6(d)
What is meant by furrow irrigation? What is its advantage?

Answer
Furrow irrigation is a type of flood irrigation in which the water poured on the field is directed to
flow through narrow channels dug between the rows of crops, instead of evenly distributing the
water throughout the whole field. The furrows must have equal dimensions, in order to guarantee
that the water is distributed evenly.
The advantage of furrow irrigation is lower initial investment of equipment and lower pumping costs
per acre-inch of water pumped.
Chp 11
Question 1
Minerals are natural substances having definite chemical and ................. properties.
chemical
physical
biological
Both (a) and (b).
Answer
physical
Question 2
............... is a ferrous mineral.
Copper
Bauxite
Iron ore
Coal
Answer
Iron ore
Question 3
Good quality minerals are ............... in quantity than low quality minerals.
equal
lesser
higher
poorer
Answer
lesser
Question 4
............... is one of the most widely distributed minerals found in the earth's crust.
Iron ore
Copper
Coal
Limestone
Answer
Iron ore
Question 5
Which ore of iron is reddish in colour?
Magnetite
Haematite
Limonite
All of the above.
Answer
Haematite
Question 6
................ is also known as 'Black ore'.
Limonite
Haematite
Magnetite
None of the above.
Answer
Magnetite
Question 7
................ is the best quality of iron that contains more than 70 per cent of iron.
Magnetite
Limonite
Haematite
Ironite
Answer
Magnetite
Question 8
About 90 per cent of iron ore is used to make ................ .
Bauxite
Steel
Brass
Bronze
Answer
Steel
Question 9
The main iron ore exporting ports in India are Mormugao and ................ .
Paradip
Haldia
Visakhapatnam
Kandla
Answer
Visakhapatnam
Question 10
................ is a raw material used for smelting of iron ore.
Manganese
Magnetite
Mica
Feronite
Answer
Manganese
Question 11
Manganese is used to make ................ tough and resistant to rusting.

copper
bronze
bauxite
steel
Answer
steel
Question 12
............... is used in dry cell batteries.
Iron ore
Manganese
Copper
Bauxite
Answer
Manganese
Question 13
................ mineral is used to regulate blood sugar levels and to support the immune system.
Manganese
Iron ore
Mica
Copper
Answer
Manganese
Question 14
An excess of ................ in plants and animals is toxic.
iron ore
magnetite
manganese
haematite
Answer
manganese
Question 15
............... is essential for plant growth and reduction of nitrates in green plants.
Mica
Iron
Manganese
Copper
Answer
Manganese
Question 16
................ is the earliest metal used by man.
Iron
Manganese
Bauxite
Copper
Answer
Copper
Question 17
Which of the following is a principal combination in which copper occurs in nature?
Sulphides
Oxides
Carbonate
All of the above.
Answer
All of the above
Question 18
............... is a good conductor of electricity, highly malleable and ductile.
Copper
Iron
Bauxite
Mica
Answer
Copper
Question 19
Copper is alloyed with ................ and nickle to make stainless steel.
zinc
tin
iron
brass
Answer
iron
Question 20
Copper is alloyed with ............... to make bronze.
iron
tin
nickle
zinc
Answer
tin
Question 1(a)
What is a mineral? State two characteristics of minerals.
Answer
Minerals are natural substances of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical
properties.
Two characteristics of minerals are-
Minerals are not evenly distributed over space.
Minerals have inverse relationship in quality and quantity.
Question 1(b)
What is the difference between metallic and non-metallic minerals?

Answer
Metallic minerals Non-metallic minerals
Metallic minerals are minerals in which metal elements are present in their raw form. Non-
metallic minerals do not contain any metal substances in them.
Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations. Non-
metallic minerals are often found embedded in young fold mountains and sedimentary rocks.
Metallic minerals are good conductors of electricity as well as heat. Non-metallic minerals are
basically good insulators of electricity and heat.
Metallic minerals have high malleability and ductility. Non-metallic minerals lack malleability and
ductility and these minerals break down easily.
Metallic minerals generally have lustre. Non-metallic minerals do not have any shine or lustre.
Question 1(c)
Name the three varieties of iron ore mined in India. Name one state where each is found.
Answer
The three varieties of iron ore mined in India are-
1. Haematite — It is found in Odisha.
2. Magnetite — It is found in Tamil Nadu.
3. Limonite — It is found in Uttarakhand.
Question 1(d)
(i) Name the best quality of iron ore.
(ii) Name two states where it is found.
Answer
(i) Magnetite is the best quality of iron ore.
(ii) It is found in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
Question 2(a)
What type of mineral is copper? Name any two states where copper is found in India.
Answer
Copper is a non-ferrous metal. It is found in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Question 2(b)
State two uses of aluminium.
Answer
Aluminium is used in aircrafts and automobiles.
Question 2(c)
Give a reason for each of the following:
(i) Manganese is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry.
(ii) Bauxite is used in electrical equipment industry.
(iii) Raw iron needs to be alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry.
Answer
(i) Manganese is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry because it is used to make
steel tough and resistant to rusting.
(ii) Bauxite is used in electrical equipment industry because it is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Raw iron needs to be alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry
because raw iron by itself is not as strong and hard as needed for construction and automobile
industry.
Question 2(d)
Bauxite is an oxide of which metal? Where are the deposits of Bauxite found in India?
Answer
Bauxite is an oxide of aluminium. The deposits of Bauxite are found in Goa, Odisha, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Question 3(a)
How is brass and bronze made? State two uses of copper.
Answer
Copper is alloyed with zinc to form brass and with tin to make bronze.
Two uses of copper are-
It is used in building construction for roofing and plumbing.
It is used in ship-building industry.
Question 3(b)
Name two leading states producing manganese. State two industrial uses of manganese.
Answer
Two leading states producing manganese are Karnataka and Odisha.

Two industrial uses of manganese are-
It is an important raw material for the iron and steel industry.
It is used in chemical industries for manufacturing bleaching powder.
Question 3(c)
(i) Magnetite is so called.
(ii) Copper is used for making electric wires.
(iii) Aluminium is used for making aircraft.
Answer
(i) Magnetite is so called because it possesses magnetic property.
(ii) Copper is used for making electric wires because it is a good conductor of electricity, highly
malleable and ductile.
(iii) Aluminium is used for making aircraft because it is light weight and strong.
Question 3(d)
(i) Name two characteristics of iron ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron
and steel plants.
(ii) Name two industries that require iron ore as raw material.
Answer
(i) Two characteristics of iron ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron and
steel plants are-
Iron ore deposits occur as hill masses and are easily accessible.
They are found in close proximity to the areas producing coal, dolomite, limestone and manganese.
(ii) Two industries that require iron ore as raw material are iron and steel industries.
Chp 12
Question 1
Which types of resources of energy are coal, petroleum and natural gas?
conventional sources
non-renewable sources
non-conventional sources
Both (a) and (b).
Answer
Both (a) and (b) i.e., conventional sources & non-renewable sources
Question 2
Coal is a ............... solid stratified rock of organic and mineral matter.
combustible
non-combustible
renewable
None of the above.
Answer
combustible
Question 3
............... coal has ............... per cent of carbon content and is the most preferred variety of coal.
Lignite, 40
Peat, 50
Anthracite, 90
Bituminous, 80
Answer
Anthracite, 90
Question 4
Bituminous coal is also known as ............... .
coking coal
Peat
Steam oven
Gas stove
Answer
coking coal
Question 5
Anthracite is ideal for domestic use as it is smokeless and has high ............... value.
industrial
calorific
volatile
demand
Answer
calorific
Question 6
............... is also known as brown coal and is lower grade coal.
Peat
Lignite
Anthracite
Bituminous
Answer
Lignite
Question 7
............... is the oldest coalfield in India.
Raniganj
Jharia
Korba
Singrauli
Answer
Raniganj
Question 8
Gondwana coal has variable quantities of ............... .
Low moisture
Small sulphur
Small variable quantity of phosphorus
All of the above

Answer
All of the above
Question 9
The Neyveli Lignite coal field in ............... is the largest lignite deposit field in South India.
Andhra Pradesh
Telangana
Puducherry
Tamil Nadu
Answer
Tamil Nadu
Question 10
The liquid petroleum is called ............... .
Crude oil
Liquid oil
Natural gas
Natural oil
Answer
Crude oil
Question 11
Light distillates : gasoline :: middle distillates : ...............
diesel
Lubricating oils
naphtha
LPG
Answer
diesel
Question 12
Petroleum is used :
as a fuel
as raw material
for power generation
All of the above
Answer
All of the above
Question 13
Name the main component of LPG.
Methane
Butane
Propane
Ethane
Answer
Butane
Question 14
............... is the first refinery in the private sector in India.

