(1015CMD303319001) *1015CMD303319001* Test Pattern

NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 16-06-2019

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HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
TOPIC : Basic Mathematics, U & D, Vectors, Electrostatics (till coulomb’s law)
1. Find the value of cosec(143°). 9. Find  (sin x  cos x) dx
5 4 5 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) sin x – cos x + c (2) –sin x + cos x + c
3 3 3 3
(3) sin x + cos x + c (4) –sin x – cos x + c
2. If the value of sec  in first quadrant in 1.5, then
find the value of cot .
 sec
 /4

10. Find 2
x dx
3 5 5 2 0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 2 3 5
 4
3. Find the maximum value of 3 + 4 cos . (1) 1 (2) (3) (4) –1
4 
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) –1 (4) –5
11. Find the average value of y, when y = x 2 + 1,
4. Find the distance between A(3, 3) and B(–1, –1).
between x = 1 and x = 2.
(1) 4 (2) 2 2 (3) 3 3 (4) 4 2
1 7 10 10
5. Differentiate : x 2 (1) (2) –1 (3) (4)
x 3 3 3
1 1 1
(1) 1 + (2)  2 12. Identify the equation for the following straight
x2 x x
line.
1 1 1 1
(3)  (4) 
2 x x2 2 x x2 y
6. If y = sin(n x)
 = 30°
1 cos(nx) x
(1) sin   (2) (0, –1)
x x
1 sin(nx)
(3) cos   (4)
x x
7. If y = –x2 – 4x + 5, then find the value of x for (1) –x + 3 y + 3 = 0 (2) 3x + 3y + 1 = 0
which y is maximum.
(3) x + 3 y – 1 = 0 (4) – 3 x + y + 3= 0
(1) x = –2 (2) x = 2
13. Correct graph for equation y2 – 2x = 0 is :-
(3) x = 1 (4) x = –1

 
1  
8. Find x
 2  dx
x 
3 1 (1) (2)
(1) x x  2  2x  c
2 x
2
(2) x x  n x  2x  c
3
1
(3) – n x + c
2 x (3) (4)
2
(4) – n x + 2x + c
3x x
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14. Possible equations for inverse hyperbola shown 18. Find the sum of
are :- (–5) + (–1) + 3 + 7 + …… (upto 10 terms)
y (1) 125 (2) 130
(3) 128 (4) 135
1 1 1 1 1
19. Find the sum 1 –  –   + …… upto 
x 2 4 8 16 32

3 2
(1) (2)
2 3
(3) 1 (4) 
(1) xy + 3 = 0 & xy – 4 = 0 20. If force (F) depends on energy (E), length (L) and
(2) xy + 2 = 0 & xy + 5 = 0 time (T) as F = Ep Lq Tr , then value of p, q & r
respectively will be :-
(3) xy – 2 = 0 & xy – 5 = 0
(1) 1, –1, 0 (2) 1, 1, –1
(4) xy – 3 = 0 & xy + 4 = 0
15. Identify the equation of graph from x = 0 to x = . 1 1
(3) 1, , (4) 1, 2, –1
2 2
y
2
a b
21. In the formula F = sin  
V a

x 'F' represent force and 'V' represent velocity, then

0 /2 
find the dimension of (b), if a & b are constants
(1) M–1LT–2 (2) ML2T–2
(1) y = sin x (3) ML2T–3 (4) MLT–3
(2) y = 2 sinx a2b
(3) y = sin x + 2 22. If d = where % error in a is 2%, in b is 1% and
c
(4) y = sin x + 1
c is 4%. Find % error in d.
16. Find the roots of the equation 2x2 – 5x – 3 = 0.
(1) 5% (2) 7%
1
(1) x = &x=2 (3) 8% (4) 9%
2
23. If weight measured by an instrument is 2.300 kg then
(2) x = 2 & x = 3
its least count will be :-
1 (1) 0.1 kg (2) 0.01 kg
(3) x = &x=3
2
(3) 0.001 kg (4) 0.0001 kg
1 24. If two forces act in same direction then their resultant
(4) x = &x=3
2
is 70 N and if they act in mutually perpendicular
17. Find 3
126 :- directions then resultant is 50 N. The forces are :-

