Environmental Studies
Module-1 – Environmental Pollution & Waste Management &
Public Health Aspects
Objective type questions & answers:
1. Ground water characteristics must be monitored at least once in a till design
span.
a) Week b) Month
c) Day d) Quarter
2. Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance km.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
3. If no open wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least
monitoring wells.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
4. How should the monitoring wells be arranged in the absence of bore wells?
a) One on up gradient and other three on the down gradient
b) One on up gradient and other two on the down gradient
c) One on up gradient and other one on the down gradient
d) One on up gradient and other four on the down gradient
5. The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least
a) Once in a year b) Once in two years
c) Once in three years d) Once in four years
6. The directions of the ground water flow have to be established with
a) State Ground Water Board b) Water Control Board
c) PCB d) SPCB
7. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) 1970 b) 1972
c) 1974 d) 1976
8. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Central Government b) State Government
c) Governor of the State d) President of India
9. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of
pollutioncontrol?
a) Water Pollution Control Board b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board d) Air pollution Control Board
10. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the
CentralGovernment?
a) Five b) Ten
c) Twenty d) Twenty Five
11. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute?
a) One b) Ten
c) Not constitute any committees d) As many committees as
necessary
12. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai b) Raipur
c) Mysore d) New Delhi
13. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India d) Government of
India
14. What is the full form of NAMP?
a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
15. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water
Pollution constituted?
a) 1974 b) 1978
c) 1982 d) 1985
16. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
17. When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?
a) 2000 b) 2005
c) 2010 d) 2015
18. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to
safeguard theenvironment?
a) Brazil b) Denmark
c) China d)
India
19. Groundwater containing bacteria and viruses can result in
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem
20. is caused by drinking water high in nitrates.
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem
21. contaminant causes kidney and liver problems if present in groundwater.
a) Benzene b) Toluene
c) Benzotoulene d) Lead
22. is caused due to groundwater contamination by septic tank.
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d)
Hepatitis
23. from leachate cause chest pain in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene
c) Mercury
d) Cadmium
24. from leachate can lead to coma in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene
c) Phenol d) Cadmium
25. from leachate can lead to gum disease in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Nickel b) Benzene
c) Phenol d) Cadmium
26. Leachate containing lead causes in humans in case of long term exposure.
a) Anorexia b) Tremor
c) Anaemia d) Renal failure
27. Leachate containing mercury causes in humans in case of long term exposure.
a) Anorexia b) Tremor
c) Anaemia d) Renal failure
28. regulates ground water that is shown to have a connection with surface water.
a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA
29. SDWA established drinking water source protection programs.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
30. regulates treatment and storage of hazardous waste to prevent contamination.
a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA
31. act authorizes the government to clean up contamination from
hazardoussubstances.
a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d)
CERCLA
32. regulates pesticide use to prevent groundwater contamination.
a) FIFRA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA
33. The water which in a state of downward movement under gravity is
a) Groundwater b) Vadose water
c) Connate water d) Juvenile water
34. What is the process of movement downwards of vadose water called?
a) Infiltration b) Filtration
c) Deposition d) Down-flow
35. What is the upper surface of the zone saturation called?
a) Aquifer` b) Aquiclude
c) Water table d) Aquifuge
36. What is the water obtained from precipitation called?
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water
37. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water
38. What is usually the nature of connate water?
a) Sweet b) Odour
c) Salty d) Odourless
39. Juvenile water is also called
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Magmatic water d) Secondary water
40. Some hot springs are derived from which water?
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water
41. The vadose water which is lost to the atmosphere by transpiration and evaporation is
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Water table
42. Which zone is a zone of non-saturation among vadose water?
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Water table
43. Which zones are together called zone of aeration?
a) Soil water and intermediate zone b) Intermediate zone and zone of capillary water
c) Zone of capillary water and phreatic water d) Soil water and phreatic water
44. The zone of water which occurs only in fine particle size is
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water
45. Which vadose water zone is also called the zone of saturation?
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water
46. Which of the following is not a negative effect of storm water?
a) Volume b) Runoff
c) Potential contaminants d) Evaporation
47. Pollutants entering surface waters during precipitation events is termed
a) Runoff b) Polluted runoff
c) Contaminated runoff d) Water flow
48. Water is recycled into the atmosphere by vegetation through the process called
a) Evaporation b) Evapotranspiration
c) Precipitation d) Runoff
49. Stream erosion can be caused by excess
a) Precipitation b) Evapotranspiration
c) Penetration d) Transpiration
50. Which of these is a single event?
a) Monsoon rain b) Flash flood
c) Flood d) Volcano eruption
51. What is the amount spent in the UK every year because of flooding?
a) £250 b) £260
c) £270 d) £280
52. When was SWMM developed?
a) 1970 b) 1980
c) 1990 d) 2000
53. Which year was the SWMM approved?
a) 2000 b) 2002
c) 2005 d) 2008
54. In which of the months does the maximum sewage flow occur in India?
a) March b) May
c) July d) September
55. poisoning water in Japan is from fishes.
a) Bismuth b) Arsenic
c) Antimony d) Palladium
56.Fishes can store more quantity of in
their bodies.
a) Mercury b) Bismuth
c) Palladium d) Chlorine
56. Waste water released from are not the sources of bacteria.
a) Sanitaria b) Municipalities
c) Tanning d) Industries
57. Bacteria and microorganisms present in the water will cause in human and
animals.
a) Indigestion b) Intestinal tract
c) Brain tumour d) Cancer
58. Amoebic dysentery is caused by
a) Viruses b) Bacteria
c) Helminth d) Protozoa
59. Bacteria in water causes
a) Malaria b) Typhoid
c) Dengue d) Chicken guinea
60. Helminth in the water causes
a) Hook worm b) Amoebic dysentery
c) Cholera d) Typhoid
61. The is an important requirement of the aquatic life.
a) Dissolved nitrogen b) Dissolved chlorine
c) Dissolved oxygen d) Dissolved methane
62. The optimum value in natural water is
a) 2-4ppm b) 4-7ppm
c) 4-6ppm d) 2-7ppm
63. What is the full form of BOD?
a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Biometric oxygen deep water d) Biological oxygen deep water
64. The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the in water.
a) Nitrogen depletion b) Chlorine depletion
c) Oxygen depletion d) Ozone depletion
65. The decomposition of the matter produces into and in presence of
a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen b) Oxygen and nitrogen
c) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen and chlorine
66. In which temperature soil develops slowly?
a) Summer b) Wind
c) Rainy d)
Cold
67. Under ideal climatic conditions how many cms of soil is developed?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
68. What is called for the matured soils which are arranged in a series of zones?
a) Soil zones b) Soil layers
c) Soil horizons d) Soil benches
69. What is soil profile?
a) A cross sectional view of the horizons in a soil b) A front view of the horizons in a soil
c) A cross sectional view of the horizons in rocks d) A front view of the horizons in rocks
70. How many horizons are there in soils?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
71. Which horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil?
a) A b) B
c) C d) O
72. What is called for the mixture of all the contents of soil?
a) Erosion b) Sublimation
c) Degradation
d) Loams
73. What is called for the movement of surface litter and topsoil from one place to another?
a) Soil submerge b) Soil degradation
c) Soil erosion d) Soil pollution
74. Why continuous contour trenches are used?
a) To decrease the infiltration of air b) To enhance the infiltration of air
c) To decrease the infiltration of water d) To enhance the infiltration of water
75. What is used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands?
a) Check dams b) Water purifier
c) Rain harvesters d) Gradonies
76. Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of
a) Organic manure b) Stored water
c) Modern technologies in harvesting
d) Chemical fertilizers
77. What is noise?
a) Desirable sound b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Undesirable and wanted sound
78. In which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel
79. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution d) Soil pollution
80. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0 b) 10
c) 50 d) 100
81. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
a) 100 b) 110
c) 120 d) 146
82. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100 b) 120
c) 146 d) 150
83. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 55 dB
84. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift d) Temporary hearing shift
85. At what level a sound becomes physical pain?
a) Above 50 dB b) Above 70 dB
c) Above 80 dB d) Above 100 dB
86. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery b) Transportation equipment
c) Loud noise d)
Music
87. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on
a) Noise b) Sound
c) Actions d) Behavior
88. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000 b) 2004
c) 2005 d) 2007
89. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
90. When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
91. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
92. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930 b) 1947
c) 1948 d) 1956
93. Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries d) Ministry of Environment and
Forests
94. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983 b) 1984
c) 1988 d) 1990
95. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential
areas
96. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12 b) Section 15
c) Section 18 d) Section 19
97. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70 b) 75
c) 77 d) 80
98. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db b) 80 db
c) 85 db d) 100 db
99. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974 b) 1981
c) 1988 d) 1994
100. What is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality?
a) 10ppm b) 90ppm
c) 1ppm
d) 9ppm
101. What is the primary function(s) of the alveoli?
a) Transfer of oxygen to the blood
b) Removal of carbon dioxide from the blood
c) Transfer of toxic substances to the blood
d) All of the
mentioned
102. Particles of what size are filtered by the nasal passage?
a) >10micrometre b) >500 micrometre
c) >1 mm d) >5 micrometre
Answer: a
Explanation: The moist nasal passage can capture dust particles above 10 micrometre.