The Reliance Petroleum Ltd.
The Vadinar Oil Refinery
Bina Oil Refinery
Panipat Oil Refinery
Answer
The Reliance Petroleum Ltd.
Question 1(a)
What is meant by conventional sources of energy? Name any two conventional sources of energy.
Answer
Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still
being tapped and used abundantly.
These include coal, petroleum, natural gas and hydel power.
Question 1(b)
Name two main coal bearing areas in India.
Answer
Two main coal bearing areas in India are Raniganj in West Bengal and Jharia in Jharkhand.
Question 1(c)
(i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes.

(ii) Oil refineries are located close to oilfields or near ports.
(iii) The location of coalfields is an important factor in industrial development.
Answer
(i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes as it is a smokeless fuel with high calorific value.
(ii) Oil refineries are located close to oilfields or near ports to minimise the cost of transport and to
avoid the risk of transporting the oil inside the country due to its inflammable nature.
(iii) Location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development because it is the basic
source of power and it is heavy and bulky also, hence difficult to transport.
Question 1(d)
(i) Name the varieties of coal found in India.
(ii) Give a characteristic of each type of coal.
Answer
(i) The varieties of coal found in India are anthracite, bituminous, lignite and peat.
(ii) Characteristic of each type of coal are:
Anthracite coal — It is shiny and lustrous, almost jet black.
Bituminous coal — It is hard, black and compact and makes up almost 80% of the world's total coal
output.
Lignite coal — It comprises 40% of carbon and a good deal of moisture and less of combustible
matter.
Peat coal — It has the least carbon content and is inferior to the other three varieties of coal.
Question 2(a)
How is Gondwana coalfield different from tertiary coalfield in terms of location and quality?
Answer
Gondwana Coalfields Tertiary Coalfields
Gondwana coalfields are largely confined to river valleys like those of Damodar, Mahanadi and
Godavari. These coalfields are located in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Tertiary coalfields
are found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Kashmir and in the coastal areas of
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and inland basin of Rajasthan.
This coal is free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities. This
coal has a higher moisture content and more sulphur, with less calorific value.
Question 2(b)
Name the coalfield that is oldest and one that is largest in India.
Answer
The oldest coalfield in India is in Raniganj in West Bengal and the largest coalfield is in Jharia in
Jharkhand.
Question 2(c)
(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid gold'.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel.
Answer
(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid gold' because there is not even a tiniest part of crude petroleum which
goes to waste or remains unused.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel because it has been formed by decomposing remains of dead animals
and plants buried under the earth.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel because it causes less damage to the environment as it is made up of
methane and results in less carbon emissions.
Question 2(d)
(i) State two advantages of coal as a source of power.
(ii) Where is the oldest oilfield located in India?
Answer
(i) Two advantages of coal as a source of power are-
Energy produced from coal fired plants is cheaper and more affordable than other energy sources.
Coal is easy to burn and produces high energy upon combustion.
(ii) The oldest oilfield in India is Digboi oilfield situated in Tinsukhia district of Assam.
Question 3(a)
What is Natural Gas? Name two variants of natural gas.
Answer
Natural gas is a fossil fuel which occurs in association with mineral oil. It is mainly composed of
methane with small amounts of propane and ethane.
Two variants of natural gas are-
Compressed Natural Gas
Liquefied Petroleum Gas

Question 3(b)
Where is natural gas found in India? Name two coastal and two inland oil-refineries in India.
Answer
Over three-fourths of India's natural gas comes from Mumbai High. The rest is produced in Assam,
Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Tripura.
Two coastal oil-refineries in India are-
Haldia refinery – Indian Oil Corporation Limited in Haldia, West Bengal
Visakhapatnam Refinery – Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited in Visakhapatnam, Andhra

Pradesh
Two inland oil-refineries in India are-
Bina Refinery – Bharat Oman Refineries Limited in Bina, Madhya Pradesh.
Panipat Refinery – Indian Oil Corporation Limited in Panipat, Haryana.
Question 3(c)
(i) Why do the natural gas deposits mostly accompany oil deposits?
(ii) What is added to domestic gas cylinders, which gives a foul smell? Why?
Answer
(i) Natural gas deposits mostly accompany oil deposits because it has been formed by decomposing
remains of dead animals and plants buried under the earth.
(ii) Ethyl mercaptan, a foul smelling gas is added to domestic gas cylinders, so that any leakage of LPG
from the cylinder can be detected instantaneously.
Question 3(d)
Give two advantages and one disadvantage of natural gas.

Answer
Two advantages of natural gas are-
It is a cleaner, cheaper fuel than diesel or gasoline.
Natural gas is an eco-friendly fuel.
One disadvantage of natural gas is that leaks of natural gas are difficult to detect and are very
dangerous.
Question 4(a)
Name one important area that has large coal deposits in:
(i) Jharkhand
(ii) West Bengal
Answer
(i) Jharia has large coal deposits in Jharkhand.
(ii) Raniganj has large coal deposits in West Bengal.
Question 4(b)
State any one disadvantage of coal found in India.
Answer
One disadvantage of coal found in India is that its calorific value is low.
Question 4(c)
(i) Name two states that have deposits of the Gondwana coal.
(ii) Name two industries that use large quantity of coal.
Answer
(i) Jharkhand and Odisha have deposits of the Gondwana coal.
(ii) Two industries that use large quantity of coal are-
Iron and Steel industries
Thermal energy power plants
Question 4(d)
(i) Which state is the largest producer of mineral oil?
(ii) Mention any two advantages of hydel power.
Answer
(i) Assam is the largest producer of mineral oil.
(ii) Two advantages of hydel power are-
Hydel power is clean, non-polluting source of energy.
It does not produce any Greenhouse gases and prevents global warming.
Question 5(a)
Why does India have to import oil?
Answer
India has to import oil to meet the ever increasing industrial and domestic demands.
Question 5(b)
Name one refinery which belongs to the private sector and one in the public sector.
Answer
Jamnagar refinery in Gujarat belongs to the private sector and Guwahati Refinery in Assam is a public
sector refinery.
Question 5(c)
Name the two coastal oil-refineries, one on the west coast of India and the other on the east coast of
India. Name one inland oil refinery. List the sources of crude oil for these refineries.
Answer
Below are the oil-refineries along with their location and source of crude oil:
Oil refinery — Trombay refinery in Maharashtra
Location — West coast of India
Source of crude oil — Ankleshwar fields
Oil refinery — Visakhapatnam Refinery in Andhra Pradesh
Location — East coast of India
Source of crude oil — Tatipaka field
Oil refinery — Mathura refinery in Uttar Pradesh
Location — Inland oil refinery
Source of crude oil — Mumbai High
Question 5(d)
Where are the deposits of Petroleum normally located? Give two uses of Petroleum besides being
used as a fuel.
Answer
Petroleum is normally found in underground reservoirs in sedimentary rock formations like
sandstone, shale and limestone. The entire production of India comes from the Assam-Arakan belt,
the Gujarat-Cambay belt and the Mumbai High offshore zone.
Two uses of Petroleum besides being used as a fuel are-
Petroleum after refining is used as raw material for the production of various petrochemical products
like synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, polysterene, PVC, phenol, gasoline etc.
It is used for power generation.
Question 6(a)
Name four products that are obtained during the refining process of petroleum.
Answer
Four products that are obtained during the refining process of petroleum are-
Petrol
Diesel
Kerosene
Tar
Question 6(b)
State any two advantages of using petroleum as a source of power.
Answer
Two advantages of using petroleum as a source of power are-
It is a stable energy source.
It is a high density fuel.
Question 6(c)
State any three disadvantages of using petroleum.

Answer
Three disadvantages of using petroleum are-
Petroleum is a natural fossil fuel and non-renewable.
Extracting and burning petroleum generates greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming and
environmental pollution.
It is expensive because of its limited supply and high demand.
Question 6(d)
State any three disadvantages of hydel power.
Answer
Three disadvantages of hydel power are-
The cost of building dams for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
Building a large dam alters the natural water table level.
Building dams displaces many people from the area and disturbs their life physically, mentally and
psychologically.
Question 7(a)
Where is Mumbai High? What is Sagar Samrat?
Answer
In Maharashtra, about 176 km off Mumbai in the Arabian Sea, there is a huge oil deposit known as
Mumbai High.
The syncline of the rock structure in which oil has been struck is higher than the normal height and
oil is taken from the depth of over 1,400 m with the help of a specially designed platform known as
'Sagar Samrat'. It is a self propelled jack-up type of drilling platform.
Question 7(b)
Why is coal often used near the source of its mining whereas mineral oil is transported to great
distances?
Answer
Coal is a bulky material and its transportation is difficult and costly. Secondly, coal is not a hard but a
soft mineral. If not transported in a proper way, it may get crushed and reduced to ash. This results in
reduction of the weight of coal. Hence it is used near the source of mining.
Oil is transported to greater distances through pipelines which is a cheaper and easier means of
transport.
Question 7(c)
Name the region in which India's main coalfields are located. What is the quality of coal found here?
What are its uses?
Answer
The Gondwana coalfields are the largest in India as it accounts for 98% of the total reserves of coal in
India. Gondwana coal fields are located in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha,
Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. These coal fields
accounts for four-fifth of India's coal reserves.
Gondwana coal is mainly of bituminous quality. It is almost free from moisture and contains sulphur
and phosphorus in small variable quantities.
Gondwana coal is used to produce coke, coal gas and steam coal.
Question 7(d)
State three advantages of dams.
Answer
Three advantages of dams are-

Dams built to produce hydroelectricity help to save and restore water.
Dams provide water for irrigation.
Dams prevent flooding.
Question 8(a)
What is meant by hydel power?
Answer
Electricity generated from water is called hydel power.
Question 8(b)
With reference to the Bhakra Nangal Dam, answer the following:
(i) Name the river on which it has been constructed.
(ii) Name two states that benefit from this project.
Answer
(i) Bhakra Nangal dam has been constructed on the river Sutlej.
(ii) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh benefit from this project.
Question 8(c)
(i) On which river is Hirakud Dam located?
(ii) Give any two uses of this dam.
Answer
(i) Hirakud dam is built across Mahanadi river.
(ii) Two uses of this dam are-
It regulates the flow of the Mahanadi river and produces hydroelectricity through several
hydroelectric plants.
The dam helps control floods in the mahanadi delta and irrigates 75,000 sq km of land.
Question 8(d)
State three disadvantages of building a big dam.
Answer
Three disadvantages of building a big dam are-
The cost of building dams for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
Building a large dam alters the natural water table level.
It can cause serious geological damage like triggering earthquakes in the area.
Chp 13
Question 1
Most of the non-conventional sources of energy are ............... .
exhaustible
inexhaustible
polluting
expensive
Answer
inexhaustible
Question 2
India has higher amount of solar energy because of India's location on the ............... .
Tropic of Cancer
Tropic of Capricorn
Poles
Equator
Answer
Tropic of Cancer
Question 3
Most parts of India have ............... clear sunny days in a year.
365
350
300
200
Answer
300
Question 4
Solar cells are known as ............... cells.
Super
Photonic
Photovoltaic
Solaratic
Answer
Photovoltaic
Question 5
Solar energy is used to ............... water in regions with limited clean water supplies.
boil
freeze
condense
distill
Answer
boil
Question 6
Wind power accounts for ............... percent of India's total installed power generation capacity.
10
20
25
40
Answer
10
Question 7
Tidal energy can be harnessed at ............... .
Gulf of Kutch
Sundarbans
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
All of the above.

Answer
All of the above
Question 8
Geothermal energy is independent of ............... and season.
time
atmosphere
weather
winds
Answer
weather
Question 9
The process of splitting of radioactive substances is called ............... .
nuclear fission
nuclear fusion
nuclear reaction
nuclear bombing
Answer
nuclear fission
Question 10
Nuclear power is the ............... largest source of electricity in India.
second
fourth
fifth
sixth
Answer
fourth
Question 1(a)
What are non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer
Non-Conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as an
alternative to conventional sources of energy. These include solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy,
geothermal energy, nuclear energy and biogas.
Question 1(b)
State two differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer
Conventional sources of energy Non-Conventional sources of energy
Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still
being tapped and used abundantly. Non-conventional sources of energy are those which have
been developed in the recent past as an alternative to conventional sources of energy.
Except for hydel energy, these sources of energy are non-renewable. Most of these sources are
renewable.
Question 1(c)
(i) Non-conventional sources of energy are called the resources of the future.
(ii) India is an advantageous position in terms of solar energy.

(iii) Harvesting of solar energy does not require much maintenance.
Answer
(i) Non-conventional sources of energy are called the resources of the future as most of these
sources of energy are renewable, non-polluting, less expensive to run and easy to maintain.
(ii) India in an advantageous position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the
Tropic of Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per hour per
square km availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.
(iii) Harvesting of solar energy does not require much maintenance as most reliable solar panel
manufacturers give 20-25 years warranty. Also, as there are no moving parts, there is no wear and
tear. So, after covering the initial cost of the solar energy system, it requires very little spending on
maintenance and repair work.
Question 1(d)
How is India in an advantageous position to harness solar energy?
Answer
India is in an advantageous position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the Tropic
of Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per hour per square km
availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.
Question 2(a)
State briefly how the Sun's energy can be used to generate power.
Answer
Sun's energy can be transformed into electrical energy with the help of solar cells. Solar cells are also
known as photovoltaic cells. They are made up of thin wafers of semi conductor materials from
silicon and gallium. When Sun's light falls on them, the Sun's energy gets converted into electricity.
Question 2(b)
Wind energy can generate additional income for the land owners.
Answer
Land owners can look for additional income by installing wind turbines on land that can even be used
for agricultural purposes. The electricity generated by wind power can be used for domestic
consumption and reduce monthly electricity bills, and the surplus power can be sold back to the local
grid which can result in more savings. Hence, wind energy can generate additional income for the
land owners.
Question 2(c)
State any three advantages of using solar energy.
Answer
Three advantages of using solar energy are-
It is a renewable source of energy which can be harnessed in most of the areas of the world.
It can be used for diverse purposes like producing electricity in areas without access to the energy
grid, to distill water in regions with limited clean water supplies and to power satellites in space.
Solar energy systems do not require a lot of maintenance.
Question 2(d)
How is wind energy utilised to produce electricity?
Answer
The wind energy is obtained by making use of windmills. The blades of the windmill rotate due to the
force of the wind. The rotational motion of the blades drives a number of machines like water
pumps, flour mills and electric generators. A number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in
clusters called wind farms. They generate a large amount of electricity.
Question 3(a)
What is tidal energy? Give an advantage of using tidal energy.
Answer
The rise and fall of water of the ocean produced by the attraction of the Moon and Sun produces a
large amount of energy called Tidal energy.
An advantage of Tidal energy is that it can be produced even if the water moves at a low speed.
Question 3(b)
Give two advantages of using wind energy.
Answer
Two advantages of using wind energy are-
It is a renewable source of energy that can be produced again and again.
It is the cleanest form of renewable energy that produces no pollution.
Question 3(c)
What are wind farms? Where are they usually located?
Answer
A number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms.
They are usually installed in coastal regions, open grasslands or hilly regions.
Question 3(d)
(i) What is geothermal energy?
(ii) How is geothermal energy used to produce electricity?

Answer
(i) Geothermal energy is the heat energy contained in the rock and fluid that fills the fractures and
pores within the rock in the earth's crust.
(ii) Resources of geothermal energy can be generated by using the shallow steam, hot water and hot
rock by drilling wells up to thousands of feet beneath the earth's surface. The extremely high
temperatures in the deeper geothermal reservoirs are used for the generation of electricity. The
high-pressure steam spins the turbine that rotates a generator and produces electricity.
Hot water is pumped from deep underground through a well under high pressure. When the water
reaches the surface, the pressure is dropped, which causes the water to turn into steam. The steam
spins the turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces electricity. The steam cools off in
the cooling tower and condenses back to water. The cooled water is pumped back into the earth to
begin the process again.
Question 4(a)
Name one area each where solar, wind, tidal and geothermal energy is generated in India.
Answer
Energy Area
Solar energy Bhadla Solar Park, Jodhpur, Rajasthan
Wind energy Madurai in Tamil Nadu
Tidal energy Gulf of Kutch
Geothermal energy Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
Question 4(b)
State any two advantages of using geothermal energy.
Answer
Two advantages of using geothermal energy are-