376 126 (1) 30 N, 40 N

(1) (2)
75 25 (2) 12 N, 5 N

26 626 (3) 6 N, 8 N
(3) (4) (4) 50 N 20 N
5 125
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25. If the magnitude of sum of two unit vectors is 3 31. Calculate the net charge present on 100 grams of CO2 :-
then find the magnitude of subtraction of these unit (1) 3 × 1025 C
vectors :- (2) 1.6 × 10–19 C
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) Zero
(4) 1.6 × 1025 C
(3) 3 (4) 0
32. Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant
  of the same magnitude F. The angle between the
26. If vectors and

   

 
two forces is :-
are functions of time, then the value of t at which they
are orthogonal to each other is : (1) 45o (2) 120o

 (3) 150o (4) 60o

(1) t = 0 (2) 
 33. If three vectors A, B and C are 12, 5 and 13 in
  magnitude such that C  A  B , then the angle
  
(3)  (4) 
 
between A and B is :-
27. Find the torque of a force
  
 
(1) 60o (2) 90o
   acting at the point    

(3) 120o (4) None

(1)   34. Two vectors of magnitudes 4 and 6 are acting through

a point. If the magnitude of the resultant is R :-
(2)  
(1) 4 < R < 6
(3)   
(2) 4 < R < 10
(4)   
(3) 2 < R < 10
28. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the
(4) 2 > R > 10
magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle
between these vectors is :- 35. The figure shows ABCDEF as a regular hexagon.
What is the value of AB  AC  AD  AE  AF :-
    
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 45° (4) 180°
29. An Alpha particle has 2 protons and 2 neutrons find
E D
the charge present on 1000 Alpha particles :-
(1) 3.2 × 10–19C
F C
(2) 4.8 × 10–19C O
(3) 3.2 × 10–16C
A B
(4) 4.8 × 10–16C
(1) AO

30. In a neutral sphere 5 × 10 21 electrons are present.
If 10% electrons are removed calculate charge on (2) 2AO

the sphere :-
(3) 4AO

(1) 80 C (2) 160 C
(4) 6AO

(3) 320 (4) 640 C
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36. A hall has the dimensions 10 m × 12 m × 14 m. A 41. How many minimum numbers of non-zero vectors
fly starting at one corner ends up at a diagonally in different planes can be added to give zero
opposite corner. What is the magnitude of its resultant :-
displacement is approximately :-
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 17 m (2) 26 m
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 36 m (4) 21 m
42. A body has 5C charge, If 1019 electrons are ejected
If A  3iˆ  6 ˆj – 2kˆ , the directions of cosines of the

37. from it then new net charge one the body is :-

vector A are :- (1) 6.6 C
3 6 2 (2) 1.6 C
(1) , ,
7 7 7
(3) 5 C
3 6 –2 (4) zero
(2) , ,
7 7 7
43. Two conducting spheres are shown. Find charge
6 2 3 on each sphere after closing the switch :-
(3) , ,
7 7 7
R
2 3 6 2R
(4) , ,
7 7 7 10 C 50 C
38. If a vector 2iˆ  3ˆj  8kˆ is perpendicular to the
(1) 10 C, 50 C
vector –4iˆ  4 ˆj  kˆ . Then the value of  is :- (2) 20 C, 40 C
1 (3) 50 C, 10 C
(1) –1 (2) –
2
(4) 30 C, 30 C
1 44. Which statement is true about charging by
(3) (4) 1
2 friction :-

39.

If A = 2i + j – k, B = i + 2j + 3k, and (1) At least one body must be insulator
C = 6i – 2j – 6k, then the angle between (A  B)
 
(2) Both bodies must have equal work function


and C will be :- (3) Body with lower work function will acquire


(1) 30o (2) 45o negative charge

(3) 60o (4) 90o (4) Both neutral bodies will acquire equal and like
charge after friction
40. The component of the vector A  2i  3j along the

45. Which of the following is not an axial vector :-
vector (i + j) is :-
(1) 5 (1) Angular velocity

(2) 5 / 2 (2) Angular momentum

(3) Angular acceleration
(3) 10 2
(4) Displacement between two positions.
(4) 2 5
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TOPIC : Classification & Nomenclature, Chemical Kinetics
46. Number of 1°, 2°, 3°C in isooctane respectively :- 53. Correct IUPAC name of isooctane :-
(1) 5, 1, 1 (2) 3, 4, 1 (1) 2,4,4-Trimethyl pentane
(3) 5, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 2 (2) 2,2,4-Trimethyl pentane
47. Ter. butylamine is :- (3) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane
(4) 4,4-Dimethyl pentane
N
(1) NH2 (2)
CH3
54. IUPAC name of is :-
CH3
(3) (4) NH2 CH2–CH3
NH
(1) 3,3-Dimethyl-2-ethyl cyclo hex-1-ene
48. Which of the following is butyric acid :-
(2) 1-Ethyl-6,6-dimethyl cyclo hex-1-ene
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH
(3) 2-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclo hex-1-ene
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH (4) 2-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclo hex-2-ene
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO 55. Correct IUPAC name of CH3–CH 2–C–COOH is :-
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CHO
OHC–C–CH3
CH3 (1) 2-Ethyl-3-formyl-2-butenoic acid
49. CH 3–CH–CN correct name is :- (2) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-4-oxo-2-butenoic acid
(1) Isopropyl cyanide (3) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-3-oxo-2-propanoic acid
(2) Isobutyronitrile (4) 3-Methyl-2-ethyl-4-oxo-2-butenoic acid
(3) 2-Methyl propanenitrile 56. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :-
(4) All of these HO
50. Correct IUPAC name of isobutyl radical :-
(1) Methyl propyl
(1) 1,2-Dimethyl but-2-ene-1-ol
(2) 2-Methylbutyl
(2) 3-Methylpent-3-en-2-ol
(3) 2-Methyl propyl
(3) 3,4-Dimethyl but-2-en-4-ol
(4) 1-Methyl propyl
(4) 2,3-Dimethylpent-3-en-1-ol
CH3 57. The total number of  bond in the following compound
:-
51. The IUPAC name of is :-
CH2–CH 3 CH3

(1) 1-Methyl-5-ethyl cyclo hex-2-ene

(2) 5-Ethyl-3-methyl cyclo hex-1-ene CH3 CH3
(3) 4-Ethyl-6-methyl cyclo hex-1-ene (1) 21 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 20
O O
(4) 1-Ethyl-5-Methyl cyclo hex-3-ene
52. Which of the following is secondary radical :- 58. The correct IUPAC name is is :-
O H
(1) CH2=CH–
(1) Butane-2,4-dione
(2) (CH3)3C–
(2) Formyl ethanoate
(3) C6H5–
(3) Acetic anhydride
(4) CH3–(CH2)2–CH2– (4) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
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59. IUPAC name of the given compound :- 65. The number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain
COOH of given compound is :-

COOH
CN
(1) Cyclohexane-1,2-dicarboxylic acid CH3–CH2–C=C–CH 2–CH 3
(2) Cyclohexane-1,2-dimethanoic acid CHO
(3) Cyclohexane dioic acid (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
66. Which of the following is homocyclic compound :-
(4) Cyclohexane carbaldehyde
(1) Phenol (2) Thiophene
60. Correct IUPAC name of tarteric acid :-
(3) Furan (4) Pyridine
HO–CH–COOH 67. The IUPAC name for the compound is :-
HO–CH–COOH
(Tarteric acid)
O
(1) 2,2-Dihydroxy butane dioic acid
(1) 2-Acetyl prop-1-ene
(2) 2,3-Dihydroxy butane dioic acid
(2) Pent-1-en-4-one
(3) Butane dioic acid
(4) 2-Hydroxy butane dioic acid (3) Pent-4-en-2-one
(4) Formyl propene
68. The IUPAC name of CH3–CH2–NH–CH3 is :-
61. HO
NH2 (1) Methyl ethyl amine
IUPAC name of given compound is :- (2) 1-Methyl amino ethane
(1) 2-Amino-4-ethyl-5-methyl hexan-1-ol (3) N-Methyl ethan amine
(2) 2-Amino-4-isopropyl-hexan-1-ol (4) N-Ethyl methan amine
(3) 5-Amino-3-ethyl-2-methyl hexan-6-ol 69. For a given reaction
(4) 4-Ethyl-2-amino-5-methyl hexan-1-ol 2A + 3B  4C + 5D
62. IUPAC name of CH2=CH–CH2–CCH :- Which of the following is correct :-
(1) Pent-1-en-4-yne (2) Pent-4-yne-1-ene ROD[A] ROD[B] ROA[C] ROA[D]
(1)   
(3) Pent-4-en-1-yne (4) Pent-1-en-4-ene 4 5 2 3
63. Which of the following compound contain the ROD[A] ROD[B] ROA[C] ROA[D]
(2)   
maximum number of hetro atom :- 4 3 2 5
NH2 N NH2 ROD[A] ROD[B] ROA[C] ROA[D]
CH2–CO (3)   
(1) N N (2) O 2 5 4 3
CH2–CO
NH2 ROD[A] ROD[B] ROA[C] ROA[D]
(4)   
2 3 4 5
O
70. For a given reaction
(3) (4) NH
2H2O2  2H2O + O2
N
64. Which of the following compound will have maximum If ROD[H2O2] = 0.2 mole/min., then ROR will be:-
number of carbon in p.c.c :- (1) 0.2 mole/min
Et Et Me Me (2) 0.1 mole/min
(1) (2)
(3) 0.3 mole/min
(3) (4) (4) 0.25 mole/min
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71. For a given Reaction, 76. For which of the following order, the rate of reaction is
Independent of concentration of reactant :-
1
SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 
 SO3 (g) (1) First order
2
If ROA[SO3] = 1.6 × 10–3 Kg/min, then ROD[O2] in (2) Zero order
kg/min will be :- (3) Second order
(1) 1.6 × 10–3 kg/min (4) Fractional order
(2) 1.6 × 10–2 kg/min 77. Rate law for a given reaction 2A + B  C is
(3) 3.2 × 10–4 kg/min r = K[A]2[B]3. Find effect on Rate of reaction if
(4) 3.2 × 10–3 kg/min concentration of A & B both are doubled :-
72. For a given Reaction. (1) 8 times (2) 16 times
4A  7C + 8D (3) 32 times (4) 64 times
If Initial concentration of A is 9 mol/L. After 78. Calculate overall order of reaction from the data:-
10 minutes the conc. of A becomes 6 mole/L, A + B  Products
ROR will be :- [A] [B] ROR
(1) 0.75 mol/L min 0.1 0.3 2 × 10–2
(2) 0.9 mol/L min 0.2 0.3 4 × 10–2
(3) 0.075 mol/L min 0.2 0.6 16 × 10–2
(4) 0.6 mol/L min (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 6
73. For a zero order reaction, unit of rate of reaction and
79. For a given reaction A  Products, rate of reaction
rate constant are respectively :- becomes two times when concentration of A becomes
mol mol 4 times, calculate order of reaction wrt A:-
(1) ,
L min L min
1 1
mol L (1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 4
(2) , 2 4
L min mol min
80. For the given elementary reaction A + 2B  Products,
L L what be value of molecularity & order of reaction
(3) ,
mol min mol min respectively :-
L mol (1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 3 (3) 3, 2 (4) 3, 3
(4) ,
mol min L min 81. For a given zero order reaction : A  Products,Initial
74. For given reaction A  Products, rate constant 'K' conc. of A is 10 mol/L calculate concentration
for the reaction is 0.6 mol/L min, If Initial concentration of A after 20 seconds if t1/2 is 25 sec. ?
of reactant A is 8 mole/L, concentration of A after (1) 6 mol/L (2) 4 mol/L
time 10 minutes is :- (3) 3 mol/L (4) 0 mol/L
(1) 6 mole/L (2) 2 mol/L 82. For reaction 3X + 2Y  Products which of the
following is correct ?
(3) 8 mol/L (4) 0.2 mol/L
(1) ROD[X] = 2 ROD [Y]
75. Initial conc. of Reactant P is 5 mol/L for the reaction
PQ and Rate constant 'K' is 0.02 mol/L min, half (2) ROD[X] = ROA [P]
life(t1/2) of reaction is :- 3
(3) ROD[X] = ROD [Y]
(1) 250 min (2) 500 min 2
(3) 125 min (4) 62.5 min (4) ROD[Y] = ROA [P]
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83. Which of the following, correctly represents the graph 86. Which of following factors can affect the rate constant
between t1/2 and conc. of reactant (A) for a zero 'K' for a reaction :-
order reaction :- (1) Pressure (2) Concentration
(3) Volume (4) Catalyst

t1/2 t1/2 87. For a complex reaction A  B. Identify the correct

(1) (2) rate law ?
conc. of A conc. of A Mechanism :