103. What is the effect of ozone on human respiratory system?
a) It has higher affinity to bind with haemoglobin and does not allow binding of oxygen
b) It causes the disfigurement of the alveoli reducing the surface area for gaseous transfer
c) It damages lung tissues and aggravates asthma
d) All of the mentioned
104. Which of the following pollutants is the major contributor to photochemical smog?
a) Peroxynitrates b) Hydroperoxides
c) Nitrogen dioxide
d) Ozone
105. What are the effects of sulphur dioxide on the human body?
a) It causes the malfunction of liver and kidney
b) It breaks down body’s immunity towards particulate matter and bacteria
c) It causes blood cells to dilate thereby affecting blood flow through the circulatory system
d) All of the mentioned
106. How does increase in temperature affect air pollution?
a) Higher temperatures reduce air pollution
b) Higher temperatures increase air pollution
c) Temperature does not affect the air pollution levels
d) Humidity factor is also necessary to predict variance of air pollution with temperature
107. When did the air pollution on earth happened first time?
a) When humans started using tools b) When humans started using firewood
c) When humans started using clothes d) When humans started using wheels
108. Who made the first anti-pollution law?
a) Martin Luther King
b) Nelson Mandela
c) Queen Elizabeth
d) King Edward
109. Which was the first major disaster of air pollution?
a) New York smog
b) London smog
c) Paris smog
d) Delhi smog
110. What is the significance of black color moth in Europe during 19th century?
a) Indication of evolution b) Indication of soil pollution
c) Indication of mutation
d) Indication of air pollution
111. What is the main cause of increase in air pollution in the 20th century?
a) Development of the transport system b) Development of infrastructures
c) Development of electricity d) Development of water resources
112. How many primary pollutants are there?
a) Three b) Five
c) Seven d) Nine
113. What are secondary pollutants?
a) Pollutants due to fire b) Pollutants due to emission
c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction d) Pollutants due to oxidation
114. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials
incompletely burn?
a) Sulphur oxide b) Carbon monoxide
c) Oxygen d) Particulates
115. Which of the following cause soot in the environment?
a) Hydrocarbons b) Nitrogen oxide
c) Sulphur oxide
d) Particulates
116. What is aerosol?
a) General term for particles in air b) General term for particles in soil
c) General term for particles in water d) General term for particles inside humans
117. What is smog?
a) Mixture of smoke and particulates b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen
c) Mixture of smoke and fog d) Mixture of soot and fog
118. Aerosol + solid particles + liquid particles results in
a) Dust b) Mist
c) Smog
d) Smoke
119. Which of the following is used in ceramic industries?
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber
120. Wet scrubbers are classified into types.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6
121. The centrifugal collectors are classified into how many types?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 2
122. Which of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency?
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber
123. Which of the following fluid is used in web scrubbers?
a) Lime b) MgSO4
c) NaCl d) K2Cr2O7
124. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the fabric filter?
a) They can remove very small particle
b) They are liable to chemical attack
c) They have low efficiency in comparison to venturi scrubber
d) They can handle large volume of gas at relatively high speed
125. Which of the following removes both gaseous and particulate contaminants?
a) Venturi scrubber b) Gravitational settling chamber
c) Dynamic precipitator d) Wet scrubber
126. Identify the correct statement regarding the Electrostatic precipitator.
a) Minimum particle size removal is <0.5μm
b) They can be operated at high temperature
c) It has a low maintenance cost
d) It does not cause any freezing problem
127. Which was the first city to an established system of waste removal?
a) Lahore b) Athens
c) Paris d) London
128. Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
a) Because it is very costly b) Because it requires modern technologies
c) Because it cause several environmental issues
d) Because it requires lot of space
129. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?
a) Integrated waste management plan b) Recycling of waste management plan
c) Reducing of waste management plan d) Use of waste management plan
130. The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
a) Hazardous b) Toxic
c) Non hazardous d) Non toxic
131. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
132. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?
