Abnormal Psychology Practice Test (1) from Barlow & Durand 7th Edition book by John Mark

Dela Cruz

1. A psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or impairment in

functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected.

a. Psychological dysfunction

b. Psychological distress

c. Psychological impairment

d. Abnormal behavior

2. A psychological disorder characterized by marked and persistent fear of an object or

situation.

a. Anxiety

b. Object fear disorder

c. Phobia

d. Specific phobia

3. You are out on a date. However, you experience severe fear all evening and just want to go
home, even though there is nothing to be afraid of, and the severe fear happens on every date
you have.

a. Atypical response

b. Personal distress

c. Psychological dysfunction

d. None of the above

4. You are out on a date. However, you experience severe fear all evening and just want to go
home.

a. Atypical response

b. Personal distress

c. Psychological dysfunction

d. None of the above

5. Describing the patients presenting problem which is represented by the unique combination
of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up a specific disorder. a. Clinical description
b. Etiology c. Psychological Criteria

d. Psychopathology

6. The anticipated course of a disorder is called __. a. Onset

b. Course

c. Prevalence

d. Prognosis

7. Schizophrenia follow an/a _________, meaning that they tend to last a long time, sometimes
a lifetime.

a. Episodic course

b. Chronic course
c. Acute onset

d. Insidious onset

8. Mood disorders follow an/a______, in that the individual is likely to recover within a few
months only to suffer a recurrence of the disorder at a later time.

a. Episodic course

b. Chronic course

c. Acute onset

d. Insidious onset

9. Some disorders have an/a _____, meaning that they begin suddenly; others develop
gradually over an extended period, which is sometimes called an/a ______.

a. Acute onset; insidious onset

b. Insidious onset; acute onset

c. Acute onset; chronic course

d. Insidious onset; chronic course

10. Number of people in the population as a whole that have the disorder: _______; new
cases that occur during a given period: ______.

a. Incidence; prevalence

b. Prevalence; incidence

c. Onset; course

d. Course; onset

11. The individual will probably recover: _______; the probable outcome doesn’t look good:
_____.

a. Good prognosis; bad prognosis

b. Good prognosis; guarded prognosis

c. Positive prognosis; negative prognosis

d. None of the above

12. The study of changes in abnormal behavior.

a. Psychopathology

b. Developmental pathology

c. Developmental psychopathology

d. Developmental psychology

13. The study of origins, has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it) and includes
biological, psychological, and social dimensions.

a. Causality

b. Nosology

c. Epidemiology

d. Etiology
 14. Biological, psychological, and social influences contribute to the _____ of disorders.

a. Etiology

b. Factors

c. Causes

d. Process

15. Patients were shocked back to their senses by applications of ice-cold water.

a. Water dunking

b. Hydrotheraphy

c. Hydrotherapy

d. None of the above

16. People are suggestible when they are in states of high emotion. Therefore, if one person
identifies a “cause” of the problem, others will probably assume that their own reactions have
the same source. In popular language, this shared response is sometimes referred to as__.

a. Emotion contagion

b. Conformity

c. Mob hysteria

d. Mob psychology

17. If someone nearby becomes frightened or sad, chances are that for the moment you also
will feel fear or sadness. This is a demonstration of ____.

a. Emotion contagion

b. Hysteria

c. Mass hysteria

d. Conformity

18. He assumed that normal brain functioning was related to four bodily fluids or humors:
blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm.

a. Galen

b. Hippocrates

c. Philippe Pinel

d. Socrates

19. The theory that asserts that abnormal brain functioning was related to four bodily fluids or
humors: blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm.