It is easily accessible because of its extensive distribution.
It is independent of weather and season.
Question 4(c)
Name the process involved in generation of nuclear energy. State any three advantages of using
nuclear power.
Answer
The process involved in generation of nuclear energy is known as Nuclear Fission.
Three advantages of using nuclear power are —
Nuclear energy reduces the requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and
therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas emissions.
Fission of one atom of uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one
atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw materials but also in transport,
handling and extraction of nuclear fuel. The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy
generated.
Nuclear energy is the most reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day
and seven days a week.
Question 4(d)
How is biogas beneficial for the farmers and householders?
Answer
Biogas is beneficial for the farmers in the form of energy and good quality manure. It is useful for the
householders as the gas is used for cooking, lighting and pumping water from wells.
Question 5(a)
What is nuclear power?
Answer
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring
radioactive elements like uranium, thorium and plutonium.
Question 5(b)
Name two minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy. Name two nuclear power plants in
India.
Answer
Uranium and Thorium are the two minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy.
Two nuclear power plants in India are-
Kaiga in Karnataka
Kakrapar in Gujarat
Question 5(c)
What is biogas? How is biogas produced?
Answer
Biogas is composed of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
Biogas is produced by anaerobic degradation of animal and plant wastes in the presence of water.
Anaerobic degradation means breaking down of organic matter by bacteria in the absence of oxygen.
The fermentation of the waste products is carried out by bacteria, which produces hydrocarbon gas,
predominantly methane and alcohol. The residue left behind in the tank is rich in nutrients and can
be used as manure.
Question 5(d)
Explain how using nuclear energy in a controlled environment can be a boon for our country.
Answer
Using nuclear energy in a controlled environment can be a boon for our country for the following
reasons-
Nuclear energy reduces the requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and
therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas emissions.
Fission of one atom of uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one
atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw materials but also in transport,
handling and extraction of nuclear fuel. The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy
generated.
Nuclear energy is the most reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day
and seven days a week. Besides, a nuclear plant needs to refuel every 18 to 24 months. This shows
that nuclear fuels are less affected by fluctuating fuel prices than the more volatile industries like oil
and natural gas.
When compared to the fossil fuel waste, the nuclear waste which occurs due to the production of
nuclear power is small in quantity.
Chp 18
Question 1
India is one of the top ............... industrialised countries.
five
seven
eight
ten
Answer
ten
Question 2
The products of agro-based industries mostly consist of ............... .
consumer goods
medicinal goods
beverages
cosmetics
Answer
consumer goods
Question 3
............... industries are also known as household industries.
Basic
Cottage
Cooperative
Village
Answer
Cottage
Question 4
Iron and steel industry and petroleum industry are the ............... industries.
Tertiary
Ancillary
Basic
Secondary
Answer
Basic
Question 5
............... are the industries which provide public utility based services.
Basic Industries
Cooperative Industries
Ancillary Industries
Tertiary Industries
Answer
Tertiary Industries
Question 6
Railways, Banking, Post and Telegraph industries are ............... industries.
Tertiary
Secondary
Ancillary
Basic
Answer
Tertiary
Question 7
............... is used for producing steam which is used as a source of power for sugar industry.
Molasses
Bagasse
Press mud
Khandsari
Answer
Bagasse
Question 8
............... are used for the distillation of liquor and to produce some chemicals and synthetic rubber.
Press mud
Bagasse
Khandsari
Molasses
Answer
Molasses
Question 9
Which of the following is a by-product of sugar industry used for making cardboard, paper and
insulation boards?
Press mud
Molasses
Bagasse
All of the above.
Answer
Bagasse
Question 10
Name the by-product of sugar industry used for making wax, carbon paper and shoe polish.
Press mud
Molasses
Bagasse
Khandsari
Answer
Press mud
Question 11
Which of the following cities account for nearly half of India's cotton mill cloth manufactured?
Jaipur and Kanpur
Ahmedabad and Mumbai
Coimbatore and Chennai
Panipat and Kolkata
Answer
Ahmedabad and Mumbai
Question 12
The rearing of silkworm for silk production is called ............... .
Monoculture
Pisciculture
Sericulture
Apiculture
Answer
Sericulture
Give the difference between the following
Question 1
Micro Enterprise and Medium Enterprise
Answer
Micro Enterprise Medium Enterprise

In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed one crore
rupees. In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed
fifty crore rupees.
Annual turnover does not exceed five crore rupees. Annual turnover does not exceed two
hundred and fifty crore rupees.
Question 2
Heavy and Light industries
Answer
Heavy Industries Light Industries
These industries produce capital goods and consumer durables which are quite bulky. These
industries produce goods which are light in weight like cycles, sewing machines etc.
They require huge capital, large quantity of raw material, scientific knowledge, sophisticated
machinery, etc. They require less capital and less number of workers than the heavy industries.
Question 3
Basic and Secondary industries
Answer
Basic Industries Secondary Industries
These industries form the core industries on which other industries depend for their manufacturing.
These industries process the basic raw materials into primary goods for direct use by the
consumers.
For example, iron and steel industry, petroleum industry. For example, textiles, sugar, paper
making etc.
Question 1(a)
What is the difference between Agro-based and Mineral-based industry?
Answer
Agro-based Industry Mineral-based Industry

This group of industries depends on the raw material produced by the agricultural sector.
These industries use minerals, both metallic and non-metallic, as raw material.
For example- cotton, jute and textile industries, sugar industry, tea industry, coffee industry, etc. For
example- iron and steel, heavy engineering and machine tool, cement, basic and light chemicals,
fertilisers, etc.
Question 1(b)
Classify industries on the basis of the nature of products. Give one example of each.
Answer
On the basis of the nature of products, industries can be classified as-
Heavy industries like ship building industry.
Light industries like electronic goods industry.
Question 1(c)
(i) Sugar mills are located close to sugarcane growing areas.
(ii) Mumbai is known as the 'Cottonopolis of India'.
(iii) The silk industry has a small market.
Answer
(i) Sugar mills are located close to sugarcane growing areas because sugarcane is a weight losing
crop, i.e., its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time. Therefore, it is necessary to crush
sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.
(ii) Mumbai is known as the 'Cottonpolis of India' because Mumbai has become the most important
centre of cotton textile in the country due to reasons like proximity to raw materials, favourable
climatic conditions, good transport and port facilities, enough labour force, adequate capital, power
and a huge market for cotton textiles.
(iii) The silk industry has a small market because silk industry faces competition from artificial silk
which is cheaper and better in quality. Moreover, the changes in prices of raw silk badly affect both
the weavers and the silk industry.
Question 1(d)
(i) Mention two advantages of setting up a small scale industry.
(ii) Give two points of difference between a public sector and a private sector industry.
Answer
(i) Two advantages of setting up a small scale industry are-
Less capital is required.
These industries make use of indigenous raw material.
(ii) The differences are-
Public Sector
Industry Private Sector
Industry
These industries are owned and managed by the Central Government or the State Government. They
include public utility industries like railways, post & telegraph, oil refineries, heavy engineering
industries, defence establishments, etc. These industries are owned and managed by an individual or
group of individuals.
For example, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL), etc. For
example, Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), Infosys, etc.
Question 2(a)
Name two by-products of the sugar industry. Give one use of each.
Answer
Two by-products of the sugar industry are-