a) Source reduction b) Recycling
c) Disposal d) Burning
133. Which of the following can be recycled many times?
a) Plastic b) Wood
c) Organic materials
d) Aluminum
134. Why plastics are difficult to recycle?
a) Because it is very hard material b) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
c) Because of different types of polymer resins d) Because of different sizes of plastic
135. How many key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill are there?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
136. How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water d) By the soil particles
137. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed
furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration
138. Why the recycled paper is banned for use in food containers?
a) Because it creates contamination b) Because it creates a lot of spaces
c) Because paper can be used only one time
d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
139. The process of burning of municipal solid waste at high temperature is called
a) Incineration b) Composting
c) Land filing d)
Shredding
140. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
a) Polythene bags b) Synthetic fiber
c) Food waste d)
Paper
141. In which method of disposal of municipal solid waste, the waste is dumped in the
soil?
a) Incineration b) Composting
c) Land filing d)
Shredding
142. Which of the following is correct regarding disposal of waste by land filling?
a) Economical method b) Preferred in low lying areas
c) Foul gases are not produced d) Separation of different types of waste not
required
143. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is a) 100
kg/m3 b) 450 kg/m3
c) 700 kg/m3 d) 1000
kg/m3
144. The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is
called
a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Vermi-composting d)
Composting
145. The waste produced in cotton mills are
a) Municipal solid waste b) Non biodegradable waste
c) Hazardous waste
d) Non hazardous waste
146. Which of the following is not the land filling method?
a) Bangalore method b) Area method
c) Depression method d) Trench
method
147. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from
it.
a) Leachate b) Sludge
c) Distilled water d) Municipal
waste
148. Which of the following is not the municipal solid waste?
a) Radioactive substance b) Ashes
c) Food waste d)
Rubbish
149. Which of the following waste can be decomposed by bacteria?
a) Radioactive substance b) Ashes
c) Food waste d)
Rubbish
150. is the cutting and tearing of municipal solid waste.
a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization d)
Composting
151. is the crushing and grinding of municipal solid waste.
a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization d)
Composting
152. In which method of composting, decomposition of anaerobic waste takes place?
a) Indian method b) Depression method
c) Bangalore method d) Trench
method
153. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid
waste?
a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
154. The different ways a person can come into contact with hazardous chemicals are
called
a) Exposure pathways b) Toxic pathways
c) Chemical pathways d) Hazard
pathways
155. Minamata, Japan hazard outbreak had effect on the population.
a) Direct b) Acute
c) Minimal
d) Chronic
156. Exposure to caused environmental hazard in USA in the year 1985.
a) Methylisocyanate b) Lead in paint
c) Carbamate pesticide d)
Lead
157. Which of the following chemical is responsible for London smog episode?
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur
c) Sulphur trioxide d) Sulphur
oxide
158. Environmental disease outbreak in Toyama, Japan was due to
a) Lead b) Cadmium
c) Mercury d)
Zinc
159. Which of the following chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from
Bhopal gastragedy?
a) Methylisocyanate b) Methylisocyanade
c) Methyl d)
Methylcyanate
160. Heavy metals like Arsenic, Cadmium and Cyanide effects
a) Immune system b) Nervous system
c) Skin d) Respiratory
system
161. What is chronic toxicity?
a) Effects due to long term exposure b) Effects due to short term exposure
c) Effects due to exposure d) Benefits due to
exposure
162. What is acute toxicity?
a) Effects due to long term exposure b) Effects due to short term exposure
c) Effects due to exposure d) Benefits due to
exposure
163. What is the iron and steel constitute of e-
waste?a) 20 b) 30
c) 40 d) 50
164. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?
a) Lead b) Glass
c) Plastic d)
Iron
165. In 2006, the IAER projected that electronic and electrical appliances
wouldbecome e-waste by 2010.
a) 1 billion b) 2 billion
c) 3 billion d) 4
billion
166. According to the Comptroller and Auditor- General’s (CAG) report what is the amount
of e-waste generated annually?
a) 4LT b) 5LT
c) 6LT d) 7LT
167. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?
a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt d)
Cadmium
168. What is the hazardous pollutant released from electron tubes?
a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt d)
Cadmium
169. What is the hazardous pollutant released from batteries?
a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Cadmium
170. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?
a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Copper
171. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards?
a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper
172. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones?
a) Lithium b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper
173. What is the hazardous pollutant released from calculators?
a) Lithium b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Copper
174. Nickel is released from
a) Display b) Calculator
c) Alloy
d) Transformers
175. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?
a) Lithium b) PCBs
c) Lead
d) Copper