Dropper (NEET)

City Test - 02 Phase-4

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 20/10/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Units and Measurements, Mathematical Tools, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane,
Newton's Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power, Centre of Mass & System of Particles
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Redox Reaction, Atomic Structure, Solutions and Ionic
Equilibrium
Botany : Biological Classification
Zoology : Body Fluids and Circulation
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in
each Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all
questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in
the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
1. Mass m and M on pulley move 0.6 m in 4 s . What
m
is the ratio of M ?
(2)

(3)
55
(1) 11
113
(2) 117
57
(3)
55
397
(4) 403

2. A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5 ms−1 . A force

(4)
acts on it for some time in the direction of motion.
The force-time graph is shown in figure. The final
speed of the body.

4. A system consists of three masses 𝑚1 , 𝑚2 and 𝑚3

connected by a string passing over a pulley P . The
mass m1 hangs freely and 𝑚2 and 𝑚3 are on a
rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction =
𝜇).

(1) 9.25 ms −1
(2) 5 ms−1
(3) 14.25 ms−1
(4) 4.25 ms −1

3. Figures I, II, III and IV depict variation of force The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass.
with time. If initial velocity is zero, then in which The downward acceleration of mass 𝑚1 is
motion final velocity will be minimum? (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m )
𝑔(1−2𝜇)
(1) 9
2𝑔𝜇
(2)
3
𝑔(1−2𝜇)
(1) (3)
3
𝑔(1−2𝜇)
(4) 2

5. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal top. If

the coefficient of friction between the chain and
table surface is 0.50 then the maximum fraction of
length of the chain that can hang over one edge of
the table is
(1) 33.3%
[2]
 (2) 40% (1) AV 2 𝜌
(3) 50% (2) 𝐴2 𝑉𝜌
(4) 60% (3) AV𝜌2
(4) 𝐴𝑉𝜌
6. When a body slides down an inclined plane of
inclination 𝜃 and having coefficient of friction as 12. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
𝜇K , then its acceleration is given by. is the value of 9.99𝑚 − 0.0099𝑚 ?
(1) 𝑔(𝜇K sin⁡ 𝜃 + cos⁡ 𝜃) (1) 9.98 m
(2) 𝑔(𝜇𝐾 sin⁡ 𝜃 − cos⁡ 𝜃) (2) 9.980 m
(3) 𝑔(sin⁡ 𝜃 + 𝜇K cos⁡ 𝜃) (3) 9.9 m
(4) 𝑔(sin⁡ 𝜃 − 𝜇𝐾 cos⁡ 𝜃) (4) 9.9801 m

7. A balloon with mass 𝑚 is descending down with an 13. A wheel of radius 3 m rolls forward half a
acceleration a (where a < g ). How much mass revolution on a horizontal ground. The magnitude
should be removed from it so that it starts moving of the displacement of the point of the wheel
up with an acceleration a? initially in contact with the ground is:
2𝑚𝑎
(1) 𝑔+𝑎
𝑚𝑎
(2) 𝑔+𝑎
2𝑚𝑎
(3) 𝑔−𝑎
ma
(4) g−a (1) 2𝜋 m
(2) √2𝜋 m
8. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on plane of inclination (3) √𝜋 2 + 4 m
. It’s downward motion can be prevented by (4) 3√𝜋 2 + 4𝑚
applying an upward pull F and it can be made to
slide upwards by applying a force 2F. The 14. The position 𝑥 of a particle moving in one
coefficient of friction between the box and the dimension, under the action of a constant force is
inclined plane is : related to time 𝑡 by the equation, 𝑡 = √𝑥 + 3, where
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
(1) x is in metres and t in seconds. Find the position of
3 the particle when its velocity is zero.
(2) 3𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
(1) 0
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
(3) (2) 3
2
(3) 2
(4) 2𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
(4) 9
9. A unit less quantity
15. The velocity of the particle at any time 𝑡 is given by
(1) Never has a non zero dimension
v = 2t(3 − t)ms −1 . At what time is its velocity
(2) Always has a non zero dimension
maximum?
(3) May have a non zero dimension
(4) Does not exit (1) 2 seconds
(2) 1.5 seconds
(3) 1 second
10. Which one of the following are the dimensions of
pressure? (4) 5 seconds
ML
(1) T2 16. A juggler maintains four balls in motion making
𝑀
(2) each of them rise to a height of 40 m from his hand.
𝐿2 𝑇 2
M What time interval should he maintain for the
(3)
LT2 proper distance between them?
M
(4) LT (1) 1.71 seconds
(2) 2.14 seconds
11. If area (A), velocity (V) and density (𝜌) are taken (3) 1.41 seconds
as fundamental quantities, what is the dimensional (4) 4 seconds
formula for force?
[3]
17. A ball is projected vertically upwards. The times to
cross a height ℎ while ascending and while
descending are t1 and t 2 respectively. Then the (3)
velocity of projection is:
𝑔(𝑡1 +𝑡2 )
(1) 2
(2) 𝑡1 + 𝑡2
(3) 2𝑔(𝑡1 + 𝑡2 )
3
(4) 2 𝑔(𝑡1 + 𝑡2 ) (4)

18. The position-time graph for a body moving along a

straight line between O and A is shown in figure.
During its motion between O and A, how many 21. A particle moving with uniform acceleration has
times body comes to rest? average velocities v1 , v2 and v3 over the successive
intervals of time 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 and 𝑡3 respectively. The
(𝑣2 −𝑣1 )
value of 𝑣3 −𝑣2
will be:
𝑡1 −𝑡2
(1) 𝑡2 −𝑡3
𝑡1 −𝑡2
(2) 𝑡2 +𝑡3
(1) Zero 𝑡1 +𝑡2
(3) 𝑡2 −𝑡3
(2) 1 time 𝑡1 +𝑡2
(3) 2 time (4) 𝑡2 +𝑡3
(4) 3 time
22. Differentiation of 5𝑥log⁡ 5, wrt 𝑥 will be
19. A particle moving along 𝑋-axis has acceleration 𝑓, 5
(1) 𝑥
𝑡
at time t, given by f = 𝑓0 (1 − 𝑇), where f0 and t are (2) 5log⁡ 5
constants between t = 0. The instant when f = 0, 5
(3)
log⁡ 5
the particle's velocity (vx ) is:
5𝑥 2 log⁡ 5
[Take initial velocity zero]. (4)
2
(1) Zero
(2) 𝑓0 𝑇 23. A toy-gun uses a spring of force constant K. When
1
(3) 𝑓𝑇 charged before being triggered in the upward
4 0
1 direction, the spring is compressed by distance x. If
(4) 𝑓𝑇
2 0 the mass of shot is m, on being triggered it will go
upto a height of-
20. Which one of the following represents the 𝑥 − 𝑡 Kx2
(1) 𝑚𝑔
graph of two objects A and B moving with zero
𝑥2
relative speed? (2) 𝐾𝑚𝑔
K^2x2
(3) mg
(1) K𝑥 2
(4) 2mg

24. Statement I: If the internal forces are conservative,

the work done by the external force is equal to the
change in mechanical energy.
(2) Statement II: Work done on a system by all the
(external and internal) force is equal to the change
in its kinetic energy and the change in the potential
energy of a system corresponding to conservative
internal forces is equal to negative of the work done
by these forces.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
[4]
 (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. (3) 7.0 kW
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is (4) 10.2 kWs
incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is 30. Body A of mass 4 m moving with speed u collides
correct. with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The
collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the
25. Assertion: A body cannot have energy without collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding
having momentum but it can have momentum body A is:
1
without having energy. (1) 9
Reason: Momentum and energy have different 8
(2)
dimensions. 9
4
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the (3) 9
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 5
(4) 9
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. 31. A mass 𝑚 is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True. vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break
when:
26. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with (1) The mass is at the highest point
(2) The wire is horizontal
velocity v = ax 3/2 where a = 5 m−1/2 s−1 . The
(3) The mass is at the lowest point
work done by the net force during its displacement
from x = 0 to x = 2 m is: (4) Inclined at an angle of 60∘ from vertical
(1) 1.5 J
(2) 50 J 32. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y
(3) 10 J direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work
(4) 100 J done by this force to move the particle from 𝑦 = 0
to 𝑦 = 1 m is
27. The potential energy of a long spring when (1) 30 J
stretched by 2 cm is 𝑈. If the spring is stretched by (2) 5 J
8 cm , potential energy stored in it will be: (3) 25 J
(1) 16 U (4) 20 J
(2) 2𝑈
33. The centre of mass of a body:
(3) 4𝑈
(1) Depends on the choice of co-ordinate system
(4) 8𝑈
(2) Is independent of the choice of co-ordinate
system
28. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg
(3) May or may not depend on the choice of co-
(lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant
ordinate system
speed of 1.5 ms−1 . The frictional force opposing
(4) None of the above
the motion is 3000 N . The minimum power
delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is:
34. Find the position of the centre of mass of the T-
(g = 10 ms−2 )
shaped plate from O
(1) 23500
(2) 23000
(3) 20000
(4) 34500

29. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of

15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine? (𝑔 =
10 m/s 2 )
(1) 2.71 m
(1) 8.1 kW
(2) 3.5 m
(2) 12.3 kW
(3) 2 m
[5]
 (4) 2.50 m over a frictionless massless pulley. What will be the
acceleration of the centre of mass?
35. The distance between the centres of carbon and (1) 1.09 m/s2
oxygen atoms in the carbon monoxide gas molecule (2) 2 m/s2
is 1.13Å . Locate the centre of mass of the gas (3) 0.3 m/s 2
molecule relative to the carbon atom. (4) 0.9 m/s 2
(1) 0.646Å
(2) 1.534Å 41. A system consists of two identical particles. One
(3) 0.857Å particle is at rest and other particle has an
(4) 2.785Å acceleration a. The centre ' of mass of the system
SECTION – B has an acceleration of
(1) 2𝑎
36. Two objects of masses 300 g and 700 g possess (2) 𝑎/2
velocities 15𝑖ˆ m/s and 4𝑖ˆ + 6𝑗ˆ m/s respectively. (3) 𝑎
2𝑎
The velocity of their centre of mass in m/s is (4) 3
(1) 7𝑖ˆ + 8𝑗ˆ
(2) 7.3𝑖ˆ + 4.2𝑗ˆ 42. The relation between the time of flight of a
(3) 5𝑖ˆ + 4𝑗ˆ projectile, Tf and time to reach the maximum height
(4) 2𝑖ˆ + 6𝑗ˆ tm is
(1) Tf = 2tm
(2) Tf = tm
37. Two identical particles move towards each other 𝑡𝑚
(3) Tf =
with velocities 2 v and v respectively. What is the 2

velocity of centre of mass? (4) Tf = √2⁡(𝑡𝑚 )

(1) 2 v
(2) 𝑣 43. A particle moves in X-Y plamne. The position
3𝑣 →
(3) 2 vector of particle at any time ‘t’ is Y = 2t 𝑖̂ + 2t2 𝑖̂
𝑣
(4) meters. The rate of change of ‘’ at 2 seconds
2
(Where ‘’ is the angle which it’s velocity vector
38. The velocities of three particles of masses mates with positive X-axis) is-
2
20 g, 30 g , and 50 g are 10î, 10ĵ and 10k̂ (1) rad/s
17
respectively. The velocity of the centre of mass of 1
(2) 14
rad/s
the three particles is 4
(3) rad/s
(1) 2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 5𝑘ˆ 7
6
(2) −𝑖ˆ − 3𝑗ˆ − 2𝑘ˆ (4)
5
rad/s
(3) −𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ
(4) −𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ − 2𝑘ˆ 44. A body is projected with a velocity of 60 ms−1 at
30∘ to horizontal.
39. Two masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 (𝑚1 > 𝑚2 ) are connected Column-I Column-II
by a massless and inextensible string passing over a (a) Initial velocity (i) 60√3î + 40ĵ
massless and frictionless pulley. The acceleration of
(b) Velocity after 3 s (ii) 30√3î + 10ĵ
the centre of mass of the system is:
𝑚 −𝑚 2 (c) Displacement after 2s (iii) 30√3î + 30ĵ
(1) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 ) 𝑔
1 2 (d) Velocity after 2 s (iv) 30√3î
𝑚 +𝑚 2
(2) ( 1 2) 𝑔 (1) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
𝑚1 −𝑚2
𝑚 −𝑚 (2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)
(3) (𝑚1 +𝑚2 ) 𝑔 (3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
1 2
(4) 𝑔 (4) (a)-(i) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)

40. A system of two blocks A and B of masses 20 kg 45. What is the magnitude of average velocity after half
and 10 kg are connected by a string which hangs rotation, if a particle is moving with constant speed
𝑣 in a circle?
[6]
 (1) 2 v 48. If the angle between the vector 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is 0 , the
𝑣
(2) 2 𝜋 ⃗⃗ × ⃗A⃗) ⋅ (A
value of the product (B ⃗⃗) is equal to:
𝑣
(3) (1) BA2 cos⁡ 𝜃
2
v (2) AB 2 sin⁡ 𝜃
(4) 2𝜋 (3) 𝐴2 𝐵cos⁡ 𝜃
(4) Zero
46. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity
of 600 km/h and at a height of 1960 m . When it is 49. Which of the following is true regarding projectile
vertically above a point A on the ground, a bomb is motion?
released from it. The bomb strikes the ground at (1) Horizontal velocity of projectile is constant
point 𝐵. The distance 𝐴𝐵 is (2) Vertical velocity of peojectile is constant
(1) 1200 m (3) Acceleration is not constant
(2) 0.33 km (4) Momentum is constant
(3) 33.3 km
(4) 3.33 km 50. Rain is falling vertically with speed of 35 m/s. A
woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 15 m/s in
47. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is 𝑦 =
East to West direction. What is the direction in
5
10𝑥 − (9) 𝑥 2 . If we assume g = 10 ms−2 . What which she should hold her umbrella?
3
will be the range of projectile? (1) tan−1 ⁡ (7) with the vertical towards west
(1) 36 m 4
(2) tan−1 ⁡ ( ) with the vertical towards east
(2) 24 m 7
(3) 18 m −1 5
(3) tan ⁡ (7) with the vertical towards east
(4) 9 m (4) Towards North downward

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 4
(4) 9
𝜆
51. Amongst the following statements, that which was
not proposed by Dalton
53. Match List-I with List-II
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
List-I List-II
(2) When gases combine or reproduced in a
(Spectral Series for (Spectral Region)
chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio
Hydrogen)
by volume provided all gases are at the same
A. Lyman I. Far Infrared region
temperature & pressure.
B. Balmer II. UV region
(3) Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of
C. Paschen III. Infrared region
atoms. These are neither created nor destroyed
D. Humphery IV. Visible region
in a chemical reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) All the atoms of a given element have identical
below:
properties including identical mass. Atoms of
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
different elements differ in mass.
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
52. If 𝑃 is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
from a metal surface after the irradiation of light
having wavelenght 𝜆, then for 1.5 p momentum of
54. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 being
the photoelectron, the wavelength of the light
a powerful oxidant can oxidize, thiosulphate almost
should be:
quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction, overall
(Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to
change in oxidation state of manganese will be:
be very high in comparison to work function).
1 (1) 5
(1) 𝜆
2 (2) 1
3
(2) 4
𝜆 (3) 0
2 (4) 3
(3) 3
𝜆

[7]
55. Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline 60. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative
medium as shown below: deviation from Raoult's law will have:
a⁡Cl2 ( g) + b⁡OH − (aq) → c⁡ClO− (aq) + (1) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling
d⁡Cl− (aq) + e⁡H2 O(l) point
The values of 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and 𝑑 in a balanced redox (2) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling
reaction are respectively: point
(1) 1, 2, 1 and 1 (3) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling
(2) 2, 2, 1 and 3 point
(3) 3, 4, 4 and 2 (4) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling
(4) 2, 4, 1 and 3 point

56. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution required 61. For anionic hydrolysis, pH is given by:
1 1 1
to neutralize 50 mL of 1M⁡H3 PO3 solution and 100 (1) 2 pK w − 2 pK b − 2 log⁡ c
mL of 2M⁡H3 PO2 solution respectively, are: 1 1 1
(2) 2 pK w + 2 pK a − 2 pk b
(1) 100 mL and 50 mL
1 1 1
(2) 100 mL and 200 mL (3) 2 pK w + 2 pK a + 2 log⁡ c
(3) 50 mL and 50 mL (4) None
(4) 100 mL and 100 mL
M M M
62. 30cc of HCl⁡, 20cc of HNO3 & 40cc⁡of⁡ NaOH
57. A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200 g of 3 2 4
solution are mixed and the volume was made upto
its 25% solution and 500 g of its 40% solution
1dm3. The pH of the resulting solution is:
(both by mass). The mass percentage of the
(1) 2
resulting sugar solution is
(2) 1
(1) 40
(3) 3
(2) 21.4
(4) 8
(3) 35.7
(4) 25
63. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl is
58. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire (K sp of AgCl = 1.2 × 10−10 )
composition range. At 350 K , the vapor pressures (1) 0.05
of pure 𝐴 and pure 𝐵 are 7× 103 Pa and 12 × (2) 1.2 × 10−6
103 Pa , respectively. The composition of the (3) 2 × 10−5
vapour in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 (4) 1.2 × 10−9
mole percent of 𝐴 at this temperature is
(1) X A = 0.76; X B = 0.24 64. If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12 , the
(2) X A = 0.37; X B = 0.63 value of its K sp is:
(3) X A = 0.28; X B = 0.72 (1) 5 × 10−7 M 3
(4) X A = 0.4; X B = 0.6 (2) 4 × 10−6 M 3
(3) 4 × 10−7 M 3
59. At 35∘ C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg (4) 5 × 10−6 M 3
and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of
CS2 in acetone has a total vapour pressure of 600 65. The minimum concentration of silver ions that is
mm of Hg. The false statement among the following required to start the precipitation of Ag 2 S
is ( K sp = 10−51 ) in a 0.1 M solution of S 2− is:
(1) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other (1) 10−49 M
than to themselves (2) 10−50 M
(2) Heat must be absorbed in order to produce the (3) 10−26 M
solution at 35∘ C (4) 10−25 M
(3) Raoult's law is not obeyed by this system
(4) a mixture of 100 mL⁡CS2 and 100 mL acetone 66. An oxide of a metal (M) contains 40% by mass of
has a volume of < 200 mL oxygen. Metal (M) has atomic mass of 24. The
empirical formula of the oxide is-
(1) M2 O

[8]
 (2) MO 1
(4) n = 2, 𝑙 = 0, m = 0, ms = + 2
(3) M2 O3
(4) M3 O4 73. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4
electrons.
67. The molar ratio of Cr 2+ to Cr 3+ in a mixture of (A) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m𝑙 = 1, ms = +1/2
CrSO4 and Cr2 (SO4 )3 having equal number of (B) n = 4, ℓ = 1, m𝑙 = 0, ms = +1/2
sulphate ions in both sulphates is (C) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m𝑙 = −2, ms = −1/2
(1) 1: 3 (D) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m𝑙 = −1, ms = +1/2
(2) 3: 2 The correct order of increasing energy is
(3) 2: 3 (1) (D) < (B) < (A) < (C)
(4) 3: 4 (2) (D) < (A) < (B) < (C)
(3) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
68. A metal nitride 𝑀3 N2 contains 28% of nitrogen. (4) (B) < (D) < (C) < (A)
The atomic mass of metal M is:
(1) 24 74. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two
(2) 54 radial nodes. The orbital is:
(3) 9 (1) 3s
(4) 87.62 (2) 3p
(3) 2s
w
69. 29.2% (w) HCl stock solution has a density of (4) 2p
1.25 g mL−1 . The molecular weight of HCl is
36.5 g mol−1 . The volume (in mL) of stock 75. Among the following the energy of 2s orbital is
solution required to prepare a 200 mL solution of lowest in:
0.4 M HCl is- (1) K
(1) 16 mL (2) Na
(2) 61 mL (3) H
(3) 80 mL (4) Li
(4) 8 mL
76. Which of the following cannot function as an
70. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, oxidising agent?
Mg 3 (PO4 )2 will contain 0.25 moles of oxygen (1) N 3−
atoms? (2) SO2−
4
(1) 0.02 (3) BrO− 3
(2) 3.125 × 10−2 (4) MnO− 4
(3) 1.25 × 10−2
(4) 4.25 × 10−2 77. The species given below that does NOT show
disproportionation reaction is:
71. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98%⁡H2 SO4 (1) BrO−
by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL−1 . Volume (2) BrO−3
of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M⁡H2 SO4 (3) BrO−2
solution is (4) BrO−4
(1) 11.10 mL
(2) 16.65 mL 78. The reaction of sulphur in alkaline medium is given
(3) 22.20 mL below
(4) 5.55 mL S8 ( s) + a⁡OH − (aq) → b⁡S 2− (aq) +
c⁡S2 O2−
3 (aq) + d⁡H2 O(l)
72. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the The values of ' 𝑎 ' is ______________
outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are (1) 13
1 (2) 12
(1) n = 4, 𝑙 = 2, m = −1, ms + 2
1 (3) 6
(2) n = 4, 𝑙 = 0, m = 0, ms = + (4) 10
2
1
(3) n = 3, 𝑙 = 0, m = 1, ms = +2

[9]
79. The solution from the following with highest Reason: Degree of hydrolysis for this type of salt is
depression in freezing point KW ×Ka
√ Kb
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason
80. Match List-I with List-II. is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
List-I List-II (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(A) Van't Hoff (I) Cryoscopic constant (4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.
Factor (i)
(B) 𝑘𝑓 (II) Isotonic solutions 84. Which of the following will produce a buffer
(C) Solutions (III) Normal molar mass solution when mixed in equal volumes?
with same (1) 0.1 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡NH4 OH & 0.1 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡HCl
Abnormal molar mass
osmotic (2) 0.05 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡NH4 OH & 0.1 mol⁡dm⁡−3 ⁡HCl
pressure (3) 0.1 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡NH4 OH & 0.05 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡HCl
(D) Azeotropes (IV) Solutions with same (4) 0.1 mol⁡dm−3 ⁡CH3 COONa & 0.1 mol⁡dm−3
composition of vapour NaOH
above it
Choose the correct answer from the options given 85. Which will make basic buffer?
below: (1) 50mL,0.1M⁡NaOH + 25 mL, 0.1M⁡ CH3COOH
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) 100mL, 0.1M CH3COOH+ 100mL,0.1M NaOH
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (3) 100 mL, 0.1M⁡HCl + 200 mL, 0.1M⁡NH4 OH
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (4) 100 mL, 0.1M⁡HCl + 100 mL, 0.1 M NaOH
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
SECTION – B
81. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal solution of 86. How many molecules of HCl gas will be produced
glucose is 2 K . The depression in the freezing point by reacting 112 L of H2 (0∘ C, 1 atm) with 213 g of
for 2 molal solution of glucose in the same solvent Cl2 ?
is 2 K . The relation between K b and K f is (1) 3.61 × 1024
(1) K b = 0.5 K f (2) 6.13 × 1023
(2) K b = 2 K f (3) 6.13 × 1024
(3) K b = 1.5 K f (4) 1.63 × 1024
(4) K b = K f
87. 1.5 moles of each of XY2 and XY3 if weigh 96 g and
82. Statement-I: The pH of NH4 Cl solution in water is 120 g respectively. The atomic masses of X and Y
more than 7 and pH of CH3 COONa solution is less respectively are
than 7 . (1) 4,8
Statement-II: NH4 Cl is a salt of weak base NH4 OH (2) 8,16
and strong acid HCl whereas CH3 COONa is salt of a (3) 32,16
weak acid CH3 COOH and strong base NaOH . (4) 32,64
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. 88. Choose the correct option:
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is A. 0.22 g of CO2 contains 0.005 moles
incorrect. B. 320 mg of SO2 contains 0.005 moles
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is C. 560 mg of SO2 contains 0.005 moles
correct. D. 0.085 g of NH3 contains 0.005 moles
(1) A, B and C
83. Assertion: On diluting the solution of CH3 COONH4 (2) Only C
by 100 times its degree of hydrolysis doesn't (3) A, B and D
change. (4) B, C and D

89. In the following change,

[10]
 3Fe + 4H2 O → Fe3 O4 + 4H2 (4) 80%
If the atomic weight of iron is 56 , then its
equivalent weight will be: 95. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-
(1) 42 volatile solute A is equal to the boiling point of 8%
(2) 21 aqueous of a non- volatile solute B. The relation
(3) 63 between molecular weights of 𝐴 and 𝐵 is
(4) 84 (Assume, molarity = Molality)
(1) MA = 4MB
90. An example of a disproportionation reaction is: (2) MB = 4MA
(1) 2KMnO4 → K 2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (3) MA = 8MB
(2) 2MnO− − +
4 + 10I + 16H → 2Mn
2+
+ 5I2 + (4) MB = 8MA
8H2 O
(3) 2CuBr → CuBr2 + Cu 96. K 2 Hgl4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The
(4) 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2 value of its van't Hoff factor (i) is
(1) 1.6
91. The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in (2) 2.0
Lyman series is 𝜆 . The longest wavelength in (3) 2.2
Balmer series of He+ is (4) 1.8
5
(1) 9𝜆
9𝜆 97. K a for CH3 COOH is 1.8 × 10−5 and K b for NH4 OH
(2)
5 is 1.8 × 10−5 . The pH of ammonium acetate will
36𝜆
(3) be:
5
5𝜆 (1) 7.005
(4) 9 (2) 4.75
(3) 7.0
92. The number of orbitals associated with quantum (4) Between 6 and 7
number n = 5, ms = +1/2 is
(1) 15 98. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The
(2) 11 solubility product (K sp ) of Ca(OH)2 is:
(3) 50
(1) 0.5 × 10−15
(4) 25
(2) 0.25 × 10−10
(3) 0.125 × 10−15
93. In the sixth period, the orbitals that are filled are:
(4) 0.5 × 10−10
(1) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p
(2) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f
99. Select the incorrect statement :
(3) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
(1) The conjugate acid of HCOO− is HCOOH .
(4) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p 2−
(2) The conjugate base of HCO− is CO3
3
94. Solute A associates to form dimer in water. When (3) The conjugate base of H2 O is H3 O+ .
0.7 g of solute A is dissolved in 42.0 g of water, it (4) The conjugate acid of NH3 is NH4+ .
depresses the freezing point by 0.2°C. The
percentage association of solute A in water, is 100. What will be the value of pH of 0.01 M⁡CH3 COOH
[Given: Molar mass of A = 93 g mol−1 . Molal (K a = 1.74 × 10−5 )?
−1
depression constant of water is 1.86 K kg mol ] (1) 3.4
(1) 50% (2) 3.6
(2) 60% (3) 3.9
(3) 70% (4) 3.0

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A Statement-2 : Aristotle divided animals into group -
101. Statement-1 : Linnaeus classified plants into trees, Anaima and Enaima.
shrubs and herbs, on the basis of morphological (1) Only statement-1 is correct
characters. (2) Only statement-2 is correct

[11]
 (3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct 109. Who for the first time classified organisms on the
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect basis of scientific approach?
(1) Aristotle
102. In members of which kingdom, nuclear membrane (2) Linnaeus
is absent? (3) Whittaker
(1) Monera (4) Pasteur
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi 110. Aristotle classified animals in two groups on the
(4) Plantae basis of presence or absence of RBC. The group
which does not have RBCs is
103. In five kingdom classification, the kingdom that (1) Anaima
includes the blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing (2) Enaima
bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria, is (3) Ovipera
(1) Monera (4) Vivipera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi 111. Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms
(4) Plantae lacking a cell wall are included in the kingdom.
(1) Protista
104. Which one of the following is not the basis of five (2) Fungi
kingdom classification? (3) Plantae
(1) Cell structure (4) Animalia
(2) Body organisation
(3) Reproduction 112. Match the following
(4) Reserve food material Column-I Column-II
(Group of bacteria) (Their shape)
105. Position of bacteria in the kingdom system of a. Coccus (i) Rod-shaped
classification proposed by Linnaeus is b. Bacillus (ii) Spherical
(1) Monera c. Spirillum (iii) Spiral
(2) Protista d. Vibrium (iv) Comma-shaped
(3) Plantae (1) 𝑎( (i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Animalia (2) 𝑎 (ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
106. Who was the founder of five kingdom system of (4) 𝑎( ii), 𝑏( (i), 𝑐( iv ), 𝑑( iii )
classification?
(1) C. Linnaeus 113. During favourable conditions bacteria mainly
(2) R.H. Whittaker reproduce by
(3) Aristotle (1) Budding
(4) T.O. Diener (2) Fragmentation
(3) Sporulation
107. According to five kingdom system, gymnosperms (4) Fission
and angiosperms are grouped under the kingdom
(1) Monera 114. Select the correct statement.
(2) Protista (1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known
(3) Fungi diseases caused by viruses
(4) Plantae (2) Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds
are placed under kingdom Monera
108. Which organisms are not included in the five (3) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily
kingdom system of classification? aquatic
(1) Protozoans (4) Dinoflagellates are the chief 'producers' in the
(2) Viruses oceans
(3) Lichens
(4) Both (2) & (3) 115. Select the incorrect statement.

[12]
 (1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for
nitrogen fixation 123. Being photosynthetic, which organism in absence of
(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted sunlight behave like heterotrophs?
water bodies (1) Slime moulds
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in (2) Euglenoids
nature (3) Sporozoans
(4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made up of (4) Ciliated protozoans
chitin
124. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which
116. Heterocysts present in Anabaena is specialised for substance?
(1) Nitrogen fixation (1) Phosphorus
(2) Food storage (2) Calcium
(3) Fission (3) Silicon
(4) Sexual reproduction (4) Copper

117. Mark the odd one w.r.t. cell wall. 125. Which is the incorrect statement regarding fungi?
(1) Halophiles (1) Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia
(2) Methanogens (2) Penicillium is a source of antibiotic
(3) Thermoacidophiles (3) The cell wall of fungi are composed of
(4) Cyanobacteria peptidoglycan
(4) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places
118. Primitive bacteria living in salty areas are called as
(1) Methanogens 126. Statement-1 : Yeast is a multicellular fungus.
(2) Thermoacidophiles Statement-2 : Penicillium is an unicellular fungus.
(3) Heliophytes Statement-3 : Albugo is a parasitic fungus on
(4) Halophiles mustard.
(1) Only statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
119. Select the non-protistan group. (2) All the above statements are incorrect
(1) Slime moulds (3) Only statement-3 is correct
(2) Dinoflagellates (4) Both statement-1 and statement-3 are correct
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Chrysophytes 127. Mark the correct statement.
(1) Phycomycetes include mushrooms, bracket
120. Which of the following is correct? fungi or puff balls
(1) All slime moulds are haploid (2) The mycelium of basidiomycetes is branched
(2) Protozoans lack cell wall and septate
(3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile (3) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical
(4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena and genetic work, it belongs to group
basidiomycetes
121. Which is not a feature of dinoflagellates? (4) Morels and truffles are non-edible
(1) They cause red tides
(2) Their cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the 128. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the
outer surface correct sequence of events.
(3) They release toxins (1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis
(4) These are mostly fresh water and non- (2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
photosynthetic (3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy
122. ___________⁡ are saprophytic protists, whose body
moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing 129. Mark the odd one w.r.t. kingdom fungi.
organic material. (1) They reproduce asexually and sexually
(1) Euglenoids (2) They show a great diversity in structure and
(2) Dinoflagellates habitat
(3) Chrysophytes (3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of
(4) Slime moulds nutrition

[13]
 (4) They do not reproduce by zoospores 137. Identify A, B and C in given diagram.

130. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is

brought about by fusion of two vegetative or
somatic cells of different genotypes. It is the feature
of
(1) Phycomycetes (1) A = Mucor, B = Aspergillus, C = Agaricus
(2) Basidiomycetes (2) A = Mucor, B = Agaricus, C = Aspergillus
(3) Ascomycetes (3) A = Agaricus, B = Mucor, C = Aspergillus
(4) All of these (4) A = Agaricus, B = Aspergillus, C = Mucor

131. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which__________ 138. Which one is correctly matched?
⁡ division occurs, leading to formation of________ ⁡ (1) Agaricus – Smut
spores. (2) Ustilago – Mushroom
(1) Mitotic, diploid (3) Puccinia – Insectivorous plant
(2) Reduction, haploid (4) Deuteromycetes – Imperfect fungi
(3) Mitotic, haploid
(4) Reduction, diploid 139. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant
132. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is (2) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of
common in insectivorous plants.
(1) Agaricus (3) Plantae includes algae, bryophytes,
(2) Saccharomyces pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(3) Euglena (4) The mode of nutrition in plants is holozoic
(4) Gonyaulax
140. In which group of organisms, reserve food is stored
133. Select the incorrect match. in the form of glycogen and fat?
Class Member (1) Man and Monkey
(1) Phycomycetes – Albugo (2) Cuscuta and Dog
(2) Basidiomycetes – Claviceps (3) Bladderwort and Cuscuta
(3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (4) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap
(4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma
141. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
134. Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is viruses?
(1) Ascospore (1) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA
(2) Basidiospore (2) Viruses do not have their own metabolic system
(3) Oospore (3) Bacteriophages are usually double stranded
(4) Zygospore DNA viruses
(4) TMV contains both RNA and DNA as its
135. Coenocytic mycelium is found in genetic material
(1) Deuteromycetes
(2) Phycomycetes 142. Viruses that infect the bacteria are termed as
(3) Ascomycetes (1) Cyanophages
(4) All of these (2) Bacteriophages
(3) Mycophages
(4) Both (1) & (2)
SECTION – B
136. The members of which group are commonly known 143. Who demonstrated that the extract of the infected
as sac fungi? plants of tobacco could cause infection in healthy
(1) Phycomycetes plants?
(2) Deuteromycetes (1) Pasteur
(3) Basidiomycetes (2) M.W. Beijerinek
(4) Ascomycetes (3) D.J. Ivanowsky
(4) W.M. Stanley

[14]
 C - Tail fibres, D - Sheath
144. The protein coat called capsid made of small (4) A - Head, B - Sheath,
subunits called capsomeres are present in C - Tail fibres, D - Collar
(1) Viruses
(2) Bacteria 147. Select the correct statement.
(3) Fungi (1) Viroids have double stranded RNA
(4) Gymnosperms (2) RNA of viroids have high molecular weight
than viruses
145. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genetic material (3) Mumps and Herpes are viral diseases
(1) Herpes virus – ssDNA (4) The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky
(2) Bacteriophage – dsDNA
(3) TMV – ssRNA 148. Lichens show symbiotic relationship between
(4) Influenza virus – ssRNA (1) Algae and fungi
(2) Algae and bacteria
146. Identify A, B, C and D parts in this diagram of (3) Fungi and bacteriophage
bacteriophage. (4) Algae and bacteriophage

149. Which is correct w.r.t. lichens?

(1) Mycobiont is autotrophic component
(2) Phycobiont is heterotrophic component
(3) They are good pollution indicators
(4) They do not grow in non-polluted areas

150. The association of fungi with the roots of higher

plants is called
(1) Lichens
(1) A - Head, B - Sheath, (2) Mycorrhiza
C-Collar, D - Tail fibres (3) Slime mould
(2) A - Head, B - Collar, (4) Neurospora
C - Sheath, D - Tail fibres
(3) A - Head, B - Collar,

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)

SECTION – A 153. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower

151. What would be the heart rate of a person if the corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-ventricular
cardiac output is 5 L , blood volume in the septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the apex for about 0.1 sec. This delay allows
end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ? (1) the atria to empty completely.
(1) 50 beats per minute (2) blood to enter aorta.
(2) 75 beats per minute (3) the ventricles to empty completely.
(3) 100 beats per minute (4) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(4) 125 beats per minute
154. If type 𝐴 agglutinogens are present on the surface of
152. All the components of the nodal tissue are RBCs of a person but type 𝐵 are absent, then what
autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the type of agglutinin will be present in the plasma of
normal pacemaker? this person?
(1) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation. (1) Anti-A
(2) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation. (2) Anti-B
(3) SA node is the only component to generate the (3) Nil
threshold potential. (4) Both Anti-A and Anti-B
(4) Only SA node can convey the action potential
to the other components. 155. Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle:
(1) holds less blood

[15]
 (2) develops less pressure during contraction 162. Which fat soluble vitamin helps in synthesis of
(3) has a thicker wall prothrombin?
(4) increases in diameter during contraction (1) Vit K
(2) Vit A
156. Which of the following events is not recorded on (3) Vit B
the surface ECG? (4) Vit C
(1) Atrial depolarisation
(2) Atrial repolarisation 163. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number
(3) Ventricular depolarisation can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive
(4) Ventricular repolarisation loss of blood from the body.
(1) Neutrophils
157. The neural center that regulates cardiac activity (2) Thrombocytes
through ANS is located in: (3) Erythrocytes
(1) Cerebrum (2) