HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG NĂM HỌC 2017-2018

BẮC BỘ MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
Ngày thi: ……..
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
(không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm 10 trang)

A. SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: For questions 1 – 5, listen to part of a discussion about a book on laughter. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces
provided. (10 points)
1. Provine’s book proposes that laughter is used to improve human ________________________ .
2. Mark says that today people often only laugh at TV ________________________ .
3. Diana says that women think a good ________________________ is vital in personal male/female
relationships.
4. Diana thinks that the fact that there haven’t been many ________________________ in the past reflects
a commonly held attitude.
5. Although laughter is important in relationships, there is no evidence to suggest that our
________________________ would benefit.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

False
Part 2: Listen to a conversation between two psychologists about modern childhood. For questions 1-5,
decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the numbered
boxes below. (10 points)
1. Daniel implies that past images of childhood are entirely fictional.
2. According to Daniel, children are failing to learn adequate social skills.
3. Louise believes that modern life has a negative effect on children.
4. Louise says that the media encourages celebrities to inspire young children.
5. Daniel implies that machines are more of a menace to children than people are.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 3: For questions 1 - 5, listen to Tim Cole talking about guidebooks and choose the best answer (A,
B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. Once, when Tim used a guidebook in Australia, _____.
A. he found the best budget hotel ever
B. it took him ages to find the place he was looking for
C. he ended up at an unexpected destination
D. he travelled a lot to his favourite places
2. Tim believes the problem with guidebooks is that _____.
 A. some of them are very poorly researched
B. many things have changed by the time you read the book
C. they are only regularly updated
D. some passengers cannot book their hotels
3. The thing Tim particularly dislikes about guidebooks is _____.
A. the recommendations about where to eat
B. that they have too much information about nightlife
C. the limited amount of information about history and culture
D. that they are too heavy to carry
4. Other things which should be included in guidebooks are _____.
A. clear and detailed maps of the area
B. as much information as possible about an area
C. good pictures of well-known tourist sites
D. as much money as possible
5. What is Tim’s view on digital guidebooks?
A. They can be problematic when downloading.
B. He can’t find what he wants as easily as he can in a traditional guidebook.
C. He likes the fact that they’re tailored to your individual requirements.
D. Too many travellers are too trusting of their guidebooks.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4: Listen to the news about Reindeer and fill in each blank of the news summary with the missing
information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
Polar bears aren't the only beloved Arctic animal threatened by climate change. Scientists believe
reindeer are at risk as a warming world makes their main winter food source disappear. But reindeer on one
Alaskan island are (1) ______________.
Historically, the reindeer population on St. Paul island ate (2) _________, a small type of plant or
fungus that grows on rocks in areas with cold weather. However, climate change has made it harder for
lichen to grow on this island, and the reindeer ate the lichen faster than it could grow back. Researchers
thought that the reindeer population would starve without access to lichen, but these reindeer have found
another way to survive.
Reindeer are not (3) ___________ to Alaska, and they were introduced to rural villages around the
state in the (4) __________, in order to provide an alternative food source for residents of the villages. In
communities like St. Paul, where grocery prices are (5) ___________, residents depend on reindeer to feed
their families. And to (6) ____________ winter, the reindeer need something as well.
Fortunately, after the reindeer on this island depleted the lichen supply, they went (7)
_____________. They began digging and discovered new sources of food: roots and grass shoots. Plants
like these grow more quickly than lichen in the warmer, wetter conditions introduced by climate change,
and the reindeer’s (8) ___________ to their new diet is a good sign for the survival of the species.
However, reindeer researchers are not so (9) ___________. They warn that global reindeer populations are
still in danger, as climate change warms and alters their (10) _______________, as are many other animals
that depend on colder conditions to survive.
(Adapted from “When Their Food Ran Out, These Reindeer Kept Digging”)

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
 4. 9.
5. 10.

B. SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1. For questions 1 – 20, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence (20 points)
1. I’ve got something of great importance to………to you
A. impair B. impart C. compare D. deport
2. He praised his wife for her dignity under the……… of the tabloid press.
A. onslaught B. assault C. onset D. offensive
3. The Roundhouse Hotel is……… named for its shape.
A. despicably B. eerily C. aptly D. wantonly
4. Commentators should think twice before reviving this ugly stereotype in an attempt to……… police for
killing a black teenager.
A. apportion B. decriminalize C. exculpate D. discharge
5. She’s still……… over whether to accept the job she’s just been offered.
A. tottering B. doddering C. dithering D. faltering
6. Several fans have claimed that they were……… by security guards.
A. inundated B. cloaked C. manhandled D. acquiesced
7. You could feel the child's……… rise as we neared the amusement park.
A. spectacle B. exuberance C. abundance D. plethora
8. Brain cancer requires treatment such as……… surgery.
A. aggressive B. confrontational C. malignant D. rigorous
9. She went on and on about how she admired his work - laid it on a bit………, if you ask me.
A. sticky B. sick C. soft D. thick
10. I’m……… my brother is.
A. nowhere like ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious like D. nowhere near as ambitious as
11. The police……… off the street where the bomb had gone off.
A. battened B. cordoned C. fastened D. shuttered
12. The smell of the burnt cabbage was so ……… that it spread to every zoom.
A. pervasive B. effusive C. extensive D. diffuse
13. Why did you ……… and mention the party to Roger? It was supposed to be a surprise.
A. have kittens B. put the cat among the pigeons
C. let the cat out of the bag D. kill two birds with one stone
14. The judge released him on ……… but he’ll have to appear in court again next week.
A. sentence B. bail C. punishment D. fine
15. You will be putting your life on the ……… if you take up skydiving.
A. ground B. way C. lane D. line
16. After the concert, everyone had to……… home through the thick snow.
A. trudge B. tread C. trace D. trickle
17. When his parents are away, his older brother………
A. knocks it off B. calls the shot C. draws the line D. is in the same boat
18. Unfortunately, not all of us obtain our j.ust……… in life.
A. demands B. gains C. deserts D. wins
19. It is public knowledge that new magazines often use free gifts or other………to get people to buy them.
A. gimmicks B. snare C. plots D. scams
20. When his manager went on a business trip, Mario stepped into the……… and chaired the meeting.
A. hole B. breach C. pool D. crack
Part 2. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. For questions 1- 10, find out and correct them.
 It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority of road accidents which involves
the tremendous toll of fatalities each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions or road
shortcomings. Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at junctions, judging the situation
on the road or being unable to accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the “snailpacers” ahead.
Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may be running the risk of causing a tragedy
through their impairing perception, which is not so rare a case, again.
Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary alterations in the traffic system that
change the behavioural patterns of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary resolutions ought
to put into practice if the vehicle users are to benefit from greater security on the road. The idea of
producing safe road users through pre-school parental instruction or through incorporating the safety
regulations for school curriculum has been widely acclaimed in many communities and are expected to
yield the required results as the first step in bettering the qualifications of the future drivers and acquaint
them with the potential hazards that may arise en route.
1. ……… 2……… 3……… 4……… 5………
6……… 7……… 8……… 9……… 10………

Part 3. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or particle. (10 points)
1. Thomas is always flying ______________ the handle at the slightest thing.
2. He is an expert ______________ name only; he actually knows very little about the subject.
3. Mr. John, an impatient and aggressive person, is not at all cut ______________ being a teacher.
4. She drew the lecture ______________ to nearly three hours although it was only supposed to last an
hour.
5. Gareth Bale is a brilliant young footballer who is ______________ the up and up.
6. Jan's good at keeping secrets, so you'll have to worm it _____________ her!
7. None of us could fathom ___________ why the experiment wasn't working.
8. Jim seems to be___________ the misapprehension that tomorrow’s a holiday. It isn't.
9. Josh can while _____________ a whole day playing online computer games with his mates.
10. That’s enough TV! It’s time to knuckle ___________ and get on ________ your homework now.

Part 4: For questions 1 – 10, write the correct form of each given word in corresponding numbered
box. (10 points)
Every Picture Tells a Story

Adapting novels for film almost always involves a process of reduction,

(1) ……… and deletion. This can be very frustrating for the writer, but 1. CONDENSE
also illuminating. Working on a script, I was struck by how much of the
dialogue and narrative description in a (2)……… scene in the novel I 2. GIVE
could (3) ………with, while still getting across the same point. This 3. DISPENSATION
does not necessarily mean that the dialogue and description of the
origin were (4) ……… It is a matter of the type of attention demanded 4. SUPERFLUITY
of the audience by narrative in each medium, and a matter of the type of
redundancy each (5) ……… I do not mean “redundancy” in the usual 5. EMPLOYEE
(6)……..sense of material which is unnecessary, but in a technical sense. 6. COLLOQUY
In a novel, such redundancy would include the repeated (7)……… to
certain traits by which characters are identified, as well as speech tags 7. ALLUDE
such as “he said”. Strictly speaking a character trait needs to be
described only once, but it assists comprehension if we are constantly
reminded of it. And usually we can infer who is speaking in a scene of
dialogue from the content and layout on the page, but speech tags make
reading easier. Stage drama, which consists mostly of speech, imitates
and (8) ……… the redundancy of real speech with various degrees of 8. PRODUCTION
(9) ……… . In some modern dramas, this is taken to an extreme, so that 9. STYLIST
the dialogue seems to consist almost entirely of redundant language,
whose function is purely phatic (merely establishing contact between the
two speakers), leaving us in the dark as to what is being ……(10) . 10. COMMUNICATE
C. SECTION III: READING (50 points)
Part 1. For questions 1- 10, read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D (10 points)
The value of walking
New research reveals that walking just 9,5 kilometers (six miles) a week may make your brain sharper as you
get older. Research published in the October 13 online issue of Neurology (1) ……… that walking may
protect aging brains from growing smaller and, in (2) ………, preserve memory in old age.
‘Brain size shrinks in late adulthood, which can cause memory problems,' study author Kirk Erickson of
the University of Pittsburgh said in a news release. ‘Our findings should encourage further well-designed
scientific (3) ……… of physical exercise in older adults as a very (4) ………approach for preventing
dementia and Alzheimer's disease.’ For the study, the team asked 299 dementia-free seniors to record the
(5) ……… they walked each week.
Four years later, the participants were tested to see if they had developed (6) ……… of dementia. Then
after nine years had passed, scientists (7) ……… the participants’ brains to measure size. At the four-year
test, researchers discovered subjects who walked the most had reduced their risk of developing memory
problems by 50 per cent. At the nine-year checkpoint, those who walked at least 9.5 kilometers a week, had
brains with a larger (8). ……… than those who didn't walk as much. This is not the first study to (9)
……… the benefits of walking in seniors. For example, last spring, Harvard University found that women
who walked regularly at a (10) ……… pace had an almost 40 per cent lower risk of stroke.
1. A. informs B. provides C. suggests D. notifies
2. A. result B. turn C. sequence D. case
3. A. trials B. attempts C. searches D. courses
4. A. indicative B. promising C. fortunate D. ideal
5. A. distance B. length C. duration D. extent
6. A. signals B. factors C. signs D. features
7. A. skimmed B. scanned C. screened D. sounded
8. A. volume B. amount C. dimension D. quantity
9. A. advertise B. promote C. respect D. admire
10. A. brisk B. hard C. crisp D. brief
Part 2: For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
ENGLISH ETYMOLOGY
Etymology is the study of word origins. It is a subiect which seems to hold a remarkable fascination
for people, as can be seen from the numerous blogs and Internet sites dedicated (1) _____ lengthy
discussions and speculations about the origin of a given word. Below are a few examples of words that are
of particular etymological interest.
According to the lexicographer, Samuel Johnson, the original meaning of this word suggests
somewhat cynically that marriage begins with the sweetness and tenderness of honey, but soon wanes (2)
_____ the moon. It still retains those connotations today in the expression honeymoon period which refers
to the first stage of a new activity - a government's first term in office, for example - when people are
prepared temporarily to ignore (3) _____ imperfections. Nowadays, in the context of marriage, the
pessimistic implications have faded and the word simply refers to a holiday taken by a newly married
couple.
This word originated from Latin, where salarium, a derivative of sal- meaning 'salt', referred to 'an
allowance given to soldiers to buy salt'. In former times salt was a valued commodity, over which wars
were (4) _____. It was not taken for (5) _____ as it is today. Use of the word soon broadened out to the
current meaning of 'fixed periodic payment of work done' and passed in this sense via Anglo-Norman into
English.
This word describes something stylishly luxurious. In Britain it also means somebody or something
typical (6) _____ the upper classes. It first appeared in the early twentieth (7) _____ and was widely (8)
_____ to be an acronym for 'Port Out, Starboard Home', referring to the location of the more desirable
cabins on passenger ships travelling (9) _____ Britain and India. Those on the port (left) side on the way
out, and the starboard (right) on the return trip benefited from the sea breeze and shelter from the sun. (10)
_____ it provides a very neat explanation, there isn't a shred of evidence for it. A more plausible solution is
that the modern adjective, posh, is the same word as the now obsolete noun posh, meaning 'dandy' (a man
who cares a lot about his clothes) a slang term current in the late nineteenth century.

Part 3. Read the extract taken from Darwin's book The Voyage of the Beagle then choose the best
answer A, B, C or D to complete each statement. (10 pts)
That large animals require a luxuriant vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed
from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the
reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice
has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and
impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however, we refer to any work of
travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert
character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered
evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew
Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into
consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country.
On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for
days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals
inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We
must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two
zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that
although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am
enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24', in one day's march with the
bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and
one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to
nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on
the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this
same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great
animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith
describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four
feet high and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.' Besides these large animals, every one the least
acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared
only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the
multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven
lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist
remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly
surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The
larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of
underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs me that the
vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock.
There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the
support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the
vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr.
Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour
of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all
large quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there
were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be
extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, eland, five
species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccary,
capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these
two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the
above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, which among the mammalian
there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the
countries which they inhabit.
Adapted from: Voyage of the Beagle, Charles Darwin
1. The author is primarily concerned with ______.
 A. discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their habitats
B. contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa
C. proving the large animals do not require much food
D. describing the size of animals in various parts of the world
2. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ has lead to ______.
A. errors in the reasoning of biologists B. false ideas about animals in Africa
C. doubt in the mind of the author D. incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
3. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to ______.
A. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa
B. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals
C. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals
D. A, B and C are correct
4. The flocks of migratory birds are mentioned to ______.
A. describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa B. indicate the abundance of wildlife
C. contrast with the habits of the antelope D. suggest the size of antelope herds
5. The ‘carnage’ refers to the ______.
A. number of animals killed by hunters B. number of prey animals killed by predators
C. number of people killed by lions D. amount of food eaten by all species
6. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, Darwin
suggests all of the following as partial explanations except ______.
A. food requirements have been overestimated B. rapid regrowth of plant material
C. large area for animals to forage in D. mainly carnivorous animals
7. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except ___________.
A. historical documents B. published illustrations
C. private communications D. recorded observations
8. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to ______.
A. describe a region of great splendor B. counter a popular misconception
C. account for a curious situation D. illustrate a well-known phenomenon
9. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as ______.
A. reliable and imaginative B. observant and excitable
C. intrepid and competent D. foolhardy and tiresome
10. Anterior probability refers to ______.
A. what might have been expected B. ideas of earlier explorers
C. likelihood based on data from India D. hypotheses of other scientists

Part 4. The reading passage below has 7 paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Choose the most suitable heading from the List of Headings
below. Write the appropriate numbers (i - xii) in Boxes. Paragraphs C and G have been done for you. (15
pts)
1. 1. Paragraph A: ________ List of Headings
2. 2. Paragraph B: ________ i. Co-ordination- important for all
3. Paragraph C: ____xi___ ii. Tension and daily routine
4. 3. Paragraph D: ________ iii. Brushing one’s teeth and slicing bread
5. 4. Paragraph E: ________ iv. Fitting the technique to the disability
6. 5. Paragraph F: ________ v. Challenges for the Alexander teacher
7. Paragraph G: ____v___ vi. Musical solutions
vii. Potential drawbacks
viii. Helping the disabled through their helpers
ix. Pain problems
x. Better body “use” for all
xi. Retraining limbs
xii. Breaking bad habits

THE ALEXANDER TECHNIQUE AND DISABILITY

A. The Alexander Technique is a method of psychophysical re-education developed by F. Matthias
Alexander more than a century ago, initially as a result of trying to solve a vocal problem. It is a technique
for the elimination of ingrained habits of 'misuse' that interfere with the healthy and harmonious
functioning of ourselves as a whole, often the underlying cause of many conditions, such as back pain,
neck and shoulder tension, fatigue, breathing disorders and other stress-related illnesses.
B. Our natural reflex mechanisms for balance and posture are largely dependent on the co-
ordination of the head, neck and back. The Technique addresses the causes of 'misuse' and lack of poise
that may be interfering with this relationship. When these mechanisms are allowed to work in harmony,
'good use' spontaneously returns, resulting in easier breathing, freer, lighter movement and a greater ability
to control our reactions and our movements. In other words, the Technique enables us to 'use' ourselves
better, and, in that sense, is concerned with helping anybody - the so called 'able bodied' as well as disabled
people to overcome their disabilities. Hence, the Alexander teacher's approach when working with the
disabled is, in essence, the same as with any pupil of the Technique.
C. For example, if we take a violinist with a 'misuse' problem of the upper limbs causing technical
limitations to his or her playing, the Alexander teacher will work on improving the pupil's overall 'use' by
encouraging the inhibition of the habitual muscular tension pattern that interferes with the co-ordination of
the head/neck/back relationship in order to enable him /her to play with more ease. Similarly, when
working with a pupil who has lost mobility in the left arm from a stroke, the teacher will first of all address
the head/neck/back relationship, and the inhibition of extraneous tension that prevents maximum use of the
affected limb. In this way, it is possible to enable the stroke patient to retrain mobility of the paralyzed part
of the body.
D. The approach and w hat results can be expected vary greatly depending on the disability. For the
stroke patient, especially if lessons are commenced early after the stroke, the Alexander Technique can
play an important role in rehabilitation and mobility retraining. With a blind person, the work is likely to
focus instead more directly on eliminating tension habits that have developed to compensate for the loss of
sight, e.g. insecurity leading to stiff and overcautious walking, balancing difficulties and poor head poise.
E. Working with the disabled pupil, the Alexander teacher can offer help with everyday activities,
things that the average person takes for granted, such as the ability to brush one's teeth, shave, tie one's
shoelaces or cut a slice of bread. By looking at compensatory tension patterns, the teacher can, in many
instances, help the disabled person find a new means whereby they can perform these everyday tasks.
F. In this respect, the lessons may extend to include the disabled person's carer, for example the
person who regularly has to help someone in and out of a wheelchair. Using the Alexander Technique, the
carer learns not only to lift and give support in the most efficient way to avoid damaging his/her own back,
but, as the two learn together, they also become better skilled at working out strategies enabling the
disabled person to become more independent.
G. There are, of course, several factors which have to be taken into consideration when working
with disabled pupils. They may suffer intense pain and discomfort, loss of Kinaesthetic awareness
(sometimes with total loss of sensitivity in parts of the body), severe lack of co-ordination, loss of mobility,
memory loss, blindness, deafness, and speech impairment. The effect this has on the person's emotional
and psychological state also has to be taken into account. Some disabled pupils may need longer lessons,
because of the time required to move them from the wheelchair, take o ff casts, slings and other movement
aids, etc. Others may only be able to concentrate for short periods of time and, therefore, require shorter
lessons more frequently. It often requires a certain amount of inventiveness on the part of the Alexander
teacher, both as far as practical arrangements and the approach to teaching are concerned, a challenge that,
in most cases, is greatly rewarded by the positive results.

Complete the summary below using information from the passage. You may use no more than TWO
WORDS from the passage for each blank.
Example: Alexander Matthias ____developed ____ the technique named after him more than a hundred
years ago.
With the Alexander Technique, people are re-educated in a psychophysical way. The technique
works on the body’s (6) ________________ so that they all operate harmoniously. As a result, bad habits
are eliminated and the individual is able to live a healthy life. Alexander’s technique can help any of us to
(7) ________________ ourselves better. As regards (8) ________________ person, the expected results
and exact method used vary, according to the requirements of the individual, e.g. shorter and more regular
sessions in the case of clients who find it difficult to concentrate. With disabled clients, in fact, a number of
(9) ________________ have to be considered, and for the teacher, who often needs to be very inventive,
this is (10) ________________.
D. SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. For questions 1 to 5, complete the second sentence so that it has it has a similar meaning to the
first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and
SIX words, including the word given (10 points)
1. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticised by the press. (scorn)
-> The press ……………………………………………… of the matter.
2. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. (boils)
-> The statement ………………………………… aware of the present situation.
3. Don't think the police are going to drop your case so quickly. (hook)
-> Don't think the police are going to …………………………… so quickly.
4.I don't really know why, but I don’t trust him. (finger)
-> I can’t …………………………………………………. ,but I don’t trust him
5. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. (prone)
-> Working without a break ……………………………………………… error.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
printed above. (10 points)
1. I expected the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist.
The book fell .......................................................................................................
2. The new deal has introduced many changes in the cooperation
Many a ................................................................................................................
3. I am not certain, but there may be twenty applications for the job.
At a .......................................................................................................................
4. In a nutshell, Joseph’s not up to the job.
The long ...............................................................................................................
5. Alternative medicine is a complete mystery to some people.
Some people are ...................................................................................................

Part 3: Paragraph writing (30 points)

Write a paragraph of about 200-250 words on the importance of IT in modern life

________________________________________________________________________________

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI -
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NINH NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
(Đề thi đề xuất) (Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Complete the notes below. For question 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
Notes on Island Hotel
Type of room required: double room
Time
 The length of stay: approx 2 weeks
 Starting date: 25th April
 Temperature
 Daytime: up to 1. ___________ C
 Erratic weather
Transport
 Free 2.___________
 Normally transferring to the airport takes about 3.___________en-suite facilities and a
4.___________
 gym and spa facilities
 a large outdoor swimming pool
 three standard 5.___________

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes
for television. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (10 points)
1. When he visited Borneo, Martin
A. made a programme about life on the river.
B. had no fixed expectations.
C. became more interested in filming old buildings.
2. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become
A. more organised.
B. more relaxed.
C. more creative.
3. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to
A. relax by the sea.
B. travel for a particular reason.
C. stay in comfortable surroundings.
4. Martin thought that the holiday-makers he saw in the Dominican Republic were
A. risking their health.
B. wasting opportunities.
C. lacking entertainment.
5. What is Martin's opinion of tourism?
A. It should be discouraged.
B. It is well managed.
C. It can be a good thing.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra talking about
her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T)
or FALSE (F). (10 points)
1. As a freelance illustrator, Sandra finds it challenging when she has to work to a tight schedule.
2. Sandra is allowed to work on illustrations before receiving the story if she works with editors she knows
well.
3. For Sandra, keeping the figures realistic rather than cartoonish requires most effort when it comes to
drawing people.
4. Sandra's work made her children good readers at an early stage.
5. Sandra suggests young people who hope to be illustrators showing their specialization in particular
subjects.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker
explains what meteors' are For questions 1-10, complete the notes below which summarise what the
speaker says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (20 points)
'Meteors' is another name for 1.___________
To help explain meteors, planet Earth is compared to a 2.___________
You can think of meteors as a group of 3.___________
In reality, meteors are very small chunks of 4.___________
The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its 5. ___________
When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled downwards by 6.___________
A meteor travels very fast - a hundred times faster than 7.___________, which is described as similar to
striking one end of a 8.___________
Due to the speed it travels through the air, the meteor becomes hotter and hotter.
Because of the heat, the meteor becomes less hard, 9.___________. and then burns
We are lucky that most meteors burn up and never 10.___________
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. Without additional funds from the government, the principal cannot ___________ the issue of
overcrowding in his school.
A. rectify B. banish C. sanction D. maltreat
2. Salt intake may lead to raised blood pressure in ___________ adults.
A. susceptible B. dangerous C. futile D. feasible
3. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ___________ it is clear that he is a great artist.
A. in the aftermath B. by the time C. in retrospect D. in this eventuality
4. In recent years, many hills have been ___________ to give way to buildings.
A. demolished B. levelled C. flattened D. felled
5. The ___________ of thirst is based on the concentration of salt in the blood.
A. sensation B. sentiment C. response D. impression
6. The brother and sister were ___________ over who would get to inherit the beach house.
A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end
7. Don’t trust what you hear on the grapevine. It’s best to hear it straight from the ___________ mouth so
you know it’s true.
A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s
8. Charles Babbage’s “difference engine” is widely regarded as the ___________ of modern computers.
A. precedent B. precursor C. ancestor D. antecedent
9. Because so much wheat has been sold to other countries, local supplies are ___________.
A. expanded B. depleted C. apprehended D. preoccupied
10. Parents know that a caring attitude can not only save you a small fortune, but also even make you feel
good about being ___________ and offering more care than presents.
A. tight-fisted B. pigheaded C. highly strung D. easy-going
11. Ann’s encouraging words gave me ___________ to undertake the demanding task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
12. The international conference of the Cardiological Association has been ___________ in Cairo to
discuss the revolutionary discovery of doctor Gonzales from Mexico.
A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned
13. We did our best to fix the broken computer but our efforts bore no ___________
A. success B. fruit C. luck D. end
14. It was decide that the cost of the project would be ______ so it was abandoned.
A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive
15. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ______ offenders.
A. persistent B. insistent C. inverted D. innate
16. Advertisers often claim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending _______.
A. power B. force C. energy D. ability
17. Before their restoration, parts of the medieval building were in a state of _______.
A. debris B. dilapidationC. devastation D. destruction
18. As you are the strongest in the group, you can take the ______ .
A. lead B. head C. part D. way
19. His new play is not only interesting but also unique. It is really off the beaten _____ .
A. track B. road C. path D. route
20. Even the best medicines are not ______ .
A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified
Your answers:
1. 5. 9. 13. 17.
2. 6. 10. 14. 18.
3. 7. 11. 15. 19.
4. 8. 12. 16. 20.

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. Yet human activities are
making the planet less fit to live by. As the western world carries on consuming two-third of the world's
resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the only
resource we have by what all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is neither built on or
washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover
completely. We discharge pollutant into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a
result the planet's ability to support people is reducing at the very time when rising human numbers and
consumption are making increasing heavy demands on it.
Earth's natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth,
shelter and minerals to keep us feed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensitive in how we use the
resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out
and everyone will suffer.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the box
provided. (10 points)
1. You shouldn't pick ________ him just because he's different.
2. Table salt is composed _________ two elements, sodium and chlorine.
3. _________ the whole, I enjoyed the movie.
4. The boss was really hot _____ the collar when you told him you lost the contract.
5. I have to study day and night to keep _____ top.
6. He showed great ingenuity _____ solving the problem.
7. We had to take _____ the deliveries to make sure every piece was in good condition.
8. What chemical is this? It’s giving ________ a horrible smell.
9. The guide rounded _________ the party of tourists and led them to the cathedral.
10. Owing to circumstances ________ our control, the flight to Rome has been cancelled.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below. (10 points)
It is commonly believed that a break from everyday routine can only do you good. Every summer, you
can spot (1) __________ PROSPECT holidaymakers at airports and waiting for car ferries. They are (2)
__________ MISTAKE - you can tell them a mile away by their sun hats and hopeful expressions.
 For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude awakening from the blissful holiday
dreams of the rest of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (3) ___________ FORESEE expenses can make
you think twice about how (4) ____________ BENEFIT getting away from it all really is.
The fact is, the (5) __________ LIKELY of something going wrong is maximised when you are
abroad and, (6) __________ FORTUNE your ability to deal with crisis and catastrophe is often
minimised. This could be because of language problems, (7) _________ FAMILIAR with the culture, or
simply a different climate, all of which make everything seem different and unreal.
So, what is the answer? (8) ___________ DOUBT an annual escape from normal working life is a very
positive thing. However, the (9) ___________ WISE of seeking an exotic location is (10)
___________ QUESTION when you think of all the things that can go wrong.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

C. READING (50 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Very few of us would admit putting much trust in horoscopes and the fact that the movements of
astronomical bodies (1) _________ to earthly occurrences affecting peoples’ everyday lives.
We all know about the zodiac signs which reflect the position of the sun, the moon and the planets
at the moment of a man’s birth and about the peculiar characteristics (2) _________ to them by astrologers.
We say we will take these phenomena with a (3) _________ of salt while we keep running our eyes over
them in every tabloid we (4) _________ our hands on. Most frequently, we expect horoscopes to predict
the future, to restore our optimistic mood with a piece of comforting information or to (5) _________ our
ego by confirming the superlative features that we tend to attribute to our zodiacs.
However, there’s no scientific evidence to (6) _________ the assumption that human existence is so
closely (7) _________ with the parameters of the celestial bodies. Our curiosity in horoscopes may, then,
(8) _________ our sheer fascination with the unexplained or the unpredictable as well as in the enticing
insight into the future that the horoscopes offer, thus establishing the sense of our (9) _________ an
extreme power over our own lives. An addition explanation is that humans tend to have a soft (10)
_________ for any form of flattery, which is the fact to which astrologers and the horoscope writers seem
to attach the greatest deal of weight.
1. A. rely B. correspond C. match D. compare
2. A. identified B. associated C. incorporated D. ascribed
3. A. speck B. pinch C. grain D. scrap
4. A. settle B. draw C. grab D. lay
5. A. boost B. escalate C. revitalize D. improve
6. A. conclude B. concede C. corroborate D. Confound
7. A. fused B. adhered C. coalesced D. intertwined
8. A. stem B. crop C. rear D. dawn
9. A. disposing B. wielding C. effecting D. committing
10. A. pin B. dot C. spot D. nick
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
The trouble with school
In the first few years at school all appears to (1) ____ very well. There
is much
concern, (2) ____the part of the teachers, with high educational standards,
and the children, even those who are (3) ____ from being socially
privileged in other ways, seem eager and happy. However, by the
time the children reach adolescence, the promise of the early years
frequently remains unfulfilled. Many leave school (4) ____ having
mastered those basic skills which society demands, let (5) ____ having
developed the ability to exercise any sort of creative intelligence.
There is no denying that, in spite of the enlightened concern of our
primary schools with happiness, schooling (6) ____ or other turns into a
distinctly unhappy experience for many of our children. Large (7) ____ of
them emerge from it well aware that they are ill-equipped for life in our
society. So then they either regard (8) ____ as stupid for failing or else,
quite understandably, they regard the activities at (9) ____ they have
failed as stupid. In any event they want no (10) ____ of them. How can
we justify a long period of compulsory education which ends like that?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
The response of most animals when suddenly faced with a predator is to
flee. Natural selection has acted in a variety of ways in different species
to enhance the efficacy of the behaviours, known as "flight behaviours"
or escape behaviours that are used by prey in fleeing predators. Perhaps
the most direct adaptation is enhanced light speed and agility.
Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require sacrifices biter
attributes, so we might expect only some species to adopt a simple fast
flight strategy.
Another way of enhancing the effectiveness of flight is to move in an
erratic and unpredictable way. Many species, like ptarmigans, snipes,
and various antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a
characteristic zigzag fashion. Rapid unexpected changes in flight
direction make it difficult for a predator to track prey.
In some species, like the European hare, erratic zigzagflight might be
more effective in the presence of predators that are faster than they are
and straight light more effective against predators that are slower. One
observation that supports this suggestion is the recorded tendency for
slow-flying black-beaded gulls, which are normally able to escape
predators by means of direct flight, to show frequent changes in flight
direction when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrinesare adept at
capturing flying birds).
A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called
"flash" behaviour. Here, the alarmed prey flees for a short distance and
then "freezes." Some predators are unexcited by immobile prey, and a
startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them.
"Flash" behaviour is used in particular by frogs and orthopteraninsects,
which make conspicuous jumps and then sit immobile. In some species,
"flash" behaviour is enhanced by the display of bright body markings.
 Good examples of insects with colourful markings are the red and yellow
underwing moths. At rest, both species are a cryptic brown color. When
they fly, however, brightly coloured hind wings are exposed, which
render the moths highly conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards
have brightly coloured patches or frills that may serve a 'flash" function
when they move quickly. Some species even appear to possess "flash"
sounds. The loud buzzing and clicking noises made by some
grasshoppers when they jump may serve to emphasize the movement.

1. The word "enhance" in line 2 is closest in meaning to...........

A. encourage B. resist C. increase
D. reveal
2. The description of the prey's movement as "zigzag" suggests that the
movement is.......
A. reliable B. fast C. constant
D. unpredictable
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare.........
A. is faster than most of its predators
B. is capable of two kinds of flight
C. is more likely to escape using straight flight
D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons
4. The behaviour of black-beaded gulls is most comparable to that
of.......
A. gazelles B. European hares C. peregrine falcons
D. frogs
5. It can be inferred that black-beaded gulls change direction when they spot
a peregrine falcon for which of the following reasons?
A. The falcons are faster than the gulls.
B. The gulls want to capture the falcons.
C. The falcons are unpredictable.
D. The gulls depend on the falcons for protection.
6. The word "alarmed" in line 18 is closest in meaning to..........
A. moving B. selected C. frightened
D. exhausted
7. All of the followings are mentioned as characteristics of "flash" behaviour
EXCEPT...........
A. brief conspicuous activity B. immobility
C. bright body markings D. aggressive fighting
8. The phrase "in particular" in line 20 is closest in meaning to...........
A. especially B. with difficulty C. expertly D.
frequently
9. The hind wings of red and yellow underwing moths function in a way that
is most similar to...........
A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons
B. the zigzag flight of European hares
C. the colored patches on frogs
D. the clicking of grasshoppers
10. Why does the author mention "grasshopper" in the last line?
A. To contrast animals that "flash" with animals that "freeze".
B. As an example of an animal whose "flash" behaviour is a sound.
C. To compare the jumping behaviour of insects and reptiles.
D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by
using "flash" behavior.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following extract and answer questions 1-10. (15 points)
For questions 1-10, choose correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning.
List of Headings
i. The biological clock
ii. Why dying is beneficial
iii. The ageing process of men and women
iv. Prolonging your life
v. Limitations of life span
vi. Models of development of different species
vii. A stable life span despite improvements
viii. Energy consumption
ix. Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms
x. Repair of genetic material

HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK?

A. Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as ‘biologically’ obvious. ‘Nothing lives forever!’
However, in this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products which are
subjected to natural wear and tear during use. This leads to the result that at some time or other the object
stops working and is unusable (‘death’ in the biological sense). But are the wear and tear and loss of
function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar or comparable?
B. Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the
object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes ‘older’. Ageing in this case
must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although the same law
holds for a living organism, the result of this law is not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a
biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; an organism
is an open, dynamic system through which new material continuously flows. Destruction of old material
and information of new material are thus in permanent dynamic equilibrium. The material of which the
organism is formed changed continuously. Thus our bodies continuously exchange old substance for new,
just like a spring which more or less maintains its form and movement, but in which the water molecules
are always different.
C. Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses many
mechanisms for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and die. Nevertheless,
a restricted life span, ageing, and then death are basic characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to
recognize: in nature, the existent organisms either adapt or are regularly replaced by new types. Because of
changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and in the course of their
individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions.
Immortality would disturb this system- it needs room for new and better life. This is the basic problem of
evolution.
D. Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span
between different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For example, the
average duration of human life has hardly changed in thousands of years. Although more and more people
attain an advanced age as a result of developments in medical care and better nutrition, the characteristic
upper limit for most remains 80 years. A further argument against the simple wear and tear theory is the
 observation that the time within which organisms age lies between a few days (even a few hours for
unicellular organisms) and several thousands years, as with mammoth trees.
E. If a life span is genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the
existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the ageing process and which
finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like the life span, the metabolic rate has for
different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship to the body mass. In comparison to the life span this
relationship is “inverted”: the larger the organism the lower its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is
valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on average within the systematic unit, for all other organisms
(plants, animals, unicellular organisms).
F. Animals which behave “frugally” with energy become particularly old, for example, crocodiles and
tortoises. Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to “experience life”
and so they attain a high life span in captivity. Animals which save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g.
bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those which are always active. The metabolic rate of mice can be
reduced by a very low consumption of food (hunger diet). They then may live twice as long as their well
fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10 per cent) older than man. If you examine the metabolic
rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male
life span. That means that they live life “energetically”- more intensively, but not for as long.
G. It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme high
performance sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly do not
prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep and in general an equable and
balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own “energy saving programme” with a little self-
observation, critical self-control and, above all, logical consistency. Experience will show that to live in
this way not only increase the life span but is also very healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten.
0. Paragraph A 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D.
4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G

For questions 7 -10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes:

Y if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
N if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NG if there is no information about this in the passage
7. The wear and tear theory applies to both artificial objects and biological systems.
8. Through mutations, organisms can adapt better to the environment.
9. In principle, it is possible for a biological system to become older without ageing.
10. Within seven years, about 90 percent of a human body is replaced as new.
Your answers:
0. v 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10.

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must
use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (10 points)
1. The new theatre is extremely ugly and spoils the view of the village. (blot)
=> The new theatre is _____________________________________ and spoils the view of
the village.
2. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise.
(wonders)
=> Regular exercise_______________________________________ you look at life.
3. It is as yet unclear whether a new sports centre is being planned or not. (seen)
=> It _______________________________________ are any plans for a new sports centre or not.
4. Mary is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge. (match)
=> When it comes ________________________________________________ for Mary.
5. Anthony wasn’t at all discouraged by this bad experience. (put)
=> This bad experience _______________________________________________ least.
Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (10 points)
1. If nothing unfortunate happens, I’ll see you next week.
=> All _________________________________________________________________.
2. Redundancy has caused a lot of domestic problems.
=> Many a _____________________________________________________________________
3. The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
=> The film fell _________________________________________________________________
4. Since she couldn’t get through to the police, she ran next door for help.
=> Not ___________________________________________________.
5 The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
=> There has _____________________________________________________.
Part 3: “Cooperation rather than competition should be encouraged among high-school students.” In
about 200- 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the proposal. Use reasons and examples
to support your position. (30 points)

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XI, NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
(ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
(Đề thi gồm 15 trang)

SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200)

Part 1.Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.(10 pts)
City Library
Head Librarian: Mrs. Phillips
Hours: (1) __________________________to 4:30
Books
Ground floor: (2) ______________________________
Second floor: Adult collection
Third floor: (3) ______________________________
Book carts
Brown cart: books to re-shelve
 Black cart: books to (4) _________________________
White cart: books to (5) ________________________
Part 2. You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. Choose the
answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1.What does Daniel imply about past images of childhood?
A. They are entirely fictional. B. They all show the misfortunes of childhood.
C. They are diverse. D. They represent the innocence of childhood.
2. When mentioning the children throwing bags on the bus stop, Louise is
A. critical. B. amused. C. angry D. sarcastic.
3. According to Daniel,
A. children are failing to learn adequate social skills.
B. children do not eat a balanced diet.
C. children are becoming involved in political scandals.
D. children are far more social than they used to be.
4. What does Louise say about the media?
A. Manipulative actors have a negative effect on children.
B. It encourages celebrities to inspire young children.
C. Adverts are aimed more at young people than adults.
D. It glorifies unrealistic ideals.
5. Daniel implies that
A. children would be happier if their parents taught them at home.
B. machines are more of a menace to children than people are.
C. teachers aren’t helping children to be competitive enough.
D. most teenage problems stem from an unbalanced diet.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the
statements are true or false. (10 pts)
1.Mrs Kent is worried about the weather in the near future.
2. According to Tom Sheridan, people don’t talk about the weather any more.
3. Paul Spenser does the production of a cookery programme.
4. Jane thinks that students should be given free books.
5. An elderly listener doesn’t think young people should have to pay in the discos.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television for young people in which the
speaker explains what ‘meteors’ are. Complete the sentence with no more than three
words for each space. (20 pts)
‘Meteor’ is another name for (1) _____________________. To help explain meteors,
planet Earth is compared to a (2) _____________________. You can think of meteors as a
group of (3) _____________________. In reality, meteors are very small chunks of (4)
_____________________. The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its
(5) _____________________ . When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled
(6) _____________________ by gravity. A meteor travels very fast – a hundred times
faster than (7) _____________________ . Due to the speed it travels through the air, the
meteor becomes (8) _____________________. Because of the heat, the meteor becomes
less hard, (9) _____________________ and then burns. We are lucky that most meteors
burn up and never (10) _____________________.
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following
sentences.
1. I’m not a serious investor, but I like to _______ in the stock market.
A. splash B. splatter C. paddle D. dabble
2. In all _______ there will never be a Third World War.
A. odds B. probability C. certainty D. possibilities
3. He had to retire from the match, suffering from a _______ ligament.
A. torn B. broken C. slipped D. sprained
4. You have to be rich to send a child to a private school because the fees are _______.
A. astrological B. aeronautical C. astronomical D. atmospherical
5. Archaeology is one of the most interesting scientific _______.
A. divisions B. disciplines C. matters D. compartments
6. It is doubtful whether the momentum of the peace movement can be _______.
A. sustained B. supplied C. supported D. subverted
7. Conversations you strike up with travelling acquaintances usually tend to be _______.
A. trivial B. perverse C. insufficient D. imperative
8. Charles Babbage’s difference engine was widely regarded as the _______ of the
computer.
A. ancestor B. precursor C. antecedent D. premonition
9. He was in his late fifties, with staring eyes and a _____ hairline.
A. straggling B. receding C. bushy D. curly
10. After several hours on the road, they became ____ to the fact that they would never
reach the hotel by nightfall.
A. dejected B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned
11. The professor’s _______ theory is that singing preceded speech.
A. preferable B. pet C. fond D. fancied
12. A local charity benefited from the _______ of the annual summer fate.
A. earnings B. income C. pay D. proceeds
13. Two months is _______ time to allow for the job to be completed.
A. profuse B. protracted C. ample D. extensive
14. After her eye operation she had to wear an eye _______ for protection.
A. patch B. veil C. glass D. screen
15. The noise of the machinery _______ the words of the factory manager.
A. covered B. suppressed C. drowned D. deadened
16. All that was left for breakfast was some _____ bread and tea.
A. stale B. rotten C. sour D. rancid
17. Emma fell down and _____ her knee.
A. skimmed B. grazed C. rubbed D. scrubbed
18. The Press thought the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just
_____.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. turned it down D. laughed it off
19. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to _____ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
20.The train service has been a _____ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas

Part 2. Underline and correct the ten mistakes in the following passage. (10 points)
‘Oh, you’re so lucky live in Bath, it’s such a wonderful, lovely, historic place,’ people
say enthusiastically, and all you can think about is the awful parking, the crowd of tourists,
the expensive shops, the narrow-minded council, and the terrible traffic.

Luckily I don’t live in Bath but nearly ten miles away in a village called Limpley Stoke
in the Avon Valley. It seems to be normal in the countryside those days for professional
people who work in the town to prefer to live in the villages; this makes the housing so
expensive that the villagers and agricultural workers have to live in a cheaper
accommodation in town, as the result that the farmers commute out to the farm and
everyone else commutes in. Certainly, there’s nobody in the village who could be called an
old-style villager. The people nearest to me involve a pilot, an accountant, a British Rail
manager, a retired teacher … nor a farm worker amongst them. But I don’t think there is
anything wrong with that – it’s just that the nature of villages are changing and there is still
quite a strong sense of community here.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or adverb particle.(10 points)
1. I got the job _______ the strength of your recommendation.
2. You must be weak _______ the head if you believe that.
3. The shock put years _______ him.
4. Prospects of success in the talks were put _______ zero.
5. She was weighed _______ _______ parcels.
6. His appearance was the subject _______ some critical comment.
7. She went _______ the roof when I told her I’d crashed her car.
8. If you do that again I’ll have the law _______ you.
9. The government’s decision is a real kick _______ the teeth for the unions.
10. She resembles her brother _______ looks.

Part 4. Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the passage. (10
points)
In the deserts, as (1. where), rocks at the earth’s surface are changed by (2. weather),
which may be defined as the (3. integrate) of rocks where they lie. Weathering processes
are either chemical when (4. alter) of some of the (5. constitute) particles is involved; or (6.
mechanize), when there is merely the physical breaking apart and (7. fragment) of rocks.
Which process will dominate depends (8. primary) on the (9. mineral) and (10. text) of the
rock and the local climate, but several individual processes usually work together to the
common end of rock breakdown.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200)

Part 1. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 pts)
HOW TO COMPLAIN IN SHOPS
People love to complain. Moaning to friends can be a source of relief from the
stresses and strains of work, study or relationships. But when it comes to protesting to a
retailer about (1) ____ goods and services, many of us find we don't have the nerve and
chose to suffer in silence.
 By the time we do (2) _____summon up the courage to make our point, we have
generally already allowed the problem to get to us, and we are angry. In this state, we can
all too (3) ____ become aggressive, gearing up for battle and turning what should be a
rational discussion into a conflict.
To complain effectively, you need to be specific about your problem and
communicate it clearly using words which are objective and fair. (4) ____ over the top with
emotional language and unreasonable claims will get you nowhere. Good negotiators tend
to be calm and logical. They start by explaining the situation and stating their requirements
clearly, without threat. Most complaints prompt a defensive (5) ____ from the other person,
but by being reasonable yourself, you (6) ____ more chance of achieving the positive (7)
____ you want.
If you feel angry or upset about what has happened, by all means tell the company,
but do so calmly, (8) ____that you understand the situation from all points of (9) ____, but
explaining what you will do if your complaint is ignored. Be sure to remember, however,
that is unwise to (10) ____ threats unless you are in a position to carry them out.
1. A. faulty B. inexpert C. improper D. scruffy
2. A. essentially B. especially C. exceptionally D. eventually
3. A. easily B. happily C. simply D. casually
4. A. Being B. Going C. Getting D. Feeling
5. A. response B. respect C. revenge D. regard
6. A. spend B. attract C. stand D. establish
7. A. fallout B. outcome C. turnout D. output
8. A. revealing B. exhibiting C. displaying D. demonstrating
9. A. mind B. opinion C. view D. reason
10. A. make B. bear C. do D. carry

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. (10 pts)
Mammals have brains. So they can feel pain, experience fear and react in disgust. If a
wildebeest did not feel pain, it would carry on grazing as lions chewed it hind leg first. If an
antelope did not sense fear, it would not (1) _____ into a sprint at the first hint of cheetah. If
a canine were not disgusted, it would not vomit; it would not be, as the (2) _____ goes, sick
as a dog.
Pain, fear and disgust are (3) _____ of the mammalian survival machinery provided
by tens of millions of years of (4) _____. Homo sapiens have, however, only been around
for about 200,000 years. So all three emotional states (5)_____something to mammal
origins. If football hooligans can feel those emotions, then (6) _____ do deer, foxes and
dogs. The argument is about how "aware" or "conscious" non-human mammals might be
during these emotional events. When an animal knows it is being chased and starts to run, is
it obeying some instinct (7) _____ from ancestors that knew when to flee a danger zone or
does it actually "know" to be afraid?
That might be the wrong question. A human startled by a strange shape in a darkened
corridor experiences a pounding heart, and lungs (8) _____ for air, and a body in recoil.
This is the well-known flight or fight reaction. A human appreciated the full force of fear
and has already started to counter the danger a fraction of a second before the brain has time
to absorb and order the information contained in menacing shape. This is because mental
calculations are too slow to cope with surprise attack. Pain (9) _____ logic. Touch
something hot and you withdraw your hand even before you have time to think about doing
so. Once again, the wisdom is (10) _____ the event.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (15 pts)

Image and the city

In the city, we are barraged with images of the people we might become. Identity is
presented as plastic, a matter of possessions and appearances; and a very large proportion of
the urban landscape is take up by slogans, advertisements, flatly photographed images of
folk heroes - the man who turned into a sophisticated dandy overnight by drinking a
particular brand of drink, the girl who transformed herself into a femme fatale with a squirt
of cheap scent. The tone of the wording of these advertisements is usually pert and
facetious, comically drowning in its own hyperbole. But the pictures are brutally exact; they
reproduce every detail of a style of life, down to the brand of cigarette - lighter; the stone in
the ring and the economic row of books on the shelf.
Yet, if one studies a line of ads across from where one is sitting on a tube train, there
images radically conflict with each other. Swap the details about between the pictures, and
they are instantly made illegible if the characters they represent really are heroes, then they
clearly have no individual claim to speak for society as a whole. The clean-cut and the
shaggy, rakes, innocents, brutes, home-lovers, adventurers, clowns all compete for our
attention and invite emulations. As a gallery, they do provide a glossy mirror of the
aspirations of a representative city crowd: but it is exceedingly hard to discern a single
dominant style an image of how most people would like to see themselves.
Even in the business of the mass - production of images of identity, this shift from the
general to the diverse and particular is quite recent. Consider another line of stills: the back-
lit, soft-focus portraits of the first and second generations of great movie stars. There is a
degree of romantic unparticularity in the face of each one, as if they were communal dream-
projections of society at large. Only in the specialized genres of westerns, farces and
gangster movies were stars allowed to have odd, knobby cadaverous faces. The hero as
loner belonged to history or the underworld: he spoke from the perimeter of society,
reminding us of its dangerous edges.
The stars of the last decade have looked quite different. Soft-focus photography has
gone, to be replaced by a style which searches out warts and bumps, emphasizes the
uniqueness not the generality of the face. Voices, too, are strenuously idiosyncratic; whines,
stammers and low rumbles are exploited as features of star quality. Instead of romantic
heroes and heroines, we have a brutalist, hard-edged style in which isolation and egotism
are assumed as natural social conditions.
In the movies, as in the city, the sense of stable hierarchy has become increasingly
exhausted; we no longer live in a world where we can all share the same values, the same
heroes. (It is doubtful whether this world, so beloved of nostalgia moralists, ever existed;
but lip-service was paid to it, the pretence, at least was kept up). The isolate and the
eccentric push towards the centre of the stage; their fashions and mannerisms are presented
as having as good a claim to the limelight and the future as those of anyone else. In the
crowd on the underground platform, one may observe a honeycomb of fully-worked-out
words, each private, exclusive, bearing little comparison with its nearest neighbor. What is
prized in one is despised in another. There are no clear rules about how one is supposed to
manage one’s body, dress, talk, or think. Though there are elaborate protocols and
etiquettes among particular cults and groups within the city, they subscribe to no common
standard.
For the new arrival, this disordered abundance is the city’s most evident and alarming
quality. He feels as if he has parachuted into a funfair of contradictory imperatives. There
are so many people he might become and a suit of clothes, a make of car, a brand of
cigarettes will go some way towards turning him into a personage even before he has
discovered who that personage is. Personal identity has always been deeply rooted in
property, but hitherto the relationship has been a simple one - a question of buying what
you could afford, and leaving your wealth to announce your status. In the modern city, there
are so many things to buy, such a quantity of different kinds of status, that the choice and its
attendant anxieties have created a new pornography of taste.
The leisure pages of the Sunday newspapers, fashion magazines, TV plays, popular
novels, cookbooks, window displays all nag at the nerve for our uncertainty and snobbery.
Should we like American cars, hard-rock hamburger joints, Bauhaus chairs...? Literature
and art are promoted as personal accessories: the paintings of Mondrian or the novels of
Samuel Beckett ‘go’ with certain styles like matching handbags. There is in the city a
creeping imperialism of taste, in which more and more commodities are made over to being
mere expressions of personal identity. Tire piece of furniture, the pair of shoes, the book,
the film, are important not so much in themselves but for what they communicate about
their owners; and ownership is stretches to include what one likes or believes in as well as
what one can buy.
1. What does the word ‘barraged’ mean?
A. manipulated B. bombarded C. impressed D. obsessed
2. What does the writer say about advertisements in the first paragraph?
A. Certain kinds are considered more effective in cities than others.
B. The way in which some of them are worded is cleverer than it might appear
C. They often depict people that most other people would not care to be like
D. The pictures in them accurately reflect the way that some people really live.
3. The writer says that if you look at a line of advertisements on a tube train, it is clear
that.
A. city dwellers have very diverse ideas about what image they would like to have.
B. some images in advertisements have a general appeal that others lack.
C. city dwellers are more influenced by images on advertisements than other people are.
D. some images are intended to be representative of everyone’s aspirations.
4. What does the writer imply about portraits of old movie start?
A. They tried to disguise the less attractive features of their subjects.
B. Most people did not think they were accurate representations of the stars in them
C. They made people feel that their own faces were rather unattractive
D. They reflected an era in which people felt basically safe.
5. What does the word ‘cadaverous’ mean?
A. extremely pale and thin B. energetic and enthusiastic
C. dangerous D. skeptical
6. What does the writer suggest about the stars of the last decade?
A. Some of them may be uncomfortable about the way they come across.
B. They make an effort to speak in a way that may not be pleasant on the ear
C. They make people wonder whether they should become more selfish.
D. Most people accept that they are not typical of society as a whole
7. What does the word ‘hierarchy’ mean?
A. methodology B. hypothesis C. ideology D. system
8. The writer uses the crowd on an underground platform to exemplify his belief that.
A. no single attitude to life is more common than another in a city.
B. no one in a city has strict attitudes towards the behavior of other.
C. views of what society was like in the past are often inaccurate.
D. people in cities would like to have more in common with each other
9. The writer implies that new arrivals in a city may
A. change the image they wish to have too frequently.
B. underestimate the importance of wealth.
C. acquire a certain image without understanding what that involves.
D. decide that status is of little importance
10. What point does the writer make about city dwellers in the final paragraph?
A. They are unsure as to why certain things are popular with others.
B. They are aware that judgments are made about them according to what they buy.
C. They want to acquire more and more possessions.
D. They are keen to be the first to appreciate new styles.

Part 4. The reading passage below has eight paragraphs, A-H. Reading the passage and do the tasks
below. (10 pts)
A. The history of human civilization is entwined with the history of the ways we have
learned to manipulate water resources. As towns gradually expanded, water was
brought from increasingly remote sources, leading to sophisticated engineering
efforts such as dams and aqueducts. At the height of the Roman Empire, nine major
systems, with an innovative layout of pipes and well-built sewers, supplied the
occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts or the
industrial world today.
B. During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19 th and 20th
centuries, the demand for water rose dramatically. Unprecedented construction of
tens of thousands of monumental engineering projects designed to control floods,
protect clean water supplies, and provide water for irrigation and hydropower
brought great benefits to hundreds of millions of people. Food production has kept
pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation
systems that make possible the growth of 40% the world’s food. Nearly one fifth of
all the electricity generated worldwide is produced by turbines spun by the power of
falling water.
C. Yet there is a dark side to this picture: despite our progress, half of the world’s
population still suffers, with water services inferior to those available to the ancient
Greeks and Romans. As the United Nations report on access to water reiterated in
November 2001, more than one billion people lack access to clean drinking water;
some two and a half billion do not have adequate sanitation services. Preventable
water - related diseases kill an estimated 10,000 to 20,000 children every day, and the
latest evidence suggests that we are falling behind in efforts to solve these problems.
D. The consequences of our water policies extend beyond jeopardizing human health.
Tens of millions of people have been forced to more from their homes - often with
little warning or compensation - to make way for the reservoirs behind dams. More
than 20% of all freshwater fish species are now threatened or endangered because
 dams and water withdrawals have destroyed the free-flowing river ecosystems where
they thrive. Certain irrigation practices degrade soil quality and reduce agricultural
productivity. Groundwater aquifers are being pumped down faster than they are
naturally replenished in parts of India, China, the USA and elsewhere. And disputes
over shared water resources have led to violence and continue to raise local, national
and even international tensions.
E. At the outset of the new millennium, however, the way resource planners think about
water is beginning to change. The focus is slowly shifting back to the provision of
basic human and environmental needs as top priority - ensuring ‘some for all,’
instead of ‘more for some’. Some water experts are now demanding that existing
infrastructure be used in smarter ways rather than building new facilities, which is
increasingly considered the option of last, not first resort. This shift in philosophy has
not been universally accepted, and it comes with strong opposition from some
established water organizations. Nevertheless, it may be the only way to address
successfully the pressing problems of providing everyone with clean water to drink,
adequate water to grow food and a life free from preventable water-related illness.
F. Fortunately - and unexpectedly - the demand for water is not rising as rapidly as
some predicted. As a result, the pressure to build new water infrastructures has
diminished over the past two decades. Although population, industrial output and
economic productivity have continued to soon in developed nations, the rate at which
people withdraw water from aquifers, rivers and lakes has slowed. And in a few parts
of the world, demand has actually fallen.
G. What explains this remarkable turn of events? Two factors: People have figured out
how to use water more efficiently, and communities are rethinking their priorities for
water use. Throughout the first three-quarters of the 20th century, the quantity of
freshwater consumed pen person doubled on average; in the USA, water withdrawals
increased tenfold while the population quadrupled. But since 1980, the amount of
water consumed per person has actually decreased, thanks to a range of new
technologies that help to conserve water in homes and industry. In 1965, for instance,
Japan used approximately 13 million gallons of water to produce $1 million of
commercial output; by 1989 this had dropped to 3.5 million gallons (even accounting
 for inflation) - almost a quadrupling of water productivity. In the USA water
withdrawals have fallen by more than 20% from their peak in 1980.
H. On the other hand, dams, aqueducts and other kinds of infrastructure will still have to
be built, particularly in developing countries where not been met. But such projects
must be built to higher specifications and with more accountability to local people
and their environment than in the past. And even in regions where projects seem
warranted, we must find ways to meet demands with fewer resources, respecting
ecological criteria and to a smaller budget.
For questions 1-7, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below Write the
correct number, i-ix.

List of headings

i. Scientists’ call for a revision of policy

ii. An explanation for reduced water use
iii. How a global challenge was met
iv. Irrigation systems fall into disuse
v. Environmental effects
vi. The financial cost of recent technological improvements
vii. The relevance to health
viii. Addressing the concern over increasing populations
ix. A surprising downward trend in demand for water
x. The need to raise standards
xi. A description of ancient water supplies
Example: Paragraph A: xi
1. Paragraph B …….
2. Paragraph C …….
3. Paragraph D …….
4. Paragraph E ….…
5. Paragraph F …….
6. Paragraph G …….
7. Paragraph H …….
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage. For
question 8-10 write down
Yes If the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
No If the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
Not given If it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
8. Feeding increasing populations is possible due primarily to improved irrigation systems
9. Modern water systems imitate those of the ancient Greeks and Romans
10. Industrial growth is increasing the overall demand for water.
Your answers
8. 9. 10.
SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed. (10 points)
1. We didn’t see a soul all day.
→ Not ……………………………………………………………….
2. Gerry has applied for the job of financial director.
 Gerry has put ……………………………………………………………….
3. Our teacher used Sophia as an example of a good student.
 Our teacher held ……………………………………………………………….
4. I’m not much interested in sports.
 I don’t really go ……………………………………………………………….
5. Terry was rude but Anne got her revenge on him.
 Anne paid ……………………………………………………………….
Part 2. Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence,
using the words given in capital letters. These words must not be altered in any way.
(10 points)
1. The houses that were very close to the blast were badly damaged. (immediate)
………………………………………………………………………………….
2. They were married last year. (man)
………………………………………………………………………………….
3. He admits he’s not one of the important members of the organization. (cog)
………………………………………………………………………………….
4. You’ve been deceived by them. (ride)
………………………………………………………………………………….
5. It didn’t take us long to finish doing the accounts. (short)
………………………………………………………………………………….
Part 3. Essay writing ( 30 points)
Some people say that taking online classes is nowadays a new trend while other people
prefer going to traditional classes.
Which opinion do you agree with?
Write an essay of 200 – 250 words to explain your idea.
-------------- THE END ----------------

TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 10

PART I: LISTENING
Section 1. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Rented properties customer’s requirements
Name: Steven Godfrey
Example: Answer:
No. of bedrooms: Four
Preferred location: In the ……………………..(1) area of town
Maximum monthly rent: £ ……………………..(2)
Length of let required: ……………………….(3)
Starting: September 1st
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
Address Rooms Monthly rent Problem
Oakington Avenue Living/dining room, £ 550 No ……………(4)
separate kitchen
Mead Street Large living room £ 580 The ……………(5)
and kitchen, is too large
bathroom and a
cloakroom
Section 2. Choose the correct answer
LATIN AMERICAN STUDIES
1. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
A to teach English there B to improve his Spanish
C to learn about Latin American life D to improve his English
2. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
A construction B agriculture C tourism D architecture
3. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
A his first job was not well organized B he found doing the routine work very boring
C the work was too physically demanding D his first job was boring
4. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
A respect family life B develop trust
C use money wisely D spend time with neighbors
5. What does Paul say about his project manager?
A he let Paul do most of the work B his plans were too ambitious
C he was very supportive of Paul D he was too ambitious
Section 3. Listen to the conversation between Sasha and Jim, then complete
the True/False exercise below.
1. Sasha is currently unemployed.
T/F _______
2. Jim understands now why Sasha had problems in her previous apartment.
T/F _______
3. The problem with the television is that Sasha has sometimes forgotten to turn the TV
off.
T/F _______
4. Sasha didn’t know that Jim used the lights in the apartment as an anti-crime measure.
T/F _______
5. Sasha never realized the different cleaner was causing a problem in the shower.
T/F _______
Section 4. You will hear an announcement about an evening’s program on Radio
Pearl. Complete the sentences with no more than 3 words.
- 7.30pm ‘Art Review’: Student Art Exhibition
This evening’s programme is taking place at the …………………………(1) in London.
The exhibition is of work by students in the …………………………(2) year of their art
course. At the exhibition, you can see things as different as curtains and ……..……………
(3). Some of the works of art have been made using ………………(4) technology.
- 8.00pm Play ‘The Vanishing Lady’
In the play, a young couple on a train think they hear the sound of someone using a
………………………… (5). A ………………………… (6) tells the couple about an old
lady whom he has seen. After writing this play, the author, Porten, became a writer for
………………………… (7).
- 9.30pm ‘Business Scenes’: Interview with Peter Field
Peter used to work for a ………………………… (8). Peter says the material he uses for his
boats is a particular kind of ………………………… (9). Peter collects ………….
…………… (10) as a hobby.
PART II – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Section 1. Choose the best answer.
1. My friend eventually decided to quit her job, _______ upset me a lot
A. that B. what C. which D. who
2. Sales began the year at 30,000 units in January and increased slightly ________ 2,000
units in February.
A. by B. to C. in D. at
3. John: “Our teacher, Mr. Jones, is not very flexible. He always requires us to submit his
assignments on time.”
Jack: “ _________. He should know that we have to learn many subjects.”
A. I can’t disagree with you more B. I can’t agree with you more
C. That can be true D. I am not with you here
4. _____ Mississippi River flows into _____ Gulf of Mexico in _______ state of Louisiana.
A. - / the / the B. The / the / the C. The / - / - D. - / - / -
5. You _______ then ; otherwise , the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you .
A. could have been speeding B. must have been speeding
C. might have been speeding D. ought to have been speeding
6. We cannot judge a person simply on the ______ of his education.
A. theory B. condition C. basis D. principle
7. The number of learners not large; therefore, a number of headphones
available to them in the lab
A. are - is B. is - are C. are - are D. is – is
8. He apologized me not having come to my birthday party
A. to – for B. Ø – for C. to - on D. with – for
9. When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable.
A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept
10. By the time Brown’s daughter graduates, __________ retired.
A. he B. he has C. he’ll being D. he’ll have
11. The ________ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.
A. chances B. bets C. prospects D. odds
12. References can have a considerable _______ on employment prospects.
A. cause B. decision C. weight D. bearing
13. Her performance in the last scene was quite ________.
A. describable B. remarkable C. notable D. noticeable
14. You should be _________ ashamed of yourself for what you have done.
A. thoroughly B. hopelessly C. entirely D. earnestly
15. Hardship and hard work are very much part and ________ of student life.
A. package B. section C. province D. parcel
16. You’ll be glad to know that Yuki’s work is showing a ___________ improvement.
A. mediocre B. minimal C. prominent D. pronounced
17. Far be it from me to _________ down the law, but I think we need to pull our socks up.
A. put B. lay C. write D. set
18. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now __________.
A. thin B. narrow C. slim D. restricted
19. I think that Tolstoy should be ________ reading for anyone interested in literature.
A. necessary B. compelled C. required D. legal
20. Hopes are _______ of finding the missing boat.
A. darkening B. going C. fading D. draining
Section 2 - Most but not all of the following lines contain one unnecessary word.
Underline the word that is not needed.
01. Parents in Britain are required by law to see that their children receive full-time
02. education between the ages of 5 and 16. At present, there are about nine million
03. school-children at about 40,000 schools. The number is increasing, mainly because of
04. some increase in the birth rate, and such primary school numbers are very high.
05. Although the birth-rate has now stabilised, each year more of children stay
06. on at school from beyond the minimum leaving age. There is, therefore, a
07. continuing need for more teachers and more school buildings. In England, Wales and
08. Northern Ireland, it is usual for boys and girls to be taught all together in primary schools:
09. that is, up to the age of 11, but about half the secondary schools are for boys and girls only.
10. Although mixed schools are more common in Wales and Scotland, where all but a few city
11. schools take both boys and girls. As to a result of the reorganisation of schools, and the
12. introduction of comprehensive education, much more children are attending co-educational
13. establishments. While in the independent sector, more than half the schools are
14. co-educational; but of those that providing secondary education, the majority are either for
15. boys or girls. These independent schools does receive no grants from public funds,
16. and charge fees. They are of two types: the preparatory schools and the public schools.
Section 3. Complete the sentence with suitable preposition.
1. I'm tired and stressed and the kids have been acting ____________ all day. They don't
seem to know how to behave properly.
2. I met Harold in the supermarket. He was asking ______________ you and I said you
were fine and really happy about this new job you've got.
3. I'll ask your boss ______________ for dinner tonight if he isn't busy. It will make a good
impression, don't you think?
4. If your boss accuses you of missing yesterday's meeting on purpose, I will back you
__________ by saying you had to do something for me.
5. I can hardly read this document. Go and blow it ________ so it is at least twice the size.
6. These statistics are too confusing. We need to break them___________ into the four
different seasons of the year for a clearer picture.
7. If someone phones me while I am in the meeting, I will have to break ____________ for
a few minutes as I am expecting a really important call.
8. After the First World War, the Austro-Hungarian empire was broken __________ into
several pieces.
9. Sales are up 10% on this period last year. We need to build __________ that if we are to
save this company.
10. When I told her about her mother's illness being incurable, she broke _________ tears.
Section 4. Word form
Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the
space in the same line.
Photography has many forms and ……………….(1). Of all of them, the APPLY
practice of taking pictures of earth from the air has had the most value for
geographers……………….(2). WORLD
Photography was still in its……………….(3) when, in 1858, French artist INFANT
Felix Tournachon took the first aerial photograph from a hot-air balloon. From
these crude ……………….(4), aerial photographs have been taken from BEGIN
…………….(5) higher vantage points and now cameras on satellites can INCEASE
capture images of earth from space.
This would have been…………….(6) in 1858. Today, such images IMAGINE
provide a wealth of detailed information and ……………….…….(7) they have
CONSEQUENCE
made an enormous contribution to our understanding of the Earth’s
atmosphere and weather patterns. They are also invaluable to
……………(8) and ARCHAEOLOGY
those monitoring urban……………….(9). EXPAND
Although aerial photographs and maps both present a bird’s eye view of the
Earth’s surface, they are valuable in different ways. In terms of
……………….(10) ACCURATE
maps will always provide a more reliable representation of the surface of the Earth.
However, aerial photography has become the more influential as a means of documenting
the world’s changing landscape and ecosystems.

PART III. READING COMPREHENSION

Section 1. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each
space.
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1)_______
human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______
on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so
(3) _______ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______ resource we have by
which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) _______ built on or
washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able
to recover (6) _______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of
the consequences. As a (7) _______ the planet's ability to support people is being (8)
_______at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (9) _______
increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (10) _______ resources are there for us to
use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us
fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they
will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out
and everyone will suffer.
1. A. Although B. Still C. Yet D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. alone B. individual C. lone D. only
5. A. sooner B. neither C. either D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. development B. result C. reaction D. product
8. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
9. A. doing B. having C. taking D. making
10. A. natural B. real C. living D. genuine
Section 2. Gap filling
Fill each blank with a suitable word
The Goulburn Valley is situated in the south-east corner of the Australian continent, in the
state of Victoria. Because of the introduction (1) __________ irrigation over a century ago,
primary industry flourished, resulting in (2)___________multitude of orchards and market
gardens. After World War II, migrants flocked to the area in search of work on the farms,
and in (3)___________ cases, establishing a property of their own. Unfortunately, the
region (4)___________taken a turn for the worse over the past decade. The irrigation water
that was (5)___________plentiful has now been rationed, and many farmers have been
forced (6)___________the land. The main source of water (7)___________from the
Goulburn River, with several reservoirs located along its stretch to the mighty Murray
River. Dam capacities have fallen to dangerous levels, resulting in some farmers having an
inadequate supply of irrigation water. (8)___________ the recent hardships, some farmers
have continued to eke an existence out of the land. Many have become (9)_________
ingenious, devising new ways to utilize water plus finding special niches to service the
ever-changing urban needs. Perhaps the Goulburn Valley can return to its prosperous times
(10)_________.
Section 3. Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each question.
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire,
which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United
States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As
anyone who watches the news during campaigns presidential knows, these polls
5 have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street” interviews
on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly
entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion.
First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain
10 location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class
shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the news-people select.
Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to
appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by
a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is
15 to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the
wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear
enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there
are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less
20 structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information
desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the
sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each
of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain
25 a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a
personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In
addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a
 subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the
advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The history of surveys in North America
B. The principles of conducting surveys
C Problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. The importance of polls in American political life
2. The word "they" in line 9 refers to_______.
A. North Americans B. news shows C. interviews D. opinions
3. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is
that they ……
A. are not based on a representative sampling
B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded
D. reflect political opinions
4. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Survey B. Public opinion
C. Representative sampling D. Response rate
5. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective
survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
6. The word "exercise" in line 16 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. utilize B. consider C. design D. defend
7. The word "elicit" in line 19 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. compose B. rule out C. predict D. bring out
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become
frustrated with questionnaires is that_______.
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
9. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that
live interviews_______.
A. cost less B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret D. minimize the influence of the researcher
10. The word "probe" in line 27 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. explore B. influence C. analyze D. apply
Section 4. Read the text carefully and then choose the correct answers.
IS TECHNOLOGY HARMING OUR CHILDREN’S HEALTH?
Technology is moving at such a breakneck speed that it is enough to make your head
spin. It can be difficult to keep up. However, with each new technological marvel come
consequences. Much of the research conducted has shown the extent of the damage being
done to our health by technology. It is a scary thought, and with teenagers and children
being heavy consumers and users of these gadgets, they run the risk of being harmed the
most.
The digital revolution in music has enabled people to download, store and listen to
songs on a tiny, portable device called an MP3 player. The process is quick and afterwards
you can have access to a library of thousands of songs that can fit into your palm. But
experts say that continuously listening to loud music on these small music players can
permanently damage hair cells in the inner ear, resulting in hearing loss. For instance, old-
fashioned headphones have been replaced with smaller ones that fit neatly into the ear,
instead of over them, which intensifies the sound. In addition to that, digital music does not
distort and keeps its crystal clear sound, even on loud settings, which encourages children to
crank up the volume. Combine that with the fact that many children will spend hours
listening to their iPods, and you have the recipe for hearing loss. Put into further
perspective, most MP3 players can reach levels of 120 decibels, which is louder than a
chainsaw or lawnmover. When you consider 85 decibels is the maximum safe decibel level
set by hearing experts over the course of a working day, and that children will listen to
music at higher decibel levels than that for long periods of time, hearing will invariably
suffer.
 Apart from hearing damage, there are other serious health risks. We are living in a
wireless age. Calls can be made and received on mobiles from anywhere and the internet
can be accessed without the need for cables. The advantages are enormous, bringing ease
and convenience to our lives. It is clear that mobiles and wireless technology are here to
stay but we are paying the price for the new technology? Studies have shown that the rapid
expansion in the use of wireless technology has brought with it a new form of radiation
called ‘electropollution’.
Compared to two generations ago, we are exposed to 100 million times more
radiation. The human body consists of trillions of cells which use faint electromagnetic
signals to communicate with each other, so that the necessary biological and physiological
changes can happen. It is a delicate, natural balance. But this balance is being upset by the
constant exposure to electromagnetic radiation (EMR) that we face in our daily lives and it
is playing havoc with our bodies. EMR can disrupt and alter the way in which our cells
communicate and this can result in abnormal cell behaviour. Some studies have shown that
exposure to wireless technology can affect our enzyme production, immune systems,
nervous system and even our moods and behaviour. The most dangerous part of the phone
is around the antenna. This area emits extremely potent radiation which has been shown to
cause genetic damage and an increase in the risk of cancer.
Research shows that teenagers and young adults are the largest group of mobile
phone users. According to a recent Eurobarometer survey, 70 percent of Europeans aged
12-13 own a mobile phone and the number of children five to nine years old owning
mobiles has greatly increased over the years. Children are especially vulnerable because
their brain and nervous systems are not as immune to attack as adults. Sir William Stewart,
chairman of the National Radiological Protection Board, says there is mounting evidence to
prove the harmful effects of wireless technologies and that families should monitor their
children’s use of them.
Besides the physical and biological, technology can also have serious mental
implications for children. It can be the cause of severe, addictive behaviour. In one case,
two children had to be admitted into a mental health clinic in Northern Spain because of
their addiction to mobile phones. An average of six hours a day would be spent talking,
texting and playing games on their phones. The children could not be separated from their
phones and showed disturbed behaviour that was making them fail at school. They regularly
deceived family members to obtain money to buy phone cards to fund their destructive
habit. There have been other cases of phone addiction like this.
Technology may also be changing our brain patterns. Professor Greenfield, a top
specialist in brain development, says that, thanks to technology, teenage minds are
developing differently from those of previous generations. Her main concern is over
computer games. She claims that living in a virtual world where actions are rewarded
without needing to think about the moral implications makes young people “lose awareness
of who they are”. She claims that technology brings a decline in linguistic creativity.
As technology keeps moving at a rapid pace and everyone clamours for the new
must-have gadget of the moment, we cannot easily perceive the long-term effects on our
health. Unfortunately, it is the most vulnerable members of our society that will be affected.
Questions 1-5. Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
How MP3 players can threaten health
MP3 player features Harmful results Effects
Problem new…………………….…………(1) creates intense sound
A fit inside ears
Problem ……………..…………….……(2) is invites children to increase
B distortion-free with clear quality ……….…………………(3) damage to
sound hair cells
Problem capable of producing sound at as loud as a lawnmower or and loss of
C …………………….……………(4) chainsaw – over hearing
recommended safe …….
……………………(5)
Questions 6-10. Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in the
passage?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer’s views
NO if the statement contradicts the writer’s views
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
6. There are considerable benefits to our wireless world. ___________
7. Wireless technology is a permanent part of our lives. ___________
8. Exposure to EMR can lead to criminal behaviour. ___________
9. It is impossible to become obsessed with technology. ___________
10. Using technology always helps with academic success. ___________
PART IV: WRITING
Section 1.
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one
1. I took no notice of the man standing at the gate.
I_______________________________________________ the man standing at the gate.
2. This hotel is inaccessible in winter.
It ________________________________________________this hotel in winter.
3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not ___________________________________________ a famous film star, the
party would not have been a success.
4. Freak weather conditions resulted in the hurricane which devastated the area.
The hurricane which devastated the area _______________________________________
freak weather conditions.
5. He discontinues his studies because he is poor.
His________________________________________________ his studies.
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one using
between 3 and 6 words including the word given.
1. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible. CONVENIENCE
Please respond .........................................
2. It's one thing to think there's a demand for your product and another to actually make a
sale. WORLD
There's .......................................................... between thinking there's a demand for your
product and actually making a sale.
3. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. TRACK
Sorry, I ............................................................................ time.
4. The anti-smoking advertisement does not stop people from smoking
INEFFECTIVE
The anti-smoking advertisement is………………………………………..…. people from
smoking.
5. There is a possibility that you may be able to get a grant ELIGIBLE
We are pleased…………………………………………………………. a grant
Section 2. Essay writing
It has been said, "Not all learning takes place in the classroom." Compare and contrast
knowledge gained from personal experience with knowledge gained from classroom
instruction. In your opinion, which source is more important? Why?
THE END

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DHBB
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
Đề thi gồm: 14 trang

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Listen and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)

Student is studying 1. ....................................

Student is in the 2. .................................. year of the course.
Position Available Where Problem
Receptionist In the Sport Centers 3. ..................................
Cleaner In the 5. .................................. Too early
4.................................. In the library Evening lectures

Part 2. You will hear an interview with a man called O’Toole, who works as a teacher trainer. Listen to
the conversation carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points).

1. Why are many teachers leaving the profession, according to Mike?

A. They don’t feel it is financially rewarding any more.
B. They are not being given the respect they once were.
C. They are investing too much in it without getting enough back.
D. They find the subject matter they have to teach too difficult.
2. Mike believes that without radical changes _______
A. education in the UK will begin to get worse.
B. UK schools will lose their ability to compete with one another.
C. the UK will soon no longer be a leader in education.
D. the educational system in the UK can be transformed.
3. The main failing of the UK education system is _______
A. the inability of students to use computers.
B. the resistance within schools to the introduction of technology.
C. the failure of government to invest in hardware for schools.
D. the lack of training for teachers in the use of technology in the classroom.
4. Why is teacher training failing teachers, according to Mike?
A. It is not helping them to keep pace with developments.
B. It does not use technology in its training classrooms.
C. It uses hardware and software that are out of date.
D. It is suffering from a lack of trainers with specialist knowledge.
5. Teachers can only benefit from technology if _______
A. they cease to see it as a threat.
B. they can combine it with traditional methods.
C. they are allowed to use it in their own way.
D. they are willing to research its possibilities on their own.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 3. You will hear a lecture about the history of April Fools’ Day. Decide whether the statements are
true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. April Fools’ Day is for people who love magic tricks.
2. A TV program in the UK broadcast that spaghetti grew on trees on April 4th, 1957.
3. Hundreds of people fell for the spaghetti-growing-on-trees prank.
4. People know for a fact that April Fools’ Day originated in France.
5. People who continued to celebrate New Year’s Day on April 1st after the change were called “April
fools.”
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4: You will hear a radio report about summer jobs for students. For questions 1-10, complete the
sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

The Jersey Farm Company is looking for students aged (1) __________________________
There are two types of work available in (2) __________________________ and administrative jobs.
Students working at social functions are needed at least (3) __________________________
The catering staff take responsibility for serving guest, setting and (4) __________________________
tables.
The office work involves taking (5) __________________________, doing seating plans and receiving
guests.
Experience in (6) __________________________ is required to deal with e-mail, faxes and filing.
For students who want to do delivery work, a (7) __________________________is required.
The rate of payment is (8) __________________________ an hour.
Students can expect to work (9) __________________________ hours a week.
During the academic year, (10) a __________________________job in the farm restaurant is available.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following
sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I assure you that I _________ no hostile feelings towards you.
A. shelter B. harbour C. embrace D. cover
2. The salesman demonstrated how a push of the button would cause the aerial to _________.
A. rebound B. retreat C. recoil D. retract
3. He cannot _________ ignorance as his excuse; he should have known what was happening in his own
department.
A. insist B. plead C. refer D. defend
4. I thought I had made it_________ that I didn’t want to discuss this matter.
A. distinct B. plain C. frank D. straight
5. Maria is a very good student. She is, __________, an excellent one.
A. in most parts B. for most parts
C. for the most part D. in most of the parts
6. _________ is a belief generally held by people who live in colder climates.
A. That weather affects a person’s mood
B. Weather affects a person’s mood
C. A person’s mood is affected by weather
D. Although a person’s mood is affected by weather
7. In the director’s opinion, it was high time the actress began to _________ her age.
A. be B. reach C. act D. perform
8. As soon as he read the letter, tears _________ in his eyes.
A. filled in B. soaked up C. welled up D. weighed down
9. Whenever he watched detective films, his imagination ran _________.
A. raging B. riot C. unchecked D. furious
10. He had such a bad stomach that he was _________ with pain.
A. bent down B. folded over C. snapped off D. doubled up
11. State pensions are currently at the centre of a(n) _________ debate.
A. scorching B. fiery C. exploded D. flamed
12. I didn’t suspect anything at first, but when I noticed her going through the office drawers I began to
smell _________.
A. a rat B. a pig C. a culprit D. a thief
13. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like _________. It must have been quite a party last
night.
A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck
C. death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head
14. If you have a minor illness, it’s usually better just to let the nature take its _________.
A. time B. path C. way D. course
15. The little children watched the performance in _________ amazement.
A. wide-eyed B. open-eyed C. eagle-eyed D. hawk-eyed
16. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve _________!
A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
17. You are advised not to engage in _________ activity during very hot weather.
A. strenuous B. strained C. stringent D. stern
18. Critics agree that Trevor Richmond gave a particular _________performance as King Lear.
A. holding B. arresting C. apprehensive D. detaining

19. She found the novel absolutely _________ and impossible to put down.
A. riveting B. pinning C. enfastening D. nailing
20. _________, scientists have greatly increased the yield of crops such as corn, rice, and wheat.
A. As using the laws of genetics B. Using the laws of genetics
C. The laws of genetics D. The laws of genetics are to be used
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
LINE RAIN MAKING
0 When it rains, it doesn't always pour. During a typical storm, a comparative small amount of
1 the locking up moisture in each cloud reaches the ground like rain. So the idea that human
2 intervention a rain dance, perhaps - might encourage the sky to give up a little additional water
3 has been around in prehistoric times. More recently, would-be rain-makers have attempted
4 direct intervention, by lobbing various chemicals out of aeroplanes in the effort to wring more
rain from the clouds, a practice knowing as 'cloud seeding'.
5
Yet such techniques, which were first developed in the 1940s, are notoriously difficult to
6 evaluate. It is hard to ascertain, for example, how much rain would have fallen anyway. So,
7 though much anecdotal evidence of the advantages of cloud seeding, that has led to its
8 adoption in more than 40 countries around the world, as far as scientists are concerned, results
9 are still inconclusive. That could be about to changing. For the past three years researchers
10 have been carrying out the most extensive and rigorous evaluation to date of a revolutionarily
11 new technique which will substantially boost the volume of rainfall.
12 The preliminary finding of their experiments indicate that solid evidence of the
13 technique's effectiveness is now within the scientists' grasp.
14
15
16

Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write
your answer in the boxes provided. (10 points)
1. Winter is coming. It's getting darker and the days are really starting to draw ______________.
2. The unforeseen expense on the new house ate ______________ my savings but it was worth it.
3. Gareth Bale is a brilliant young footballer who is ______________ the up and up.
4. We were walking through the woods when we chanced ______________ a trap set by hunters.
5. Running ______________ your workmates certainly doesn’t influence the atmosphere in the office in a
positive way, so I expect you to stop doing that from now on.
6. It took Terry a while to cotton ______________ the fact I was joking.
7. There’s no point lashing ______________ at Dr. Baker. She’s not responsible for what’s happened.
8. That chair is not very strong. Do you think it is ______________your weight?
9. I wish you wouldn’t fly ______________me like that every time I make a mistake.
10. I don’t know what happened. I was just sitting at my desk and I suddenly blacked ______________ for
a few minutes.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
SWANS
Swans are graceful long-necked, heavy-bodied, big-footed birds that glide majestically when
swimming and fly slowly with (1. HURRY) wingbeats and necks outstretched. They migrate in a diagonal
(2.FORM) at great heights. No other waterfowl moves as fast on the water or in the air. Swans are social
except in the breeding season. When they mate, it is for life. (3. COURT) involves mutual bill dipping or
head-to-head posturing. The female incubates, on average, a half-dozen pale; in some species he takes his
turn at brooding. After repulsing an enemy, swans utter a (4. TRIUMPH) note as geese do. The young,
although capable of running and swimming a few hours after hatching, are (5. CARE) tended for several
months. Juvenile birds may ride about on their mother’s back. These (6. MATURE) birds can be
recognized by their mottled grey or brown plumage which they wear for at least two years until reaching
(7. ADULT) in their third or fourth year. In (8. CAPTIVE) they can live for 50 years or more. There are
approximately 7 to 8 species of Swan in (9. EXIST). The Southern Hemisphere has the only all black
variety, whereas South America is home to the black-necked swan, an especially (10. AGREE) but
beautiful bird.
Your answers:

1. 5. 9.
2. 6. 10.
3. 7.
4. 8.

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
Very few of us would admit putting much trust in horoscopes and the fact that the movements of
astronomical bodies (1) ___________ to earthly occurrences affecting peoples’ everyday lives.
We all know about the zodiac signs which reflect the position of the sun, the moon and the planets
at the moment of a man’s birth and about the peculiar characteristics (2)___________ to them by
astrologers. We say we will take these phenomena with a (3)___________ of salt while we keep running
our eyes over them in every tabloid we (4)___________ our hands on. Most frequently, we expect
horoscopes to predict the future, to (5)___________ our optimistic mood with a piece of comforting
information or to (6)___________ our ego by confirming the superlative features that we tend to attribute
to our zodiacs.
However, there’s no scientific evidence to corroborate the assumption that human existence is so
closely (7)___________ with the parameters of the celestial bodies. Our curiosity in horoscopes may, then,
stem our sheer fascination with the horoscopes offer, thus establishing the sense of our (8)___________ an
extreme power over our own lives. An additional explanation is that humans tend to have a soft
(9)___________ for any form of flattery, which is the fact to which astrologers and the horoscope writers
seem to (10)____________ the greatest deal of weight.
1. A. rely B. correspond C. match D. compare
2. A. identified B. associated C. incorporated D. ascribed
3. A. speck B. pinch C. grain D. scrap
4. A. settle B. draw C. grab D. lay
5. A. restore B. adjust C. upgrade D. reassure
6. A. boost B. escalate C. revitalize D. improve
7. A. fused B. adhered C. coalesced D. intertwined
8. A. disposing B. wielding C. effecting D. committing
9. A. pit B. dot C. spot D. nick
10. A. instill B. consign C. fasten D. attach

Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
During the last 25 years, Britain's urban sparrow population has declined by as (0) _MUCH _ as
two-thirds, and the bird has almost disappeared from many of (1) _________ former haunts. The decline
has been blamed on everything from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far (2)
_________ few nooks and crannies (3) _________ the birds can nest. Factors (4) _________ these may
well be involved, but alone they fail to explain the severity of the decline, or the fact that other urban birds
have been less affected.

Denis Summers-Smith is the world's leading expert on sparrows, so when he (5) _________ up
with a theory to explain their decline, it has to be (6) _________ listening to. He suggests that the culprit is
a chemical added to unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was intended to improve the
nation's health was to prove responsible for the decline of (7) _________ of its favourite species.

According to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum population in
a specific area to breed successfully. If, (8) _________ whatever reason, numbers drop (9) _________ this
threshold, the stimulus to breed disappears. The most dramatic example is the passenger pigeon, which in
the late nineteenth century went from (10) _________ the world's most common bird to total extinction
within 50 years.

Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
The Creators of Grammar
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word
sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny
variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or
is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is
this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes
have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish
between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these
meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every
language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who
created grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is
created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence.
Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in
order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to
observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves
from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had
no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.
Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of
grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did
what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B]
Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to
be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy
the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language.
[D] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by
children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not
simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages.
Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was
documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in
1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip
reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures
that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no
consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was
already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older
children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of
grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A
new creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first.
The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have been 'It
end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by
children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when
they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical,
complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

Question 1: In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?

A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
Question 2: What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
Question 3: All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
Question 4: In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
“It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin
language, nor the language of the colonizers” .
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Question 5: 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. from the very beginning
B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else
D. by using written information
Question 6: 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. complicated and expressive
B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse
D. private and personal
Question 7: Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
Question 8: All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
Question 9: Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
Question 10: Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of
the following?
A. natural B. predictable C. imaginable D. uniform

Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
TRY IT AND SEE
In the social sciences, it is often supposed that there can be no such
thing as a controlled experiment. Think again.
A. In the scientific pecking order, social scientists are usually looked down on by their peers in the natural
sciences. Natural scientists do experiments to test their theories or, if they cannot, they try to look for
natural phenomena that can act in lieu of experiments. Social scientists, it is widely thought, do not subject
their own hypotheses to any such rigorous treatment. Worse, they peddle their untested hypotheses to
governments and try to get them turned into policies.
B. Governments require sellers of new medicines to demonstrate their safety and effectiveness. The
accepted gold standard of evidence is a randomised control trial, in which a new drug is compared with the
best existing therapy (or with a placebo, if no treatment is available). Patients are assigned to one arm or
the other of such a study at random, ensuring that the only difference between the two groups is the new
treatment. The best studies also ensure that neither patient nor physician knows which patient is allocated
to which therapy. Drug trials must also include enough patients to make it unlikely that chance alone may
determine the result.
C. But few education programmes or social initiatives are evaluated in carefully conducted studies prior to
their introduction. A case in point is the ‘whole-language’ approach to reading, which swept much of the
English-speaking world in the 1970s and 1980s. The whole-language theory holds that children learn to
read best by absorbing contextual clues from texts, not by breaking individual words into their component
parts and reassembling them (a method known as phonics). Unfortunately, the educational theorists who
pushed the whole-language notion so successfully did not wait for evidence from controlled randomised
trials before advancing their claims. Had they done so, they might have concluded, as did an analysis of 52
randomised studies carried out by the US National Reading Panel in 2000, that effective reading instruction
requires phonics.
D. To avoid the widespread adoption of misguided ideas, the sensible thing is to experiment first and make
policy later. This is the idea behind a trial of restorative justice which is taking place in the English courts.
The experiment will include criminals who plead guilty to robbery. Those who agree to participate will be
assigned randomly either to sentencing as normal or to participation in a conference in which the offender
comes face-to-face with his victim and discusses how he may make emotional and material restitution. The
purpose of the trial is to assess whether such restorative justice limits re-offending. If it does, it might be
adopted more widely.
E. The idea of experimental evidence is not quite as new to the social sciences as sneering natural scientists
might believe. In fact, randomised trials and systematic reviews of evidence were introduced into the social
sciences long before they became common in medicine. An apparent example of random allocation is a
study carried out in 1927 of how to persuade people to vote in elections. And randomised trials in social
work were begun in the 1930s and 1940s. But enthusiasm later waned. This loss of interest can be
attributed, at least in part, to the fact that early experiments produced little evidence of positive outcomes.
Others suggest that much of the opposition to experimental evaluation stems from a common philosophical
malaise among social scientists, who doubt the validity of the natural sciences, and therefore reject the
potential of knowledge derived from controlled experiments. A more pragmatic factor limiting the growth
of evidence-based education and social services may be limitations on the funds available for research.
F. Nevertheless, some 11,000 experimental studies are known in the social sciences {compared with over
250,000 in the medical literature). Randomised trials have been used to evaluate the effectiveness of driver-
education programmes, job- training schemes, classroom size, psychological counselling for post-traumatic
stress disorder and increased investment in public housing. And where they are carried out, they seem to
have a healthy dampening effect on otherwise rosy interpretations of the observations.
G. The problem for policymakers is often not too few data, but what to make of multiple and conflicting
studies. This is where a body called the Campbell Collaboration comes into its own. This independent non-
profit organisation is designed to evaluate existing studies, in a process known as a systematic review. This
means attempting to identify every relevant trial of a given question (including studies that have never been
published), choosing the best ones using clearly defined criteria for quality, and combining the results in a
statistically valid way. An equivalent body, the Cochrane Collaboration, has produced more than 1,004
such reviews in medical fields. The hope is that rigorous review standards will allow Campbell, like
Cochrane, to become a trusted and authoritative source of information.

For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below
Write the correct number, i-ix.
List of Headings
i. Why some early social science methods lost popularity
ii. The cost implications of research
iii. Looking ahead to an unbiased assessment of research
iv. A range of social issues that have been usefully studied
v. An example of a poor decision that was made too quickly
vi. What happens when the figures are wrong
vii. One area of research that is rigorously carried out
viii. The changing nature of medical trials
ix. An investigative study that may lead to a new system
x. Why some scientists’ theories are considered second-rate

Example: Paragraph A Answer: X

1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
For questions 7-10, complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from
the passage for each answer.
Fighting Crime
Some criminals in England are agreeing to take part in a trial designed to help reduce their chances
of 7 …………………... . The idea is that while one group of randomly selected criminals undergoes the
usual 8 ………………….. the other group will discuss the possibility of making some repayment for the
crime by meeting the 9 ………………….. . It is yet to be seen whether this system, known
as 10 ………………….. will work.
Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

D. WRITING (40 points)

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed
before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. The first sign of the disease is blurred vision.
The onset __________________________________________________________________.
2. I will only be satisfied if the manager apologizes fully.
Nothing short _______________________________________________________________.
3. Julia isn’t to blame for the negligence by any means.
By no means _______________________________________________________________.
4. It rumored that we will have a new manager.
Rumor has _________________________________________________________________.
5. No one stands a chance of beating Mansell in this year’s championship.
It’s a foregone ______________________________________________________________.
Part 2. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the
words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (10 points)
1. I remained neutral during their disagreement because I like both of them. (SIDES)
__________________________________________________________________________.
2. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins. (SHOWERED)
__________________________________________________________________________.
3. He is a generous person. (NAME)
__________________________________________________________________________. 4. Several
runners have withdrawn from the race because of health problems. (BACKED)
__________________________________________________________________________.
5. Returning from the battle, they had no money left. (RUB)
__________________________________________________________________________.
Part 3. Essay writing (20 points)
Competitiveness is considered a positive quality among people.
Do you agree with this statement? Write an essay of 200-250 words to state your viewpoint.

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN

VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ NĂM 2018
TỈNH HÒA BÌNH
ĐỀ THI ĐÈ XUẤT Thời gian làm bài 180 phút
(Đề này có 16 trang)

I. LISTENING (50PS)
I. You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language
Study Fair. For each question, fill in the missing information in
the numbered space. In each space, use NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS. You will listen to the CD twice.
The Language Study Fair
Dates: 17th to 19th of March
Place: (1)…………….. Education Centre
Fair includes: - stands with textbooks
- talks by educational speakers
- exhibition of (2)…………………..
- demonstrations of latest computer programs
Opening hours: 9.30 a.m. – (3)……………….Thursday and Friday
9.30 a.m. – 4.00 p.m Saturday
Tickets: (4)………….……
or £3 for (5)…………………………..
Tickets can be booked by ringing the hotline on 984 7711.
II. Listen to two passages and choose the correct answer. You
will listen to the passages twice.
1. When in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past?
A. Queensland B. New South Wales C. several states
2. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they
A. attack bees B. carry parasites C. damage crops
3. What point is made about Australian bees?
A. Their honey varies in quality
B. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
C. They are sold to customers abroad.
4. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
A. the country’s economy would be affected
B. they could be used in the study of allergies.
C. certain areas of agriculture would benefit.
5. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got
A. advice from personal friends in other countries.
B. help from students in other countries.
C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.
III. Listen to some of the theories people have had about the
cause of his death and decide whether the statements are true
or false. You will listen to the CD once.

T F

1. Napoleon died at the age of 51.

2. No one knows exactly why Napoleon died.

3. Some people think that he had lung cancer

4. It is suggested that he was poisoned by his

wife.

5. According to the third theory the poison in

the dyes in wallpaper led to his death.
IV. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more
than three words for each answer.
1. Governments have been mistaken to ...................... slums.
2. There is often a lack of .................... concerning housing projects.
3. Housing policies which are based on principles of ..................... are
particularly effective.
4. Some ......................... should always be provided by governments.
5. Migrants will only ........................ in housing if they feel secure.
6. Governments often underestimate the importance of ......................
to housing projects.
7. The availability of ......................... is the starting point for
successful housing development.
8. Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ......................... of
individuals.
9. The population size of cities enables a range of ........................... to
occur.
10. City living tends to raise the level of .................................... to
occur.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50PS)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct
answer (A, B, C or D).
1. Salt and ice can be used to _______ food.
A. contaminate B. pollute C. include D. preserve
2. Ask Tom to give you a hand lifting the suitcase. He is as strong as
_______.
A. an elephant B. a buffalo C. a gorilla D. a horse
3. Have you sold ______ of those shirts yet?
A. out B. off C. on D. for
4. ______I to have known there is such an appropriate curriculum, I would
have registered for it at
the beginning.
A. If B. Do C. Were D. Providing
5. When you do something, you should _______.
A. weigh up the pros and cons B. turn over a new leaf
C. go down well with it D. get through to it
6. I made no impression on you at school as I was neither an excellent
student nor a(n) ______one.
A. good B. disruptive C. original D. compulsory
7. By the time I was told about the terrible affair, I _______ in what he
often said to me.
A. believed B. was believing
C. would have believed D. had believed
8. "How is the traffic there?" -"______."
A. No matter B. Absolutely C. Not too bad D. Good idea
9. "Is the course interesting?" -"______."
A. Agreed B. Ready C. Really D. Absolutely
10. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D.
vision
11. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D.
indifferent
12. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____”
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s
13. It's no use ___ over ___ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling
C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
14. They are fighting to eradicate the _________________ of starvation
caused by the civil war.
A. leaving B. legacy C. remains D. tradition
15. The tracker stalked the tiger for days but the animal
capture.
A. missed B. slipped C. jumped D. eluded
16. This book will be a delight to readers of science fiction.
A amateur B. skilled C seasoned D. loving
17. A considerable of folklore has built up regarding the magical
properties of sites such as Stonehenge.
A. pile B. body C. doctrine D. culture
18. Closure of schools took place falling numbers of pupils.
A. in the context of B. with regard to
C. with a concern for D. in consideration of
19. Don't worry - the documents are safe lock and key at my
place
A. under B. on C. in D. within
20 for Tom's opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.
A. Be it not B. Would it not have been
C. Should it not have been D. Had it not been
II. Each line of the following passage has one mistake related to
either grammar or vocabulary usage. Find and correct them.
Air pollution is a cause for ill – health in human beings. It a lot of
countries, there are laws limited the amount of smoke which factories
can produce. Because there isn't enough information on the amount of
smoke in the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution makes
lung cancer. The gases from the exhausts of cars have also risen air
pollution in most cities. The lead in petrol produces a poisoned gas which
often collects in busy streets surrounding by high buildings. Children who
live in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think
as quick as other children and they are clumsy where they use their
hands. There are long-term effects of pollution. If the gases in the
atmosphere continues to increase, the earth's climate will become
warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water and may cause serious
floods.
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.
1. The teenager took his father’s credit card and ran ................................
7,000 dollars’ worth of purchases.

2. Don’t believe her when she says she’s got stomachache. She’s
putting it .......................... . She just wants to get out of going to school.
3. I’ve always found his attitude ......................................... me rather
puzzling.
4. If you want to have an evening out, the child is sure to be quite
safe ......................... the care of a baby sitter.
5. The younger worker can be trusted ............................... the work, he
won’t spoil it.
6. Frank was not cut _________ the job of a policeman because of his
excitable character.
7. Have the authorities finished looking ___________ the cause of the
explosion yet?
8. It’s impossible to live on the low unemployment benefit I come_____
from the government.
9. Everybody put Mr. Spark’s success ________ his extraordinary
cleverness at persuading people to entrust their money with him.
10. Many a change has been brought ___________ in the climate by
global warming.
IV. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.
Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds
that regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into
energy. They should not be confused with minerals, which are (1.
organic) ......................in their makeup. Although in general the naming
of vitamins followed the (2. alphabet)................................ order of their
(3. identify) .............................................the nomenclature of individual
substances may appear to be somewhat random and (4.
organize) ..................................... .
Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body.
Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all
vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each
vitamin has its specific (5. designate) .............................................. and
cannot be replaced by another compound, a lack of one vitamin can
interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one
vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result. The best
way for an individual to (6. sure) ............................ a necessary
supply of vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that includes a (7.
vary)............................................... of foods and provides
adequate quantities of all the compounds. Some people take vitamin
supplements, predominantly in the form of tablets. The vitamins in such
supplements are (8. equal) ............................. to those in food, but
an adult who maintains a balanced diet does not need a daily
supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended only to
correct an existing deficiency due to (9.
balance) .................................... diet, to provide vitamins known to be
lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical
treatment. (10. specify) .................................., caution must be
exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A and D,
because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health
hazard over a period of time.
PART III. READING
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most
suitable word or phrase for each space
English spelling
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English
was first written down when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-
Saxon (1) ______ .They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the
sounds of Anglo-Saxon speech as they heard it.
However, English has a (2) ______ range of basic sounds (over 40) than
Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were
needed to (3) ______ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were
inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.
With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put (4)
______ risk. English survived, but the spelling of many English words
changed to follow French patterns, and many French words were (5)
______ into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (6) ______ in the fifteenth century, many
early printers of English texts spoke other first languages. They (7) ______
little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-term
effects of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the
long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words
spelt in the same way. Rules were (8) ______ and dictionaries were put
together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken
English was not fixed and continued to change slowly - just as it still does
now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-
Saxon period, like the 'k' in 'knife', now became (9) ______. Also, the
pronunciation of vowels then had (10) _____ in common with how they
sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn't changed.
1. A. ages B. centuries C. times D. years
2. A. deeper B. longer C. thicker D. wider
3. A. explain B. express C. perform D. tell
4. A. at B. in C. on D. under
5. A. announced B. found C. introduced D. started
6. A. discovered B. invented C. made up D. taken
up
7. A. brought B. did C. made D. put
8. A. drawn up B. filled in C. got across D. handed out
9. A. dump B. quiet C. silent D. speechless
10. A. much B. many C. few D. little
II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. Write your answers
in the spaces bellow.
Is Photography Dead?
For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It
was simply a skill and it was criticized for being too mechanical and not
creative enough. At last, however, photography is now accepted as a
unique and very important (1)........of art.
The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now
seriously challenged, and the important function of photography in
modern-day society is consequently (2) ......threat. The threat has
suddenly become all the more serious as more and more photographers
are (3)....... to the new technology which computers offer.
Moreover, a (n) (4) ........ number of colleges have now begun to offer
(5) ....... in computer imaging. All these developments (6)........ a
disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7)......., dead?
In spite of its complete transformation by new technological
developments, however, photography will continue to play a (8) ........role
in our culture. Although it may no longer (9)........ to be realistic, modern
photography can continue to provide us with fresh visral (10) .........about
ourselves and the world in which we live.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer
Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North
and South, when the Civil War ended. About a million and a half soldiers
from both sides had to be demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and
reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil government also had to
be put back on a peace time basis and interference from the military had
to be stopped.
The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that
reconstruction had to be undertaken also in the North, though less
spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to peacetime conditions: factories
had to be retooled for civilian needs.
Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South.
The national debt had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the
year the war started, to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the year the war
ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent
government could pay. At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to
less burdensome levels.
Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South
and border states, had to be repaired. This herculean task was
ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness.
Other important questions needed answering. What would be the
future of the four million Black people who were freed from slavery? On
what basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the Union?
What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of
treason? One of these leaders, Jefferson Davis, president of the Southern
Confederacy, was the subject of an insulting popular Northern song,
"Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree", and even children sang it.
Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell during the early days of
his two-year imprisonment. But he and the other Southern leaders were
finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a
Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the leaders were
finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help
reconstruction efforts precede with as little bitterness as possible.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Wartime expenditures
B. Problems facing the United States after the war
C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war
D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy
2. The word "Staggering" is closest in meaning to
 A. specialized B. confusing C. various D.
overwhelming
3. The word "devastated" is closest in meaning to
A. developing B. ruined C. complicated D.
fragile
4 According to the passage, which of the following statements about the
damage in the South is correct?
A. It was worse than in the North. B. The cost was less than
expected.
C. It was centred in the border states. D. It was remedied
rather quickly.
5. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following
the Civil War EXCEPT
A. helping soldiers readjust B. restructuring industry
C. returning government to normal D. increasing taxes
6. The word "task" refers to
A. raising the tax level B. sensible financial
choices
C. wise decisions about former slaves D. reconstruction of
damaged areas
7. Why does the author mention a popular song ?
A. To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South
B. To illustrate the Northern love of music
C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and
the South
D. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents
8. The word "them” refers to
A. charges B. leaders C. days D.
irons
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase "...it was
unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would
convict them"?
A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis. B. A popular song
insulted Virginia.
C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders.
D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned
the Southern leaders in order to
A. raise money for the North B. repair the physical damage
in the South
C. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners
D. help the nation recover from the war
IV. Read the text below carefully and then do the following
exercises. Testing 1, 2, 3, …
A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the
prevailing wisdom apears to be: if it moves, test it and if doesn’t, well,
test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an absession. In
addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs,
and HNDs, not to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that
school-leavers have to
overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the
threat of “new tests”, Scholastic Aptitude Tests (SATs)
B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have
been in use for nearly a hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the
tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds a better chance of
entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class
bias that exists in British universities. But, in fact, they are, no more than
an additional barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ
tests, are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing
examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free of the bias that the
supporters pretend.
C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes
to cram for SATs, which again will advantage the better-off. At a recent
conference of the Prefessional Association of Teachers, it was declared
that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children.
Further, the content of the tests in question is not based on sound
scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs),
set up by a group of item writers.
D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of
children. Those which correlate with the school grades of the children are
kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly unsatisfactory. There is also
evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because of
the way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth
noting that MCQs are only as good as the people who write them; so,
unless the writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are
being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers.
E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but
the educational system has not been so quick off the mark. But there are
signs that times are a changing. Previously, students took exams at the
end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the
year. Now, language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman
ESOL exams can be
taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for example, is run
a test centre throughout the world subject to demand. Where the
demand is high, the test is held more frequently. At present, in London, it
is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a week.
F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It
has been suggested that the students may in future be able to walk into
a public library or other public building and take assessment test for a
range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant
assessment and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the
convenience.
Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F).
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the
list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (1-10) next
to the paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you.
Note: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not
use all of them.
YOU MAY USE ANY HEADING MORE THAN ONCE
0. Paragraph A ___9____ Paragraph B _________ Paragraph C _________
Paragraph D_________ Paragraph E _________ Paragraph F _________
List of Headings
1. Assessment in the future
2. The theory behind MCQs
3. Problem with SATs
4. Misuse of testing in School
5. The need for computer assessment
6. The benefits of SATs
7. Testing in workplace
8. The sortcoming of MCQs
9. Too much testing
10. Flexibility in language tesing
Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide
whether the following statements agree with the information in
the reading or not. Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage.
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
No Information if there is no information about the statement in the
passage.
Example:
0. SATs is the abbreviation of Scholastic Aptitude Tests .
Answer: Yes
6. In the fields of education and work the prevailing wisdom seems to be
to test everything.
7. Research in genetics refutes the theory that people are predestined to
follow certain careers.
8. Psychometric testing is favoured by headmaster and mistresses in
many high schools.
9. The writer of this article is in favour of testing in general.
10. According to the writer, students get benefits from SATs

PART V. WRITING (50PS)

I. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second
sentence has the same meaning as the first one.
1. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of
homelessness.
--> Urgent .................................................................................
2. I simply fail to understand some of my colleague‟s attitudes to work.
-->I have some colleagues ...................................................
3. I did not realize how much he was influenced by his brother.
-->I did not realize the extent ....................................................
4. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental
problems.
-->Mass tourism is ....................................................................
5. It was six months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
-->I cancelled ................................................................
6. These books are on loan from the British Council library.
-->These books have ...................................................................
II. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such
a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the
first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets
1. These two makes of computer are practically the same. (hardly)
....................................................................................................................
............
2. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken)
....................................................................................................................
............
3. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
....................................................................................................................
............
4. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
(annual)
..........................................................................................
III. Write a composition about 200 – 250 words on the following
topic:
“Written books are not needed because we can read almost everything
on the Internet”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
THE END

TRƯỜNG THTP CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG – PHÚ THỌ

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH
SECTION I. LISTENING (50/200)
PART 1. A Japanese girl and a housing officer are talking about
her homestay family. The housing officer takes some details
from the girl.
For questions 1-5, complete the following form with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10
points)

PERSONAL DETAILS FOR HOMESTAY APPLICATION

First name 1. ______________________
Family name Yuichini
Gender Female
 Age 28
Passport 2. ______________________
number
Nationality Japanese
Course 3. ______________________
enrolled
Length of the 4. ______________________
course
Homestay time 5. ______________________

PART 2. You will hear an interview with a professional athlete

called Ann Brown.
For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (10
points)

1. What does Ann say about her performance in the world

championships?
A. She was disappointed not to win.
B. She wishes she'd been more prepared.
C. She did better than she'd been expecting to.
2. How does Ann feel about the place where she trains?
A. She finds it quite boring.
B. She enjoys looking at the scenery.
C. She pays little attention to where she is.
3. What is Ann's attitude towards the other competitors in races?
A. She avoids close social contact with them.
B. She's made a few good friends amongst them.
C. She finds it easy to talk to them when she has to.
4. How does Ann feel about being recognized in public?
A. She's relaxed about it.
B. She finds the attention exciting.
 C. She dislikes signing autographs.
5. When thinking about the future, Ann _______.
A. plans around five years in advance.
B. admits to worrying about getting injured.
C. remains focused on winning important races
PART 3. You will hear two neighbors, a woman, Natasha, and a
man. Colin, talking about running.
For question 11-15, decide if each sentence is correct or
incorrect. If it is correct, write T for True. If it is incorrect, write
F for False. Write your answer in the space given. (10 points)

6. Natasha has decided to take the day off work to go running.

___________
7. Colin found running to work was bad for his health.
___________
8. Natasha would like to wear her sports clothes at work.
___________
9. Natasha will run in the big race because she hopes to win it.
___________
10. Colin and Natasha will prepare for the big race together.
___________
PART 4. You will hear a singer called Tim Tanner who sings with
his twin brother Sam Tanner, talking about their lives and
career.
For questions 16-25, complete the sentences. (20 points)
Singing twins: Tim and Sam Tanner
The name of the talent competition which the twins won is
(16)______________________.
Tim is exactly (17)______________________ older than Sam.
The twins were born in the month of
(18)______________________.
 The main physical difference between Tim and Sam is their
(19)_____________________.
Tim has a less (20)______________________ personality than
Sam.
At school, both Tim and Sam were good at
(21)___________________.
Sam started taking (22)_______________ lessons when he was
thirteen.
The fact that the twins share the same
(23)_____________________ sometimes leads to arguments.
Tim says a key part of the twins' image is the
(24)___________________ they wear.
The title of the twins’ next album is
(25)______________________.

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200)

PART 1. Choose the best answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (20
points)
1. The comtemporary dialogue for me struck a slightly _______ note.
A. disembodied B. discordant C. dismissive D.
disconcerting
2. We decided to celebrate by going out and painting the town ________.
A. red B. purple C. gold D. brown
3. The series became so popular that it was moved to the ________ time
spot of 8 pm.
A. leading B. prime C. main D. major
4. The current economic _______ is very good for small businesses.
A. disposition B. whirlwind C. climate D. daze
5. He hit the other boy reluctantly as his friends __________ him on.
A. happened B. egged C. ground D. played
6. The actors gave a very ________ performance, and the critics
expressed their disapproval in their reports the following day.
A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill
C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene
7. He was _________ devastaled by the news.
A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D.
immensely
8. The Red Cross is ________ an international aid organization.
A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D.
intrepidly
9. I know it’s got his name on the cover, but he used a ________.
A. corrrespondent B. model C. ghost writer D. fellow
10. Our lecturer _________ the importance of taking clear notes.
A. responded B. reiterated C. retained D. recruited
11. Suppose she _______ that outrageous story circulating aroundthe
office, she’d be furious.
A. has heard B. would hear C. were heard D. had heard
12. People can make themselves walkon nails or through fire. It’s a
question of mind over ______.
A. body B. material C. matter D. facts
13. Our plan to start our own business seem ________to failture.
A. doomed B. fated C. compelled D. designed
14. ________ my buying tuna if you detest eating fish.
A. Is it any good B. As well as
C. It’s not much use D. There is nothing good
15. We welcome the new regulations, which become________ on the
first of next month.
A. effective B. efficient C. efficacious D. effete
16. The chemicals spilled over the road and left drivers ________ for
breath.
A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D.
wheezing
17. It is impossible to miss the ______ of the Generation X in America.
A. manifestation B. advancement
C. initiation D. acknowledgement
18. He has been trying to improve his grades but instead, they have
remained as ______ as possible.
A. static B. on coming C. parasitic D. virtual
19. They go to the seaside _____ they should be disturbed by the noise of
the city.
A. in order that B. for C. so that D. lest
20. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, ______ help you with yours.
A.leaving aside B. let alone C. apart D. aback

PART 2. Identify and correct 10 errors in the passage. Write your

answer in the numbered boxes (10 points)
The first self-service stores open in America in the 1920s but they didn’t
catch up in Europe until later, when the French forged ahead with their
massive hypermarkets. Britain lagged behind. For the first self-service
shop and the first supermarket were opened in the early 1940s, it was
thought that British housewives did not particularly want proficiency and
speed. Surveys showed that while American shoppers complained most
about delays in check-out queues. British ones rejected to being pushed
and shoved by other customers.
The essence of supermarket shopping is impersonality, with no
meditating salesman between seller and goods, only the ‘silent
persuaders’ of packaging and display. Besides, there is a current trend
towards ‘boutiques’, with personal service, within supermarkets – the
butcher, the baker, the fishseller – and small specialist shops and
farmers’ markets are doing a comeback in Britain. In france, where every
self-respecting provincial town, ringed by supermarkets, retains their
specialist food shops and weekly street market, the traditional co-exists
with the ancient.

PART 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial

particles. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points)
Put the right prepositions into the gaps:
1. We met each other at the meeting ______ coincidence.
2. No one can function properly if he or she is deprived _______ adequate
sleep.
3. The concert was given ______ the auspices of the Y.M.C.A.
4. When he suddenly brought ______ the subject of genetic engineering,
there was an embarrassed silence.
5. After she ate the chocolates, her face broke ______ in a rash.
6. The situation is very confusing in that country and calls _______
diplomacy.
7. No witness of the accident has come _______ yet.
8. You shouldn’t have sent Peter that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve
scared him ______.
9. The police are trying to crack _____ on drunken drivers.
10. He was very upset when the boss pushed him ______ and promoted a
new comer to the assistant’s job.

PART 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the
word in brackets. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10
points)
Rafflesia is a rare parasitic plant species found in Southeast Asia.
Rafflesia has been 1.(LIKE) to a fungus because it lacks chlorophyll and
is incapable of phontosynthesis. Perhaps the only part of Rafflesia that is
discernible as distinctly plant-like is the flower, which is said to be the
world’S largest.
Many 2.(BOTANY) have been keen to discover why the flower is so
large, so they recently conducted 3.(MOLECULE) analysis on the plant.
This resulted in the 4.(REVEAL) that it has evolved almost 80 times
from its origin as a tiny bud to today's seven-kilo mega-bloom. Although
this 5.(ORDINARY) transformation took tens of millions of years, such
an 6.(EVOLUTION) spurt is still one of the most dramatic size changes
ever reported. Such growth rates in humans would be 7.(COMPARE) to
us being 146 metres tall today.
The plant is also unusual in another way. Its smell is extremely 8.
(PLEASE) but this horrible trait attracts such 9.(POLLINATE) as flies. It
is thought that Rafflesia’s huge flower helps radiate the smell over long
10.(DISTANT).

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200)

PART 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B,
C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered
boxes. (10 points)
In Europe, Midsummer Night's Eve, also known as St John's Eve,
occurs on June 23rd. It originates from the pagan celebrations of the
summer solstice which were held on June 21st. On that night throughout
Europe bonfires were lit along hillsides to (1)_____ the shortest night of
the year. It must have looked as if some kind of violent insurrection was
taking place down the coast of Scotland and England, but these signal
fires in fact had a very important purpose. Bones of farm animals
(2)_____ the previous autumn were burned and, when the fires had
(3)_____, the remaining ash was put to good use: it was spread on the
fields to enrich the land and ensure a good harvest. The word 'bonfire' is
(4)_____ from 'bone fire'.
In Brazil too St John's Eve means bonfires and fireworks. Another
quaint tradition involves the (5)_____ of small paper hot-air balloons,
although they are prohibited by law in the cities because of the fire
(6)_____. Bonfires mark the beginning of spring rather than the summer
in Sweden and are lit on the last night of April. In the Swedish
Midsummer's Eve (7)_____, held on June 24th, a large pole, decorated
with flowers and leaves, is placed in the ground.
Thistles also have a significant role in the celebration of
Midsummer's Night in Europe. In the past they were thought to (8)_____
witches. The pretty, prickly plant was nailed over barn doors and used in
wreaths, the circular shape being a symbol of the turning of the seasons.
Wheels laced with straw and soaked in pitch were lit from the bonfires
and then rolled down hills.
There is less risk of fire in a (9)_____ tradition to many Slavic
countries. Young women and girls float little baskets of flowers and
lighted candles down streams. Local boys swim out to (10)_____ a basket,
find the girl it belongs to and claim a dance at the town's Midsummer's
Eve Party.

1. A. B. honour C. D.
celebrate commemorate commiserate
2. A. revised B. C. slaughtered D. sacrificed
assassinated
3. A. doused B. C. smothered D. gone out
extinguished
4. A. derived B. developed C. evolved D. decayed
5. A. landing B. launching C. propelling D. ejecting
6. A. B. peril C. jeopardy D. hazard
certainty
 7. A. B. custom C. ceremony D. practice
tradition
8. A. deflect B. ward off C. attract D. avert
9. A. unique B. common C. mutual D. prevalent
10. A. B. rescue C. set free D. liberate
salvage

PART 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best
fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points)
Psychologists are interested in the reasons why some people like taking
part in risky sports. (1) ____ they studied people who were learning to
jump from a plane with a parachute, they found that parachutists’ bodies
(2) ______ large amounts of two hormones, adrenaline and nor
adrenaline, just (3)_____they made their jump.
These hormones help to prepare us for any sudden activity. Adrenaline
increases the (4)______ rate and provides more sugar for the muscles,
while nor adrenaline does make us react more quickly. (5)_____, nor
adrenaline also stimulates a part of the brain which controls feelings of
pleasure. Some psychologists (6)_____ concluded that it is a feeling of
pleasure caused by this hormone which makes (7)_____ people want to
participate in dangerous sports.
Another possible reason is the level of arousal (8)_____ part of the brain.
According to some psychologists, the brain tries to maintain a certain
level of arousal. They believe that people who normally have a low level
of arousal (9)____ for excitement and new experiences in order to
stimulate themselves, whereas people who usually have a high level of
arousal try to avoid risks and unfamiliar (10)_____ in order not to become
overexcited. If the psychologists are right, people with a low arousal are
the ones who enjoy participating in dangerous sports and activities.

PART 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer
A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (10
points)
There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the
Proterozoiccon. Much of our information about climate in the more
recent periods of geologic history comes from the fossil record, because
we have a reasonably good understanding of the types of environment in
which many fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils of the
Proterozoic, mostly single-celled bacteria, provide little evidence in this
regard. However, the rocks themselves do include the earliest evidence
for glaciation, probably a global ice age.
The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of
glacial activity is based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which
posits that natural processes now at work on and within the Earth
operated in the same manner in the distant past. The deposits
associated with present-day glaciers have been well studied, and some
of their characteristics are quite distinctive. In 2.3-billion-year-old rocks
in Canada near Lake Huron (dating from the early part of the Proterozoic
age), there are thin laminae of fine-grained sediments that resemble
varves, the annual layers of sediment deposited in glacial lakes.
Typically, present-day varves show two-layered annual cycle, one layer
corresponding to the rapid ice melting and sediment transport of the
summer season,and the other, finer-grained, layer corresponding to
slower winter deposition. Although it is not easy to discern such details in
the Proterozoic examples,they are almost certainly glacial varves. These
fine-grained, layered sediments even contain occasional large pebbles or
“dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial environments where
coarse material is sometimes carried on floating ice and dropped far
from its source, into otherwise very fine grained sediment. Glacial
sediments of about the same age as those in Canada have been
found in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and
Europe. This indicates that the glaciation was global, and that for a
period of time in the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice
age.
Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate
appears to have been fairly benign for a very long time. There is no
evidence for glaciation for the next 1.5 billion years or so. Then,
suddenly, the rock record indicates a series of glacial episodes between
about 850 and 600 million year ago, near the end of the Proterozoiccon.

1. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories
about the climate of the Proterozoic age
B. What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the
late Proterozoic age
C. The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different
parts of the world
D. The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since
the Proterozoic age
2. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con
is_______
A. highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of
organisms
B. less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods
C. very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria
D. more useful to researchers than other aspects of the rock record
3. The word “scarce” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______
A. ancient
B. tiny
C. available
D. rare
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of
uniformitarianism indicates that______
A. similar conditions produce similar rock formations
B. rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time
C. different kinds of sedimentary rocks may
D. each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers
5. The word “resemble” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______
A. result from
B. penetrate
C. look like
D. replace have similar origins
6. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed
by________
A. fossilized bacteria
B. pieces of ancient dropstones
C. a combination of ancient and recent sediments
D. annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition
7. The phrase “the other” in paragraph 2 refers to another_______
A. annual cycle
B. glacial lake
C. layer of sediment
D. season
8. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates
that______
A. the glacial environment has been unusually server
B. the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly
C. there has been a global ice age
D. coarse rock material has been carried great distances
9. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India,
and Europe in bold lines?
A. To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in
the early Proterozoic eon
B. To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones
C. To explain the principles of varve formation
D. To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in
different parts of the globe
10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. fossil record
B. laminae
C. varves
D. glacial episodes
PART 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading the passage
and do the tasks below. (15 points)
Money Transfers by Mobile
 A. The ping of a text message has never sounded so sweet. In what is
being touted as a world first, Kenya’s biggest mobile operator is
allowing subscribers to send cash to other phone users by SMS.
Known as M-Pesa, or mobile money, the service is expected to
revolutionise banking in a country where more than 80% of people
are excluded from the formal financial sector. Apart from transferring
cash – a service much in demand among urban Kenyans supporting
relatives in rural areas – customers of the Safaricom network will be
able to keep up to 50,000 shillings (£370) in a “virtual account” on
their handsets.

B. Developed by Vodafone, which holds a 35% share in Safaricom, M-

Pesa was formally launched in Kenya two weeks ago. More than
10,000 people have signed up for the service, with around 8 million
shillings transferred so far, mostly in tiny denominations. Safaricom’s
executives are confident that growth will be strong in Kenya, and later
across Africa. “We are effectively giving people ATM cards without
them ever having to open a real bank account,” said Michael Joseph,
chief executive of Safaricom, who called the money transfer concept
the “next big thing” in mobile telephony.

C. M-Pesa’s is simple. There is no need for a new handset or SIM card. To

send money, you hand over the cash to a registerred agent – typically
a retailer – who credits your virtual account. You then send between
100 shillings (74p) and 35,000 shillings (£259) via text message to
the desired recipient – even someone on a different mobile network –
who cashes it at an agent by entering a secret code and showing ID. A
commission of up to 170 shillings (£1.25) is paid by the recipient but
it compares favourably with fees levied by the major banks, whose
services are too expensive for most of the population.

D.Mobile phone growth in Kenya, as in most of Africa, has been

remarkable, even among the rural poor. In June 1999, Kenya had
15,000 mobile subscribers. Today, it has nearly 8 million out of a
population of 35 millions, and the two operators’ networks are as
extensive as the access to banks is limited. Safaricom says it is not so
much competing with financial services companies as filling a void. In
time, M-Pesa will allow people to borrow and repay money, and make
purchases. Companies will be able to pay salaries directly into
workers’ phones – something that has already attracted the interest
of larger employers, such as the tea companies, whose workers often
 have to be paid in cash as they do not have bank accounts. There are
concerns about security, but Safaricom insists that even if someone’s
phone is stolen, the PIN system prevents unauthorised withdrawals.
Mr. Joseph said the only danger is sending cash to the wrong mobile
number and the recipient redeeming it straight away.

E. The project is being watched closely by mobile operators around the

world as a way of targeting the multibillion pound international cash
transfer industry long dominated by companies such as Western
Union and Moneygram. Remittances sent from nearly 200 million
migrant workers to developing countries totalled £102 billion last
year, according to the World Bank. The GSM Association, which
represents more than 700 mobile operators worldwide, believes this
could quadruple by 2012 if transfers by SMS become the norm.
Vodafone has entered a partnership with Citigroup that will soon allow
Kenyans in the UK to send money home via text message. The charge
for sending £50 is expected to be about £3, less than a third of what
some traditional services charge.

The text has 5 paragraphs (A – E). Which paragraph contains

each of the following pieces of information?
1. A possible security problem
2. The cost of M-Pesa
3. An international service similar to M-Pesa
4. The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account

Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS from the text for each gap
5. Safaricom is the _________________ mobile phone company in Kenya.
6. An M-Pesa account needs to be credited by ______________.
7. Companies like Moneygram and Western Union have ______________
the international money transfer market.

Do the statements on the next page agree with the information

given in Reading Passage 1? write
TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the
statement
FALSE if the information in the text contradicts the
statement
NOT if there is no information on this
GIVEN

8. Most Kenyans working in urban areas have relatives in rural areas.

 9. So far, most of the people using M-Pesa have used it to send small
amounts of money.
10. M-Pesa can only be used by people using one phone network.

SECTION IV: WRITING (50/200)

PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way
that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
(10 points)
1. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend.
-> Weather ________________________________________________.
2. Brenda doesn’t get on well with her next-door neighbor any more.
-> Brenda has ______________________________________________.
3. It would have been possible for Jane to take us in her car.
-> Jane ___________________________________________________.
4. Tim had no idea what he was letting himself in for.
-> Little __________________________________________________.
5. The plain clothes officer’s boots showed he was a policeman.
-> The plain clothes policeman’s real ____________________________.

PART 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word.

The given words can’t be changed. (10 points)
1. These rainy Monday morning make me feel miserable. (GET)
_________________________________________________________.
2. You have said exactly the right thing. (NAIL)
_________________________________________________________.
3. He maintained his position against his adversary. (GROUND)
_________________________________________________________.
4. Since she met that boy, she’s been thinking only about him.
(WRAPPED)
_________________________________________________________.
5. My husband will be angry when I tell him. (ROOF)
_________________________________________________________.

PART 3. Writing a paragraph. (30 points)

“Teenagers should have part-time jobs in preparation for their
future.”
Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-
200 words to state your viewpoint.
THE END

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG
LẦN THỨ XI - NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

I: LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. You are going to listen to Peter and Jim discuss about the lease for the next year.
While you listen, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice.(10 points)

PLAN FOR SHARING ACCOMMODATION

The total rent: Peter £110 & Jim £ 80

Car parking: In the garage
A place to buy things: (1)___________, because Jim works there.
The fees they should share : (2)__________fees
The appliances needed:
 The landlord will provide the microwave

 The (3) ___________is needed in the kitchen.

 Peter will bring some dining room and living room furniture.

 Jim will buy a (4)___________at the store.

Location of the telephone: in the kitchen

Move-in date: June, 1st
Time of the game to watch together: (5)___________
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. You will hear an interview with a man called Grant Sowerby, who is about to go
on a trip into outer space. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer A, B or C which fits
best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes.You are going to listen twice. (10 points)

6. What is Grant most looking forward to on his flight?

A. taking off from Earth
B. seeing the Earth from space
C. leaving the Earth’s atmosphere
7. When asked if he is scared, Grant
A. denies this strongly.
B. insists that he’s overcome his fear.
C. suggests that this is a normal thing to feel.
8. What will Grant be responsible for during the flight?
A. preparing for unexpected landing
B. operating some of the controls
C. helping the crew members so as they have more free time
9. Grant feels that the term “space tourism”
A. gives people the wrong idea about what he’s doing.
B. makes what he’s doing sound attractive to people.
C. leads people to doubt whether he’s really going.
10. Grant thinks that in the future,
A. many people will be able to afford space flights.
B. more companies will be organizing space trips.
C. most spaceflights will take paying passengers.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Listen to a speech about life conditions in the past and decide whether the
following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice. (10 points)

11. Pleistocene epoch ended 2.6 million years ago.

 12. During this period where the most recent ice ages took place, the global average
temperatures were 5 to 10 degrees Celsius.
13. Homo Habilis could be called “handy man”.
14. Whooping cough is believed to be caused by hominids.
15. Since agriculture and human population arose, malaria had been spreading.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourist in New York about a visit
they will make to the Museum of Immigration on Ellis Island. For questions from 16 to
25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice.(20 points)

Museum of Immigration

Ellis Island was busiest between the year (16) __________and __________
The group of tourists will arrive at the museum by (17) __________
The first part of the the museum you go through used to be the (18) __________.
In the Registry Room, immigrants had both (19) __________and __________.
What’s called a(n) (20) __________ records the names of immigrants who passed
through Ellis Island.
Immigrants staying overnight on the island slept in the (21) __________.
The movie you can see at the museum is called (22) __________.
The play in the Theatre 2 features two (23) __________and one __________.
Instead of the play, the tourists can visit the (24) __________.
The Peopling of America exhibitions is in what used to be a(n) (25) __________.