a. Galenic theory

b. Hippocratic theory

c. Humoral theory

d. Fluid approach

20. Which is/are correct pair

i. Phlegmatic: phlegm
 ii. Sanguine: blood

iii. Melancholic: black bile

iv. choleric person: yellow bile

a. i only

b. i and iii

c. i, ii, and iv

d. all of the above

21. Dorothea Dix campaigned endlessly for reform in the treatment of insanity. Her work
became known as the ______.

a. Moral therapy

b. Mental hygiene movement

c. Moral movement

d. Psychological reform movement

22. The therapeutic technique of recalling and reliving emotional trauma (that has been made
unconscious) to release the accompanying tension.

a. Catharsis

b. Insight

c. Free association

d. Rational Emotive technique

23. The energy or drive within the id.

a. Thanatos

b. Libido

c. Pleasure principle

d. Sex

24. Source of psychic energy according to Freud.

a. Eros and Thanatos

b. Libido

c. Tension

d. Creative power

25. Anna Freud: _______; Heinz Kohut: ________.

a. Ego psychology; self- psychology

b. Self-psychology; ego psychology

c. Self-psychology; object relations

d. Ego psychology; attachment theory

26. According to _______, you tend to see the world through the eyes of the person
incorporated into yourself.
 a. object relations theory

b. psychoanalysis

c. self-psychology

d. attachment theory

27. Patients come to relate to the therapist: ______; Therapists project some of their own
personal issues and feelings, usually positive, onto the patient: _______.

a. Countertransference; transference

b. Positive regard; unconditional positive regard

c. Transference; countertransference

d. unconditional positive regard; Positive regard

28. The complete and almost unqualified acceptance of most of the client’s feelings and
actions.

a. Empathy

b. Positive regard

c. Unconditional positive regard

d. Transference

29. Edward Titchener (1867–1927) emphasized the study of _____.

a. Introspection

b. Structuralism

c. Gestalt psychology

d. Behaviorism

30. Skinner’s process of reinforcing successive approximations to a final behavior or set of

behaviors.

a. Modeling

b. Shaping

c. Conditioning

d. Reinforcement

31. Skinner preferred the term _____ to “reward” because it connotes the effect on the
behavior.

a. Modeling

b. Shaping

c. Conditioning

d. Reinforcement

32. Person-centered therapy with unconditional positive regard.

a. Behavioral model

b. moral therapy

c. psychoanalytic theory
 d. humanistic theory

33. The _________ processes all information received from our sense organs and reacts as
necessary.

a. Brain

b. Hypothalamus

c. HPA axis

d. Central nervous system

34. Transmit information throughout the nervous system. It contains a central cell body with
two kinds of branches namely dendrites and axon.

a. Neurotransmitter

b. Neuron

c. Myelin sheath

d. Hormones

35. A small space through which the impulse must pass to get to the next neuron.

a. Clef

b. Synaptic cleavage

c. Synaptic clef

d. Nerve space

36. Each endocrine gland produces its own chemical messenger, called a ___.

a. Neurotransmitter

b. Serotonin

c. Hormone

d. Cortisol

37. Is an excitatory transmitter that “turns on” many different neurons, leading to action:
_______; an inhibitory neurotransmitter: ______.

a. GABA; cortisol

b. Cortisol; GABA

c. GABA; glutamate

d. Glutamate; GABA

38. This neurotransmitter regulates our behavior, moods, and thought processes. Also,
patients with OCD have concentrated amount of this neurotransmitter in the part of the frontal
lobe of the cerebral cortex called the orbital surface (Chamberlain et al., 2008; Harrison et al.,
2013).

a. Dopamine

b. Serotonin

c. Cortisol

d. Norepinephrine
 39. Which neurotransmitter seems to be involved in our emergency reactions or alarm
responses?

a. Dopamine

b. Serotonin

c. Cortisol

d. Norepinephrine

40. First described the concept of learned helplessness.

a. Martin Seligman

b. Ivan Pavlov

c. Albert Bandura

d. BF Skinner

41. Short-lived, temporary states lasting from several minutes to several hours, occurring in
response to an external event.

a. Mood

b. State c. Affect

d. Emotion

42. A more persistent period of affect or emotionality.

a. Mood

b. State

c. Affect

d. Emotion

43. Refers to the momentary emotional tone that accompanies what we say or do.

a. Mood

b. State

c. Affect

d. Emotion

44. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors
in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder.

A. Clinical Assessment

B. Diagnosis

C. Psychological testing

D. Clinical evaluation

45. The process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets
all criteria for a psychological disorder.

A. Clinical Assessment

B. Diagnosis

C. Psychological testing
 D. Clinical evaluation

46. Is the degree to which a measurement is consistent.

a. Validity

b. Standardization

c. Reliability

d. Consistency

47. Measures what it is designed to measure.

a. Validity

b. Standardization

c. Reliability

d. Consistency

48. If the results from a standard, but long, IQ test were essentially the same as the results
from a new, brief version, you could conclude that the brief version had _______. a. Predictive
validity

b. Face validity

c. Concurrent validity

d. Internal validity

49. If you go to a clinician on Tuesday and are told you have an IQ of 110, you should expect
a similar result if you take the same test again on Thursday. This is an example of ______.

a. interrater reliability

b. reliability

c. test–retest reliability

d. consistency

50. The process by which a certain set of standards or norms is determined for a technique to
make its use consistent across different measurements.

a. Standardization

b. Consistency

c. Utility

d. Normalization

51. Mental Status exam covers

i. Appearance and behavior

ii. Thought processes

iii. Mood and affect iv. Intellectual functioning

v. Sensorium

a. iv only

b. iv and ii

c. iv, iii, and ii

 d. all of the above

52. Refers to our general awareness of our surroundings.

a. Thought processes

b. Mood and affect

c. Intellectual functioning

d. Sensorium

53. Are made up of questions that have been carefully phrased and tested to elicit useful
information in a consistent manner so that clinicians can be sure they have inquired about the
most important aspects of particular disorders (Summerfeldt, Kloosterman, & Antony, 2010).
Clinicians may also depart from set questions to follow up on specific issue.

A. Structured interview

B. Unstructured interview

C. Semistructured interview

D. Follow up interview

54. To use the example of the violent boy, an observer would note that the sequence of events
was (1) his mother asking him to put his glass in the sink, (2) the boy throwing the glass, and
(3) his mother’s lack of response.

Using ABC observation, the first sequence of event is called _____, the second event is _____,
and the last one is _____. a. Antecedent, Behavior, Consequence

b. Antecedent, Behavior, Conduct

c. Behavior, Antecedent, consequence

d. Consequence, Behavior, antecedent

55. Herman Rorschach: ___________; Morgan & Murray: _______.

a. Inkblot Test; TAT

b. Rorschach inkblot test; TAT

c. Rorschach inkblot test; MMPI

d. Rorschach inkblot test; Projective Test

56. IQ score is calculated by ___.

a. 100

b. 100

c. 100

d. 100

57. The test shows a problem when none exists: ________; no problem is found even though
some difficulty is present; _______.

a. False negative, false positive

b. False positive, false negative

c. Validity; reliability

d. Reliability; validity
 58. When Lisa was brought to Dr. Miller’s office, he asked if she knew the date and time, her
identity, and where she was.

a. Sensorium

b. Thought processes

c. Mood and affect

d. Intellectual functioning

59. Dr. Swan listened carefully to Joyce’s speech pattern, noting its speed, content, and
continuity. He noticed no loose association but did hear indications of delusional thoughts and
visual hallucinations.

a. Sensorium

b. Thought processes

c. Mood and affect

d. Intellectual functioning

60. An IQ score of 72.

a. Border Line

b. Low average

c. Average

d. Mild mental retardation

61. idiographic strategy: _______; nomothetic strategy: _______.

a. determine what is unique about an individual’s personality, cultural background, or

circumstances; name or classify the problem

b. name or classify the problem; determine what is unique about an individual’s personality,
cultural background, or circumstances

c. determine what is common about an individual’s personality, cultural background, or

circumstances; name or classify the problem

d. treat the problem; determine what is unique about an individual’s personality, cultural
background, or circumstances

62. If someone were to ask you to describe a dog, you could easily give a general description
(the essential, categorical characteristics), but you might not exactly describe a specific dog.
Dogs come in different colors, sizes, and even species (the nonessential, dimensional
variations), but they all share certain doggish characteristics that allow you to classify them
separately from cats. This is a/an example of _______. DSM-5 is also based on this approach.

A. categorical approach

B. dimensional approach

C. prototypical approach

D. none of the above

63. The following are DSM-5 criteria for Major Depressive Episode, except;

A. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day

B. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day,
nearly every day.
 C. Significant weight loss when dieting or weight gain.

D. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day.

64. This means the signs and symptoms chosen as criteria for the diagnostic category are
consistently associated or “go together” and what they identify differs from other categories.

a. Predictive validity

b. Content validity

c. Construct validity

d. Internal validity

65. A valid diagnosis tells the clinician what is likely to happen with the prototypical patient.

a. Predictive validity

b. Content validity

c. Construct validity

d. Criterion validity

66. Judge the usefulness of the diagnostic category.

a. Predictive validity

b. Content validity

c. Construct validity

d. Criterion validity

67. If you create criteria for a diagnosis of, say, social phobia, it should reflect the way most
experts in the field think of social phobia, as opposed to, say, depression.

a. Predictive validity

b. Content validity

c. Construct validity

d. Criterion validity

68. Allowed the clinician to gather information about the individual’s functioning in a number of
areas rather than limiting information to the disorder itself. This framework is used in the
previous version of DSM.

a. Dimension system

b. Categorical system

c. Multiaxial system

d. Biological framework

69. Former axes I, II, and III of DSM-IV have been combined into the _________ in DSM-5.

a. descriptions of the disorders

b. severity of the disorders

c. global assessment functioning (GAF)

d. dimension of the disorders

 70. Individuals who have all the symptoms but do not cross _______ of impairment could not
be diagnosed with a disorder. Example, Frank has been positive with MDD symptoms according
to DSM – 5 criteria. However, he is not depressed most of the day.

a. Threshold

b. Criteria

c. Dimension

d. Social aspect

71. Refers to the values, knowledge, and practices that individuals derive from membership in
different ethnic groups, religious groups, or other social groups, as well as how membership in
these groups may affect the individual’s perspective on their experience with psychological
disorders (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).

A. Beliefs

B. Habits

C. Norm

D. Culture

72. The individual is diagnosed with more than one psychological disorder at the same time.

a. Onset

b. Course

c. Compatibility

d. Comorbidity

73. In DSM-5 the term “mental retardation” has been dropped in favor of the more accurate
term “_________,”

a. Intellectually incapacitated

b. intellectual disability

c. mental disability

d. intellectual retardation

74. Any factor occurring in a study that makes the results uninterpretable because a variable
other than the independent variable may also affect the dependent variable.

a. Independent variable

b. g-factor

c. Q-factor

d. Confounding variable

75. The process of assigning people to different research groups in such a way that each
person has an equal chance of being placed in any group.

a. Randomization

b. Normalization

c. Standardization

d. Classification
 76. In the basic components of a research study, which is/are correct

i. Research design - The plan for testing the hypothesis. Affected by the question addressed,
by the hypothesis, and by practical considerations

ii. Dependent variable - Some aspect of the phenomenon that is measured and is expected to
be changed or influenced by the independent variable.

iii. Independent variable - The aspect manipulated or thought to influence the change in the
dependent variable.

iv. External validity - The extent to which the results of the study can be attributed to the
independent variable.

v. Internal validity -The extent to which the results of the study can be generalized or applied
outside the immediate study.

a. i, ii, and iii

b. i and ii

c. ii and iii

d. all of the above

77. The study of the incidence, distribution, and consequences of a particular problem or set of
problems in one or more populations.

a. Epidemiology

b. Incidence

c. Prevalence

d. Etiology

78. In _________ design, researchers take a ______ of a population across the different age
groups and compare them on some characteristic.

a. Longitudinal; longitude

b. Sequential; sequence

c. Correlational; correlation

d. Cross-sectional; cross-section

79. Involves repeated study of different cohorts over time.

a. Longitudinal design

b. Sequential design

c. Correlational design

d. Cross-sectional design

80. Which of the following statement is/are true;

i. Afer participants are told the nature of the experiment and their role in it, they must be
allowed to refuse or agree to sign an informed consent form.

ii. If the participant is in the control group or taking a placebo, informed consent is not needed.

iii. Research in universities or medical settings must be approved by the institution’s review
board regarding whether or not the participants lack the cognitive skills to protect themselves
from harm
 iv. Participants have a right to concealment of their identity on all data collected and reported

v. When deception is essential to the research, participants do not have to be debriefed

regarding the true pose of the study.

a. I and ii

b. I only

c. I, iii, and iv

d. All of the above

81. In cross-sectional designs, the participants in each age group are called ___

a. Participant

b. Cross-sectional participant

c. Cohorts

d. Subjects

82. _____ is a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension and
by apprehension about the future (American Psychiatric Association, 2013). In humans it can be
a subjective sense of unease, a set of behaviors or a physiological response originating in the
brain and reflected in elevated heart rate and muscle tension. Lastly, it is a future- oriented
mood state.

a. Anxiety

b. Fear

c. Phobia

d. Panic

83. As an immediate alarm reaction to danger.

a. Anxiety

b. Fear

c. Phobia

d. Panic

84. Is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied by

physical symptoms that usually include heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and,
possibly, dizziness.

a. Fear

b. Anxiety

c. Generalized anxiety

d. Panic attack

85. Panic attack in fixed situations: ______; Varying panic attacks with no clue when or where
it will occur: ______.

a. Unexpected; expected

b. Fixed; varied

c. Expected; unexpected
 d. Varied; fixed

86. Raj is unable to speak whenever he faces women. However, he converses well with his
friends Sheldon, Leonard, and Howard. Raj is suspected to have _____.

a. specific phobia

b. social anxiety disorder

c. panic disorder

d. Selective mutism

87. Samantha was a 20-year-old college student with an engaging personality but not many
friends. She came to the clinic complaining of excessive anxiety and general difficulties in
controlling her life. Samantha is diagnosed with ____.

a. agoraphobia

b. social anxiety disorder

c. generalized anxiety disorder

d. Selective mutism

88. Sheldon Cooper is a very intelligent person with strict morning bathroom routine. He
and Leonard lived together in a nice apartment. Leonard observed that Sheldon keeps on sitting
on a specific couch. Whenever someone tries to sit in this couch, Sheldon fidget uncomfortably
and argue “that’s my spot”. Sheldon’s behavior annoyed most of the people around him. Despite
of this, Sheldon seems to notice no wrong about him. Sheldon could be diagnosed with
________ due to the presence of ______.

a. Narcissistic PD; ego-syntonic

b. Obsessive-compulsive; ego-syntonic

c. Narcissistic PD; ego-dystonic

d. Obsessive-compulsive PD; ego-syntonic

89. ________ are most ofen prescribed for generalized anxiety, and the evidence indicates
that they give some relief, at least in the short term.

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Antipsychotic drugs

c. Venlafaxine

d. Paroxetine

90. The following are not interoceptive daily activities typically avoided by people with
Agoraphobia except;

a. Watching an aquarium

b. Walking in a very fine weather

c. Dancing

d. Having a polite conversation with a friend

91. Most patients with panic disorder and agoraphobic avoidance display an avoidance of
internal physical sensation called ____.

a. interoceptive avoidance
 b. interceptive avoidance

c. external avoidance

d. exteroceptive avoidance

92. An interruption of breathing during sleep that may feel like suffocation.

a. Gagging

b. Snoring

c. Sleep apnea

d. Night terror

93. One hypothesis that panic disorder and agoraphobia evolve from psychodynamic causes
suggested that early object loss and/or separation anxiety might predispose someone to develop
the condition as an adult. These concepts are from the theory of ____ and ____ respectively.

a. Melanie Klein; Mary Ainsworth

b. Melanie Klein; John Bowlby

c. Melanie Klein; Heinz Kohut

d. Melanie Klein; Anna Freud

94. The following are not highly effective psychological treatments for treating panic disorder
EXCEPT;

a. Systematic desensitization

b. Moral therapy

c. Cognitive therapy

d. Cognitive behavioral therapy

95. Is an irrational fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with an
individual’s ability to function.

a. Agoraphobia

b. Phobia

c. Object phobia

d. Specific phobia

96. Anthropophobia is a fear of ___.

a. Human history

b. Humanity

c. Human society

d. Human study

97. Ron Weasley experiences an extreme anxiety whenever he is close with Hemione Granger.
He fidgets and can’t function properly when Hermione is around. He has been experiencing this
for about a year. Despite of being friends with both Hermione and Harry, Ron endured this
intense anxiety whenever the three are into adventures. Ron might be diagnosed with ___.

a. Nothing, this is just a simple crush. The anxiety he felt is an outburst of his feelings

b. Love syndrome. Ron is in love with Hermione

 c. Panic disorder, because of his extreme anxiety

d. Specific phobia, Ron has a mysterious hermionephobia – a fear of Hermione.

98. Doctor Stephen Strange is driving his car while talking to a friend when suddenly a fatal
accident occurred. Before the accident, while on the phone, his friend heard his scream. Doctor
Strange’s friend was diagnosed with a specific phobia 6 months afer the accident. His phobia
was acquired through ____

a. Direct experience

b. Vicarious experience

c. Communicative experience

d. being told about danger

99. Billy had no friends. He was unwilling to attend social or sporting activities connected with
school, even though most of the other kids in his class went to these events His teachers
had difficulty getting anything more than a yes or no answer from him. More troublesome was
that he had been found hiding in a stall in the boy’s restroom during lunch, which he said he
had been doing for several months instead of eating. Billy has a ______

a. General anxiety disorder

b. Phobia

c. Social anxiety disorder

d. Separation anxiety disorder

100. From the psychological point of view, most clinicians agree that victims of PTSD should
face the original trauma, process the intense emotions, and develop effective coping procedures
in order to overcome the debilitating effects of the disorder (Beck & Sloan, 2012; Najavits, 2007;
Monson, Resick, & Rizvi, in press). The psychoanalytic therapy would use ____, in reliving
emotional trauma to relieve emotional suffering.

a. Word association

b. CBT

c. Catharsis

d. Free association

Answer Key

17. A 81. C

19. C 83. B 20. D 84. D

22. A 86. D

24. A 88. D
30. B 94. D

1. D

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. D

7. B

8. A

9. A

10. B

11. B

12. C

13. D

14. A

15. C

16. D

18. B

21. B

23. B

25. A

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. A

31. D
32. D

33. D

34. B

35. C

36. C

37. D

38. B

39. D

40. A

41. D

42. A

43. C

44. A

45. B

46. C

47. A

48. C

49. C

50. A

51. D

52. D

53. C

54. A

55. B

56. A
 57. B

58. A

59. B

60. A

61. A

62. C 63. C 64. C 65. A 66. D 67. B 68. C 69. A 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. D 79. B 80. C

82. A

85. C

87. C

89. A 90. C

91. A 92. C

93. B

95. D 96. C 97. D 98. B

99. C 100.