JEE Main 2020 (09 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper With Answer Keys - MathonGo

JEE Main 2020 (09 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper
Question Paper MathonGo
Q1. For the four sets of three measured physical quantities as given below. Which of the
following options is correct?

(i) A1 = 24.36, B1 = 0.0724, C1 = 256.2
(ii) A2 = 24.44, B2 = 16.082, C2 = 240.2
(iii) A3 = 25.2, B3 = 19.2812, C3 = 236.183
(iv) A4 = 25, B4 = 236.191, C4 = 19.5
(1) A4 + B4 + C4 < A1 + B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C2

(2) A1 + B1 + C1 = A2 + B2 + C2 = A3 + B3 + C3 = A4 + B4 + C4
(3) A1 + B1 + C1 < A2 + B2 + C2 = A3 + B3 + C3 < A4 + B4 + C4
(4) A1 + B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C2 < A4 + B4 + C4
Q2. A spring mass system (mass m, spring constant k and natural length l ) rests in
equilibrium on a horizontal disc. The free end of the spring is fixed at the centre of the disc.
If the disc together with spring mass system rotates about it's axis with an angular velocity
ω,(k >> mω2 ) the relative change in the length of the spring is best given by the option:
(1) √ 23 ( mω )
2
k
2mω2
(2) k
mω2
(3) k
mω2
(4) 3k
Q3. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with an initial velocity of 3.0 îm/s and moves
in the x − y plane with a constant acceleration (6.0 î + 4.0 ĵ)m/s2 . The x− coordinate of
the particle at the instant when its y− coordinate is 32m is D meters. The value of D is:
(1) 32
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 40
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Q4. A rod of length l has non-uniform linear mass density given by ρ(x)= a + b( x ) ,
l
where a and b are constants and 0 ≤ x ≤ l The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod
is at:
(1) 2 ( 2a+b )L
3 a+b
(2) 4 ( 3a+b )L
3 2a+b
(3) 43 ( 2a+3b
a+b
)L
(4) 32 ( 2a+b
3a+b
)L
Q5. A particle of mass m is projected with a speed u from the ground at an angle θ = π3 w.r.t.
horizontal (x-axis). When it has reached its maximum height, it collides completely
inelastically with another particle of the same mass and velocity u î. The horizontal distance
covered by the combined mass before reaching the ground is:

3 √3 u2
(1) 8 g
√
3 2 u2
(2) 4 g
5 u2
(3) 8 g
2
(4) 2√2 ug
Q6. A uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertia I and radius R is free to rotate about its
centre of mass (see fig). A massless string is wrapped over its rim and two blocks of masses
m1 and m2 (m1 > m2 ) are attached to the ends of the string. The system Is released from
rest. The angular speed of the wheel when m1 descends by a distance h is:
(1) [ ]
2 ( m1 −m2 ) gh 2
( m1 +m2 ) R2 +I
1
(2) [ ( m +m ]
2 ( m1 +m2 ) gh 2
2 ) R +I
2
1
1
(3) [ ( m +m ] gh
( m1 −m2 ) 2
2 +1
1 2 )R
1
(4) [ ] gh
m1 +m2 2
( m1 +m2 ) R2 +I
Q7. Planet A has mass M and radius R. Planet B has half the mass and half the radius of
Planet A. If the escape velocities from the Planets A and B are vA and vB , respectively, then
vA n
vB
= 4
. The value of n is:
(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Q8. Two steel wires having same length are suspended from a ceiling under the same load. If
the ratio of their energy stored per unit volume is 1 : 4, the ratio of their diameters is:
(1) √2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : √2
Q9. A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immersed in a liquid of
density ρ and surface tension T . The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface
tension applies an upward force on the droplet):
(1) r = √ 3(d+ρ)g
2T
(2) r = √ (d−ρ)g
T
(3) r = √ (d+ρ)g
T
(4) r = √ (2d−ρ)g
3T
Q10. Starting at temperature 300K, one mole of an ideal diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) is first
V1
compressed adiabatically from volume V1 to V2 = 16
. It is then allowed to expand
isobarically to volume 2V2 . If all the processes are the quasi-static then the final
temperature of the gas (in o K ) is (to the nearest integer) ___________.
Q11. Two gases - argon (atomic radius 0.07nm, atomic weight 40 ) and xenon (atomic radius
0.1nm, atomic weight 140 ) have the same number density and are at the same temperature.
The ratio of their respective mean free times is closest to:
(1) 3.67
(2) 1.83
(3) 2.3
(4) 4.67
Q12. A wire of length L and mass per unit length 6.0 × 10−3 kg m−1 is put under tension of
540 N. Two consecutive frequencies that it resonates at are: 420 Hz and 490 Hz. Then L in
meters is :
(1) 2.1m
(2) 1.1m
(3) 8.1m
(4) 5.1m
→
Q13. An electric field E = 4x î −(y 2 + 1) ĵN/C passes through the box shown in figure.
The flux of the electric field through surfaces ABCD and BCGF are marked as ϕI and ϕII
respectively. The difference between (ϕI − ϕII ) is (in Nm2 /C ) ____________.
Q14. In a meter bridge experiment S is a standard resistance. R is a resistance wire. It is
found that balancing length is l = 25cm. If R is replaced by a wire of hall length and half
diameter that of R of same material, then the balancing distance l' (in cm ) will now be
______________.
Q15. A small circular loop of conducting wire has radius a and carries current I. It is placed
in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to its plane such that when rotated slightly
about its diameter and released, it starts performing simple harmonic motion of time period
T . The mass of the loop is m then:
(1) T = √ iB
2m
(2) T = √ 2iB
πm
(3) T = √ iB
2πm
(4) T = √ πm
iB
Q16. An electron gun is placed inside a long solenoid of radius R on its axis. The solenoid
has n turns/length and carries a current I. The electron gun shoots an electron along the
radius of the solenoid with speed v. If the electron does not hit the surface of the solenoid,
maximum possible value of v is (all symbols have their standard meaning):
eμ0 nIR
(1) m
eμ0 nIR
(2) 2m
eμ0 nIR
(3) 4m
2eμ0 nIR
(4) m
Q17. In LC circuit the inductance L = 40 mH and capacitance C = 100 μF. If a voltage
V (t)= 10sin(314t) is applied to the circuit, the current in the circuit is given as:
(1) 0.52 cos(314t)

(2) 10 cos(314t)
(3) 5.2 cos(314t)
(4) 0.52 sin(314t)
Q18. Two identical capacitors A and B, charged to the same potential 5V are connected in
two different circuits as shown below at time t = 0. If the charge on capacitors A and B at
time t = CR is QA and QB respectively, then (Here e is the base of natural logarithm)
VC CV
(1) QA = e , QB = 2
(2) QA = V C, QB = CV
VC
(3) QA = V C, QB = e
CV VC
(4) QA = 2
, QB = e
î+ ĵ
Q19. A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the direction
√2
, with its
polarization along the direction k̂. The correct form of the magnetic field of the wave would
be (here B0 is an appropriate constant):
)
î− ĵ î+ ĵ
(1) B0 cos(ωt − k
√2 √2
)
ĵ− î î+ ĵ
(2) B0 cos(ωt + k
√2 √2
)
î+ ĵ
(3) B0 k̂cos(ωt − k √2
)
î+ ĵ î+ ĵ
(4) B0 √2
cos(ωt − k √2
Q20. There is a small source of light at some depth below the surface of water (refractive
4
index = 3
) in a tank of large cross sectional surface area. Neglecting any reflection from
the bottom and absorption by water, percentage of light that emerges out of surface is
(nearly):
[Use the fact that surface area of a spherical cap of height h and radius of curvature r is
2πrh ]
(1) 21%
(2) 34%
(3) 17%
(4) 50%
Q21. In a Young's double slit experiment 15 fringes are observed on a small portion of the
screen when light of wavelength 500 nm is used. Ten fringes are observed on the same
section of the screen when another light source of wavelength λ is used. Then the value of λ
is (in nm ) __________.
Q22. An electron of mass m and magnitude of charge e at rest, gets accelerated by a constant
electric field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at a time t is
(ignore relativistic effects)
dλ h
(1) dt
= − eEt
dλ 2h
(2) dt
= − eEt
dλ 2h
(3) dt
= − eEt 2
dλ h
(4) dt
= − eEt 2
Q23. The energy required to ionise a hydrogen like ion in its ground state is 9 Rydbergs.
What is the wavelength of the radiation emitted when the electron in this ion jumps from the
second excited stale to the ground state?
(1) 24. 2nm