Bagasse, the leftover cane after crushing, is used for producing steam which is used as a source of
power for sugar industry.
Press mud is used for making wax, carbon paper and shoe polish.
Question 2(b)
Why is the sugar industry highly dispersed in India?
Answer
The sugar industry is highly dispersed in India because sugarcane is cultivated throughout the
country. Hence, sugarcane industries are spread in the country near to the sugarcane fields.
Also, the area under sugarcane cultivation is limited due to the pressure of food crops. Thus, the
sugar factories are highly dispersed even in areas which have large percentage of land under
sugarcane cultivation.
Question 2(c)
(i) India produces very little cane-sugar though it is one of the largest producers of sugarcane in the
world.
(ii) Higher output of sugar in South India.
(iii) Sericulture flourishes in Karnataka.
Answer
(i) India produces very little cane sugar though it is one of the largest producer of sugarcane in the
world because the quality of sugarcane produced in the country is low. Besides, most people in rural
areas prefer to use 'gur' and 'khandasari' instead of white sugar. So much of sugarcane that is grown
is used for making 'gur' and 'khandasari'.
(ii) There is higher output of sugar in South India because the yield per hectare is high is southern
India. The sucrose content in sugarcane is high in southern India as compared to that in northern
India. Moreover, the southern states have installed new mills where productivity is high and cost of
production is low.
(iii) Sericulture flourishes in Karnataka because Karnataka has favourable climate for rearing
silkworms. Karnataka has established nurseries, silk farms and has licensed seed distributors to
promote Sericulture.
Question 2(d)
Give three important reasons which have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India.
Answer
Three important reasons which have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India are-
The maritime climate of Maharashtra is ideal for the cultivation of sugarcane.
Availability of excellent transport facilities in relation to export markets.
The sugarcane farms are managed by co-operative societies which have access to better facilities like
better seeds, fertilisers, irrigation etc.
Question 3(a)
Mention any two features of the cotton textile industry in India.
Answer
Two features of the cotton textile industry in India are-
Cotton textile industry directly or indirectly supports more than nearly 40% of the country's labour
force.
It is the oldest and the largest industry which is found in almost all the states of India.
Question 3(b)
Why have Mumbai and Ahmedabad emerged as the important cotton manufacturing centres?
Answer
Mumbai and Ahmedabad have emerged as the important cotton manufacturing centres because of
the following reasons-
Climatic conditions — The humid coastal climate favours the textile making without breaking the
thread.
Transport facilities — These states are well connected through rail and road links with cotton growing
areas of Maharashtra and Gujarat and also through sea routes with the foreign markets.
Proximity to raw material — The supply of raw cotton for the mills is supplied by the cotton
producing areas of the Deccan Plateau that lie close to these mills.
Port Facilities — Good port facilities facilitate import of capital goods, chemicals etc. and the export
of finished goods.
Labour — The states have enough labour force from within or nearby states.
Capital — Both the states have easy access to capital and financial resources.
Power — Power is supplied in Mumbai by the Tata Hydroelectric system while Ahmedabad gets its
power from Ukai and Kakrapara hydroelectric projects.
Market — There is a huge market for the cotton cloth in these states and in the southern states of
the country because of the hot climate which prevails in these areas.
Question 3(c)
State any three problems faced by the cotton industry in India.
Answer
Three problems faced by the cotton industry in India are-
Shortage of Raw Material — There is a shortage of raw material, particularly of long staple cotton.
Shortage of Power — The mills are facing acute shortage of power. This leads to loss of man hours,
low productivity and loss in the mills.
Sick Industrial Units — The industry faces constant threat of sickness and consequent closure. These
sick units require heavy financial investments for replacement and modernisation purposes.
Question 3(d)
What is sericulture? State any two problems faced by the silk industry.
Answer
The rearing of Silkworms for Silk production is known as Sericulture.
Two problems faced by the silk industry are-
Competition from artificial silk which is cheaper and better in quality.
The changes in prices of raw silk badly affect both the weavers and the silk industry.
Question 4(a)
State any two geographical features favourable for setting an industry.
Answer
Two geographical features favourable for setting an industry are-
Raw materials — The location of the industry is guided by the availability of raw material in a
particular area.
Transport — Good transport facilities are required to carry raw materials to the manufacturing units
and finished products to the market.
Question 4(b)
Name two major silk producing centres in Karnataka and West Bengal.
Answer
Two major silk producing centres in Karnataka are Bengaluru and Mysore.
Two major silk producing centres in West Bengal are Malda and Murshidabad.
Question 4(c)
(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing commodity.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place in terms of sugar production.
(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the 'Manchester of India'.
Answer
(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing commodity because its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time.
Therefore, it is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place in terms of sugar production because of old
mills, management and labour problems and shorter crushing period.
(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the 'Manchester of India' because it is the second largest cotton
manufacturing city in India.
Question 4(d)
(i) Name the state having the largest production of non-mulberry silk.
(ii) Name the type of silk available in these states: Assam and Bihar.
Answer
(i) Assam is the largest producer of non-mulberry silk in the country.
(ii) Assam provides non-mulberry silk (tasar, eri and muga). Assam is also the only muga producing
region of the country. Bihar provides tasar silk.
Chp 19
Question 1
............... industry forms the backbone of industrial development in any country.
Chemical
Iron and steel
Coal
Electronics
Answer
Iron and steel
Question 2
............... is used for hardening of steel.
Manganese
Copper
Nickel
Chromium
Answer
Manganese
Question 3
Iron is galvanised by using chromium, ............... and tungsten.
copper
silica
carbon
nickel
Answer
nickel
Question 4
The molten iron that is obtained by the process of ore reduction is known as ............... .
Cast iron
Wrought iron
Pig iron
Steel
Answer
Pig iron
Question 5
............... is the largest steel making company in India in the Public sector.
Steel Production Unit of India.
Steel Manufacturing Unit of India.
Steel Company of India.
Steel Authority of India.
Answer
Steel Authority of India
Question 6
Which of the following are the integrated Iron and Steel plants where SAIL produces Iron?
Bhilai and Durgapur
Salem and Bhadravati
Visakhapatnam and Vijayanagar
None of the above.
Answer
Bhilai and Durgapur

Question 7
............... is the oldest steel plant in the country.
TISCO
CISCO
DELCO
TELCO
Answer
TISCO
Question 8
Bhilai Steel plant was established in collaboration with ............... in ............... .
Germany; West Bengal
erstwhile USSR; Chhattisgarh
France; Madhya Pradesh
Japan; Odisha
Answer
erstwhile USSR; Chhattisgarh
Question 9
Bhilai Steel Plant is located in Durg district of ............... .
West Bengal
Madhya Pradesh
Chhattisgarh
Odisha
Answer
Chhattisgarh
Question 10
The main source of power for the Bhilai Steel Plant comes from the power station at ............... .
Korba
Balaghat
Durg
Bokaro
Answer
Korba
Question 11
The Rourkela Steel Plant was built with cooperation from ............... in ............... .
Britain; Bhirmitrapur
France; Baradwar
Russia; Keonjhar
Germany; Sundargarh
Answer
Germany; Sundargarh
Question 12
Visakhapatnam is the first ............... based steel plant in India.
nuclear power
coal
shore
petroleum
Answer
shore
Question 13
Visakhapatnam steel plant obtains iron ore from ............... in Chhattisgarh.
Korba
Bailadila
Talcher
Durg
Answer
Bailadila
Question 14
............... are organic chemicals derived from petroleum products; LPG and coal.
Fossils fuels
Pharmaceuticals
Petrochemicals
Petro derrivatives
Answer
Petrochemicals
Question 15
Which of the following are mismatched?
Electronics: Kanpur
Petrochemicals: Chennai
Software: Bengaluru
Entertainment: Mumbai
Answer
Electronics: Kanpur
Question 1(a)
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called the backbone of all industries?
Answer
Iron and Steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India.
It is called the backbone of all industries because it provides raw material for making industrial
machinery, electrical machinery, defence equipment, railway tracks, railway engines, bridges, dams,
shops, automobiles, houses and a host of other industrial and consumer goods.
Question 1(b)
What is an integrated steel plant? Give one example.
Answer
An integrated steel plant is the one in which all the processes from providing raw materials, basic
fuels, water supply, etc., to the conversion of steel, rolling, etc., are all done at one place.
For example- Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant, Bhilai.
Question 1(c)
State any three factors which affect the location of an integrated steel plant.
Answer
Three factors which affect the location of an integrated steel plant are-
Availability of raw material — Usually the integrated iron and steel plants are located near the source
of raw material.
Power supply — Adequate power supply facilities are important for working with various machines.
Labour force — Availability of cheap labour force is also important.
Question 1(d)
(i) How is it advantageous for a mini steel plant to use electric furnaces?
(ii) How is it advantageous for a mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw
material?
Answer
(i) It is advantageous for a mini steel plant to use electric furnaces because of the following reasons-
Dependency on electric power does not cause pollution.
It conserves coking coal.
Less capital investment is required.
(ii) It is advantageous for a mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw material
because of the following reasons-
Mini steel plants can be distributed all over the country and cater to the demands of the local
market.
They reduce pressure on the large integrated steel plants.
They use scrap iron as raw material which is easily available and is comparatively cheap.
Question 2(a)
Name two major steel plants in the Public Sector. Name one steel plant that was set up with Russian
collaboration.
Answer
Two major steel plants in the Public Sector are-
Visakhapatnam Steel Plant, Andhra Pradesh
Rourkela Steel Plant, Odisha
Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant was set up with Russian collaboration.
Question 2(b)
What are mini steel plants?
Answer
Mini Steel plants generally use ferrous scrap, pig iron or sponge iron as their raw material. They work
through electric furnaces and have a capacity from 10,000 tonnes to about 5 lakh tonnes per year.
Their period of construction and gestation is also short. They are distributed in different parts of the
country particularly in areas away from the integrated steel plants.
Question 2(c)
Mention three factors which have helped Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel
production.
Answer
Three factors which have helped Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel production
are-
Proximity to raw material — Jamshedpur is located close to -
the iron ore deposits in Gurumahisani mines in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha and Noamundi mines in
Singhbhum district, Jharkhand
manganese deposits from Joda in Keonjhar district
limestone, dolomite and fire clay from Sundargarh district, Odisha
coal deposits in Jhari and Bokaro coalfields

Cheap Labour — Labour is employed from the densely populated valley of Ganga, mostly from the
states of Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh.
Transport Facilities — Jamshedpur is well connected with roads and railways to the other parts of the
country. Transport is facilitated by the Eastern Railways. It is also connected with the Kolkata port for
exporting of finished steel.
Question 2(d)
Name the steel plant located in Andhra Pradesh. What two advantages this steel plant have over the
other steel plants in the public sector?
Answer
Visakhapatnam Steel plant is located in Andhra Pradesh.
Two advantages this steel plant has over the other steel plants in the public sector are-
Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a modern integrated steel plant with the latest technology and some of
the largest units.
Visakhapatnam’s modern protected harbour and deep land locked port facilitates import of raw
materials and export of finished goods.
Question 3(a)
What are petrochemicals?
Answer
Petrochemicals are important organic chemicals derived from petroleum products, LPG and coal.
Question 3(b)
Why are traditional raw materials being replaced by petrochemical products?
or
Why are petrochemical products growing in popularity?
Answer
Petrochemicals are cost effective, economically stable, cheaper as they are produced on a mass
scale. Its raw material is easily available, not dependent on agricultural raw material as in the case of
jute. Therefore, raw materials like wood, glass and metals are being replaced by petrochemical
products.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name any two products made from petrochemicals.
(ii) Why is a petrochemical industry usually located near an oil refinery?
Answer
(i) Two products made from petrochemicals are-
Plastic sheets
Resins and adhesives for industries
(ii) A petrochemical industry is usually located near an oil refinery which can supply its basic
requirements of Naphtha or Ethylene and Benzene.
Question 3(d)
The electronic industry has made an impact on both media and education. Give reasons to support
your answer.
Answer
Electronic industry, with mass scale integration process, has produced computers, servers, displays,
televisions and cameras, telephones etc. These devices help to capture and broadcast news,
advertisements, cinema, educational programs etc., to a large section of the population over the
country and overseas, thus changing the life style of the Indian masses.
Various new technologies like smart boards, projectors, video clips, pictures etc., are used to make
learning easy and fun for the students. Further, in this Corona crisis, online classes provided to the
students by the use of various online applications have helped the students to continue their
education from home.
Thus, the electronic industry has made an impact on both media and education.
Question 4(a)
Name two industrial towns which are connected with the production of iron and steel.
Answer
Two industrial towns which are connected with the production of iron and steel are-
Visakhapatnam
Jamshedpur
Question 4(b)
Mini steel plants cause less pollution than integrated steel plants. Give reasons.
Answer
Mini steel plants cause less pollution than integrated steel plants because mini steel plants use
electric furnaces while the integrated steel plants use coal to melt iron ore.
Question 4(c)
State the difficulties experienced by the iron and steel industry in India.
Answer
The difficulties experienced by the iron and steel industry in India are-
Capital intensive — Huge amount of capital is required by the iron and steel industry and the plants
have a long gestation period.
Obsolete technology — The machinery being used in the iron and steel plants is outdated.
Limited availability of Coking coal — The coal reserves of India are limited. Many steel plants import
coking coal.
Sick industrial units — Due to inadequate supply of power and sharp increase in the cost of raw
material, many steel plants are experiencing sickness or have been closed down.
Control of Prices — The government has fixed the price for iron and steel which leaves little margin
of profit for the manufacturers.
Inefficiently managed public sector — Many public sector plants are facing strikes, lockouts, energy
crisis caused by heavy investment on social overheads, poor labour relations, inefficient
management and underutilisation of capacity.
Heavy demand — To meet the increasing demand, large quantity of iron and steel has to be
imported.
Question 4(d)
Give three reasons why the iron and steel industry is concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt.
Answer
The iron and steel industry is concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt because of the following
reasons-
Iron and steel industry requires iron ore, coal, limestone and manganese which are available in close
proximity.
Cheap labour is available to the industries from the states of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha
and Chhattisgarh.
Good network of roads and railway facilitates the movement of raw materials to iron and steel
plants.
Chp 21
Question 1
Any material that is discarded after it has served its purpose and is no longer useful is
called ................ .
compost
waste
manure
pathogen
Answer
waste
Question 2
Any material that is rendered useless during or left over in a manufacturing process is
called ................ .
industrial waste
domestic waste
commercial waste
mining waste
Answer
industrial waste
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a toxic substances present in e-waste?
Cadmium
Lead
Mercury
Methane
Answer
Methane
Question 4
The process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring either naturally or due to human
activities is called ................ .
Biomagnification
Oxygenatioon
Eutrophication
Acid rain
Answer
Eutrophication
Question 5
The increase in the number of phytoplanktons and algae reduce the penetration of ................ , light
and heat into water body.
small fish
nitrogen
oxygen
carbon dioxide
Answer
oxygen
Question 6
Domestic waste being organic in nature undergoes ................ and create conditions favourable for
the growth of pathogens.
fermentation
nitrification
magnification
oxygenation
Answer
fermentation
Question 7
................ is a harmful toxin that affects the development of a child's brain.
Lead
Mercury
Cadmium
Zinc
Answer
Lead
Question 8
................ is a chemical that is said to cause cancer.
Arsenic
Cadmium
Calcium
Lead
Answer
Arsenic
Question 9
The increase in the concentration of various toxic substances along the food chain is called ................
.
Eutrophication
Bio-accumulation
Biomagnification
Demagnification
Answer
Biomagnification
Question 10
The phenomenon of concentrated toxic deposition at the higher trophic level is known as ................ .
Bio-accumulation
Biomagnification
Eutrophication
Biodegradation
Answer
Bio-accumulation
Question 11
The accumulation of toxins will be higher in which of the following ?
Water
Algae
Small fish
Big fish
Answer
Big fish
Question 12
Waste accumulation is a breeding ground for ................ like flies, mosquitoes, rodents and pet
animals.
hectors
vectors
spreaders
carriers
Answer
vectors
Question 13
Which of the following diseases are Not spread by houseflies?
Typhoid
Diarrhoea
Cholera
Amoebiosis.
Answer
Amoebiosis
Question 14
The warming up of the atmosphere due to the increased concentration of Greenhouse Gases is
known as ................ .
Global Warming
Climate change
Acid rain
Radiation
Answer
Global Warming
Question 15
Hepatitis, diarrhoea and corona are ................ diseases.
bacterial
viral
fungal
None of the above.
Answer
viral
Question 1(a)
What is waste? Name two sources of waste.
Answer
The term 'waste' refers to any material that is discarded because it has served its purpose and is no
longer useful.
Two sources of waste are-
Domestic waste like food leftovers, bits of paper etc.
Industrial waste like paints, sand, fly ash etc.
Question 1(b)
How is the 'use and throw' concept responsible for the increase in waste generation?
Answer
The 'use and throw' concept means to use any product only once and then dispose it.
For example, suppose we purchase a pen. After the ink is finished, we throw it away and buy a new
pen instead of buying a refill and reusing the pen. If this example is followed by many people, the
amount of waste will definitely increase in volume.
Thus, the 'use and throw' concept is responsible for the increase in waste generation.
Question 1(c)
What is acid rain? State its impact on the environment.
Answer
Acid rain means the presence of excessive acids in rainwater.
Burning of coal, wood and petroleum produce sulphur and nitrogen. These two react with oxygen
and are converted into their respective oxides- sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide, which are
soluble in water.
During rain, these oxides react with large quantities of water vapour in the atmosphere to form acids
like sulphuric acid, sulphurous acid, nitric acid and nitrous acid. These acids, when they precipitate
together with rain or snow form acid rain.
Impact of acid rain on the environment are as follows-
Acid rain increases the acidity in the soil and destroys forests and crops.
It corrodes buildings, monuments, statues, bridges, fences and railings.
It poses a serious threat to human health, since it contaminates air and water.
Aquatic species are affected due to acid rain.
Acid rain affects plant growth. Plant leaves get burnt and dry.
Question 1(d)
What is meant by Ozone layer depletion? How is it harmful?
Answer
Ozone layer depletion is the thinning of the ozone layer present in the upper atmosphere. This
happens when the chlorine and bromine atoms in the atmosphere come in contact with ozone and
destroy the ozone molecules.
It is harmful because the ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. But depletion of ozone layer
allows the ultraviolet rays of the sun to reach the Earth directly without any obstacle or filtration.
Ultraviolet rays can harm the environment in the following ways-
They cause many diseases like skin cancer and cataract.
They can cause genetic disorders which ultimately affect heredity.
They disturb the ecological balance in marine ecosystem.
They can damage physical and chemical properties of any complex chemical substance.
Question 2(a)
What is E-waste? Why is it increasing at a fast rate?
Answer
E-waste or electronic waste refers to various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have
ceased to be of any value to its users because they have exhausted their utility value due to
redundancy, replacement or breakage.
With advancement in Information Technology, new electronic goods are being produced at a fast rate
and this results in an increase in volume of obsolete electronic products. In fact, e-waste is one of the
fastest growing waste, constituting more than 5% of all municipal solid waste.
Question 2(b)
Explain briefly how does the industrial waste reach the human beings and affect their health.
Answer
Industries dealing with chemicals, pulp and paper, food processing, etc. produce various kinds of
waste material. The smoke coming out from the factories has small particles of dust, carbon, metals,
other solids, liquids and radioactive materials which get mixed in smoke and pollute the air.
The burning of sulphur in coal or heavy oil in thermal power plants releases sulphur dioxide in the air.
Sulphur dioxide combines with oxygen and water to form sulphuric acid in the atmosphere which is a
health hazard. Besides, it produces acid rain.
In winter, smog, a combination of smoke and fog envelopes many cities creating health hazards and
traffic problems. Smog is harmful for health as it causes asthma, bronchitis, shortness of breath, eye
and nose irritation, etc. It also reduces visibility and leads to problems in traffic movement.
Industrial waste like heavy metals or synthetic organic compounds reach water bodies either through
direct discharge or by leaching from waste dumps. Among the heavy metals, cadmium, lead,
mercury, copper, chromium etc., get into water.
The industrial waste mixed with water makes it poisonous and unhygienic. It may also cause various
diseases in humans and animals, if consumed without treatment.
Question 2(c)
Name two toxic particulate materials. State the effect of each on human health.
Answer
Lead — It affects blood system, causes behavioural disorders and can also cause death.
Nickel — It causes respiratory problems and lung cancer.
Question 2(d)
Give two differences between toxic and non-toxic waste.
Answer
Toxic waste Non-toxic waste
Toxic waste is non-biodegradable. Non-toxic waste is biodegradable.