Your answers:
16.
17.
 18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1: Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes the
sentence. (20 points)
1. Many people were killed instantly at Hiroshima and Nagasaki, but thousands more died
from________ radiation sickness.
A. succeeding B. following C. subsequent D. afterwards
2. Many students find it difficult to make____ meet on their small grants.
A. ends B. points C. circles D. edges
3. I am ______ to Mr. Morrison because of the knidness and concern that he showed me
when I was at the airport.
A. indebted B. gratified C. beholden D. liable
4. He’s not very sensible as far as money________are concerned.
A. points B. aspects C. objects D. matters
5. The firm went bankrup and their shares became________
A. priceless B. unworthy C. invaluable D. worthless
6. She________$20 out of the bank every Monday.
A. pulls B. draws C. extracts D. takes
7. It’s often better to________safe in the exams than to give an original answer.
A. act B. perform C. play D. do
8. She was________for time in the exam and didn’t complete the questions.
A. hurried B. chased C. hunted D. rushed
9. The headmaster________the discipline problem in his school with growing concern.
A. saw B. looked C. viewed D. reflected
10. The________thought of exams makes her feel ill.
 A. sole B. only C. little D. mere
11. The student’s hard work was________with success in his degree examination.
A. rewarded B. awarded C. thanked D. presented
12. The new experimental system didn’t________expectations.
A. reach B. come up to C. rise to D. touch
13. The pass________was fifty five percent of the candidates.
A. number B. amount C. sum D. rate
14. A computer is an ________ machine that can store, organize and find information, do
calculations and control other machines
A. electric B. electrical C. electricity D. electronic
15. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school _____immediately.
A. must be built B. is going to be built C. be built D. will be built
16. John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” Peter: “___________”
A. Sorry for this inconvenience B. I have no clue
C. Not at all D. Sorry, I’m a new comer here
17. _________ , he doesn’t study well.
A. As clever he is B. He is as clever C. Clever as he is D. As he is clever
18. You look exhausted. You __________ in the garden all day.
A. can’t have worked hard B. couldn’t have worked hard
C. should have worked hard D. must have worked hard
19. Let’s __________ the grammar one more time before the test.
A. go over B. go down with C. go off D. go back
20. ______incidents of Ebola virus outbreaks have been isolated incidents.
A. Most of B. Mostly C. The most D. Most
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes (IN LINE
ORDER) and correct them in the space provided. (10 points)
Line
 One of the most amazing marathon races in the world is marathon of the Sands. It 1
takes places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of Morocco, a part of 2
the world when temperatures can reach fifty degree centigrade. The standard 3
length of the marathon is 42.5 kilometers but this one is 240 kilometers long and 4
spends seven days to complete. It began in 1986 and now attracts about two 5
hundred runners, the majority of their ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. 6
About half of them come from France and the rest to all over the world. From 7
Britain it costs £2,500 to enter, this includes return air fares. The race is rapid 8
getting more and more popular despite, and perhaps because of the harsh 9
condition that runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else 10
they need for seven days in rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In 11
addition to this, they are given a litre and a half of water every ten kilometer, 12
Incredibly, near all the runners finish the course. One man, Lbrahim EL Joual, 13
took part in every race from 1984 to 2004. Runners do suffer terrible physical 14
hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin peels on their foot. However, 15
doctors are always on hand to deal with minor injuries and to make sure that 16
runners do not push themselves too far. 17

Your answers:
Lines Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1.The singer performance was so exciting that many of his fans were ____ enthusiasm.
A. carried away with B. moved to C. taken back with D. stirred up
with
2. He was very upset when the boss passed him___ and promoted a newcomer to the
assistant’s job.
A. by B. up C. over D. aside
3. Sorry, I can’t go to the movie with you. I’m________under with work at the moment.
A. rained B. flooded C. stormed D. snowed
4. She threatened to do herself _____when her husband ran away with her best friend.
A. on B. in C. up D. down
5. My shoulder is playing me_______today! I can’t do anything while it’s so painful.
A. on B. in C. up D. against
6. Donald Trump always inveigh _________immigrants in order to get votes.
A. up on B. into C. against D. towards
7. He managed to _______ the registration number of the car as it sped away.
A. spot up B. jot down C. dot off D. slot up
8. My parents had a lot of children, so sometimes there wasn’t enough food to_______.
A. put on B. fall back on C. give out D. go round
9. I wish you wouldn’t______ me about neglecting the housework.
A. talk down to B. have it out with C. play down to D. keep on at
10. We need to _____ food before the strike.
A. stock up on B. knock up on C. club up on D. fork up for
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. Supply the correct form of the words in bracket. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
When people enjoy whatever they are doing, they report some (0) characteristic
(CHARACTER) feelings that distinguish the (1)______ (PLEASURE) moment from the
rest of life. The same types of feelings are reported in the context of playing chess, climbing
mountains, playing with babies, reading a book or writing a poem. They are the same for
young and old, male and female, American or Japanese, rich or poor. In other words, the
nature of enjoyment seems to be (2)_______(UNIVERSE). We call this state of
(3) _______(COUNSCIOUS) a flow experience, because many people report that when
what they are doing is (4)_______(SPECIAL) enjoyable, it feels like being carried away by
a current, like being in a flow. At present, (5)__________ (LAMENT) few students would
recognize the idea that learning can be like that. But if educators invested a fraction of the
energy on (6)__________ (STIMULUS) the students’ enjoyment of learning that they now
spend in trying to transmit information, we could achieve much better results. Once
students’ (7) __________ (MOTIVATE) is engaged, once they can be
(8)_______________(POWER) to take control of their own learning and provided with
clear (9) __________(FEED) on their efforts, then they are on their way to a lifetime of
self-propelled (10) __________ACQUIRE) of knowledge.
Your answers:
1. 2.
3. 4.
5. 6.
7. 8.
9. 10.

III: READING (50 points)

Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Incentives play an important role in our decisions to learn. As we get older, the outcomes of
(1)_______ in learning may not be the same a when we were younger. For example, we are
less likely to be (2) ______ as a result of training. The type of work-related training or
learning we do also changes as we get older. Worker over 45 years old are more likely to
participate in learning (3)______that relate directly to their function So they may choose to
(4)_____ those technical skills directly related to their work. By contrast, young workers
are more (5)_____to participate in training that is an investment in their future careers.
Organizations also want to continually (6)_____ their skills base. Recently, business has
(7)____ this largely though a steady inflow of newly- (8)_____ young people onto the
labor (9) _____. Traditionally, we have had a mix of those young people who bring new
formal skills to the workplace, and a small proportion of older workers who (10)_____ their
experience. What we are seeing now is a decreasing proportion of young people entering
the workforce and an increase in the proportion of older people. So, unless we change he
nature of our education and learning across life, we will see a decline in formal skills in the
working population.

1. A. participation B. contribution C. attendance D. activity

2. A. raised B. promoted C. advanced D. upgraded

3. A. actions B. activities C. acts D. modules

4. A. relearn B. promote C. restore D. upgrade

5. A. probable B. likely C. possible D. liable

6. A. restart B. renovate C. restore D. renew

7. A. affected B. fulfilled C. achieved D. succeeded

8. A. educated B. taught C. qualified D. graduated

9. A. workforce B. employment C. staff D. market

10. A. donate B. supply C. contribute D. sell

Part 2: Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
As time (1)______, the power of newspaper seems to be on the (2)______. This is odd
because in the relatively recent past, people were predicting that the influence of the written
word would diminish in direct proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and
moving image through TV and video. As people whole-heartedly embrace the Internet and
cable and satellite (3)______, why don’t we see newspapers (4)_______ out? How have
these organs survived, let (5)_______ flourished, particularly on a Sunday? Why don’t
people (6)_______ have watched a football match live on the small screen press the
wisdom of rushing out the next (7) ______ to read a potted version of it in four or five
columns? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a (8)_______ impression of
it the following day read the review of the self-same film in a newspaper? To see if s/he is
right? Isn’t that what friends are for? Don’t we have colleagues for just that purpose – to see
if our ideas (9)_______ any given song, film or program tally with others? What is this
product that (10) ______ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comment,
subjective editorials and hyperbolic sports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the
time being to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to
mourn its passing.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the following questions.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
ENERGY FROM THE WAVES
The quest for sustainable sources of energy has led humans to study the energy
potential of the sun and the wind, as well as the immense power created by dammed rivers.
The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of potential energy. For example, it has
been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the energy generated by
hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet. this source remains quite difficult to
exploit.

But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few
decades, several technologies that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable
electricity have been invented and introduced. Some focus on capturing the power of the
changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans in certain tropical
regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those designed
to harness the power inherent in the ocean’s waves.

There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them
work because the movement of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by
directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such technology, the changing water
levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a long floating tube comprised of many
sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down with the water, they pump
a special fluid through the tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another technique
works on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion
of the water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the
rising water from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the
waves rush into the chamber, they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside
this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The movement of the air turns the
turbine, which feeds energy into the generator.

The drawback to each of these concepts is that they make it necessary to have many
pieces of machinery linked together. [B] This presents a problem because the larger the
device, the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean environments, and the
more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery. [C] Also, these
methods demand the construction of site- specific machines that take into consideration
average local wave heights and sea conditions. [D] In other words, the ability to get power
from waves differs from region to region.

Japan, Norway, and the UK have all attempted to generate energy by capturing the
power of ocean waves. In northern Scotland, the first power plant to use wave power,
OSPREY (Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy), began operating in 1995. It followed
the principle of the third method described above: waves entering a partially submerged
chamber pushed air into turbines ; to generate electricity. The electricity was then
transmitted to power collectors on the shore via underwater cables. Unfortunately, the
OSPREY plant was destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable difficulty
associated with this kind of power generation.

The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper
machinery is produced and installed, the energy is free. Maintenance costs are small, and
the equipment does not pose any threats of environmental pollution. And best of all, the
amounts of energy produced are enormous. However, these theoretical advantages have yet
to be fully realized. In many cases, a lack of government funding has inhibited the
technologies from advancing. For example, despite the relative abundance of proposed
wave-power devices, many have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated
only in artificial pools where they are not subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist
in actual oceans. Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the
fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy, also present
formidable challenges. All in all, while ocean power offers some intriguing possibilities, the
difficulties involved in harnessing this energy source are substantial and will require more
time to overcome
1. The phrase this source in the passage refers to
A. sun B. wind C. dammed rivers D. oceans
2. The word exploit in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. utilize B. declare C. contain D. determine
3. Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph 1?
A.To give a current example of ocean-based energy technology
B.To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy
C.To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy
D.To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful
4. In paragraph 2, the author states that
A.waves do not represent the only form of ocean power
B.tropical oceans produce the greatest amount of energy
C.scientists first attempted to collect power from ocean tides
D. most of the electricity created by oceans is not usable
5. The word induce in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. cause B. define C. order D. monitor
6. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave-power
technologies?
A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy.
B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly.
C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power.
D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity.
7. According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s design?
A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor.
B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines.
C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore.
D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms.
8. The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. delivered B. prevented C. protected D. approved
9. What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments?
 A. They do not believe wave-energy devices can withstand ocean forces.
B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries.
C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding.
D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors.
10. All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy EXCEPT
A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations B. the destructive power of the ocean
C. the size of the equipment involved D. the constant changing of the tides
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: (15 points)

Questions 1-6. The text on the following pages has six paragraphs, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (i-ix) below.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

i. Tackling the issue using a different approach

ii. A significant improvement on last time
iii. How robots can save human lives
iv. Examples of robots at work
v. Not what it seemed to be
vi. Why timescales are impossible to predict
vii. The reason why robots rarely move
viii. Following the pattern of an earlier development
ix. The ethical issues of robotics

1. Paragraph A:_______
2. Paragraph B: _______
3. Paragraph C: _______
4. Paragraph D: _______
5. Paragraph E: _______
 6. Paragraph F: _______
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

DAWN OF THE ROBOTS

They're already here - driving cars, vacuuming carpets and feeding hospital
patients. They may not be walking, talking, human-like sentient beings, but they are clever
and ….a little creepy.
A. At first sight it looked like a typical suburban road accident. A Land Rover
approached a Chevy Tahoe estate car that had stopped at a kerb; the Land Rover pulled out
and tried to pass the Tahoe just as it started off again. There was a crack of fenders and the
sound of paintwork being scraped, the kind of minor mishap that occurs on roads thousands
of times every day. Normally drivers get out, gesticulate, exchange insurance details and
then drive off. But not on this occasion. No one got out of the cars for the simple reason that
they had no humans inside them; the Tahoe and Land Rover were being controlled by
computers competing in November’s DARPA (the US Defense Advanced Research Project
Agency) Urban Challenge.
B. The idea that machines could perform to such standards is startling. Driving is a
complex task that takes humans a long time to perfect. Yet here, each car had its on-board
computer loaded with a digital map and route plans, and was instructed to negotiate busy
roads; differentiate between pedestrians and stationary objects; determine whether other
vehicles were parked or moving off; and handle various parking maneuvers, which
robots turn out to be unexpectedly adept at. Even more striking was the fact that the
collision between the robot Land Rover, built by researchers at the Massachusetts Institute
of Technology, and the Tahoe, fitted out by Cornell University Artificial Intelligence (AI)
experts, was the only scrape in the entire competition. Yet only three years earlier, at
DARPA's previous driverless car race, every robot competitor - directed to navigate across
a stretch of open desert - either crashed or seized up before getting near the finishing line.
C. It is a remarkable transition that has clear implications for the car of the future. More
importantly, it demonstrates how robotics sciences and Artificial Intelligence have
progressed in the past few years - a point stressed by Bill Gates, the Microsoft boss who is a
convert to these causes. 'The robotics industry is developing in much the same way the
computer business did 30 years ago,' he argues. As he points out, electronics companies
make toys that mimic pets and children with increasing sophistication. 'I can envision a
future in which robotic devices will become a nearly ubiquitous part of our day-to-day
lives,' says Gates. 'We may be on the verge of a new era, when PC will get up off the
desktop and allow us to see, hear, touch and manipulate objects in places where we are not
physically present.'
D. What is the potential for robots and computers in the near future? 'The fact is we still
have a way to go before real robots catch up with their science fiction counterparts', Gates
says. So what are the stumbling blocks? One key difficulty is getting robots to know their
place. This has nothing to do with class or etiquette, but concerns the simple issue of
positioning. Humans orient themselves with other objects in a room very easily. Robots find
the task almost impossible. 'Even something as simple as telling the difference between an
open door and a window can be tricky for a robot,' says Gates. This has, until recently,
reduced robots to fairly static and cumbersome roles.
E. For a long time, researchers tried to get round the problem by attempting to re-create
the visual processing that goes on in the human cortex. However, that challenge has
proved to be singularly exacting and complex. So scientists have turned to simpler
alternatives: 'We have become far more pragmatic in our work,' says Nello Cristianini,
Professor of Artificial Intelligence at the University of Bristol in England and associate
editor of the Journal of Artificial Intelligence Research. 'We are no longer trying to re-
create human functions. Instead, we are looking for simpler solutions with basic electronic
sensors, for example. This approach is exemplified by vacuuming robots such as the
Electrolux Trilobite. The Trilobite scuttles around homes emitting ultrasound signals to
create maps of rooms, which are remembered for future cleaning. Technology like this is
now changing the face of robotics, says philosopher Ron Chrisley, director of the Centre
for Research in Cognitive Science at the University of Sussex in England.
F. Last year, a new Hong Kong restaurant, Robot Kitchen, opened with a couple of
sensor-laden humanoid machines directing customers to their seats. Each possesses a touch-
screen on which orders can be keyed in. The robot then returns with the correct dishes. In
Japan, University of Tokyo researchers recently unveiled a kitchen 'android' that could wash
dishes, pour tea and make a few limited meals. The ultimate aim is to provide robot home
helpers for the sick and the elderly, a key concern in a country like Japan where 22 per cent
of the population is 65 or older. Over US$1 billion a year is spent on research into robots
that will be able to care for the elderly. Robots first learn basic competence - how to move
around a house without bumping into things. Then we can think about teaching them how to
interact with humans,' Chrisley said. Machines such as these take researchers into the field
of socialized robotics: how to make robots act in a way that does not scare or offend
individuals. 'We need to study how robots should approach people, how they should appear.
That is going to be a key area for future research,' adds Chrisles.
Questions 7-10: Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Robot features
DARPA race cars: (7)________provides maps and plans for route
In some robots: (8)_________provide simpler solution for the issue of positioning
Electrolux Trilobite: builds an image of a room by sending out (9) _______
Robot Kitchen humanoids: have a (10)________to take orders
Your answers:
7.
8.
9.
10.

V. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same
meaning as the printed above sentence. (10 points)
1. He never thought of telling her.
It never_________________________________________________
2. The students’ riotous behaviour should have been severely punished.
The students deserved______________________________________
3. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.
It crossed_________________________________________________
4. If we wait long enough, we’ll get what we want.
It’s just___________________________________________________
5. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.
It came___________________________________________________

Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the
second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the
word in brackets. (10 points)
1.Having to get up so early is so irritating. (NECK)
____________________________________________________
2. It’s likely they were delayed in a traffic jam. (UP)
__________________________________________________
3. My dad is not happy with me at all because he heard me swearing. (BOOKS)
____________________________________________________
4. We can’t possibly imagine how we are going to afford a new car. (REMOTEST)
____________________________________________________
5. There don’t seem to be many talented athletes at the moment. (PAUCITY)
____________________________________________________

Part 3: Write an essay on the following topic “Nowadays the way many people interact
with each other has changed because of technology. In what ways has technology
affected the types of relationships people make? Has this become a positive or negative
development” . Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your
own knowledge or experience. You should write about 200 to 250 words. (30 points)

SỞ GD&ĐT LÀO CAI ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DHBB

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÀO CAI NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018
Môn: Tiếng anh – lớp 10
(Đề thi đề xuất) (Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (50 points):
Part 1: You will hear a customer phoning a company representative to complain about her new
purchase. For questions 1-5, complete the instruction page. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Instruction Manual for
Example: Electric motorcycle
Model Number: 1._____________
The motorcycle should travel 2. _____________ km, provided that the
battery is charged for 3. _____________ when the gauge falls below
4. _____________ volts. The battery weighs 5. _____________kg, so
care is needed when removing it for charging.
Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with a woman called Kay Stanley who is talking about a
condition called dyslexia. For questions 6 -10, choose the best answer A, B or C.
6. How did Kay’s parents first realize she had dyslexia?
A. She didn’t know stories that other children could read.
B. Her mother found her memorizing audio books.
C. She couldn’t spell words that other children knew.
7. What was Kay told by an expert on dyslexia?
A. She has a milder form of the condition.
B. She will be able to overcome her problems by reading.
C. Spelling will always be a particular problem for her.
8. How does dyslexia affect the way people think?
A. It can make people think more creatively.
B. It prevents them from solving problems effectively.
C. It makes it harder for them to follow logic.
9. What made Kay work hard to improve her reading?
A. It was the only way she could study acting.
B. She didn’t want people to think she was stupid.
C. Her father encouraged her.
10. How does Kay want to publicise the problem of dyslexia?
A. by acting in a film about the subject.
B. by giving talks to parents of dyslexic children.
C. by setting a positive example.
Part 3: You will hear part of a radio interview with a law student called Mark Stone, talking about his
life at university. For questions 11-15, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
11. _______ Mark decided to study at Gramwell University because it offers a very good course in his
subject.
12. _______ When Mark arrived at Gramwell, he was surprised by the architecture.
13. _______ Mark got a part-time job because he had to cover the cost of his accommodation.
14. _______ According to Mark, his lecturers like to communicate with students.
15. _______ In terms of social life, Mark worries about wasting time.
Part 4: You will hear a man called Tom Bothman giving a talk about newspaper journalism. For
questions 16-25, complete sentences with a word or short phrase.
Journalism
Tom mentions business, news, sport and 16. _____________ as examples of what journalists write about.
Many journalists have a degree in journalism, though Tom took his in 17. _____________.
Tom says it’s important to gain a certificate in reporting, carrying out 18. _____________ and editing.
When applying for a job, Tom says you need to show a selection of 19. _____________ you’ve written.
Tom got experience of writing by working as a 20. _____________ on a student magazine.
Tom says journalists must have good communication 21. _____________ skills, in addition to personal
characteristics such as motivation.
Tom was able to demonstrate to employers his experience of 22. _____________.
As a junior reporter, Tom was pleased to attend 23. _____________ as well as other local events.
In Tom’s present job, he has a range of responsibilities and most enjoys doing 24. _____________.
Tom is currently exploring the idea of working as a 25. _____________ on the paper.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points):
Part 1: Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)

1. By 2020 this city _____________ in size.

A. will have doubled B. will be doubling

C. will double D. is going to double
2. Even though she was new to the company her ideas were _____________ into the plan.
A. included B. induced C. incorporated D. indebted
3. Some journalists _____________the truth in order to make their story more interesting.
A. distend B. disarray C. distort D. dissuade
4. Her _____________ makes her a lot of fun to be with.
A. excitement B. exuberance C. exasperation D. enticement
5. Daisy and Tim are talking with each other.
-Tim: “Do you mind if I smoke?” -Daisy: “I’d rather _____________.”
A. you didn’t B. you don’t C. you wouldn’t D. you hadn’t
6.You look _____________ after all that hard work.
A. taken out B. turned out C. worn out D. broken out
7. My best friend was offered the job on the _____________ that she was well-qualified.
A. grants B. reasons C. causes D. grounds
8. Many young people are forced to _____________ themselves.
A. fend for B. look for C. feed for D. rely for
9. Playing squash is a good way to let off_____________.
A. smoke B. temper C. moisture D. steam
10. It was imperative that the letter be _____________ by 5 o’clock in order to arrive early the next
morning.
A. dispatched B. dispensed C. dispersed D. dispelled
11. Of course, you have a chance of getting the scholarship. I think you should _____________.
A. go for it B. go with it C. go along with it D. get with it
12.The team was _____________on winning the gold medal.
A. determined B. intent C. intense D. resolute
13.He _____________ to help me achieve my goal, for which I was very grateful.
A. endeavoured B. endeared C. engaged D. enchanted
14. I really don’t think he’s got the _____________ to complete the marathon; he’s sure to give up before
the end.
A. flair B. stamina C. suppleness D. speed
15. The rock star’s fans were full of _____________ for him.
A. adulation B. glorification C. elation D. worship
16. She wanted to _____________ her interest in microbiology.
A. pursue B. strive for C. stalk D. persist in
17. The country around here is so _____________ that you can only get around in a jeep.
A. jagged B. weathered C. severe D. rugged
18. His outburst was not _____________ with his normally placid nature.
A. consistent B. constant C. concise D. conclusive
19. The prisoner was _____________ to hours of questioning.
A. subdued B. subjected C. objected D. submerged
20. Bella and Justin are chatting with each other.
-Bella: “I don’t think Eric’s coming over after all.” – Justin: “Well, if I_____________, I think his car has
just turned into the driveway.”
A. am not mistaken B. don’t mistake
C. am not mistaking D. haven’t mistaken
Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.

Russia election: Vladimir Putin wins by big margin

line 1 Vladimir Putin will lead Russia for other six years, after securing an expected victory
 line 2 in Sunday's president election.
line 3 Mr Putin, who has ruled the country as neither president or prime minister since 1999,
line 4 got more than 76% of the vote, official results shows. The main opposition leader,
line 5 Alexei Navalny, was barred from the race. Addressed a rally in Moscow, Mr Putin said
line 6 voters had "recognised the achievements of the last few years".
line 7 Speaking to reporters after the results announced, he laughed at a question about
line 8 running again in another six years. "What you are saying is a bit funny. Do you think
line 8 that I will stay here until I'm 100 years old? No!" he said. The scale of victory - which
line 10 had been widely predicted - appears to be a markedly increase in his share of the vote
line 11 from 2012, when he won 64%. Mr Putin's nearest competitor, millionaire communist
line 12 Pavel Grudinin, received about 12%. The race also included Ksenia Sobchak, a formal
line 13 reality TV host, and veteran nationalist Vladimir Zhirinovsky - they got less than 2%
line 14 and about 6% respectedly. Mr Putin's campaign team said it was an "incredible victory".
line 15 "The percentage that we have just seen speaks for itself. It's a mandate which Putin
line 16 needs for future decisions, and he has a lot of them to do," a spokesman told Russia's
line 17 Interfax.
line 18 (Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-43452449)
line 19

Line Mistake Correction

Example 1 other another
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box
provided.
1. Inadvertently perhaps, the BiE report lets the cat _______ _______ the bag.
2. People associate the old days __________ good times, and seem to forget the hardship they endured.
3. The selection board interviewed him and rejected his application ________ further ado.
4. The government is determined to crack _______ ________ terrorism.
5. Some lay eggs among the stones, so camouflaged you would mistake them ____ the rocks themselves.
6. How did you manage to sleep _________ that thunderstorm?
7. I haven’t got___________ _______unpacking from my holiday yet.
8. Somebody had come in and ripped _________ the TV and stereo.
9. People thought that the use of robots would do________ ________ boring low-paid factory jobs.
10. He bravely went ________ ________ the wedding ceremony even though he was in a lot of pain.
Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below.
Facebook data - as scandalous as MPs’ expenses?
The gathering storm over how millions of Facebook profiles were 0. (APPARENT) _apparently_
exploited for political purposes raises all sorts of questions about how our data is used.
For Stephanie Hare, a tech expert who has worked in the data field, the Cambridge Analytica story raises
big questions over a lack of 1. (ACCOUNT)__________: "What is really striking here is the absence of
any 2. (SIGHT)__________. " Nobody, she points out - not the social network, nor the data company or
the academic researcher - seems to have thought that it was their job to ask if data had been 3.(PROPER)
__________shared, and if so to ensure it was deleted.
Much has been made of the fact that users who sign up to the kind of 4.(PERSONAL) __________quiz
used in this case have to explicitly give permission for their data to be accessed. But Stephanie Hare says it
is 5. (FAIR) ___________ to put the burden on people with busy lives to read through the fine print. And
she feels that Facebook's 6.(SET)__________should be set to maximise 7. (PRIVATE)__________by
default.
"It's our jobs as 8. (TECHNOLOGY)___________to design systems that are safe," she says. "I don't get on
an aeroplane as a passenger and make my own safety checks."
I spent this morning giving a talk at a school in South Wales about the power of social media platforms to
spread fake news. I took some time to explain just how much power Facebook puts in the hands of 9.
(ADVERTISE)__________- and political parties - to target their messages very precisely at, say, 15-25
year olds in Pontypridd who like motor racing.
My audience, all keen 10. (USE)__________ of social media, seemed surprised to learn that Facebook
owned Instagram and WhatsApp, and Google owned YouTube, meaning that just two giant companies
could exert huge influence over the information they received and how they thought.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/technology-43458110)
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
Colour sense
 ICI colour consultant Jack Widgery painted one police interview room light green, and another
strong red. Subsequently, the police found that suspects 1.________statements more quickly when they
were in the red room, again enforcing the idea that too much red 2._________a feeling of being
pressurized. The soft green was for interviewing victims and their families, and there are many
3._________of light colours being used to 4._________ feelings and encourage relaxation.
Some institutions in the USA have special pink areas to cool the 5._______of angry prisoners,
service recruits and patients. Soft blues, greens and beiges seem to be 6._________and hospitals, schools
and dentists are beginning to take this into 7.________ when choosing colour schemes.
An airline which changed from a yellow and brown interior scheme to one of green and blue
reported a forty-five percent decrease in airsickness. But the workplace is the biggest challenge: neither too
much nor too 8.________ energy will do. The 9._______fashion for grey with a few details in brighter
colours may be a good 10._________.
1. A. gave B. said C. admitted D. spoke
2. A. makes B. leads C. has D. creates
3. A. ways B. occasions C. examples D. demonstrations
4. A. play up B. play down C. run up D. run down
5. A. tempers B. moods C. personalities D. senses
6. A. sleepy B. leisurely C. tiring D. restful
7. A. view B. mind C. account D. opinion
8. A. few B. small C. little D. low
9. A. current B. nowadays C. actual D. instant
10. A. result B. system C. solution D. way
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
The origin of language
The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking at
around the same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop?
Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the origins of
language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way that we are
programmed for language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language came about as a result
of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage.
Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still need
stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are isolated
7.________ human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful
they will ever do 8._________. This research shows, if 9. __________ else, that language is a social
activity, not something invented 10._________isolation.
Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to create everything
from lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about it? The most accepted theory about
the origin of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris from a massive collision with the young Earth
about 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body, perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an
immense amount of debris that coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth.
The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s gravitational influence
upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice the effect upon
the tides than does the Sun. The Moon makes one rotation and completes a revolution around the Earth
every 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of
mass in the Moon (essentially, it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s gravity
to keep one side of the Moon permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403
km.
The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect it from
meteorite impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact craters, both large and small.
The Moon also has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive effects of atmospheric weathering,
tectonic shifts, and volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and reform the Earth’s surface features are not at
work on the Moon. In fact, even tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar
soil are likely to last for millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface
gravity of the Moon is about one-sixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms on
Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on the Moon.
The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places such as the Hawaiian
volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is very unlike either
Hawaii or Arizona, however; in fact the temperature on the Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to –233
degrees C.
1.What is the passage primarily about?
A. the Moon’s effect upon the Earth
B. the origin of the Moon
C. what we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth
D. a comparison of the Moon and the Earth
2. The word “massive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________
A. unavoidable B. dense C. huge D. impressive
3. The word “debris” in the passage is closest in meaning to______
A. rubbish B. satellites C. moons D. earth
4. According to the passage, the Moon is______
A. older than the Earth
B. protected by a dense atmosphere
C. composed of a few active volcanoes
D. the primary cause of Earth’s ocean tides
5. The word “uneven“ in the passage is closest in meaning to ______
A. Heavier B. Equally distributed C. Orderly D. Not uniform
6. Why does the author mention “impact craters” in the paragraph 3?
A. to show the result of the Moon not having an atmosphere
B. to show the result of the Moon not having active tectonic or volcanic activity
C. to explain why the Moon has no plant life because of meteorites
D. to explain the corrosive effects of atmospheric weathering
7. The word “erase” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________
A. change B. impact C. obliterate D. erupt
8. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because_____
A. of the composition of lunar soil
B. the surface gravity of the Moon is less
C. the Moon has no atmosphere
D. the Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity
9. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT____
A. it has a wide range of temperatures.
B. it is heavier on one side than the other.
C. it is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks.
D. it has less effect upon the tides than the Sun.
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the Moon is not able to support human life.
B. if the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides.
C. people living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon.
D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon.
Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (I-VIII) below.
I. The fascination explained
II. Speedsters thwarted by manufacturers
III. A policy well conceived
IV. Speed limits that are not speed limits
V. Recklessness rewarded
VI. Safety compromised
VII. Safety not only factor driving speed regulators
VIII. The longest motorways examined
 1. Paragraph A ____________
2. Paragraph B ____________
3. Paragraph C ____________
4. Paragraph D ____________
5. Paragraph E ____________
Uncovering the truth about Germany’s autobahns
A._______
Officially the Bundesautobahnen, which, when translated, means federal expressways, we know
them more commonly as the autobahns – Germany’s impressive system of motorways. There is nothing
extraordinary about them, fine feats of engineering though they may be, so why has the term autobahn
become so well-known? The simple answer is that people living outside of Germany have had their
curiosity more than a little tickled on account of the fact that Germany’s motorways are, in one specific
way, very unique indeed. They are not the longest system in the world, this plaudit going to the Interstate
Highway System of America, nor are they even second or third (China and India respectively), and though
they come a healthy fourth in the length stakes, this is really neither here nor there. No, indeed, what
fascinates us about the autobahns has nothing to do with their technical or design features. It is though, a
lot to do with how fast you can go on them. The autobahns, you see, are the only stretch of motorway in the
world on which you can drive your car (provided it is not towing a trailer) at, well, any speed you like.
Now, that’s a very attractive proposition for many boy-racers out there who would salivate at the prospect
of being able to drive as fast as they wanted, and therefore, on that rather scary point, perhaps we should
consider asking the, well, obvious question: what on earth were the Germans thinking when they did this?
Surely having no speed limit whatsoever is a recipe of disaster.
B. _______
To clarify, there is a ‘recommended’ speed limit of 130km/h on all stretches of German motorway,
and a hard limit is imposed on some vehicles. Buses carrying standing passengers and motorbikes pulling
trailers cannot go faster than 60 km/h. All other buses, as well as passenger cars and trucks with trailers,
and all vehicles weighing in excess of 3.5 tonnes are not allowed to exceed 80 km/h. Rare exceptions
include buses that have been officially certified to travel at 100 km/h and passenger cars carrying trailers
that have received similar certification. Nonetheless, the fact remains that all other cars, trucks and
motorbikes, while encouraged to adhere to the ‘recommended’ speed limit, are by no means bound to it and
can, in effect, travel as fast as they please. Indeed, many of them do and it is not uncommon to see a car
racing past you on the autobahn travelling in excess of 140 km/h.
C. _______
In such circumstances, it would not be at all surprising to learn that Germany has an awful record
on road safety, except that it doesn’t. Indeed, Germany’s road safety record is comparable, and in some
cases superior, to that of all other industrialized European countries. So is this just luck rewarding
recklessness? Well, first of all, it’s important to concede that speed limits do apply at junctions and other
danger spots, such as sections under repair, and that there are even weather-related speed limits on some
stretches of the autobahn (lower speed limits are used in cases of wet lanes). To fail to point this out would
be to paint a picture, rather unfairly, of speed-hungry officials putting the travelling public in jeopardy on
roads in order to gratify their own thrill-lust. Of course, this is not the case. Indeed, safety considerations
aside, the Germans have even imposed speed limits for other purposes, such as to reduce pollution and
noise on some stretches of the autobahn, so there is no crazy speed-fuelled agenda here. ‘Mad’ you may
say, but the Germans actually seem to think this is safe.
D. _______
And the statistics appear to back them up though. After all, the International Traffic Safety Data and
Analysis Group’s research indicates that there are 2.2 road-user fatalities per billion vehicle kilometers on
German autobahns each year. Using the same statistics, 4.5 fatalities occur on United States motorways
each year. In fact, when you look beyond the myth of the motorway without speed limits, where drivers
regularly clock up speeds in excess of 200 km/h, and uncover the more sober reality, you realize that the
German approach might not be so draft as it first seemed. For a start, only 2% of all traffic regularly travels
on the unrestricted stretches of motorway as, despite the vast area they cover, they are strategically located
in rural areas with low traffic volume. The other 98% of vehicles on the road do in fact have their speeds
very strictly regulated, and these regulations are also heavily enforced. Speed cameras are everywhere and
the motorways are patrolled by unmarked police cars ready to pull over speed offenders and reckless
drivers. The Germans have also taken into consideration statistics which show that very few road accidents
occur on motorways in low-volume traffic each year. In fact, these stretches of motorway offer up some of
the safest driving conditions, statistically speaking, of all. The Germans have therefore reasoned that they
don’t need to regulate rural motorways a great deal, and it would seem they are right.
E. _______
Furthermore, the myth of limitless speed is also quite misleading. In reality, all German car
manufacturers (and most international ones) keep to a gentlemen’s agreement whereby they limit the top
speed of their cars to around 150 km/h for safety reasons as, unless tyre pressure is optimally maintained
and cars are constantly serviced (as would happen, say, in motor racing), travelling at higher speeds than
that is, well, extremely risky and can lead to blowouts and other physical and mechanical failures that have
the potential to cause death. Therefore, the situation is a little different than we might have assumed
because while there is no official speed limit in theory, car manufacturers self-regulate so, in practice, a
limit on the maximum speed vehicles can travel at has been put in place. In addition, the few vehicles
which are capable of clocking speeds in excess of 150 km/h seldom get the opportunity (the time and
space) to build up to these speeds on the German autobahns, and, if they do, well, the way the German
government sees it, they might as well be driving that fast there rather than in the suburbs, so let them do it!
For questions 6-7, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
6. Special motorway speed limits ___________
A. are sometimes imposed on all vehicles in difficult driving conditions.
B. never apply to cars, trucks and motorcycles, which can travel at any speed, provided they are not towing
a trailer
C. like all speed limits in Germany- are only recommended maximum speeds, and are not enforceable in
law.
D. are only seen at junctions and on stretches of motorway which need work.
7. What do you think is the writer’s view of the German approach to speed regulation?
A. It is irresponsible and reckless
B. It initially appears baffling, but, on closer inspection, makes a lot of sense
C. It is inadequate in cities and leaves a lot to be desired in rural areas
D. It is over-reliant on self-regulation by manufacturers and even drivers themselves
For questions 8-10, complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage
for each answer.
8. For cars operating at high speeds, it is necessary to maintain optimal tyre pressure and ensure that the
vehicle is serviced regularly in order to combat the heightened risk of _________ failures.
9. In reality, due to the practice whereby _______, few vehicles have the capacity at speeds in excess of
150 km/h.
10. When it comes to vehicles which can and are determined to travel at very high speeds, ________ would
rather they attempted to drive excessively fast on the parts of the motorway it deems safe than anywhere
else.
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must
use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given.
1. Attendance at the additional evening lectures is not obligatory for students. (under)
Students _________________________________ the additional evening lectures.
2. All are eligible for the contest. There is no discrimination of race and sex. (regardless)
All are eligible ___________________________________________ race and sex.
3. We were very much surprised to learn that Brian had become a monk. (To)
__________________________________________, Brian had become a monk.
4. Some people will do anything to lose weight. (lengths)
Some people will __________________________________ to lose weight.
5. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (reference)
He made ____________________________ our previous conversation.
Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder came out.
Not for _______________________________________________________
2. The only reason why she got promotion is that she’s very competent.
Were it _______________________________________________________
3. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
Urgent _______________________________________________________
4. It’s such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it.
It’s too ___________________________________________________________________________
5. You’re far more practical than I am.
Nowhere_________________________________________________________________________
Part 3: In some countries, secondary schools aim to provide a general education
across a range of subjects. In others, children focus on a narrow range of subjects
related to a particular career.

Which of these two systems is more appropriate in today’s world?

Write an essay of about 200-250 words to express your opinion. Give reasons and specific examples to
support your answer.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

(Đề thi gồm 12 trang) ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Số
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2
Bằng số Bằng chữ phách

PART ONE. LISTENING (50 points):

Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

PLANNING NOTES - THIS YEAR'S FETE

Date of the fete: 1 ..............
Expected weather: 22 degrees and 2 ..............
Fundraising purpose: In aid of the roof of the 3 ..............
Fundraising goal: £4000
Last year's tickets: 400 adult tickets at £5 each, plus 4 ..............
discounted tickets at £2.50 each
Total from ticket sales 5 ..............
last year:
Amount needed from food and drink sales to reach £1250 (assuming total from ticket sales is the same
overall target: as
last year)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 2: Listen to a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts and decide whether these
statements are true (T) or false (F).
6. The National Arts Center is a well-known place for music performances of different types.
7. The National Arts Center provides a variety of entertainment choices.
8. The Center has been situated in the heart of the city since 1940.
9. The City Council, the National Sympony Orchestra and National Theatre Company are based in the
Center.
10. There are 2-3 days a year when visitors cannot go to the Center.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 3: Listen to Matt and Jess talking about their assignment. Choose the correct answer A, B
or C.
11. What are Matt and Jess planning to study?
A different species of insects
B different species of plants
C old photos
12. How far apart are the plots supposed to be?
A 12 feet apart
B 10 meters apart
C 10 miles apart
13. One person throws the frame and the other person
A turns on the spot
B smiles and waves
C marks out the squares
14. The instructions sound complicated because
A they are in writing
B there is so much turning around
C there are so many squares
15. Jess thinks Matt should do the throwing because
A he has more experience
B he has a stronger arm
C he is more accurate
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Question 4: You will hear part of a presentation by a woman called Linda Brown, who is the director
of Woodley community college. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS/NUMBERS.
Summer school classes start on (16) ……………….
People expressed interest in the college after several (17) were broadcast on the radio.
The (18) ……………….will declare the college open.
Other figures at the opening ceremony, include a famous (19) ………………. who will make a speech.
Local (20) ……………….will teach courses at the college. The emphasis will be on (21)
……………….subjects. The college will be (22) ……………….about who it allows to enrol for courses.
Students may not have the (23) ……………….required by traditional colleges.
It is hoped that an (24) ……………….office in the city centre will generate interest in the college.
People interested in courses should first refer to its (25) ……………….for more information
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
PART TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50ps)
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The red cross is……….an international aid organization
a. intriguingly b. intrusively c. intrinsically d. intrepidly
2. The quality papers are a different ……………of fish from the gutter press
a. pan b. basket c. box d. kettle
3. Politicians interviewed on TV seldom see eye………..eye with their interviewers
a. for b. to c. at d. by
4. The invasion of the small country was an……………..act which violated the peace treaty
a. assertive b. aggressive c. affirmative d. abrasive
5. a new………programmers on wildlife will be shown on Channel 4 in the autumn
A. episode b. series c. serial d. sequel
6. The in-depth new bulleting are aimed…….a middle aged, professional audience
a. for b. to c. in d. at
7. I have no idea whether the restaurant will be open- we will just have to take pot……….
a. choice b. chance c. luck d. fortune
8. As I boarded the train, I was suddenly………..by the arm and ushered towards a first –class carriage
a. clutched b. grabbed c. caught d. plucked
9. As a result of………….the price of new cars has risen dramatically over the last few months
a. inflation b. escalation c. distension d. extension
10. Although she has three children of her own, this 32 year old mum has …….four others for the local
authority
a. upheld b. supported c. fostered d. sustained
11. Conservationist are worried that many potentially valuable …….of plant and animals are threatened
with extinction
a. examples b. variations c. species d. brands
12. My dog is being very difficult at the moment, I don’t know what the trouble is but he just ……..not eat
a. shall b. will c. may d. has
13. The evidence that carbon dioxide levels are rising is……..
a. inevitable b. unavoidable c. indelible d. undeniable
14. The pollution problem is in the town have been….by mass tourism in the summer months
a. exacerbated b. developed c. augmented d. contributed
15. During the height of the reason tourists arrive in………….to see Shakespeare’s birthplace
a. loads b. flocks c. shoals d. droves
16. You really shouldn’t buy that car, I know the engine is fine but most of the bodywork has
been…….away by rust
a. eaten b. dissolved c. erased d. crumbled
17. The pyramids are perhaps the most famous of the seven……of the ancient world
a. structures b. spectacles c. wonders d. constructions
18. I have given up trying to make my sister see the sense, and now I am….to the fact that she is going to
marry Jason
a. Adapted b. resigned c. adjusted d. accepted
19. They spilt up on very bad terms and went through a bitter and…….divorce
a. acrid b. Aggravated c. aggrieved d. acrimonious
20. I am rather suspicious of your brother‘s sudden concern for your welfare and fear that he may
have………motives
a. underlying b. concealed c. secondary d. ulterior
II. Identify the mistakes and correct them in the following passage.
Tony had always wanted to explore the foothills of Himalayas. So when he was offered an early
retirement package by his firm, he decided to take up advantage of the opportunity. First he needed to get
really fit, so he spent a month to train in the Lake District. When he could run up Buttermere Fell without
stopping, he considered he was ready. He booked a trip with a well known trekking company and flew out
to Katmandu, the capital of Nepal. His group were planning to trek in the Annapurna region, but
unfortunately the Nepalese was beginning to get worried about the amount of damage being made to their
ancient mountains by the constant pummeling of climbers feet. So they temporarily suspended
permission for foreigners to climb or use the footpaths in the area. The group leader was very apologetic,
but he laid on rafting on River Trisuli and sightseeing in the capital.
After a few days, the authorities lifted their ban, and Tony was able to trek through some of the
world’s most beautiful sceneries, with breathtaken views of the Mount Everest and Kanhenjunga. At night,
the group accommodated in simple village rooms and ate with the Nepalese.
Most of the group were experience trekkers than Tony and several of them had visited this region
before. All in all, Tony reckoned it was the most exciting experience he had ever had, and vowed to return
to Nepal at the very first opportunity.
No Mistakes Correction No Mistakes Correction
1 6
2 7
3 8
4 9
5 10

III. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions

1. The customs knew all about the drug smugglers because they had been tipped……in advance by a
member of the gang.
2. When people demand something for example, a change in the law, we say that they call …a change.
3. “Please don’t hang ……until I have had a chance to tell you how sorry I am.
4. During the second War World, most messages were sent …….code.
5. He is not lying. Every thing he has told us so far is…….the level
6. The goods were not sold openly but were available ….the counter.
7. I am sorry but Dr. Salmon sees patients……appointments only.
8. It is mush easier to take a clock……..than to put it together.
9. with prices so high I will have to do……a new suit this year
10. He kept bothering her and finally she told him to cut it…..

IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words
Music and the mind
Making music appears to be one of the fundamental activities of mankind: as (character)
…………………….human as drawing and painting. The survival of Paleolithic cave-paintings bears
witness to the (antique)………………….of this form of art, and some of these paintings (depiction)
……………..people dancing. Flutes made of bone found in these caves suggest that they danced to some
form of music. But, because music itself only survive when the invention of a system of notation has made
a written record possible, or else when a living member of a culture recreates the sounds and rhythm which
have been handed down to him by his forbears, we have no information about ………..(history) music . we
are therefore accustomed to regarding drawing and painting as (integrate)…………….parts of the life of
early man, but less inclined to think of music in the same way.
When biologists consider complex human activities such as the arts, they tend to assume that their
(compulsory)………….qualities are derivation of basic drives. If any given activity can be seen to aid
survival or facilitate (adapt) ……..to the environment or to be derived from behavior which does so, it
“makes sense” in (biology)…………terms. Bt what use is music? Music can certainly be regarded as a
form of communication; but what it communicate is not obvious. Music is not usually (represent)
…………………..; it does not sharpen our (perceive)…………….of the external world or generally
imitate it. Nor is music proposition , it doesn’t put forward theories about the world or convey information
PART THREE: READING (50ps)
I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word
Today, more and more women are actively participating in (1)______activities both in urban and rural
areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly (2)_____as the man's areas
such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women (3)____show more
overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with creativeness,
dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam's society. The fact reveals that the gender (4)____has
been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to (5)____their social careers and
obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development. According to Ms, Le Thi Quy,
Director of the Gender/and Development Research Centre under the University of Social Sciences and
Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam has (6)_____a high level over the past
decade. The (7)____of Vietnamese women becoming National Assembly (8)____from the 9th term to the
11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%, the highest
rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in the level of literacy and schooling between men and women.
Women (9)____for about 37% of university and college graduates, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and
6.7% of professors and (10)___professors.
II. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank
Harry Potter is a heptalogy of (1)_____ novels written by English author J. K. Rowling. The books
(2)____the adventures of the eponymous adolescent wizard Harry Potter, together with his best friends Ron
Weasley and Hermione Granger. The story is set at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry, an
academy for young wizards and witches. The central story arc concerns Harry's conflict (3___)the evil
wizard Lord Voldemort, who killed Harry's parents in his quest to conquer the wizarding world, after
which he (4)_______to subjugate the Muggle world to his rule.
Since the release of the first novel Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone in 1997, which was
(5)_____Harry Potter and the Sorcerer's Stone in the United States, the books have gained
(6)_____popularity, critical (7)_____and commercial success worldwide.
 The series has spawned films, video games and Potter-themed merchandise. As of April 2007, the
first six books in the seven book series have sold more than 325 million copies and have been (8)____into
more than 64 languages. The seventh and last book in the series, Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows,
was released on 21 July 2007. Publishers announced a (9)_____12 million copies for the first print run in
the U.S.(10)_____.

1. A. detective B . fantasy C. satirical D. historical

2 A. revise B. illustrate C. chronicle D. engross
3 A. against B. over C. between D. with
4 A. aspires B. inquires C. searches D. seeks
5 A. released B. retitled C. renamed D. recreated
6 A. huge B. great C. immense D. much
7 A acclaim B. applause C. comment D. approval
8 A. trammistted B. translated C. transfered D. transported.
9 A. Record-break B. record-broken C. record-breaking D. record-breaker
10 A. only B. lonely C. apart D. alone

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer
The most familiar speleothems (from the Greek word spelaion for cave and thema for
deposit), the decorative dripstone features found in caves, are stalactites and
stalagmites.Stalactites hang downward from the ceiling of the cave and are formed as drop
after drop of water slowly trickles through cracks in the cave roof. Stalagmites grow
upward from the floor of the cave, generally as a result of water dripping from an overhead
stalactite. A column forms when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow until they join. A
"curtain" or "drapery" begins to form on an inclined ceiling when drops of water trickle
along a slope. Natural openings on the surface that lead to caves are called sinkholes, or
swallow holes. Streams sometimes disappear down these holes and flow through the cavern.
Rivers may flow from one mountain to another through a series of caves. Some caverns
have sinkholes in their floors. Water often builds up a rim of dripstone around the edge of
the hole. Dripping water often contains dissolved minerals as well as acid. These minerals
too will be deposited; and they may give rich coloring to the deposits. If minerals in the
water change, layers of different colors may be formed.
1. Stalagmites are formed by……….
A. drops of water which enter through cracks in the ceiling.
B. underground rivers which flow through the cave.
C. water dripping from an overhead stalactite.
D. water which trickles down a slope.
2. Sinkholes are…..
A. the decorative dripstone features found in caves.
B. natural openings on the surface that lead to caves.
C. colorful layers of mineral deposits.
D. None of the above
3. Which speleothem grows upward from the floor ?
A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Sinkholes D. Curtains
4. An "inclined ceiling" is one which……
A. is straight. B. is crooked. C. is slanted. D. is wet.
5. Which of the following are NOT caused by dripping water ?
A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Slopes D. Curtains
16. The information in the passage is most relevant to which field of study ?
A. Geography B. Archaeology C. Physics D. Geology
7. "Curtains" can also be called……
A. columns. B. draperies. C. stalagmites. D. rims.
8. The word “speleothem” comes from which language?
A. Latin B. French C. Greek D. English
9. Stalactites are formed by…….
A. drops of water which enter the cave through cracks in the ceiling.
B. underground rivers which flow through the cave.
C. water which seeps through the cave floor.
D. water which trickles down a slope.
10. Which speleothem hangs from the ceiling of a cave?
A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Columns D. Rimstones
IV. The reading passage has seven paragraphs: A – G.
Choose the most suitable paragraph headings B – G from the list of headings on the
right. Write the appropriate numbers (i –ix) in the text boxes below the headings.
Yoruba Town
A. The Yoruba people of Nigeria classify their towns in two ways. Permanent towns with their own
governments are called “ilu”, whereas temporary settlements, set up to support work in the country are
“aba”. Although ilu tend to be larger than aba, the distinction is not one of size, some aba are large, while
declining ilu can be small, but of purpose. There is no “typical” Yoruba town, but some features are
common to most towns.
B. In the 19th century most towns were heavily fortified and the foundations of these walls are sometimes
visible. Collecting tolls to enter and exit through the walls was a major source of revenue for the old town
rulers, as were market fees. The markets were generally located centrally and in small towns, while in large
towns there were permanent stands made of corrugated iron or concrete. The market was usually next to
the local ruler’s palace.
C. The palaces were often very large. In the 1930’s, the area of Oyo’s palace covered 17 acres, and
consisted of a series of courtyards surrounded by private and public rooms. After colonisation, many of the
palaces were completely or partially demolished. Often the rulers built two storey houses for themselves
using some of the palace grounds for government buildings.
D. The town is divided into different sections. In some towns these are regular, extending out from the
center of the town like spokes on a wheel, while in others, where space is limited, they are more random.
The different areas are further divided into compounds called “ile”. These vary in size considerably from
single dwellings to up to thirty houses. They tend to be larger in the North. Large areas are devoted to
government administrative buildings. Newer developments such as industrial or commercial areas or
apartment housing for civil servants tends to be build on the edge of the town.
E. Houses are rectangular and either have a courtyard in the center or the rooms come off a central
corridor. Most social life occurs in the courtyard. They are usually built of hardened mud and have roofs of
corrugated iron or, in the countryside, thatch. Buildings of this material are easy to alter, either by knocking
down rooms or adding new ones. And can be improved by coating the walls with cement. Richer people
often build their houses of concrete blocks and, if they can afford to, build two storey houses. Within
compounds there can be quite a mixture of building types. Younger well-educated people may have well
furnished houses while their older relatives live in mud walled buildings and sleep on mats on the floor.
F. The builder or the most senior man gets a room either near the entrance or, in a two storied house, next
to the balcony. He usually has more than one room. Junior men get a room each and there are separate
rooms for teenage boys and girls to sleep in. Younger children sleep with their mothers. Any empty room
are used as storage, let out or, if they face the street, used as shops.
G. Amenities vary. In some towns most of the population uses communal water taps and only the rich have
piped water, in others piped water is more normal. Some areas have toilets, but bucket toilets are common
with waste being collected by a “night soil man”. Access to water and electricity are key political issues.
List of paragraph headings
i. Town facilities
ii. Colonisation
iii. Urban divisions
iv. Architectural home styles
v. Types of settlements
vi. Historical foundations
vii. Domestic arrangements
viii. City defenses
ix. The residences of the rulers
x. Government buildings
Answers
Example:
Paragraph A__Answer: v
xi. 1. Paragraph B__
2. Paragraph C__
3. Paragraph D__
4. Paragraph E__
5. Paragraph F__
6. Paragraph G__
xii. Use the word in the passage to fill in the blanks below. (no more than two words for each blank)
The arrangement of the town sections is either 7__________or 8____________, depending the space of
the town. the building for 9___________seem to be located in the large areas, while the building for
residents or economic purpose are usually situated on10________ the.
PART FOUR: WRITING
I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points)
For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You MUST use between THREE OR
SIX WORDS, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example:
0 What are the chances of the film winning an Oscar? LIKELY
How likely will the film win an Oscar?
1. Fewer people live in extended family units in this country nowadays. COMMON
It is ……………………………………………………… to live in extended family
units in this country nowadays.
2. I don't mind where we decide to go for our family holiday this year. DIFFERENCE
It doesn't……………………………………………………… where we decide to go for our family holiday
this year.
3. Gaynor's friends persuaded her not to get married in spring. TALKED
It was Gaynor’s friends………………………………………………………getting married in spring.
4. The pianist performed beautifully and received a standing ovation. GAVE
The pianist………………………………………………………and received a
standing ovation.
5. The group’s popularity increased thanks to word-of- mouth recommendations. LED
Word-of-mouth recommendations ……………………………………………………… popularity of the
group.
6. Damian is sure to finish the race in first place. CROSS
Damian is sure to be the first person to …………………………………………………… in the race.
7. It is quite usual for boys to begin playing football at the age of five. MEANS
It is by ………………………………………………………for boys to begin playing
football at the age of five.
8. Had he spent more time at home, he wouldn't have made so many friends. GONE
If he ………………………………………………………often, he wouldn't have
made so many friends
9. My brother Sam was very surprised to be offered the job. CAME
The job offer………………………………………………………
10. Unfortunately, I didn't have enough money to go to the theatre regularly. ABLE
If I'd had more money, ………………………………………………………to go to
the theatre more regularly.
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
11. The minister gave no precise figures about casualities.
The minister didn’t go ………………………………………………………….
12. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended it.
Had it …………………………………………………………………………….
13. Government guidelines really do emphasize the importance of starting education early.
A lot of emphasis ………………………………………………………………..
14. The trip was so amazing that we will never forget it
It's too ……………………………………………………………………………
15. Your silly questions distracted me.
You drove………………………………………………………………………...
16. She was so disgusted at the way her friend her friend behaved that she refused to speak to him
Such………………………………………………………………………………
17. I didn’t want to buy it, but because he insisted, I bought it.
He pushed ………………………………………………………………………
18. He was suspended for two matches for awearing at the referee.
Swearing at the referee earned him ……………………………………………..
19. She’s just about to cut the birthday cake.
She’s on …………………………………………………………………………
20. Mr. Foster asked me to write this letter to you.
It’s at …………………………………………………………………………….
B. PARAGRAPH WRITING: (30 points)
Write a paragraph about 150-200 words, giving your opinions on the following topic:
“Should are subjects made optional at high school?”
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN
TẤT THÀNH YÊN BÁI VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH- KHỐI 10
Năm 2018
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

A. LISTENING: (50 pts)

Part 1.
You will hear a man telephoning to ask about a job in a hotel. For questions 1-5, write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.

West Bay Hotel – details of job

Newspaper advert for 1. …………….
Vacancies for 2. ………..............
Two shifts
Can choose your 3. ………………………
Pay £5.50 per hour, including a 4. ……………….
A 5. ……………………. is provided in the hotel
Total weekly pay £231

Part 2.
You will hear two people discussing a survey connected to the “nanny state.” For each of the following
questions, choose the option which best fits to what you hear. You will listen to the recording twice.
1 What does the man say about the woman’s opinion of the “nanny state?”
A He used to agree with it.
B It may not be widely shared.
C It isn’t logical.
2 The man says that the survey indicates that most people ________.
A have changed their minds about the “nanny state”
B feel that there is no such thing as the “nanny state”
C want the government to tell them what to do on certain issues
3 The woman believes that government action on various health issues ________.
A is the right thing for the government to do
B shows that the “nanny state” can be a good thing
C annoys a great many people
4 The woman thinks that the survey results ________.
A suggest that people have the wrong attitude
B show that people have become very confused
C do not indicate approval of the “nanny state”
5 The woman says that the report in the paper ________.
A may change people’s view on the “nanny state”
B won’t be believed by most readers
C has interpreted people’s opinions incorrectly

Part 3.
You will hear a conversation between a boy, William and a girl Sophie in a music shop. Listen and decide if the
following sentences are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
 1. Sophie’s mother works in the town where they live. _________
2. Sophie enjoys shopping in Birmingham. _________
3. William feels confidents about finding his way around Birmingham. _________
4. William can persuade Sophie to buy a different CD from him. _________
5. Sohie is disappointed to have her birthday present early. _________
Part 4
You will hear a radio presenter called Jim Dunne talking about local entertainment options. For questions 1-
10, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.

Jim recommends Pagagnini to (1) ........................................

Jim saw a Pagagnini concert last year in (2) ........................................
As well as classical music, Pagagnini play rock, blues and (3) ........................................
Jim says the Pagagnini show has no (4) ........................................
The first performance of Rhythm of the Dance was in (5) ........................................ in Norway.
More than (6) ........................................ people have seen Rhythm of the Dance live on stage.
Jim suggests listeners look at the section entitled (7) ........................................ on the Rhythm of the Dance
website.
The name of the first show that the Cirque Éloize performed at the Regent Theatre was (8)
........................................
Some performers in iD appear on (9) ........................................ and Rollerblades.
One review of iD says it is full of originality, energy and (10) ........................................
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. I am going to go round the _________ if they don’t turn that music down soon.
A. bell B. bend C. leg D. stock
2. I was so tired that I couldn’t even think _________
A. mind B. doubt C. focus D. straight
3. The cat slept peacefully _________ in the long grass.
A. huddled B. nestled C. snuggled D. cuddled
4. Mr. Wright _________ his vegetable garden very carefully.
A. tends B. grows C. maintains D. attends
5. She _________ a few clothes into the case and hurried to the airport.
A. shoved B. scattered C. piled D. heaved
6. No teenager really knows what _________ for them career-wise in the future.
A. knuckles own B. lies head C. whiles away D. crops up
7. The consultant called in by the firm brought a _________ of experience to bear on the problem.
A. wealth B. realm C. bank D. hoard
8. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a _________
A. delay B. halt C. break D. stand
9. John refused to put his career in _________ by opposing his boss.
A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
10. The area is famous for its _________ gardens, where all kinds of different vegetables are grown for
cash.
A. market B. hothouse C. trade D. greenhouse
11. It is essential to be on the _________ for any signs of movement in the undergrowth since there are
poisonous snakes in the area.
A. guard B. care C. alarm D. alert
12. I could see the lantern _________ in the dark.
A. gleaming B. glowing C. glistening D. glimmering
13. It was a daring robbering, which took place in _________ daylight.
A. broad B. total C. wide D. absolute
14. For my _________ of mind, promise you’ll wear a life jacket in the boat.
A. satisfaction B. contentment C. peace D. calmness
15. By using all the latest technology, the yatchman managed to cross the Atlantic in _________ time.
A. quickest B. lightning C. top D. record
16. I’m afraid Tim doesn’t take much care over his homework. He usually does it _________
A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come
17. What a mad thing to do! You could all have been killed! It was _________ folly.
A. merely B. only C. sheer D. wild
18. The bark of a tree thickens _________
A. with age B. it gets older C. as older D. by age
19. Widely reproduced in magazines and books, _________
A. Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness in his photographs.
B. the Western wilderness was depicted in the photographs of Ansel Adams.
C. Ansel Adam’s photographs deppicted the Western wilderness.
D. it was through his photographs that Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness.
20. When I advised you to change jobs, I had your best _________ at heart.
A. feelings B. interests C. thoughts D. aspects
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Example: Line 1: wrongly  wrong
Human memory, formerly believing to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of
a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have all concluded
that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder
Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit
the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and another minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although the physical basic for
memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the
result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by
patterns of activity. Repeated references with the same information support recall. In other words,
improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.

Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box
provided.
1.Something’s cropped _________, I am afraid I won’t be able to make it this afternoon.
2. They are planning to wind ________ their operation in Greece and concentrate on Eastern Europe.
3. Tina is an authority _________ Byzaantine architecture.
4. His sense of fun has rubbed _________ his children.
5.– “ Will the concert start soon?”
_ “ It should get _________ way any minute now.”
6. Being rich doesn’t count _________ much on a desert island.
7. The company’s announced it’s laying _________ 1,000 workers.
8. Could you lend me some money to tide _________ me to the end of the month?
9. If the business does well, I’ll hopefully be able to take _________ a part-time assistant in the spring.
10. When I was younger I wanted to be an air pilot but I soon went _________ the idea when I realised I
hated flying.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below.
WITH MANY THANKS
Many people have given (0. ASSIST) ...assistance… to me during the writing of this book, but it is to Miss
Leigh Keith, senior editor of Ramsay and Brown that I am most deeply (1. DEBT) _________ for her
loyalty and (2. DEVOTE) _________ during the four years the project lasted. She gave her time and
advice (3. STINT) _________ in order for this work to be completed, giving both moral and (4.
PRACTICE) _________ support for the lengthy research into social conditions the project (5.
NECESSARY) _________ Her assurance and encouragement sustained me in my (6. BELIEVE)
_________ that this was valuable work and it was (7. DOUBT) _________ what enabled me to continue
in the face of often discouraging circumstances. I must also thank my father, who has been a (8. WILL)
_________ collaborator in all my efforts and who spent long hours in libraries and on trains to distant
parts of the country in search of material. I know that he will say that he enjoyed it, but without his (9.
FLAG) _________ enthusiasm this book would never have been written. Finally, I would like to thank my
friends and family, who have had to put up with what must have seemed to them an (10. EXCEPT)
_________ long drawn out piece of writing. Thank you, all of you, very much.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C. READING (50 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
Driving from Beijing to Paris
'Every journey begins with a single step.' We might (1) _________ this proverb for the 16,000 km Beijing
to Paris car rally, and say that every rally begins with a (2) _________ of the wheel. From China, several
hundred courageous men and women will (3) _________ out for Paris in pursuit of what, for many, is
likely to prove an impossible dream. Everybody is prepared for the worst and expects a high drop-out rate,
especially on the rally's difficult first stage across central China and over the high mountain (4)
_________ of the Himalayas. 'If twenty-five cars (5) _________ it to Paris, we'll be doing well,' says
Philip Young, the rally organizer.
Now planned as an annual event, the first Beijing-Paris car rally took place in 1907. It was won by Prince
Borghese, an Italian adventurer, who crossed the (6) _________ line just a few meters (7) _________ of
the only other car to complete the race. Nowadays, not many people know about Prince Borghese, but at
the time his achievement was regarded as comparable to that of Marco Polo, who travelled from Venice to
China in the thirteenth century.
According to the rules , all the cars in the rally must be more than thirty years old, which means that the (8)
roads and high altitude are a (9) _________ test of both the cars and the drivers. A sense of adventure is
essential. One driver said, 'Our (10) _________ is to have a good time, enjoy the experience and the
magnificent scenery - and the adventure of a lifetime.'
1 A adapt B moderate C improve D form
2 A revolution B circle C rotation D turn
3 A head B move C set D try
4 A crossings B passes C directions D passages
5 A get B take C have D make
6 A closing B final C ending D finishing
7 A forward B ahead C front D advance
8 A crude B undeveloped C broken D rough
10 A firm B strict C severe D grave
10 A aim B target C proposal D intent
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
ALL WORK AND NO PLAY
Universally, work has been a central focus point (0) ... in ... society. As old as the idea of work (1)
_________ is the question of what constitutes ‘real work’. This is, in fact, a very subjective question
indeed. (2)_________ you to ask a miner, or any labourer for that matter, what real work is, he would
probably reply that real work entails working (3) _________ your hands and, in the process, getting them
dirty. To the average blue-collar worker, whitecollar workers are those people who sit in their offices day
(4)_________ day doing little or (5)_________ in the line of actual work.
By (6)_________, if you approached a white-collar worker or a professional of (7) _________ sort with
the same question, you can rest assured that they (8) _________ adamantly maintain that the world would
stop revolving (9) _________ their invaluable intellectual contribution to the scheme of things.
This idea is reflected in the vocabulary used to describe work and its related subjects. Words like career,
vocation and profession carry a more elevated connotation than the simple term ‘job’. The (10)
_________ three lexical items convey the idea of learned persons sitting at desks and using their grey
matter to solve matters involving financial, legal or medical matters, while the humble slave away at some
mundane work station or assembly line task.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

HELP YOURSELF
In the last couple of decades, self-help books have been a publishing phenomenon, often topping
the bestseller lists. Readers have lapped up their advice on how to do a wide variety of things,
from becoming successful and rich to improving their relationships. If you’re facing a particular
problem in your life, there’s a host of self-help books for you. If you have the idea that you want
to improve yourself in some way, there are any number of self-help titles just waiting to advise
you. If you want a successful career, no problem – step-by-step guides will tell you exactly what
to do. But, despite their enormous success, there’s a question many people ask: do these books
actually do what they claim to?
Obviously, as in any field of publishing, some self-help books are better than others. Some may be
based on actual research and case studies – there’s some substance to them that suggests they can,
at least to some extent, be taken seriously. Others, however, amount to little more than
psychobabble – empty nonsense dressed up as serious psychological insight. These books
bombard the reader with a mass of meaningless jargon, disguising the fact that they have nothing
to say beyond the obvious that you would not need to buy a book to know. It’s the latter category
that has given self-help books a bad name among critics of the genre.
The kind of advice given in self-help books is often more or less the same. What really amounts to
pretty standard statements are made in many of them, but does this advice stand up to scrutiny?
Psychologists who have studied a range of self-help books connected with happiness say the
answer to this is “not always.” They say that although the emphasis the books place on aiming for
good relationships with families, friends, and colleagues has, in some ways, some scientific basis
in terms of what does actually lead to personal happiness, in other ways the advice given is
actually false.
For example, the books commonly tell you that it is good to express your anger; the psychologists
say this simply causes you to remain angry. You are often told to try to think happy thoughts when
you are sad; the psychologists say that attempting to do this simply emphasizes your unhappiness
for you. The books tell you to focus entirely on your aims in life, looking only at the desired
outcome; psychologists say you need to focus just as much on the problems you have to overcome
in order to reach your goals. The books tell you to keep praising yourself to increase and maintain
a high level of self-belief; the psychologists say that actually this doesn’t work because you need
praise from other people in order to increase your self-esteem.
Perhaps the key question on self-help books is: do they work? Do people feel they have directly
helped them? Whatever critics may say, do the people who buy and read them get real results from
them? The answer to this question appears to be “sometimes.” Research indicates that the kind of
book that deals with a particular problem can be effective in helping people with that problem,
 particularly if the problem in question isn’t a severe one, for example mild depression or anxiety.
The situation is less clear with books dealing with personal growth or development. Some people
do say that these books have helped them but it is by no means certain, and hard to measure,
whether this is really the case.
What is clear about all self-help books, however, is that they offer people hope. The actual advice
they give and whether or not this is accurate or effective is probably less important than the fact
that they tell the reader that change is possible, that there is hope of a better life, that people can
overcome difficulties and improve themselves and their situation. While this may sound like a
good thing, there is, however, a downside to it. To get people to buy them, these books often make
exaggerated claims about what they will do for people. They can raise unrealistic expectations in
the reader, suggesting that a better life can quite easily be achieved, that anyone can get what they
want out of life. The truth is, of course, that changing yourself and your life may be very difficult
indeed and require an immense amount of effort, if it is even achievable at all. So self-help books
are open to the claim that they present a false picture that can only lead to disappointment in the
end.

1 In the first paragraph, what does the writer emphasize about self-help books?
A The number of them available.
B How quickly the genre became popular.
C The fact that one person might buy many of them.
2 In the second paragraph, the writer expresses a preference for self-help books which ________.
A don’t use any jargon at all
B explain technical terms in a clear way
C give examples to support their advice
3 The writer says that self-help books containing a lot of “psychobabble” ________.
A are seldom popular with readers
B exist in greater numbers than other kinds of self-help books
C have affected the reputation of all self-help books
4 What does the writer say about self-help books connected with happiness?
A There is evidence to support some of the advice they give.
B They vary more than other kinds of self-help books.
C They are the most popular kind of self-help book.
5 Psychologists say that some advice in books about happiness ________.
A could produce different bad feelings in people
B could make people feel worse than they did
C is too hard for people to carry out
6 Which of the following do psychologists believe?
A Focusing on problems is more important than focusing on goals.
B You won’t have greater self-confidence unless other people praise you.
C Thinking only about aims can result in greater unhappiness.
7 Research into whether self-help books really help people suggests that ________.
A those dealing with personal growth and development are the least useful
B people want to believe that they have helped them a lot
C they are not very useful for serious problems
8 What do all self-help books have in common, according to the writer?
A They all contain some useful advice.
B They all have the same basic message.
C They all sympathize with the reader.
9 When asking whether self-help books work, the writer suggests that ________.
A this may be more important than whether the advice is correct
B not enough attention has been paid to this
C readers may not be honest about this
10 The writer concludes in that last paragraph that self-help books ________.
 A are more influential than is generally thought
B are only taken seriously by certain kinds of person
C may actually be harmful to people

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
REVIEW OF RESEARCH ON THE EFFECTS OF FOOD PROMOTION TO CHILDREN
This review was commissioned by the Food Standards Agency to examine the current research evidence
on:
• the extent and nature of food promotion to children
• the effect, if any, that this promotion has on their food knowledge, preferences and behaviour.
A Children’s food promotion is dominated by television advertising, and the great majority of this
promotes the so-called ‘Big Four’ of pre-sugared breakfast cereals, soft-drinks, confectionary and savoury
snacks. In the last ten years advertising for fast food outlets has rapidly increased. There is some evidence
that the dominance of television has recently begun to wane. The importance of strong, global branding
reinforces a need for multi-faceted communications combining television with merchandising, ‘tie-ins’ and
point of sale activity. The advertised diet contrasts sharply with that recommended by public health
advisors, and themes of fun and fantasy or taste, rather than health and nutrition, are used to promote it to
children. Meanwhile, the recommended diet gets little promotional support.
B There is plenty of evidence that children notice and enjoy food promotion. However, establishing
whether this actually influences them is a complex problem. The review tackled it by looking at studies that
had examined possible effects on what children know about food, their food preferences, their actual food
behaviour (both buying and eating), and their health outcomes (eg. obesity or cholesterol levels). The
majority of studies examined food advertising, but a few examined other forms of food promotion. In terms
of nutritional knowledge, food advertising seems to have little influence on children’s general perceptions
of what constitutes a healthy diet, but, in certain contexts, it does have an effect on more specific types of
nutritional knowledge. For example, seeing soft drink and cereal adverts reduced primary aged children’s
ability to determine correctly whether or not certain products contained real fruit.
C The review also found evidence that food promotion influences children’s food preferences and their
purchase behaviour. A study of primary school children, for instance, found that exposure to advertising
influenced which foods they claimed to like; and another showed that labelling and signage on a vending
machine had an effect on what was bought by secondary school pupils. A number of studies have also
shown that food advertising can influence what children eat. One, for example, showed that advertising
influenced a primary class’s choice of daily snack at playtime.
D The next step, of trying to establish whether or not a link exists between food promotion and diet or
obesity, is extremely difficult as it requires research to be done in real world settings. A number of studies
have attempted this by using amount of television viewing as a proxy for exposure to television
advertising. They have established a clear link between television viewing and diet, obesity, and
cholesterol levels. It is impossible to say, however, whether this effect is caused by the advertising, the
sedentary nature of television viewing or snacking that might take place whilst viewing. One study
resolved this problem by taking a detailed diary of children’s viewing habits. This showed that the more
food adverts they saw, the more snacks and calories they consumed.
E Thus the literature does suggest food promotion is influencing children’s diet in a number of ways. This
does not amount to proof; as noted above with this kind of research, incontrovertible proof simply isn’t
attainable. Nor do all studies point to this conclusion; several have not found an effect. In addition, very
few studies have attempted to measure how strong these effects are relative to other factors influencing
children’s food choices. Nonetheless, many studies have found clear effects and they have used
sophisticated methodologies that make it possible to determine that i) these effects are not just due to
chance; ii) they are independent of other factors that may influence diet, such as parents’ eating habits or
attitudes; and iii) they occur at a brand and category level.
 F Furthermore, two factors suggest that these findings actually downplay the effect that food promotion
has on children. First, the literature focuses principally on television advertising; the cumulative effect of
this combined with other forms of promotion and marketing is likely to be significantly greater. Second,
the studies have looked at direct effects on individual children, and understate indirect influences. For
example, promotion for fast food outlets may not only influence the child, but also encourage parents to
take them for meals and reinforce the idea that this is a normal and desirable behaviour.
G This does not amount to proof of an effect, but in our view does provide sufficient evidence to
conclude that an effect exists. The debate should now shift to what action is needed, and specifically to
how the power of commercial marketing can be used to bring about improvements in young people’s
eating.

Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-6. Paragraph A has been done for you.

List of Headings
i General points of agreements and disagreements of researchers
ii How much children really know about food
iii Need to take action
iv Advertising effects of the “Big Four”
v Connection of advertising and children’s weight problems
vi Evidence that advertising affects what children buy to eat
vii How parents influence children’s eating habits
viii Advertising’s focus on unhealthy options
ix Children often buy what they want
x Underestimating the effects advertising has on children

Example: Paragraph A ____viii___

1 paragraph B ___________
2 Paragraph C ___________
3 Paragraph D ___________
4 Paragraph E ___________
5 Paragraph F ___________
6 Paragraph G ___________
Questions 7-10
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1.
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7 __________ There is little difference between the number of healthy food advertisements and the number
of unhealthy food advertisements.
8 __________ TV advertising has successfully taught children nutritional knowledge about vitamins and
others.
9 __________ It is hard to decide which aspect of TV viewing has caused weight problems of children.
10 _________ The preference of food for children is affected by their age and gender.

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentences printed before it.
1. As far as I know, there’s no reason for James to be so unhappy.
→ To the ____________________________________________________________________
2. A rise in temperature in the next century seems likely.
→ In all _____________________________________________________________________
3. If we delay too long, we are unlikely to clinch the deal.
→ The longer_________________________________________________________________
4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information.
→ Precious little _____________________________________________________________
5. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
→ Refusal __________________________________________________________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the
form of the given word(s).

1. Jenny isn't a bad accountant, but I don't think it is a very suitable occupation for her.
cut
I just don't think Jenny ___________________________ an accountant.
2. We had no problems at all during our holiday in Turkey.
plan
Everything ___________________________ during our holiday in Turkey.
3. It's possible Clare phoned while we were out.
may
Clare ___________________________ while we were out.
4. Our class has won the History Quiz for the third year running.
succession
For the ___________________________ , our class has won the History Quiz.
5. The thunderstorm brought their tennis match to an abrupt end.
cut
They had to ___________________________ because of the thunderstorm.

Part 3. Essay writing

Some people believe that unpaid community service such as working for a charity, improving the
neighborhood or teaching sports to younger children should be a compulsory part of high school
programmes.

To what extent do you agree or disagree?

Write an essay of about 250 words to state your point of view.

 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG THỨ XI
BẰNG BẮC BỘ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN Thời gian: 180 phút
TRÃI Đề thi gồm: 18 trang
TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION 1: LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Listen and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)

Notes on University 2
Subject: International Business
Qualification: MIB

Entry requirements
Educational qualifications 1._______________________
English language 7 in IELTS or higher.

Course hours: 2 ._______________________ per week.

Extended stay: at the start of the 3 . _______________________

Course dates
Semester 1: 27th September to 22nd January.
Semester 2: 7th February to 4 ______________________ th
May.

Course content
Study of 5 _______________________ in particular how they are managed and their
changing external context.
Part 2. You will listen to the whole documentary, and for questions 1-5, choose the best
answer (A, B or C). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10
points)
1. In the past, science fiction fans imagined that jetpack
A. would become a part of everyday life.
B. would be used on the moon.
C. would only be flown by a few people.
2. What was wrong with the Rocket Belt developed by Wendell Moore?
A. It was too slow.
B. It couldn’t fly far enough.
C. It was too fast.
3. The thing which causes most difficulty for a pilot of a jetpack is
A. the terrible heat.
B. keeping stable.
C. trying not to land on water.
4. What is the main advantage of the EFV over a jetpack?
A. It can fly much faster.
B. It is much less heavy.
C. It can fly much further.
5. The company that makes the EFV also makes
A. a type of helicopter.
B. an unmanned flying vehicle.
C. a moon buggy.

Part 3. Listen to an extract from a radio programme about the climber Annabelle Bond,
and say whether sentences 1-5 are true or false. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)

1. It took her about a year to climb the seven mountains.

2. Only four men have climbed the peaks faster than Annabelle.
3. Annabelle always wanted to be a marathon runner.
4. She raised £8,500 for a cancer charity.
5. She plans to do more climbing in the near future.

Part 4: You will hear an interview between interviewer and Mick Davidson, a member of
the ADG. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20
points)
1. Animal rights protesters destroyed expensive _______________ at a research laboratory.
2. Davidson believes that using animals in experiments is a _______________.
3. Firms need a lot of _______________ to set up experiments.
4. Davidson hasn’t got any shoes that are made of _______________.
5. Newspapers publish _______________ that Mick Davidson has written.
6. Davidson damaged _______________ in a shop in London.
7. In one illegal action, Davidson removed _______________ from a laboratory, which
halted the research.
8. In the attack on a laboratory, Davidson and his ADG colleagues took _______________
away with them.
9. Davidson doesn’t support the use of _______________ , except against property.
10. The ADG has apologised to people that they have _______________ without meaning
to.
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the
following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20
points)
1. The strike was ____________ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up
C. set back D. put down
2. Lindsay's excuses for being late are beginning to ____________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ___________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether
C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the
___________ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a ____________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
7. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys.
A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly
8. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful
_____.
A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence
9. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing
10. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____.
A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective
11. Mary said she wanted to be Prime Minister when she grew up but Anna, not
to be _____________ , said she was going to be Queen.
A overawed B outdone C outclassed D overtaken
12. Sally’s remark that she was feeling worn out _____________ thoughts of a
holiday.
A stimulated B provoked C prompted D engendered
13. The soldiers had little to _____________ from delaying military action.
A benefit B win C gain D obtain
14. In terms of protocol, the President takes _____________ over all others in the
country.
A priority B the lead C precedence D the head
15. In this district there is a growing _____________ between those with jobs and those
without.
A separation B fissure C difference D divide
16. This champion racehorse is one in a _____________
A hundred B million C billion D thousand
17. I’m not surprised people are arguing - they are at the _____________ of their tether.
A end B limit C finish D termination
18. _____________you had to find a new job, what would you like to do?
A Provided B Supposing C So D Though
19. _____________from collecting shells, he also enjoys looking for fossils,
A Except B Besides C Apart D Excluded
20. _____________ I’m concerned he’s the best manager this company has ever had.
A Where B As far as C Whereas D While

Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and
write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Sir Walter Scott was the key figure in creating a colorful image of Scotland’s past,
initially with his bestselling narrative poem, with his even more celebrated novels, the first
of which was Waverley. It was published anonymously in 1814 and, in subsequent years, its
successors were described as being ‘by the author of Waverley’, which accounts the term
‘Waverley novels’. Although Scott gave no public acknowledgement of his authorship until
1827, the writer’s identity was an open secret long before then. He wrote ordinarily quickly,
and the first collected edition of the Waverley novels was published as early as 1819. The
set of illustrations of Alexander Nasmyth was produced for the second collected edition and
these drawings used on the title pages.
Nasmyth has been called the father of landscape painting and, such as Walter Scott, he
helped to popularized his country’s romantic and picturesque scenery. The drawings were
recently presented to the National Library of Scotland, which now boasts a superb and
rivalled collection of manuscripts and papers relating to Scott and his circle.
What is less well known about Sir Walter Scott is that after his bankruptcy in 1826, his last
years were spent in frantic literary activity to pay off all the creditors whom he owned
money.
Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
 2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition) or particle.
Write your answer in the boxes provided. (10 points)
1. As the riot police approached, the crowd backed __________.
2. Reforms will kick ____ later this year.
3. I was thrown ______ balance by the sudden gust of wind.
4. Their capital is all locked ______ in property.
5. As the boat went _____ , the women and children started screaming.
6. He had been nursing a grievance ______ his boss for months.
7. Her husband is doing time _____ armed robbery.
8. No, I can't lend you $ 50. Money doesn't grow ______ trees, you know!
9. Snipers were picking _____ innocent civilians.
10. The bombing was_______ revenge for the assassination.
Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
THE SPIRAL AND THE HELIX
They are everywhere, graceful, curving shapes whose incredible (1) REGULAR
_________ contrasts so sharply with the random world around them. We call them spirals
and helices but that hardly does (2) JUST ____________ to their diversity or their
significance.
Over the centuries, (3) MATHEMATICS __________ have identified many
different types, but the most intriguing are those that (4) REPEAT ____________ occur in
the natural world.
 The need to (5) RAVEL _____ the mysteries of the existence of spirals and helices
has exercised some of the best scientific brains in the world and opened the way to a
number of (6) BREAK ______________ in fields as widely varied as genetics and (7)
METEOR ______________.
The most (8) SPECTACLE ________________ spirals on earth are also the most
unwelcome - hurricanes. Their (9) AWE _______________ power comes from the sun's
heat, but they owe their shape to the force caused by the rotation of the earth. After
innumerable years of study, however, Nature's spirals and helices have yet to
(10)_____________ all their secrets. For example, why, astronomers wonder, are so many
galaxies spiral-shaped?

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Black light theatre is just as it sounds, that is, a black light (1) ________ an otherwise
dark stage using ultraviolet light. Actors perform wearing fluorescent costumes
that reflect light, and any stage (2) ________ the set designer wishes to remain
unseen are painted black.
Less technological variations of this type of stage (3) ________ have been used
for millennia; actors in ancient theatres would sometimes all dress in black
and play on a dark stage. Its modern form was (4) ________ in the 1960s, after an
outstanding performance at the 1962 Edinburgh Theatre Festival led to a
(5) ________ ovation. Soon after, the (6) ________ behind the production, Jiri Srnec,
began staging performances in his native Czech Republic to (7) ________ houses. There
are numerous black light theatres in Prague today.
Performances are visually (8) ________ as there is such intricate choreography
involved. Actors must rehearse (9) ________ before going on the dark stage. A single
wrong move can ruin the whole (10)___________ .
1. A. sparkles B. glows C. beams D. illuminates
2. A. props B. supports C. bases D. parts
3. A. shading B. darkening C. colouring D. lighting
4. A. popularised B. familiarised C. customised D. standardised
5. A. leading B. jumping C. standing D. lasting
6. A. thoughts B. wits C. ideas D. brains
7. A. packed B. crammed C. crowded D. jammed
8. A. disturbing B. alarming C. shocking D. stunning
9. A. accurately B. intensively C. severely D. strictly
10. A. produce B. production C. productivity D. productiveness

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15
points)
Along with London’s West End theatres, New York’s Broadway theatres are thought to (2)
_________ the pinnacle of theatrical production in the English-speaking world. For most
American actors, landing a role in one of these productions is far (2) _________ their
wildest dreams, as working on Broadway represents the highest (3) _________ in any
theatrical actor’s career. Naturally, all actors must keep their options (4) _________ when
seeking theatrical work. For those just about to (5) _________ the plunge, it might be wise
to first pursue a role in what’s known as the Off-Broadway theatres, or even better, Off-Off-
Broadway theatres. These two types of theatre are defined by seating capacity - the former
being 100 to 499 seats, the latter (6) _________ 100. While the productions are smaller,
performances in these theatres can still (7) _________ respect from the theatrical
community. An actor can use the venues to get their craft down to a fine (8) _________
and eventually turn in performances eliciting reviews (9) _________ of praise from critics
who attend. Conversely, there’s less need for an actor to worry too much about a bad
performance. As it’s only an Off-Off-Broadway production, it’s not the (10) _________ of
the world.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the
questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to
bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government
was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote
desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for
thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of waste disposal
was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our
descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell
future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits.
Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of
radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But
the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances
made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have slipped
backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events, whether the
result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the
scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that
humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and
technological understanding.
The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas
of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing
language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to
future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as possible.
It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication
system that material in which the message was written might not physically endure the great
lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics shows that all material
disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the message cannot be expected to
endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations.
Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons.
The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way
would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive
physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this
restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee
of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing
the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This so-called
atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive
through millennia and developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding
people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites. Only the initiated atomic priesthood
of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the danger. Those
outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and legends designed
to warn off intruders.
This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of
the original message. Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction
passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor that it could survive with its original meaning
intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed a “relay system” in
which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three generations
ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three
generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed
into the future and avoid the possibility of physical degradation.
A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social
exclusiveness brought about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that
the atomic priesthood could use its secret knowledge to control those who are scientifically
ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders holding powerful knowledge
not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a dangerous precedent for
future social developments.
1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures
2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste?
A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials
B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks
C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination
D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people.
3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies
A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe
B. to question the value of advances
C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems
D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated
4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances
5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics
 A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time
B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia
C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects
D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects
6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to
A. knowledge B. committee C. solution D. guardians
7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic
priesthood"?
A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste
sites.
B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness
C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order
D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions
8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system
for passing on information?
A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved
B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time
C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics
D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time
9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it
could lead to
A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms
B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge
C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society
D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge
10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a
communication system with the future EXCEPT
A. the failure to maintain communication link
B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization
C. the inability of materials to endure over time
 D. the exclusiveness of priesthood
Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of
headings below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
List of Headings
A. The benefits of simple language F. Differing interpretations
B. A necessary tool G. Publicizing new words
C. A lasting way of concealing disasters H. Feeling shut out
D. The worst offenders I. Playing with words
E. A deceptively attractive option

1 JARGON
Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defines it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the
technical vocabulary or idiom of a special activity or group’, but this sense is almost
completely overshadowed by another: ‘obscure and often pretentious language marked by a
roundabout way of expression and use of long words’. For most people, it is this second
sense which is at the front of their minds when they think about jargon. Jargon is said to be
a bad use of language, something to be avoided at all costs. No one ever describes it in
positive terms (‘that was a delightful piece of rousing jargon’). Nor does one usually admit
to using it oneself: the myth is that jargon is something only other people employ.

2
The reality, however is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the
network of occupations and pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an element of
jargon, which workers learn as they develop their expertise. All hobbies require mastery of
a jargon. Each society grouping has its jargon. The phenomenon turns out to be universal –
and valuable. It is the jargon element which, in a job, can promote economy and precision
of expression, and thus help make life easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic
element which shows professional awareness (‘know-how’) and social togetherness (‘shop-
talk’).

3
When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take
pleasure in, whether the subject area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball or
computers. It can add pace, variety and humour to speech – as when, with an important
event approaching, we might slip into NASA-speak, and talk about countdown, all systems
go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off which stems from a fluent use of
terminology, and we enjoy the in-jokes which shared linguistic experience permits.
Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge. We are quick to demean anyone who tries to
be part of our group without being prepared to take on its jargon.

4
If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad
press? The most important reason stems from the way jargon can exclude as well as
include. We may not be too concerned if we find ourselves faced with an impenetrable wall
of jargon when the subject matter has little perceived relevance to our everyday lives, as in
the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics. But when the subject matter is one where we feel
implicated, and think we have a right to know, and the speaker uses words which make it
hard for us to understand, then we start to complain; and if we suspect that the obfuscation
is deliberate policy, we unreservedly condemn, labeling it gobbledegook and calling down
public derision upon it.

5
No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have
been especially criticized in recent years by the various campaigns for Plain English. In
these domains, the extent to which people are prepared to use jargon to hide realities is a
ready source of amusement, disbelief and horror. A lie is a lie, which can be only
temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’ or ‘an instance of plausible
deniability’. Nor can a nuclear plant explosion be suppressed for long behind such phrases
as ‘energetic disassembly’, ‘abnormal evolution’ or ‘plant transient’.

6
While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not
forget to look out for it in ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without realizing that
our own listeners/readers do not understand. It is also temptingly easy to slip some jargon
into our expression, to ensure that others do not understand. And it is just as easy to begin
using jargon which we ourselves do not understand. The motivation to do such apparently
perverse things is not difficult to grasp. People like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or
technical elite; and the use of jargon, whether understood or not, is a badge of membership.
Jargon, also, can provide a lazy way into a group or an easy way of hiding uncertainties and
inadequacies: when terminology slips plausibly from the tongue, it is not essential for the
brain to keep up. Indeed some people have developed this skill to professional levels. And
certainly, faced with a telling or awkward question, and the need to say something
acceptable in public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon become a
bad habit.

Task 2: Complete the summary using the list of words (A – I ) below. There’s one
example.

A. judgement D. efficiency G. contempt

B. jokes E. know-how H. feeling
C. shop-talk F. humour I. pleasure
The Up Side of Jargon
Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when
people take up pastimes they need to develop a good command of the relevant jargon.
During discussion of these of other areas of interest, conversation can become more exciting
and an element of (7 ) _____ can be introduced by the use of shared jargon.
Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more (8 ) _____ in the way
colleagues communicate during work hours. Taking part in (9 ) _____ during moments of
relaxation can also help them to bond better.
It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often
demonstrate a certain possessiveness towards the particular linguistic characteristics of their
subject area and tend to regard new people who do not wish to learn the jargon with (10)
_____.
D. WRITING (40 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
one printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)

1. They believe that Oliver failed his exam because he was nervous.
--> Oliver’s failure _______________________________________________________
2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
--> The inhabitants are nowhere ___________________________________________
3. If you don't know the art market, there's a risk you will spend a lot of money on rubbish.
--> If you don't know the art market, you are _____________________________________
4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.
-> There was no question ___________________________________________
5. Those terrapins which survive their first year may live to be twenty.
-> Should _________________________________________

Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same.
You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers
in the space provided (5 points)
6. Every student will get good marks to express their gratitude towards teachers.
(lengths)
_________________________________________
7 I am determined to become a teacher of maths. (heart)
_________________________________________
8 Some of the patients taken to the hospital have got an infectious disease.
(diagnosed)
_________________________________________
9 This contract is as important and confidential as that one.
(equally)
_________________________________________
10 He has called the meeting in order to raise money for the latest storm.
(purpose)
_________________________________________
Part 3. Paragraph writing. (20 points)
Nowadays, more and more foreign students are going to English-Speaking countries to
learn the “international language – English". It is undoubtedly true that studying English in
an English-speaking country is the best way, but it is not the only way to learn it.
Do you agree or disagree with the above statement?
Use your own knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and
relevant evidence.
Write a paragraph of 150-200 words to state your viewpoint.
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU
QUỐC HỌC HUẾ VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XI, NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

(Đề thi gồm 21 trang) ------------------------------------------------------------------

A. LISTENING (50 points):

Part 1: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Date Event Importance for art
3000 BC rice farmers from 1. ________ built temples with wood and stone
carvings settled in Bali
14th century introduction of Hinduism artists employed by 2. ________ and
focused on epic narratives
1906 Dutch East Indies Company art became expression of opposition to
established 3. ________
1920s beginning of 4. ________ encouraged use of new materials,
techniques and subjects
1945 independence new art with scene of 5. _________
(e.g. harvests) reflecting national
identity

Part 2: You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. In the incident that Liz describes,
A. her daughter asked her to stop the car.
B. she had to interrupt the journey twice.
C. she got angry with her daughter.
D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car.
2. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?
A. It contradicts other research on the subject.
B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.
C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.
D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.
3. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?
A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation
B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter
C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes
D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness
4. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that
A. they are having serious problems with their real friends.
B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do.
C. they want something that they cannot be given.
D. they want something that other children haven’t got.
5. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of
A. a very untypical teenager.
B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause.
C. something she had not expected to discover.
D. how children change as they get older.
Part 3: You will hear an interview which takes place on a show between the interviewer, Michaela
Robinson, a leading psychologist, Duncan Stone, and a former patient, Ian Smith. Write T (for True) or F
(for False). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. Mr. Stone thinks that psychiatrists don’t need any medical training.
2. Psychiatrists need to know how to make patients open up.
3. Ian Smith didn’t know what caused his nervousness.
4. Boys at school were friendly to Ian.
5. Mr. Stone found it difficult to get Ian’s life story.
Part 4: You will hear part of an interview with an explorer. Complete the sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
The Explorer
It could be said that his expeditions over the last five years have mostly (1) _________ but there have been
(2) _________ on any of them.
He thinks that (3) _________ of his expeditions has been good and that (4) _________ and (5) _________
have been right. One of the aims of his expedition to Antarctica is to raise money for a (6) _________.
The second aim is to find out what the human body can tolerate when working very hard and (7)
_________ in extreme temperatures.
These days he does not emphasise (8) _________ involved in exploring because people don’t take it
seriously.
He intends to go to (9) _________ this year.
On the next expedition to Antarctica they are taking special sledges and (10) _________ than on the
previous expedition there.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I’m afraid that the herring we had for dinner has given me _______.
A. sickness B. indisposition C. infection D. indigestion
2. This lime juice needs _______ before you can drink it.
A. diluting B. dissolving C. softening D. watering
3. It must be true. I heard it straight from the _______ mouth.
A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s
4. The facilities at many schools today are still _______ inadequate.
A. sadly B. woefully C. regrettably D. grimly
5. His laziness at work made him _______ with his workmate.
A. improper B. disliked C. unpopular D. unappealing
6. Although he’s shy, it certainly hasn’t _______ his career in any way.
A. restricted B. obstructed C. cramped D. impeded
7. She used the map to discover where she was in _______ to her surroundings.
A. connection B. affinity C. relation D. reference
8. You can’t always depend on _______ on time.
A. the trains’ arriving B. the trains to arrive
C. the arriving of trains D. the train that arriving
9. You’d _______ that clock fixed; it hasn’t worked for over a week now.
A. rather have B. better have C. rather had D. have
10. The picking of the fruit, _______, takes about a week.
A. whose work they receive no money.
B. as they receive no money for that work
C. for which work they receive no money
D. they receive no money for it
11. If I don’t write you a note to say you have a doctor’s appointment, the teacher will think you are
playing ________.
A. the fool B. truant C. for time D. hard to get
12. Exercise tends to _______ the effects of old age.
A. waylay B. run down C. set back D. offset
13. There’s an old saying, “It’s the double gins that cause the _______.”
A. crossed eyes B. double chins C. flat feet D. knock knees
14. It’s a good area for shopping. All the shops are within easy _______.
A. approach B. arrival C. neighbourhood D. reach
15. The big new supermarket on the outskirts of town does a _______ trade.
A. crying B. roaring C. screaming D. shouting
16. Sport provides an _______ for a teenager’s feeling of aggression or frustration.
A. overflow B. outlet C. exit D. exhaust
17. She was caught cheating in the race. _______, she was disqualified.
A. Explicitly B. Accordingly C. Equally D. Fundamentally
18. Alice was not sure which profession to enter, but finally _______ for medicine.
A. opted B. chose C. accepted D. selected
19. Jane handed in the test and awaited the results _______.
A. with bated breath B. out of breath
C. under her breath C. in the same breath
20. Burglar alarms on cars and houses may act as a _______ to the casual thief.
LINE A. preventionB. precaution C. stopper D. deterrent
1 Part 2: Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write

2 the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning.
(10 points)
3
Example: Line 1: Original Originally
4
THE NEW BRITISH LIBRARY
5 Original commissioned 14 years ago, the new British Library was supposed to open in 1990.
6 Thus, the project has been delayed by political infighting, poor planning and financial problems.
7 The most recent setback came in June when inspectors discover that 60 miles of new metal

8 shelving had started to rust and needed to be replaced. That would postpone the opening of the
project’s first phase for yet other two years. “Things have gone from bad to worse’, said Brian
9
Lake, secretary of the Regular Readers, an association of writers and scholars who are not happy
10
with plans to the new library. “It is a grand nation project that has become a great scandal”.
11 It sounded like a splendid idea which the government unveiled its 164- million project in
12 1978. Sophisticated electronic equipment would help keep the library’s irreplaceable stock at an
13 optimal temperature and humid. A computer-controlled delivery system would provide books to

14 readers within minutes of a request better than days. And to serve other needs of the reading
public, the library would also include exhibition gallery, a restaurant and a conference hall.
15
That was the plan, anyway. The start of construction delayed until 1982 by arguments about
16
planning and by a change of government. Four years later, members of the cabinet ordered a
17 progress report and discovered that the committee responsible for supervision the project hadn’t
18 met in four years.
19
Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the
box provided. (10 points)
1. My mum told me ________ for coming home late from school.
2. The surgeon is going to operate ________ my father tomorrow.
3. Even though the police went ________ the evidence many times, they didn’t find anything.
4. As the shop didn’t accept credit cards, I had to pay ________ cash.
5. Frank is a very mean person. He finds it very difficult to part ________ his money.
6. Let’s make ________ that island and wait for the storm to pass.
7. Could you please refrain ________ smoking - this is a hospital!
8. The company pulled ________ despite the economic crisis.
9. We were very sorry to hear that your grandfather passed ________ last week.
10. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he fell ________ on his mother for help.

Part 4: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below. (10 points)
Rebuilding Conventry
In the late 30s, (1) __________ knew that the centre of the ANALYSE
historic town of Conventry in the West Midlands needed to be
redeveloped. Plans had to be (2) __________ when the SHELF
Second World War started in 1939. However, the architects’
opportunity (3) __________ when the city centre was MATERIAL
practically destroyed during the war. Many buildings were
(4) __________ damaged and demolition work began. REPAIR
Aiming to create a much more (5) __________ area for SPACE
(6) __________ to work and shop in, town planners came up RESIDE
with a radical idea. They would make the city more
(7) __________ by pedestrianising the centre, preventing cars INHABIT
entering. There were (8) __________ from local shopkeepers, OBJECT
who thought that it would have an impact on trade, but the
planners went ahead. What was once a (9) __________ DENSE
populated area became a pleasant, attractive place to visit. It
was a real (10) __________ achievement, one that many ARCHITECT
British towns have emulated since.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
All in the Stars
First-time visitors to India are likely to be impressed by how profoundly astrology influences
almost every (1) ______ of life on the subcontinent. In fact, the belief that the motions of remote heavenly
bodies can affect events on Earth is so (2) ______ that several Indian universities (3) ______ courses in the
subject. It is not, therefore, surprising that many people will (4) ______ an astrologer before they take any
important step. For example, Indian marriages are arranged with the aid of an astrologer, who will cast the
horoscopes of the bride and groom, and also work out the best date for the wedding to take place. A few
years ago in Delhi, thousands of couples rushed to get married on a particularly auspicious day, with the (5)
______ that priests, brass bands and wedding photographers were in short supply.
The role of astrology is not (6) ______ only to the social aspects of Indian life. Few people (7)
______ business without resorting to their astrologer. Major films are only released on suspicious dates.
Even (8) ______ of state are not exempt from its influence: when India (9) ______ her independence from
Britain in 1947, the (10) ______ of power was carefully timed to take place after a particularly inauspicious
period had passed.
1. A. division B. facet C. angle D. sector
2. A. widespread B. overwhelming C. intensive D. capacious
3. A. offer B. afford C. supply D. serve
4. A. interrogate B. confer C. interview D. consult
5. A. effect B. outcome C. upshot D. result
6. A. demarcated B. bound C. confined D. restrained
7. A. engage B. perform C. carry D. conduct
8. A. affairs B. cases C. issues D. topics
9. A. grabbed B. procured C. gained D. captured
10. A. delivery B. inheritance C. succession D. transfer

Part 2: Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
A sting in the tale
A scorpion stung Peter Marks on the back of his right leg, (1) ________ below the knee, then
continued up that leg and down the (2) ________, he believes, before getting him again in the shin. It
wasn’t (3) ________ he was expecting on a flight from Chicago to Vermont. Marks, a 46-year-old builder,
was abroad the United Airlines flight on the second leg of his trip home from San Francisco where he and
his wife Helena had been visiting their sons. He awoke (4) ________ a nap shortly before landing and
noticed something strange.
“My leg felt like it was asleep, but that was isolated to one spot, and it felt as (5) ________ it was
being jabbed with a sharp piece of plastic (6) ________ something. The second sting came after the plane
had landed and the Marks were waiting for their bags at the luggage carousel. Peter rolled up his cuff to
investigate, and the scorpion fell out.
“It felt like a shock, a tingly thing. Someone screamed, ‘It’s a scorpion’,” Peter recalled. Another
passenger stepped on the 5-centimetre arachnid, and (7) ________ else suggested Marks seek medical help.
“The airlines tell you that you can’t bring water on a plane”, Helena Marks said, “but the scorpion did
make it abroad”. A United spokesperson said the incident “is something that we will look (8) ________.
We’re very sorry for what happened. Our customers’ safety and security is our number one priority.” (9)
________ incidents are not unheard of. An American Airlines flight was delayed for an hour in Toronto on
Sunday after a passenger was stung by a scorpion that had (10) ________ its way on board. Paramedics
treated the man when the flight landed.

Part 3: Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
The medieval artists didn’t know about perspective; they didn’t want to make their people look like
real, individual people in a real, individual scene. They wanted to show the truth, the eternal quality of
their religious stories. So these artists didn’t need to know about perspective.
In the European Renaissance period, artists wanted to show the importance of the individual person
and his or her possessions and surroundings. A flat medieval style couldn’t show this level of reality and
the artists needed a new technique. It was the Italian artist Brunelleschi who discovered the technique of
perspective drawing. At first the artists of the Renaissance only had single-point perspective. Later they
realized that they could have two-pointed perspectives and still later multi-point perspective.
 With two-point perspective they could turn an object like a building at an angle to the picture and
draw two sides of it. The technique of perspective which seems so natural to us now is an invented
technique, a part of the “grammar of painting”. Like all bits of grammar there are exceptions about
perspective. For example, only vertical and horizontal surfaces seem to meet on eye level. Sloping roof
tops don’t meet on eye level.
For 500 years, artists in Europe made use of perspective drawing in their pictures. Nevertheless,
there are a range of priorities that artists take in displaying individual styles. Crivelli wanted to show depth
in his picture and he used a simple single-point perspective. Cezanne always talked about space and
volume. Van Gogh, like some of the other painters of the Impressionist period, was interested in Japanese
prints. And Japanese artists until this century were always very strong designers of “flat” pictures. Picasso
certainly made pictures which have volume and depth. However, he wanted to keep our eyes on the surface
and to remind us that his paintings are paintings and not illusions.
It is technically easy to give an illusion of depth. However, a strong two dimensional design is just
as a feeling of depth, and perhaps more important.
1. The passage mainly discusses
A. the difference between medieval and Renaissance art.
B. how the technique of perspective influenced the modern art.
C. the discovery of the technique of perspective.
D. the contribution of Renaissance artists.
2. The word “eternal” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. timeless B. infinite C. frequent D. constant
3. According to the passage, which is the main concern for medieval artists?
A. The individual person and his/ her possessions and surroundings.
B. Real people, real scenes.
C. Eternal timeless truth of the earth.
D. Themes of religious stories.
4. The discovery of perspective was the result of
A. Renaissance artists’ to prove that the medieval artists could show level of reality.
B. the need to turn an object at an angle and draw more than one side of it.
C. the subject being shifted from religious stories to individual person and surroundings.
D. natural evolution of human senses.
5. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to
A. the picture B. perspective C. angle D. the object
6. The word “grammar” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. construction B. grammatical rules
C. rules and regulations D. tones and volume
7. The author’s purpose to give the example in the last two sentences of paragraph 3 is to
A. explain how perspective work in painting.
B. support two-pointed perspective.
C. illustrate that there are exceptions about perspective.
D. point out that the technique of perspective though seems so natural is an invented technique.
8. The following artists’ priorities in style shift away from perspective EXCEPT
A. Crivelli B. Cezanne
C. Japanese artists D. Brunelleschi
9. The word “illusion” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. deception B. photograph C. decoration D. illustration
10. It can be inferred from the passage that Renaissance artists
A. embraced the medieval style of eternal truth.
B. needed to develop a new approach towards painting to show a new level of reality.
C. were inspired by vertical and horizontal surfaces in inventing the technique of perspective.
D. saw two dimensional design more important than a feeling of depth.
Part 4: Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in corresponding
numbered boxes. (15 points)
Jargon
A Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defines it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the technical vocabulary
or idiom of a special activity or group’, but this sense is almost completely overshadowed by
another: ‘obscure and often pretentious language marked by a roundabout way of expression and
use of long words’. For most people, it is this second sense which is at the front of their minds when
they think about jargon. Jargon is said to be a bad use of language, something to be avoided at all
costs. No one ever describes it in positive terms (‘that was a delightful piece of rousing jargon’).
Nor does one usually admit to using it oneself: the myth is that jargon is something only other
people employ.
B The reality, however, is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the network of
occupations and pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an element of jargon, which
workers learn as they develop their expertise. All hobbies require mastery of a jargon. Each society
grouping has its jargon. The phenomenon turns out to be universal – and valuable. It is the jargon
element which, in a job, can promote economy and precision of expression, and thus help make life
easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic element which shows professional awareness
(‘know-how’) and social togetherness (‘shop-talk’).
C When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take pleasure in, whether the
subject area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball or computers. It can add pace, variety and
humour to speech – as when, with an important event approaching, we might slip into NASA-
speak, and talk about countdown, all systems go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off
which stems from a fluent use of terminology, and we enjoy the in-jokes which shared linguistic
 experience permits. Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge. We are quick to demean anyone
who tries to be part of our group without being prepared to take on its jargon.
D If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad press? The most
important reason stems from the way jargon can exclude as well as include. We may not be too
concerned if we find ourselves faced with an impenetrable wall of jargon when the subject matter
has little perceived relevance to our everyday lives, as in the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics.
But when the subject matter is one where we feel implicated, and think we have a right to know,
and the speaker uses words which make it hard for us to understand, then we start to complain; and
if we suspect that the obfuscation is deliberate policy, we unreservedly condemn, labelling it
gobbledegook and calling down public derision upon it.
E No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have been especially criticised
in recent years by the various campaigns for Plain English. In these domains, the extent to which
people are prepared to use jargon to hide realities is a ready source of amusement, disbelief and
horror. A lie is a lie, which can be only temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’
or ‘an instance of plausible deniability’. Nor can a nuclear plant explosion be suppressed for long
behind such phrases as ‘energetic disassembly’, ‘abnormal evolution’ or ‘plant transient’.
F While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not forget to look out for
it in ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without realizing that our own listeners/readers do
not understand. It is also temptingly easy to slip some jargon into our expression, to ensure that
others do not understand. And it is just as easy to begin using jargon which we ourselves do not
understand. The motivation to do such apparently perverse things is not difficult to grasp. People
like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or technical elite; and the use of jargon, whether
understood or not, is a badge of membership. Jargon, also, can provide a lazy way into a group or
an easy way of hiding uncertainties and inadequacies: when terminology slips plausibly from the
tongue, it is not essential for the brain to keep up. Indeed some people have developed this skill to
professional levels. And certainly, faced with a telling or awkward question, and the need to say
something acceptable in public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon
become a bad habit.
Task 1: The Reading Passage above has six paragraphs A-F. From the list of headings below, choose
the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-6.
Paragraph F has been done for you.
List of Headings
i The benefits of simple language
ii A necessary tool
iii A lasting way of concealing disasters
iv The worst offenders
 v A deceptively attractive option
vi Differing interpretations
vii Publicising new words
viii Feeling shut out
ix Playing with words

Example: 0. Paragraph F ______vi_______

1. Paragraph A ______________
2. Paragraph B ______________
3. Paragraph C ______________
4. Paragraph D ______________
5. Paragraph E______________
Task 2: Complete the summary using the list of words A – J below.
The Up Side of Jargon
Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when people take up
pastimes they need to develop a good command of the relevant jargon. During discussion of these or other
areas of interest, conversation can become more exciting and an element of 6. ________ can be introduced
by the use of shared jargon.
Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more 7. ________ in the way colleagues
communicate during work hours. Taking part in 8. ________ during moments of relaxation can also help
them bond better.
It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often demonstrate a certain 9.
________ towards the particular linguistic characteristics of their subject area and tend to regard new
people who do not wish to learn the jargon with 10. ________.
A judgement B jokes C shop-talk
D efficiency E know-how F contempt
G feeling H possessiveness I pleasure
J humour
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1: Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You
must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. (10 points)
1. Spending two weeks in hospital was very different from lying on the beach! (CRY)
Spending two weeks in hospital was …………………………………lying on the beach!
2. The parents of that girl are furious about her expulsion. (ARMS)
That’s the girl ……………………………………………………. about her expulsion.
3. I’m finding it difficult to cope with all the work I have to do.
(TOP)
All the work I have to do ………………………………………………. me.
4. I wouldn’t confront the manager if I were you.
(HORNS)
I wouldn’t ………………………………………. the manager if I were you.
5. He was arrested when they caught him driving a stolen vehicle.
(ACT)
Being ……………………………………………….. a stolen vehicle, he was arrested.

Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it, beginning as shown. (10 points)
1. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ………………………………………………………………………………..
2. You can eat as much as you like for £5 at the new lunch-bar.
There is no ............................................................................................................................................
3. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to...................................................................................................................................................
4. “I think the whole idea’s ridiculous,” he said.
He dismissed..........................................................................................................................................
5. The managing director refuses to resign.
The managing director has no................................................................................................................

Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (30 points)
With the development of online communication, people will never be alone and will always be able to
make new friends. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM
THPT Chuyên Thái Bình HỌC 2017 - 2018
(Đề thi gồm 13 trang)
ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN - KHỐI 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

I. LISTENING:
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: You will hear an extract from a talk about facilities for students with disabilities.
Complete the table below. Write no more than three words for each answer.
Disability Facilities
General Personal care and assistance
Mobility impairment 1. …………….. and easy access,
Fire and emergency procedures
Lifts that work
2. ……………………..
Hearing impairment Induction loops, flashing sirens,
3. ...................................
Braille translators,
Sight impairment 4. ................................... on stairs, floors, etc.
Fire and emergency procedures
5. ........................................ Extra time to finish work
Other difficulties Access to treatment: medication/therapy
Emergency procedures
Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with someone who has been having ballet lessons. For questions
6 - 10, choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear.
6. What does Rupert say about the fact that he is doing ballet classes?
A. Other people have ridiculed him for it.
B. He expects to be mocked for it.
C. It is not as unusual as people might think.
D. People may think it isn’t really true.
7. Rupert says that before he started doing ballet lessons,
A. he had been doing routine physical fitness training.
B. his knowledge of ballet had been growing.
C. ballet had taken over from football as his greatest interest.
D. he had been considering doing ballroom dancing again.
8. Rupert says that when the idea of ballet lessons was suggested to him,
A. he thought it was a joke.
B. he was unsure exactly what would be involved.
C. he began to have unrealistic expectations of what he could achieve.
D. he initially lacked the confidence to do it.
9. One of the advantages of ballet that Rupert mentions is that
A. it leads to fewer injuries than other physical activities.
B. it has both physical and mental effects.
C. it is particularly good for certain parts of the body.
D. it is more interesting than other forms of exercise.
10. What does Rupert say about his progress at ballet?
A. It has been much more rapid than he had expected.
B. It has made him consider giving up his other training.
C. It has given him greater appreciation of the skills of professionals.
D. It has led him to enroll for certain exams.
Part 3: Listen to the conversation and decide whether these statements are true T or false F.
11. Frank thinks Ann has been influenced by the newspapers.
12. Scientists have worked out a way of introducing a vaccine into bananas.
13. Ann thinks food companies will make money out of feeding poor countries.
14. Frank thinks Ann is being negative.
15. Ann is worried about guinea pigs becoming extinct.

Part 4: For questions 16 – 25, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBER taken from the
recording for each answer in the spaces provided.
16. The Apprentice sees individuals competing for a job with ______________ Sir Alan Sugar.
17. With endless talk of ___________ crunches, redundancies and cut-backs, it may come as no surprise
that thousands of plucky hopefuls applied for the show.
18/19. This year’s _________ are not going to be allowed to forget the _____________ climate quite so
easily.
20. The tasks will as usual be grueling tests of _____________ acumen, team-working and leadership skill.
21. British viewers will be shaking their heads in disbelief at the crazy decisions of the ____________
apprentices.
22. Some are clearly motivated by the promise of a _____________ and some claim they want the
experience of working with a successful businessman such as Sir Alan.
23. It is said that the show is a ______________ .
24. The apprentice’s _____________ has been copied all over the world; with the hype surrounding this
latest series, it looks as though the show will have success for many years to come.
25. The reality show first appeared in ______________ .
II: Grammar& Vocabulary
Part 1: Choose the best option to complete each of the following questions.
1. I’m sure there’s a definite __________ of envy in her nasty comments about you.
A. factor B. ingredient C. component D. element
2. In the ___________ of just two days, her whole life changed.
A. interval B. space C. spell D. duration
3. The thieves took ___________ when they heard a police car approaching.
A. retreat B. flight C. escape D. getaway
4. Afterwards, when I ___________ on the events of that day, I could hardly believe what had happened.
A. contemplated B. reviewed C. reflected D. weighed
5. There was a huge ___________ of applause when the star of the show appeared.
A. bout B. stint C. round D. spate
6. As he accepted the award, his voice ___________ with emotion.
A. quivered B. flinched C. cringed D. winced
7. Rose has always had a ___________ interest in matters to do with the environment.
A. fierce B. sharp C. grave D. keen
8. By the ___________ of it, the economy will improve over the next few months.
A. face B. impression C. evidence D. look
9. Tim and Alan have never got on well and there is a lot of ___________ feeling between them.
A. cross B. adverse C. ill D. vile
10. Peter has now arrived late for work three days in a ___________ .
A. line B. sequence C. series D. row
11. Harry doesn’t ___________ to great fame and fortune; he just wants to make a decent living.
A. crave B. hanker C. yearn D. aspire
12. A lot of people are ___________ to the damage that is being done to the environment.
A. blind B. unacquainted C. uninitiated D. ignorant
13. She showed little ___________ of the problems we were facing.
A. affinity B. appreciation C. regard D. sensitivity
14. This is the ___________ timetable for the conference – it may change later.
A. conditional B. provisional C. indeterminate D. indefinite
15. They worked for six ___________ hours without a break.
A. solid B. incessant C. perpetual D. constant
16. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but ___________ I haven’t had a reply.
A. as yet B. so long C. just now D. these days
17. I couldn’t stop myself from ___________ with boredom during the lecture.
A. sighing B. panting C. blowing D. gasping
18. She didn’t show even a ___________ of emotion when the court found her guilty.
A. wink B. flicker C. flash D. gleam
19. The manager’s future ___________ whether the team wins or loses this one game.
A. stems from B. derives from C. counts on D. rests on
20. Sam has always taken the ___________ that there is more to life than money.
A. view B. outlook C. belief D. opinion
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on
the right.
When Bryan Ferry recorded his solo album, Another Time,
Another Place, in 1974, he was an apparently unstoppable, 1. ________ 1. __________________
(EXHAUST) creative force. His band, Roxy Music, was barely two
years old. During a brief and 2. ________ (METEOR) ascent, the band 2. __________________
had released three albums and, under Ferry’s close 3. ________ (ART)
guidance, refashioned the rock’n roll experience as a 4. ________ 3. __________________
(WEIRD) costumed trip around some 5. ________ (FUTURE) archive.
6. ________ (WHERE) between global engagements with Roxy music, 4. __________________
Ferry had found time to launch a solo career seemingly dedicated to 7.
________ (HONOR) the songs he grew up listening to. 5. __________________
Nowadays, albums of old hits (cover versions) are a standard
career ploy, but back in 1973 such retrospective dalliance was simply 6. __________________
not the done thing amongst rock musicians. Neither was posing for your
sleeve photo in full evening dress, like a posh matinee idol from the 7. __________________
1940s. But 8. ________ (LOOSE) the iron grip of 9. ________
(CONFORM) rock behavior was 10. ________ (PRECISION) Ferry’s 8. __________________
point, and he had more than enough musical wit and wisdom to back up
these outlandish postures. 9. __________________

10. __________________

Part 3: Correcting mistakes: The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and
correct them. Write your answers in the space provided on the right.
Tourism is now among the world’s most important industries,
generate jobs and profits worth billions of pounds. At the same time, 1.___________________
however, mass tourism can have dire effects on the people and places
2. __________________
they embraces – both tourists and the societies and human environments
they visit. We are increasingly familiar with some of the worst effect of
3.___________________
unthinking, unmanaged, sustainable tourism: previous undeveloped
coastal villages that have become sprawling, charmless towns, their seas 4. __________________
poisonous by sewage, denuded of wildlife, their beaches stained by litter
5. __________________
and empty tubes of sun cream. Historic towns, their streets now choking
with traffic, their temples, churches and cathedrals seemingly reduced to
6. __________________
backdrop for holiday snaps that proclaim, “Been there, Done that”. Some
of the world’s richest environments were bruised by the tourist onslaught, 7. __________________
their most distinctive wildlife driven to near-extinction, with wider
8. __________________
environmental impacts caused by the fuel-hungry transport systems used
to take holidaying travelers around the world and back again.
9. __________________

10. _________________

Part 4: Fill in the blanks with suitable particles.

1. They offered to pay half the expenses and he closed _______ the offer at once.
2. My horse was entered _______ the Derby, but he came in last.
3. He had to rub _______ his French to help his son when he started to learn it at school.
4. That chair is not very strong. Do you think it is _______ your weight?
5. The company has laid _______ strict procedures for this kind of situation.
6. Mark and Sara really hit it ______ at the party.
7. Jane had a difficult role to play, but she carried it _______.
8. Sitting in the damp brought _______ his rheumatism.
9. This car is playing _______ again. It won’t start.
10. Slowly the realization that I had won began to sink _______.
III. READING.
Part 1. For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.
Nature’s clock
Our biological clocks govern almost every aspect of our life. Our sensitivity to stimuli (1) _______
over the course of the day, and our ability to perform certain functions is subject to fluctuations.
Consequently, there is an (2) _______ time for tasks such as making decisions: around the middle of the
day. Anything that (3) _______ physical co-ordination, on the other hand, is best attempted in the early
evening. What is more, there is a dramatic drop in performance if these activities are carried out at other
times. The risk of accident in a factory, for example, is 20% higher during the night (4) _______.
Primitive humans lived their lives in tune with the daily cycle of light and dark. Today we are
firmly convinced that we can (5) _______ schedules on our life at (6) _______. Sooner or later, however,
we pay a (7) _______ for ignoring our natural rhythms. A good example is jet lag, caused when we confuse
our body’s biological clocks by crossing several time (8) _______. People suffering from jet lag can take
several days to adjust to new environments, and have a reduced ability to make decisions, which is a
worrying thought, as serious (9) _______ of judgement can be made. And this may be just the (10)
_______ of the iceberg.
Question 1: A. modifies B. ranges C. varies D. wavers
Question 2: A. peak B. optimum C. maximum D. summit
Question 3: A. requests B. demands C. dictates D. stipulates
Question 4: A. shift B. labor C. duty D. work
Question 5: A. blame B. base C. emphasize D. impose
Question 6: A. stake B. best C. most D. will
Question 7: A. price B. fine C. fee D. cost
Question 8: A. warps B. trials C. spans D. zones
Question 9: A. errors B. inaccuracies C. mistakes D. fallacies
Question 10: A. peak B. pinnacle C. top D. tip
Part 2: Fill in each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Evolution and children
If we are asked to envisage an archetypal human 1. ________, the picture that comes into our minds
may be male or female. It may be black, white or yellow, but it will almost certainly be an adult. We take it
for granted that 2. ________ is the meaningful part of our existence, and everything prior to it is merely
preparation. The old adage quoted by Samuel Butler is often 3. ________ but has not yet been fully
assimilated: “A hen is an egg's way of making another 4. ________.” It is very difficult for any of us to
think of 5. ________ as a baby's way of making another baby.
So there is a tendency in discussions about human evolution to overlook the fact that at every step
of the journey there were not only males and females, but also babies, infants and children, and 6.
________ selection would never have favoured one age group at too great a cost to 7. ________ of the
others.
 8. ________ children as smaller, imperfect copies of ourselves, we explain much of their behaviour
in the way we explain the rough-and-tumble play of cubs and kittens, calling it “preparation for adult life”
or “developing the skills that they will later need.” That is strange, because it is one of the inviolable tenets
of evolutionary theory that what an animal is or 9. ________ is governed by events that have happened,
10. ________ events that are going to happen. Only in describing the young is it acceptable to believe that
a mammal's behaviour is governed by the future that awaits it, rather than the history that lies behind it.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
Smart Energy
The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used.
In some major oil producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are
increasing fears of global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the
switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply
and use of electricity. [A] Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as consumers
switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles. [B] Secondly,
there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated,
but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable
sources. [C] To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology.
[D] This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of
power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power
network.
Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the
electricity network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply
and demand and improve engineer's ability to manage the system. With better information
about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity
delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon
emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and
maintenance costs.
Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to
collect real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs
throughout the day will give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply
greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use
their washing machines at night. Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or
telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely.
Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power, appliances
can be set to run directly from on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the grid.
With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the
supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are
notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch
to alternative energy sources, is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to
increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day
or year. With alternative sources, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or
system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store
energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times.
A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are
located in remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently
a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully,
with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the
reinforcement or construction costs.
Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test
it are already underway. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can
be used in their homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of
demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could practically work,
and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. It is likely that technology
will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods which will provide initial carbon
savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date. Cities are prime
candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high
energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a
range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging
electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year
2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our
behaviour.
1. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries?
A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more.
B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to.
C. The supply of oil is unpredictable.
D. Global warming is more sever here than in other countries.
2. Where in paragraph 1 can the following sentence be placed?
There is also likely more electricity generation centres, as households and communities take up the
opportunity to install photovoltaic cells and small scale wind turbines.
A B C D
3. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers?
A. It can reduce their electricity bills.
B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using.
C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home.
D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances.
4. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power?
A. They do not provide much energy.
B. They often cause system failure and blackouts.
C. They do not supply a continuous flow of energy.
D .They can't be used at off-peak times.
5. In paragraph 5, what can be inferred about cities in the future?
A. More people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays.
B. People in cities will be using cars and buses powered by electricity.
C. All buildings will generate their own electricity.
 D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities.
6. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by:
A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone
7. The word 'underway' in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to:
A. permanent B. complete C. beneficial D. in progress
8. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6).
A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first.
B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology.
C. To summarise the main ideas in the previous paragraphs.
D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced.
9. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology?
A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first.
B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first.
C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first.
D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first.
10. The word “infancy” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to:
A. completion B. beginning C. old age D. malnutrition
Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions.
From man’s first steps to the year ‘0’ was a period like no other in the history of
invention. Never again would man’s survival be so dependent on his ability to invent ways
to solve fundamental problems. And never again would man’s technological creativity be
the most significant factor in his evolution and the establishing of civilization.
By the time modern man (homo sapiens or ‘man-the-wise’) appeared, probably
somewhere in Africa between 100,000 and 250,000 years ago, his forefathers, the early
hominids, had already invented stone tools. It is possible that they had also manufactured
crude canoes and shelters. However, it would take many more years and a succession of
vital inventions for man to evolve from a primitive, nomadic hunter-gatherer to the highly
technologically literate citizen of the time of the Roman Empire.
We like to think that we are currently living through a period when technology has an
unparalleled hold on society, but it is nothing compared with that of the ancient world,
when invention and technology were the most powerful forces shaping civilization.
Throughout the ancient world, technology was the one factor that made all the other
changes – social, political and cultural – possible. Without the inventions of ink and
papyrus, many of man’s ideas would not have spread as fast nor as widely. Without
weapons and, later, the wheel, armies would not have conquered new territories as quickly.
The single largest step in early man’s social evolution came around 10,000 years ago
with the invention of animal husbandry and agriculture. This enabled him to progress from
living in nomadic communities to settling in villages and small towns. The progress was
brought about by a combination of climatic change and man’s invention of more efficient
hunting tools, of a means of controlling and utilising fire to clear undergrowth and of ways
of building lasting shelters. It led to a massive growth in population, which in turn triggered
a further rapid increase in technological innovation.
Most of this change took place in the eastern Mediterranean, where the climate and the
annual flooding of fertile soils favoured the development of agriculture and later of cities
such as Babylon. By around 6500 BCE, Jericho is believed to have been the largest city in
the world, with a population of 2,500.
Four thousand years later, the urban revolution had brought about a momentous
cultural transition that in turn generated new needs. These were met by a quantum leap in
technological innovation and the establishment of craftsmen and scientists. For the first
time, manufacturing became established as man invented ways of making textiles, firing
ceramics, producing metalwork and processing foodstuffs. This prompted barter methods to
evolve into more sophisticated trading arrangements, culminating in the invention of tokens
or early money.
With these technological changes came a corresponding increase in the complexity of the
social and political organization of human groups, which in turn necessitated the invention
of written language, first to keep track of trading arrangements, then to communicate and
record events, processes, philosophies and, of course, inventions.
The history of invention is littered with inventions that had little or no purpose and
never caught on, but this was still a period of invention for necessity’s sake. It would be
some time before an invention would be greeted with questions as to its role – and even
longer until Michael Faraday would retort, ‘What use is a baby?’ when asked what use his
dynamo had.
It was also a period when science and technology’s symbiotic
relationship was reversed. Technology, now often the application of
scientific discovery and observation, predated science and in this period
was empirical and handed down through the generations. By the time
the city states were flowering in the early centuries BCE, scientist-
inventors began to emerge. Figures such as Hero, Strato, Ctesibius and
Philon used observations and measurements of the physical and natural
world to devise inventions. However, they were all minnows when
compared with Archimedes. Here was a man of the caliber that the world
would not see again until Sir Isaac Newton in the 17th century. The
inventor had truly arrived.
Questions 1 – 7:
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1. Man was more creative when civilizations were growing.
2. Before the arrival of modern man there were no tools.
3. Technology nowadays does not drive our society as much as it did in ancient civilizations.
4. If ink and papyrus had not been invented, ideas wouldn’t have been disseminated easily.
5. The cultivation of crops and the rearing of animals was by far the biggest achievement of early man.
6. An increase in population led to more advances in the technology of early man.
7. Jericho was the world’s first large city.
Questions 8 – 10:
Classify the following events according to whether the reader states that they occurred during
A. the early evolution of nomadic man
B. the early urban period
C. the period of the urban revolution
8. The recording of a wide range of human activity.
9. The ability to construct stronger buildings.
10. The use of tokens.
IV. WRITING:
Part 1: A. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted. (instrumental)
David _____________________________ of the proposal.
2. If you hadn't changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine. (stuck)
Had _________________________________ agreed, everything would have been fine.
3. I think you should have some consideration for those who don't have lives as privileged as yours.
(spare)
I think you should ________________________ lives aren't as privileged as yours.
4. We decided to stay for longer because we were so thrilled by the place. (prolong)
We decided to __________________________________ we by the place.
5. Competitors were amazed by how shrewdly he conducted his business affairs. (marveled)
Competitors ____________________________ which he conducted his business affairs.
B. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence.
1. There are plans to close down the cinema due to poor attendance levels.
The cinema is under _____________________________ due to poor attendance levels.
2. The machine looks dangerous, but I'll believe it's safe if you say so.
The machine doesn't look safe, but I’ll take _____________________________ it.
3. Once signed, this contract is binding.
As soon as you sign, you ___________________________ this contract.
4. Looking back, I really believe I did everything I could to stop her.
I can honestly say, with hindsight, _________________________________ more to stop her.
5. She has become a famous novelist.
She has made ____________________________________ a novelist.
Part 2. Essay writing.
Advertisements on mass media, especially on TV are misleading people, making them buy
things that are not as good as they are advertised. Hence, some people think that advertising should
be banned.
What is your opinion? Write an essay of about 250 words to present your point of view on this
issue. Use specific reasons and details to support your position.