Step I — A   C (FAST)

K1
 
t1/2 t1/2
Step II — A  C 
K2
 D (Slow)
(3) (4)
(1) K2 [A] [C] (2) K1K2[A]
conc. of A conc. of A
(3) K1K2 [A] 2
(4) K1K2[A] [C]
84. For the reaction PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2
88. aA + bB  P, r = k[A]a[B]b. If conc. of A is doubled,
Calculate rate of disappearance of PCl5 from the rate is doubled. If B is doubled rate becomes four
graph between 5 – 6 sec :- times. Identify the correct option ?

[PCl 5] d[A] d[B]

(1) 
dt dt
12
d[A] d[B]
10 (2) 2
dt dt
8
d[A] d[B]
(3) 2 
2 5 6 dt dt
time(sec) (4) None of these
2mol 89. For the complex reaction
(1) ROD[PCl 5 ] 
L
NH 4  OCN   NH 2 CONH 2
0.5mol
(2) ROD[PCl 5 ]  Mechanism :
L
Step I — NH 4  OCN   NH4OCN (FAST)
1mol
(3) ROD[PCl 5 ]  Step II — NH4OCN  NH2CONH2 (Slow)
L
Identify correct rate law :-
2 mol
(4) ROD[PCl 5 ]  (1) r = k[NH2CONH2]
3 L
For the complex reaction 2NO + Br2  2NOBr. (2) r = k[NH4] [OCN]
+ –
85.
Indentify the correct rate law using following mechanism: (3) r = k[NH4OCN]
Mechanism : (4) None of these
Step I — NO + Br2  NOBr2 (FAST) 90. In the reaction 3A  B + 2C, Initial conc of A is
Step II — NOBr2 + NO  2NOBr (Slow) 8 mol/L after 10 min. conc. of B is 1 mol/L. Then
find rate of reaction :-
(1) r = k [NO]2[Br2]
mol mol
(2) r = k [NOBr2][NO]2[Br2] (1) 0.5 (2) 0.1
L min L min
(3) r = k [NOBr2][NO]
0.5 mol 0.5 mol
(4) r = k [NOBr2][Br2] (3) (4)
3 L min 2 L min
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TOPIC : Up to Ribosomes, Digestion and Absorption.
91. Who was the first to observe a live cell ? 100. Plasma membrane is best described as :-
(1) Robert Hooke (1) Semi-permeable and fluid
(2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (2) Semi-permeable and semi-fluid
(3) Robert Brown (3) Selectively permeable and fluid
(4) Schwann (4) Selectively permeable and semi-fluid
92. In eukaryotic cells, secretory proteins are synthesized 101. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to cell
by :- membrane :-
(1) Mitochondrial ribosomes (1) Cell membrane is an asymmetric structure
(2) Cytosolic ribosomes (2) Cholesterol controls fluidity of animal cell
(3) Polyribosomes membranes
(3) Phospholipid molecules frequently exhibit
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum flip-flop movement
93. Lipids are arranged within cell membrane with (4) Integral proteins can not be easily detached from
(1) polar heads towards inner side and the hydrophobic cell membrane
tails towards outerside 102. Choose the correct combination for given flow
(2) both heads and tails towards outerside. chart :-
(3) polar heads towards outerside and tails towards
inside. RER A Cis-golgi Median-golgi
(4) both heads and tails towards inner side.
94. Who proposed an improvement in the cell Trans-golgi
theory ?
Exocytosis
(1) Schleiden and Schwann Extracellular fluid C B
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Brown A B C
(4) Robert Hooke
(1) Transport Plasma Secretory
95. The figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke
were published in the book :- vesicle membrane vesicle
(1) Origin of species (2) Species plantarum (2) Secretory Transport Plasma
(3) Genera plantarum (4) Micrographia vesicle vesicle membrane
96. Glycosylation is mainly the function of :-
(3) Transport Secretory Plasma
(1) RER (2) SER
vesicle vesicle membrane
(3) Golgi complex (4) Ribosome
97. Which of the following is a universal feature of all (4) Secretory Plasma Transport
living cells ? vesicle membrane vesicle
(1) Nucleus (2) Ribosome
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondria 103. Enzymes of lysosomes become active in :-
98. Choose the incorrect match :- (1) Acidic pH (2) Basic pH
(1) Mitochondrial matrix – Kreb's cycle (3) Neutral pH (4) Any pH
(2) F1 – F0 particle – Oxidative phosphorylation 104. Choose the water-soluble pigment which may be
(3) Na+ – K+ pump – Active transport responsible for yellow colour of petals in a certain
(4) Aquaporins – Active transport of water plant species :-
99. Cathepsins play an important role in the metamorphosis (1) Xanthophylls (2) Carotenoids
of tadpole larva into adult frog by catalysing the (3) Anthocyanin (4) Anthoclor
hydrolysis of :- 105. In chloroplasts, photosystems are located in :-
(1) Proteins (2) Fats (1) Thylakoid Lumen (2) Stroma
(3) Glycogen (4) Nucleic acids (3) Inner membrane (4) Thylakoid membrane

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106. Algal cell wall contains :- 115. Select the wrong statement from the following:
(1) Cellulose (2) Galactans (1) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than
(3) Mannans (4) All of the above mitochondria
107. Detoxification of drugs is the function of :- (2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes inner and an outer membrane
(3) Peroxisomes (4) SER (3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
108. The main lipid component of cell membrane is :- internal compartment, the thylakoid space
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycolipids bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(3) Glycerides (4) Phosphoglycerides (4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
109. The molecules in the cell membrane that limit its 116. Polysome is formed by :-
permeability for polar molecules are the :- (1) A ribosome with several subunits
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Phospholipids (2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
(3) Proteins (4) Water arrangement
110. Which chemical property is shared by all types of lipids (3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
forming the plasma membrane ? (4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(1) Sugar component (2) Amphoteric nature endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Phosphate group (4) Amphipathic nature 117. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous
structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the
111. Which of the following features is common to
maintenance of cell shape is called :
prokaryotes and many eukaryotes ?
(1) Endosplasmic Reticulum
(1) 80S ribosomes
(2) Plasmalemma
(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Cytoskeleton
(3) Nuclear membrane (4) Thylakoid
(4) Membrane-bound organelles 118. Singer & Nicolson are associated with :-
112. In description of ribsomes, such as 70S or 80S, 'S-value' (1) Cell theory
indicates :- (2) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(1) Rate of sedimentation during centrifugation (3) Fluid mosaic model
(2) Time (in seconds) taken to sediment during
(4) Unit membrane theory
centrifugation
119. Colour of flower petals is mostly due to which of the
(3) Number of subunits
(4) Size in Angstroms following cell organelles ?
113. GLUT is associated with :- (1) Chromoplasts
(1) Active transport of glucose (2) Chloroplasts
(2) Uniport of glucose (3) Leucoplasts
(3) Symport of Na+-ions and glucose (4) Large central vacuole
(4) Antiport of Na+-ions and glucose 120. Read the following statements :-
114. Which of the following statements regarding (A) Presence of DNA
mitochondrial membranes is not correct ? (B) Presence of cristae
(1) The outer membrane resembles a sieve (C) Presence of ribosomes
(2) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of (D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
micromolecules.
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
(3) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are
How many of the above features are common for both
embedded in the outer membrane.
mitochondria and chloroplast ?
(4) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming
a series of infoldings. (1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three

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121. In chloroplast, RuBisCO enzyme is present in :- 125. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
(1) Thylakoid membrane (2) Thylakoid lumen glycolipids is :-
(3) Periplastidial space (4) Stroma (1) Vacuole (2) Golgi apparatus
122. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and choose (3) Plastid (4) Lysosome
the appropriate option. 126. Surface of Golgi cisternae towards nucleus is ............
A face and towards plasma membrane is ............. face.
B
C D (1) trans, cis
(2) maturing, forming
(3) maturing, trans
(4) cis, maturing
Options :-
127. The stain used to visualise mitochondria is
A B C D (1) Fast green (2) Safranin
(3) Acetocarmine (4) Janus green
(1) Electron Porins Krebs Oxidation of
transport cycle fatty acids 128. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the
chain following cells in an ascending order of their size.
(2) Porins Electron Oxidation Krebs cycle Choose the correct option among the following
transport of fatty i. Mycoplasma ii. Ostrich eggs
chain acids
iii. Human RBC iv. Bacteria
(3) Porins Electron Krebs Oxidation of Options :-
transport cycle fatty acids
chain
(1) i, iv, iii & ii (2) i, ii, iii & iv
(3) ii, i, iii & iv (4) iii, ii, i & iv
(4) Porins Electron Krebs Oxidative
transport cycle phosphorylation 129. Which of the following statements is true for a cell
chain actively engaged in secreting proteins ?
(1) Golgi apparatus is absent
123. Which cell organelle is concerned with synthesis of
steroidal hormones ? (2) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily
(1) RER (2) SER observed in the cell
(3) Golgi complex (4) Lysosomes (3) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is
124. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and present
select the option which includes all the correct ones (4) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
only :- 130. What is a tonoplast?
(a) Integral membrane proteins are either partially or (1) Outer membrane of mitochondria
completely embedded in the phospholipid bilayer (2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(b) Middle lamella mainly consists of calcium (3) Membrane boundry of the vacuole of plant cells
carbonate
(4) Cell membrane of a plant cell
(c) The quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral
131. Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
(d) Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by (1) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the
the process of simple diffusion. mitochondria
(1) Statements (a) and (c) (2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the
(2) Statements (a), (c) and (d) cytoplasm
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(4) Statements (b), (c) and (d) (4) Membrane bound organelles are present
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132. Which of the following statements is not true for 142. Physiological value of fats is :-
plasma membrane? (1) 4 (2) 5.65 (3) 9 (4) 4.1
(1) It is present in both plant and animal cells 143. Deficiency of proteins & calories is known as:
(2) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it (1) Kwashiorkar (2) Marasmus
(3) Proteins are present integrated as well as loosely (3) Both (4) None
associated with the lipid bilayer
144. Ejection of stomach contents through mouth :-
(4) Carbohydrate is never found in it
(1) Jaundice (2) Vomiting
133. Which of the following is not a eukaryote :-
(3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Amoeba
145. Phagocytic cells present in liver known as :-
(3) Paramoecium (4) Plasmodium
(1) Kupffer’s cell (2) Osteoclast
134. Which of the following is not membrane bound ?
(3) Chondroblast (4) Adipose
(1) RER (2) SER
146. Which substance stops action of enzyme in bolus
(3) Golgi complex (4) Ribosomes
(1) Pepsin (2) Enterokinase
135. Proteins, present in plasma membrane are classified
(3) HCl (4) Mucous
as integral and peripheral on the basis of :-
(1) Density and size 147. Amino acid are absorbed in :-
(2) Ease of extraction from membrane (1) Lacteals of villi
(3) Structure (2) Wall of stomach
(4) Quantity (3) Blood capillaries of villi
136. During swallowing glottis is covered by :- (4) Liver
(1) Epigullet (2) Epiglottis 148. Emulsification of fat is done by :-
(3) Larynx (4) Uvula (1) Bile salts (2) Bile pigments
137. Which is absorbed against concentration gradiant? (3) Intestinal lipase (4) Pancreatic lipase
(1) Water 149. Which is the function of Gall bladder ?
(2) Fat (1) Deamination
(3) Amino Acid & Na+ (2) Storage of fats
(4) Bile (3) Bile storage
138. Muscles present outside lips :- (4) Storage of glycogen
(1) Orbicularis oculli (2) Orbicularis oris 150. Parotid salivary gland are present :-
(3) Masseter (4) Buccinator (1) Below the eye orbit (2) Below tongue
139. Hard plate is made up of :- (3) Below ears (4) Below hyoid
151. Formation of glycogen from lactic acid :-
(1) Nasal & palatine
(1) Gluconeogenesis (2) Glycogenolysis
(2) Mandible & palatine
(3) Glyconeogenesis (4) Glucogenesis
(3) Maxilla & palatine
152. Main site for digestion in stomach is :-
(4) Hyoid & palatine
(1) Nucleic Acid (2) Fats
140. Structures which covers the opening of internal nasal (3) Proteins (4) Carbohydrate
pores during ingestion :- 153. If all peptide bonds of amino acid are broken than:
(1) Hyoid (2) Epiglottis (1) Amide (2) Oligosaccharide
(3) Tongue (4) Uvula (3) Polypeptide (4) Amino acid
141. Deficiency of Niacin result in :- 154. Which cells secrets HCl ?
(1) Nansea (2) Pellagra (1) Peptic cells (2) Parietal cell
(3) Beri-Beri (4) Cheilosis (3) Mucous cell (4) Enterocyte
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155. Trypsin is activated by :- 169. Which of the following stimulates the secretion of
(1) Chymotrypsin (2) Procarboxy peptidase gastric juice ?
(3) Enterokinase (4) HCl (1) Enterogastrone (2) Hepatocrinin
156. Dentine is secreted by :- (3) Secretin (4) Gastrin
(1) Odontoclast (2) Osetoclast 170. CCK & secretin secreted by :-
(3) Odontoblast (4) Chondroblast
(1) Stomach (2) Ileum
157. How many teeth in human are diphydont ?
(3) Duodenum (4) Colon
(1) 20 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 12
158. Islets of Langerhan’s are found in :- 171. Dental formula in adult man is :-
(1) Pacific ocean (2) Intestinal villi (1) 2122 (2) 2102
(3) Ovary (4) Pancreas (3) 2123 (4) 2132
159. Man needs carbohydrate as a source of energy and 172. Glucose and galactose unite to form :-
gets these from :- (1) Isomaltose (2) Lactose
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose
(3) Both (4) None
173. Muscular contractions in the alimentary canal is
160. From point of ontogeny, liver is :-
known as :-
(1) Ectodermal (2) Endodermal
(1) Systole (2) Diastole
(3) Mesodermal (4) Ectomesodermal
161. Which one of the carbohydrate is monosaccharide? (3) Peristalsis (4) Metachronal
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose 174. Submucosal gland is present in :-
(3) Starch (4) Cellulose (1) Ileum (2) Stomach
162. Amylase enzyme acts on :- (3) Oesophagus (4) Duodenum
(1) Starch (2) Protein 175. Maximum digestion of starch is completed in :-
(3) Fat (4) Canesugar (1) Oral cavity (2) Stomach
163. Peyer’s patches produce :-
(3) Small intestine (4) Colon
(1) Enterokinase (2) Lymphocyte
176. Hydrolysis of lipid yields :-
(3) Mucous (4) Trypsin
164. Bow-shaped legs in childrens are due to deficiency (1) Fats (2) Fatty acid & glycerol
of vitamin :- (3) Maltose (4) Mannose & glycerol
(1) D (2) B (3) C (4) A 177. Milk is digested by :-
165. Which of these will leave the stomach first in Man: (1) Renin (2) Amylase
(1) Proteins (2) Fats (3) Invertase (4) Rennin
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Alcohol 178. In stomach after physical & chemical digestion food
166. Fatty acids & glycerol are absorbed first by :- is called :-
(1) Blood capillaries (2) Blood (1) Bolus (2) Faeces
(3) Lymph vessels (4) Hepatic portal vein (3) Chyme (4) Amino acids
167. Insulin is secreted by :- 179. One of the following is not a constituent of saliva :-
(1) -cells (2) -cells (1) Bicarbonate (2) Lysozyme
(3) Delta cells (4) Gama cells (3) Maltose (4) IgA
168. Hormone cause contraction of gall bladder :- 180. Which is absorbed in proximal intestine ?
(1) Secretin (2) Gastrin (1) Bile (2) Sodium
(3) Villikinin (4) Cholecystokinin (3) Vit.B12 (4) Iron
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