It poses a serious threat to human health and the environment. It does not pose a serious threat to
human health and the environment.
For example, lead, cadmium, mercury etc. For example, food leftover, fruit and vegetable
peelings, bits of paper etc.
Question 3(a)
Explain how eutrophication affects aquatic life.
Answer
Eutrophication is the process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring either naturally or
due to human activities.
Under normal conditions, algae and phytoplankton use carbon dioxide, inorganic nitrogen and
phosphate from the water as food. They serve as food for the zooplankton, which in turn are eaten
by fish.
When nutrients become abundant due to waste accumulation, the growth of phytoplankton and
algae increases. They reduce the penetration of oxygen, light and heat into the water body. As a
result, the aquatic plants are unable to carry out photosynthesis reducing the content of oxygen in
the water. This causes death of most of the aquatic organisms, draining water of all its oxygen.
Question 3(b)
What harm is done by dumping of waste near water bodies?
Answer
Waste dumped near a water source percolates through the soil into the water bodies and
contaminates the water. This results in the accumulation of toxic substances in the water bodies and
further in the food chain through plants and animals that feed on it.
The contaminated water may cause various water borne diseases like typhoid, cholera etc., if the
water is consumed without treatment.
Question 3(c)

(i) Marine animals and turtles are found dead in many coastal areas.
(ii) Radioactive waste is more harmful than other waste.
(iii) Uncontrolled burning of waste causes air pollution.
Answer
(i) Marine animals and turtles are found dead in many coastal areas due to plastic debris in the
ocean. More than 80% of this plastic comes from land. It washes out from the beaches and streets. It
travels through storm drains into streams and rivers. It flies away from landfills into seas. In the
ocean, this plastic waste breaks down into smaller pieces, which are easily ingested by marine
animals causing blockages in their digestive tracts and eventual death. Marine turtles are more
susceptible to the effects of consuming marine debris because they have downward facing spines
which prevent the possibility of regurgitation.
(ii) Radioactive waste is more harmful than other waste because radioactive wastes cause pollution
and damage the environment and the high level products of nuclear wastes remain in the
environment for several hundred years.
(iii) Uncontrolled burning of waste creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic
substances into the environment and cause air pollution.
Question 3(d)
What is biomagnification? What can be its effects on humans?
Answer
Biomagnification refers to the increase in the concentration of various toxic substances along the
food chain.
Toxic substances at the level of primary producers get concentrated at each trophic level as they
move up the food chain. The phenomenon of concentrated toxic deposition at the higher trophic
level is known as bio-accumulation.
For example, if there are traces of toxic chemicals in water, then their concentration in algae will be
much higher. When fish eat the algae, the concentration of toxins will increase further. Therefore,
accumulation of a small amount of toxic chemicals in water can have a serious impact on the fish
that live in it. Further, when the fish are consumed by humans and other animals, these toxins can
cause various kinds of diseases in them.
Question 4(a)
Name two diseases which occur because of waste accumulation on land.
Answer
Two diseases which occur because of waste accumulation on land are-
Malaria
Dengue
Question 4(b)
Name two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution.
Answer
Two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution are-
Bronchitis
Lung cancer
Question 4(c)
Name three water-borne diseases.
Answer
Three water-borne diseases are-

Diarrhoea
Cholera
Typhoid
Question 4(d)
Explain briefly the need for management of waste.
Answer
The problem with waste is that it remains in our environment. We move waste from one place to
another but never get rid of it completely. Nature has recycled waste materials for millions of years.
However, human population has increased so rapidly during the last century that the environment is
now threatened by our activities and the wastes they produce. Much damage is done to the
environment by the pollution of air, degradation of soils and contamination of water sources like
rivers, lakes etc.
There is a close connection between the waste, pollution and the damage to the environment. Waste
causes pollution, which in turn causes the damage. The dangers posed by global pollution due to
accumulation of wastes, threaten the survival of the ecosystem and call for the need to manage
waste.
Question 5(a)
Why is the handling of solid wastes a major problem?
Answer
The handling of solid waste is a problem because most disposal methods cause harm to the
environment. Both open dumps and landfills may contain toxins that seep into the soil and the water
bodies and cause soil and water pollution respectively.
The uncontrolled burning of waste creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic
substances into the environment and cause air pollution. Scavengers and stray animals invade the
open garbage dumps and spread the waste over a large area, thereby, spreading germs and diseases
as well as destroying the beauty of the place.
Question 5(b)
Name the gas produced by the decomposition of accumulated waste. Why is this gas harmful?
Answer
Methane gas is gas produced by the decomposition of accumulated waste.
This gas is highly inflammable, and can cause an explosion if not managed properly.
Question 5(c)
(i) 'Use and throw' concept generates more waste.
(ii) Run off from fields leads to death in adjacent water bodies.
(iii) Birds feeding on agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction.
Answer
(i) 'Use and throw' concept generates more waste because this concepts means to use any product
only once and then dispose it. Therefore, after using a product only once, it is neither re-used nor
recycled, but disposed once and for all. And since people are using this concept in modern times, the
generation of waste is increasing to new levels.
(ii) Run off from fields leads to death in adjacent water bodies because the fertilisers and pesticides
used in the fields have chemicals. When they reach the water bodies, the toxins present in the waste
can kill aquatic organisms directly by sufficiently changing the pH of water, covering the water
surface and causing a reduction in dissolved oxygen. The aquatic organisms may also become victims
of bio-magnification and bio-accumulation.
(iii) Birds feeding on agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction because feeding on agricultural
waste affects them adversely. Such birds have thinner and weaker egg shells and increased mortality.
Question 5(d)
What is Global Warming? Name any two Greenhouse Gases?

Answer
The rise in average mean temperature of the earth on account of enhanced concentration of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is known as global warming.
Two Greenhouse gases are-
Carbon dioxide
Methane
Chp 22
Question 1
Dry waste consists of waste that is ............... .
biodegradable
non-biodegradable
non-toxic
organic
Answer
non-biodegradable
Question 2
Wet waste is the waste that is ............... in nature.
non-biodegradable
organic
recyclable
toxic
Answer
organic
Question 3
............... of waste is the key to effective waste management.
Segregation
Modification
Solidification
Nitrification
Answer
Segregation
Question 4
Biodegradable waste can be converted into ............... .
soil
humus
rubber
compost
Answer
compost
Question 5
............... is the cheapest method of waste disposal.
Open dumping
Sanitary landfill
Incineration
Recycling
Answer
Open dumping
Question 6
............... is a way of disposing waste on land without causing health hazards or public safety.
Dumping
Sanitary landfill
Recycling
Incineration
Answer
Sanitary landfill
Question 7
............... is an aerobic method of decomposing solid wastes.
Incineration
Recycling
Composting
Dumping
Answer
Composting
Question 8
The organic waste from households undergo ............... to form compost.

reduction
burning
decomposition
churning
Answer
decomposition
Question 9
Compositing rejuvenates poor soils by adding ............... .
nutrients
manure
humus
oxygen
Answer
humus
Question 10
............... process is used for waste disposal by industries and municipalities.
Compositing
Dumping
Incineration
Segregation
Answer
Incineration
Question 11
Waste can be effectively managed by using three ............... of waste management.
S's
R's
C's
M's
Answer
R's
Question 12
Which of the following is Not included in three R's of waste management?
Reduce
Reuse
Recycle
Regenerate
Answer
Regenerate
Question 1(a)
What do you mean by segregation of waste? How does it ensure safe waste disposal?
Answer
Segregation of waste means dividing the waste into different categories like dry and wet or
biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
When waste is segregated, there occurs a reduction in the volume of waste that reaches the landfills.
Air and water pollution is considerably reduced and it becomes easier to apply different processes of
waste disposal like composting, recycling and incineration.
Question 1(b)
What is meant by open dumping of waste? Why is open dumping not considered as an environment
friendly method?
Answer
In open dumping, waste materials are dumped in open low lands far away from the city.
This method is not environment friendly as the open pits spoil the sight of the area and become a
breeding ground for mosquitoes, flies, insects, etc., that are the carriers of harmful diseases. They
give out foul odour. The burning of waste material in the open dumps pollutes the air.
Another danger of open dumping is that rainwater could carry the harmful substances to the nearby
streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could pollute the groundwater.
Question 1(c)
(i) Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered.
(ii) Waste segregation is key to waste management.
(iii) Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly.
Answer
(i) Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered as this prevents the wastes from being
scattered. Waste should not be visible to public, nor exposed to open environment.
(ii) Waste segregation is key to waste management as when waste is segregated, there occurs a
reduction in the volume of waste that reaches the landfills. Air and water pollution is considerable
reduced and it becomes easier to apply different processes of waste disposal like composting,
recycling and incineration.
(iii) Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly because of the following reasons-
It overcomes the growing problem of plastic waste disposal in the country. Since a large amount of
plastic waste is required for a small stretch of road, the amount of waste plastic strewn around gets
tremendously reduced.
This road construction process is eco-friendly with no toxic gases being released.
Question 1(d)
(i) What is a sanitary landfill?
(ii) How is waste disposed of in a sanitary landfill?
Answer
(i) Sanitary landfill is a way of disposing refuse on land without creating nuisances or hazards to
public health and safety. The waste disposal is carried out with minimal environmental damage and
in areas already spoiled or in need of restoration.
(ii) In sanitary landfill, the waste undergoes the following five phases for safe disposal-
In the first phase of operation, aerobic bacteria depletes the available oxygen and causes the
temperature to rise.
In the second phase, anaerobic conditions get established and lead to the evolution of hydrogen and
carbon dioxide.
Phase three establishes population of bacteria and the beginning of methanogenic activity, i.e.,
production of methane from the decomposition of organic matter.
In the fourth phase, the methanogenic activity becomes stabilised.
The fifth phase depletes the organic matter, and the system returns to aerobic state.
Question 2(a)
What is biodegradable waste? Name two useful products which can be made from biodegradable
domestic waste.
Answer
Waste which is organic in nature and can be decomposed or broken down by living organisms is
called biodegradable waste. For example- stale food, rotten fruits and vegetables etc.
Two useful products which can be made from biodegradable domestic waste are compost and
biogas.
Question 2(b)
What service is indirectly done by the rag-pickers for the disposal of waste?
Answer
The poor rag pickers make a living by sorting out reusable and recyclable items from discarded solids.
They do a good job by removing much of the waste from the garbage dumps. Pieces of metal, glass,
rubber, plastics etc., are removed to be recycled to get finished products. Thus, they segregate the
waste and make waste disposal easier.
Question 2(c)
State three steps that should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe disposal of solid
waste.
Answer
The following three steps should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe disposal of solid
waste-
Organising house to house collection of municipal solid wastes.
Biomedical waste and industrial waste should not be mixed with municipal solid waste. The waste
should be segregated into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
Stray animals should not be allowed to move around waste disposal facilities.
Question 2(d)
What is composting? Give two advantages of using compost.

Answer
Composting of waste in an aerobic method of decomposing solid wastes. The organic wastes from
households are made to undergo decomposition in such a way that bacteria and other micro-
organisms break them down and produce a safe, clean and soil like material called compost.
Two advantages of using compost are-
It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soil.
It suppresses plant diseases.
Question 3(a)
What are the three R's of waste management?
Answer
The three R's of waste management are-
Reducing the waste
Reusing the waste
Recycling the waste
Question 3(b)
Explain how reusing waste can reduce the burden of waste disposal.
Answer
One way to prevent waste generation, improve our communities, and increase the material well-
being of our citizens is to take useful products discarded by those who no longer want or need them
and provide them to those who do.
Reusing an item means that it continues to be a valuable, useful, productive item, and replaces new
items that would utilize more water, energy, timber, petroleum, and other limited natural resources
in their manufacture. For example, instead of discarding old or torn shoes, they can be given to
under-privileged or poor people for use.
Hence, if we reuse products, we ultimately avoid the generation of waste and reduce the burden of
waste disposal.
Question 3(c)
(i) Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation.
(ii) Sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.
(iii) We should avoid using polythene carry bags.
Answer
(i) Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation as in India, we have tonnes of
bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp
and this helps to save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.
(ii) Bagasse is a waste product from the sugar industry. In India, we have tonnes of bagasse from
sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this
helps to save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp. Bagasse is also used for making
packaging material for dairy products. Hence, sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.
(iii) We should avoid using polythene carry bags because plastic is non-biodegradable. Plastic has to
be incinerated, recycled or buried in landfills. The polythene carry bags are made from recycled
plastic. They are harmful because the melting of plastic and plastic products breaks some polymer
chains into smaller units which are harmful.
Question 3(d)
What is meant by recycling of waste effectively? Give one example.

Answer
Recycling is a process by which wastes are converted into reusable products, thereby reducing the
usage of raw material and energy and controlling air, water and soil pollution.
Recycling of waste effectively means to recycle an item till it cannot be recycled further and cannot
be utilised any more.
For example, in India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse
is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are normally used for
making paper pulp.

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Chp 8

Choose the correct option

Which of the following constituents add fertility to the soil?

Which of the following are the characteristics of fertile soil?

Adequate amount of moisture

All of the above.

All of the above

Which of the following is a transported or ex situ soil?

Farmers plant trees in several rows to check soil erosion by ............... .

Alluvial soil is rich in which of the following minerals?

None of the above.

Red soil gets its name from ................ .

its ferric oxide content

Both (a) and (b)

None of the above.

Both (a) and (b)

Black soil is also known as ................ .

Laterite soil is mainly found in the highland areas of ............... .

the Peninsular Plateau

the Aravali Range

the Karakoram Range

the Peninsular Plateau

Why is Black soil highly moisture retentive?

It has fifty per cent of clay content

It is formed of weathered lava rocks

It has high quantities of lime and iron

All of the above.

It has fifty per cent of clay content

Why is the Red soil considered ideal for dry farming?

It is formed in areas with poor rainfall and responds to fertilizers.

It is rich in iron oxide.

It is formed in areas with poor rainfall and responds to fertilizers.

Which of the following is correct about the Laterite soil?

It is the residual soil.

It is formed by leaching due to tropical rains.

Humus content of the soil is removed by bacteria.

All of the above.

All of the above

Answer the following questions

What is the soil? Name the four types of soil.

State any two factors responsible for the formation of soil.

Two factors responsible for the formation of soil are —

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The colour of alluvium soil varies in different areas.

(ii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar soil.

(iii) Black soil has a kind of self-ploughing characteristic.

How are alluvial soils formed?

Mention any two advantages of alluvial soil.

Two advantages of alluvial soil are-

It is light and porous. So, it is easily tillable.

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(ii) Alluvial soils vary in texture.

(iii) Nearly all types of crops grow well in riverine soils.

(i) Why is soil a valuable resource for India?

(ii) Why is black soil considered a productive soil?

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Deltaic alluvium is more fertile than the coastal alluvium.

(ii) Black soil is largely found in the Deccan Trap region.