(2) 11.4nm
(3) 35.8nm
(4) 8.6nm
Q24. The current i in the network is
(1) 0.2 A
(2) 0.6 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) 0 A
Q25. In the circuit shown below, is working as a 8 V dc regulated voltage source. When
12 V is used as an input, the power dissipated (in mW ) in each diode is (Considering both
zener diodes are identical)
Q26. The first and second ionisation enthalpies of a metal are 496 and 4560 kJ mol−1 ,
respectively. How many moles of HCl and H2 SO4 , respectively, will be needed to react
completely with 1 mole of the metal hydroxide?
(1) 1 and 1
(2) 2 and 0.5

(3) 1 and 2
(4) 1 and 0.5
Q27. A mixture of gases O2 , H2 and CO are taken in a closed vessel containing charcoal The
graph that represents the correct behaviour of pressure with time is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q28. The true statement amongst the following is:
(1) Both ΔS and S are functions of temperature.

(2) Both S and ΔS are not functions of temperature
(3) S is not a function of temperature but ΔS is a function of temperature
(4) S is a function of temperature but ΔS is not a function of temperature
Q29. In the figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is in equilibrium with
product B (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is (approx):
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 1
(4) 2
−31
Q30. The solubility product of Cr(OH)3 at 298K is 6.0 × 10 . The concentration of
hydroxide ions in a saturated solution of Cr(OH)3 will be
1
(1) (2.22 × 10−31 ) 4

1
(2) (18 × 10−31 ) 4

1
(3) (18 × 10−31 ) 2

1
(4) (4.86 × 10−29 ) 4
Q31. 5g of zinc is treated separately with an excess of
(a) dilute hydrochloric acid and

(b) aqueous sodium hydroxide.
The ratio of the volumes of H2 evolved in these two reactions is:
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 1
Q32. Among the statements (a)−(d), the correct ones are:
(a) Lithium has the highest hydration enthalpy among the alkali metals.
(b) Lithium chloride is insoluble in pyridine.
(c) Lithium cannot form ethynide upon its reaction with ethyne.
(d) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with H2 O .
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only
Q33. The reaction of H3 N3 B3 Cl3 (A) with LiBH4 in tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic
benzene (B) . Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to H3 N3 B3 (Me)3 . Compounds
(B) and (C) respectively, are:
(1) Bogging god MeBr

(2) Diborane and MeMgBr
(3) Boron nitride and MeBr
(4) Borazine and MeMgBr
Q34. Which of the following has the shortest C − Cl bond?
(1) Cl − CH = CH2
(2) Cl − CH = CH − NO2
(3) Cl − CH = CH − CH3
(4) Cl − CH = CH − OCH3
Q35. Which of the following reactions will not produce a racemic product ?
(1)
(2)
HBr
(3) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 −→
(4)
Q36. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is:
(1) 24
(2) 6
(3) 18
(4) 12
Q37. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen required (in ppm ):
(1) for sustaining life in a water body.

(2) by bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample.
(3) for the photochemical breakdown of waste present in 1m3 volume of a water body
(4) by anaerobic bacteria to breakdown. inorganic waste present in a water body.
Q38. 10.30mg of O2 is dissolved into a liter of sea water of density 1.03g/mL . The
concentration of O2 in ppm is _____________.
Q39. A cylinder containing an ideal gas ( 0.1mol of 1.0dm3 ) is in thermal equilibrium with
a large volume of 0.5 molal aqueous solution of ethylene glycol at its freezing point. If the
stoppers S1 and S2 (as shown in the figure) are suddenly withdrawn, the volume of the gas
in litres after equilibrium is achieved will be _____________.
(Given, Kf (water)= 2.0Kkgmol−1 , R = 0.08dm3 atmK−1 mol−1 )
Q40. Amongst the following, the form of water with the lowest ionic conductance at 298K
is:
(1) distilled water

(2) saline water used for intravenous injection
(3) water from a well
(4) sea water
Q41. A sample of milk splits after 60min . at 300K and after 40min . at 400K when the
population of Iactobacillus acidophilus in it doubles. The activation energy (in kJ / mol ) for
this process is closest to ______________.
(Given, R = 8.3Jmol−1 K−1 , ln( 23 )= 0.4, e−3 = 4.0 )
Q42. The sum of the total number of bonds between chromium and oxygen atoms in
chromate and dichromate ions is ______________.
Q43. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moments of the following complexes is:
(I) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Br2

(II) Na4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
(III) Na3 [Fe(C2 O4 )3 ](Δ0 > P)

(IV) (Et4 N)2 [CoCl4 ]
(1) (III)>(I)>(IV)>(II)
(2) (III)>(I)>(II)>(IV)
(3) (I)>(IV)>(III)>(II)
(4) (II)≈(I)>(IV)>(III)
o
Q44. The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] that has/ have a Cl − Co − Cl angle of 90 , is/are:
(1) meridional and trans

(2) cis and trans
(3) trans only
(4) cis only
Q45. In the following reaction A is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
( i ) CH3 MBr Cu
Q46. Consider the following reactions A B 573K 2 − methyl − 2 − butene . The
(ii)H3 O+
mass percentage of carbon in A is _____________.
Q47. Consider the following reactions,
The compound [P] is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q48. The decreasing order of basicity of the following amines is:
(1) (I)>(III)>(IV)>(II)
(2) (III)>(I)>(II)>(IV)
(3) (II)>(III)>(IV)>(I)
(4) (III)>(II)>(I)>(IV)
Q49. Which polymer has 'chiral' monomer(s)?
(1) Neoprene
(2) Buna −N
(3) Nylon 6,6
(4) PHBV
Q50. A, B and C are three biomolecules. The results of the tests performed on them are
given below:
Molisch's test Barfoed Test Biuret Test
A Positive Negative Negative
B Positive Positive Negative
C Negative Negative Positive
A, B and C are respectively:
(1) A = Glucose, B = Fructose C = Albumin

(2) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Albumin
(3) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Alanine
(4) A = Lactose, B = Fructose, C = Alanine
Q51. If A ={x ∈ R :|x|< 2} and B ={x ∈ R :|x − 2|≥ 3}; then
(1) A ∩ B =(−2, −1)
(2) B − A = R −(−2, 5)
(3) A ∪ B = R −(2, 5)
(4) A − B =[−1, 2)
Q52. Let a, b ∈ R, a ≠ 0 be such that the equation, ax2 − 2bx + 5 = 0 has a repeated root
α, which is also a root of the equation, x2 − 2bx − 10 = 0. If β is the other root of this
equation, then α2 + β 2 is equal to:
(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 28
(4) 24
Q53. If z is a complex number satisfying |Re(z)|+|Im(z)|= 4, then |z| cannot be
(1) √
17
2
(2) √10
(3) √7
(4) √8
100
Q54. Let an be the nth term of a G.P. of positive terms. If ∑n=1 a2n+1 = 200 and
∑100 200
n=1 a2n = 100, then ∑n=1 an is equal to:
(1) 300
(2) 225
(3) 175
(4) 150
∞ ∞
Q55. If x = ∑n=0 (−1) tan2 θ and y = ∑n=0 cos2n θ, for 0 < θ <
n π
4
, then:
(1) x(1 + y)= 1
(2) y(1 − x)= 1

(3) y(1 + x)= 1
(4) x(1 − y)= 1
Q56. The number of terms common to the two A.P.’s 3, 7, 11, … , 407 and 2, 9, 16, … , 709
is ____________.
16
Q57. In the expansion of ( cos + x sin θ ) , if l1 is the least value of the term independent of
x 1
θ
π π
x when 8
≤θ≤ 4
and l2 is the least value of the term independent of x when
π π
16
≤θ≤ 8
, then the ratio l2 : l1 is equal to:
(1) 1 : 8
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 1 : 16
25
Q58. If Cr ≡ Cr and C0 + 5 ∙ C1 + 9 ∙ C2 + … +(101)∙C25 = 225 ∙ k, then k is equal
to ____________.
1
Q59. If one end of a focal chord AB of the parabola y 2 = 8x is at A( , −2), then the
2
equation of the tangent to it at B is:
(1) 2x + y − 24 = 0
(2) x − 2y + 8 = 0
(3) x + 2y + 8 = 0
(4) 2x − y − 24 = 0
4
Q60. The length of the minor axis (along y-axis) of an ellipse in the standard form is . If
√3
this ellipse touches the line x + 6y = 8 then its eccentricity is:
(1) 12 √ 11
3
(2) √ 6
5
(3) 2 √ 3
1 5
(4) 13 √ 11
3
Q61. If p →(p ∧ ~q) is false, then the truth values of p and q are respectively
(1) F , F
(2) T , F
(3) T , T
(4) F , T
Q62. The following system of linear equations
7x + 6y − 2z = 0
3x + 4y + 2z = 0
x − 2y − 6z = 0, has
(1) infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z) satisfying y = 2z

(2) no solution
(3) infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z) satisfying x = 2z

(4) only the trivial solution
Q63. Let a − 2b + c = 1.
∣x + a x + 2 x + 1∣
If f(x)=∣ x + b x + 3 x + 2 ∣, then:
∣ ∣
∣x + c x + 4 x + 3∣
(1) f(−50)= 501

(2) f(−50)= −1
(3) f(50)= −501
(4) f(50)= 1
Q64. Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤ t and lim x[ x ]= A. Then the function,
4
x→0
f(x)=[x2 ]sin(πx) is discontinuous, when x is equal to:
(1) √A + 1
(2) √A + 5
(3) √A + 21
(4) √A
d2y
Q65. If x = 2 sin θ − sin 2θ and y = 2 cos θ − cos 2θ , θ ∈[0, 2π], then at θ = π is:
dx2
3
(1) 4
(2) − 38
3
(3) 2
(4) − 34
Q66. Let f and g be differentiable functions on R such that fog is the identity function. If for
some a, b ∈ R, g ' (a)= 5 and g(a)= b, then f ' (b) is equal to:
1
(1) 5
(2) 1
(3) 5
2
(4) 5
Q67. If the curves, x2 − 6x + y 2 + 8 = 0 and x2 − 8y + y 2 + 16 − k = 0, (k > 0) touch
each other at a point, then the largest value of k is ____________.
Q68.
Let a function f :[0, 5]→ R be continuous, f(1)= 3 and F be defined as:

x t
F (x)= ∫1 t2 g(t)dt, where g(t)= ∫1 f(u)du.
Then for the function F (x), the point x = 1 is:
(1) a point of local minima

(2) not a critical point
(3) a point of local maxima

(4) a point of inflection
dθ
Q69. If ∫ cos2 θ ( tan 2θ+sec 2θ ) = λ tan θ + 2 loge |f(θ)|+C where C is a constant of
integration, then the ordered pair (λ, f(θ)) is equal to:
(1) (1, 1 − tan θ)

(2) (−1, 1 − tan θ)
(3) (−1, 1 + tan θ)

(4) (1, 1 + tan θ)
⎧
⎪
⎪
x, 0 ≤ x < 12
Q70. Given: f(x)=⎨
1
, x = 12
⎪
⎪
⎩ 1 − x, 1 < x ≤ 1
2
2
2
and g(x)= (x − 1
2
) , x ∈ R. Then, the area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the
curves, y = f(x) and y = g(x) between the lines 2x = 1 and 2x = √3, is:
1 √3
(1) 3
+ 4
√3
(2) 4
− 13
1 √3
(3) 2
− 4
1 √3
(4) 2
+ 4
dy xy
Q71. If
dx
= x2 +y 2
; y(1)= 1; then a value of x satisfying y(x)= e is:
(1) 12 √3e
e
(2) √2
(3) √2e
(4) √3e
→ → → → ∣→ ∣ → →
Q72. Let a , b and c be three vectors such that ∣∣ a ∣∣= √3, ∣ b ∣= 5, b ∙ c = 10 and the
∣ ∣
→ → → → →
angle between b and c is π3 . If a is perpendicular to the vector b × c , then
∣→ → → ∣
∣ a ×( b × c )∣ is equal to ____________.
∣ ∣
Q73. If the distance between the plane, 23x − 10y − 2z + 48 = 0 and the plane containing
x+1 y−3 z+1 x+3 y+2 z−1 k
the lines 2
= 4
= 3
and 2
= 6
= λ
(λ ∈ R) is equal to √633
, then k is
equal to ____________.
Q74. If 10 different balls are to be placed in 4 distinct boxes at random, then the probability
that two of these boxes contain exactly 2 and 3 balls is:

965
(1)
211
965
(2)
210
945
(3)
210
945
(4)
211
Q75. A random variable X has the following probability distribution:

X: 1 2 3 4 5
P (X): k2 2k k 2k 5k2
Then, P (X > 2) is equal to:
7
(1) 12
1
(2) 36
1
(3) 6
23
(4) 36
Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (3) Q3 (3) Q4 (2)
Q5 (1) Q6 (1) Q7 (1) Q8 (1)
Q9 (4) Q10 (1819) Q11 (2) Q12 (1)
Q13 (48) Q14 (40) Q15 (3) Q16 (1)
Q17 (1) Q18 (3) Q19 (1) Q20 (3)
Q21 (750) Q22 (4) Q23 (2) Q24 (3)
Q25 (40) Q26 (4) Q27 (2) Q28 (1)
Q29 (4) Q30 (2) Q31 (2) Q32 (2)
Q33 (4) Q34 (2) Q35 (4) Q36 (3)
Q37 (2) Q38 (10) Q39 (2.18) Q40 (1)
Q41 (3.98) Q42 (12) Q43 (3) Q44 (4)
Q45 (1) Q46 (66.67) Q47 (3) Q48 (4)
Q49 (4) Q50 (2) Q51 (2) Q52 (1)
Q53 (3) Q54 (4) Q55 (2) Q56 (14)
Q57 (2) Q58 (51) Q59 (2) Q60 (1)
Q61 (3) Q62 (3) Q63 (4) Q64 (1)
Q65 (2) Q66 (1) Q67 (36) Q68 (1)
Q69 (3) Q70 (2) Q71 (4) Q72 (30)
Q73 (3) Q74 (3) Q75 (4)

JEE Main 2020 (09 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper With Answer Keys - MathonGo

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JEE Main 2020 (09 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper With Answer Keys - MathonGo

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JEE Main 2020 (09 Jan Shift 2) JEE Main Previous Year Paper

Question Paper MathonGo

following options is correct?

(1) A4 + B4 + C4 < A1 + B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C2

covered by the combined mass before reaching the ground is:

tension applies an upward force on the droplet):

temperature of the gas (in o K ) is (to the nearest integer) ___________.

Q14. In a meter bridge experiment S is a standard resistance. R is a resistance wire. It is

T . The mass of the loop is m then:

Q17. In LC circuit the inductance L = 40 mH and capacitance C = 100 μF. If a voltage

(1) 0.52 cos(314t)

(4) 0.52 sin(314t)

be (here B0 is an appropriate constant):

(1) 24. 2nm

Q24. The current i in the network is

(2) 2 and 0.5

(4) 1 and 0.5

Q28. The true statement amongst the following is:

(1) Both ΔS and S are functions of temperature.

(4) S is a function of temperature but ΔS is not a function of temperature

product B (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is (approx):

(1) (2.22 × 10−31 ) 4

(2) (18 × 10−31 ) 4

(3) (18 × 10−31 ) 2

(4) (4.86 × 10−29 ) 4

Q31. 5g of zinc is treated separately with an excess of

(a) dilute hydrochloric acid and

Q32. Among the statements (a)−(d), the correct ones are:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(1) Bogging god MeBr

Q34. Which of the following has the shortest C − Cl bond?

Q36. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is:

(1) for sustaining life in a water body.

concentration of O2 in ppm is _____________.

(1) distilled water

(4) sea water

(Given, R = 8.3Jmol−1 K−1 , ln( 23 )= 0.4, e−3 = 4.0 )

chromate and dichromate ions is ______________.

(I) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Br2

(III) Na3 [Fe(C2 O4 )3 ](Δ0 > P)

(1) meridional and trans

Q45. In the following reaction A is

mass percentage of carbon in A is _____________.

Q47. Consider the following reactions,

The compound [P] is:

Q48. The decreasing order of basicity of the following amines is:

Q49. Which polymer has 'chiral' monomer(s)?

Molisch's test Barfoed Test Biuret Test

A Positive Negative Negative

B Positive Positive Negative

C Negative Negative Positive

A, B and C are respectively:

(1) A = Glucose, B = Fructose C = Albumin

Q51. If A ={x ∈ R :|x|< 2} and B ={x ∈ R :|x − 2|≥ 3}; then

(1) A ∩ B =(−2, −1)

Q53. If z is a complex number satisfying |Re(z)|+|Im(z)|= 4, then |z| cannot be

(1) x(1 + y)= 1

(2) y(1 − x)= 1

equation of the tangent to it at B is:

this ellipse touches the line x + 6y = 8 then its eccentricity is: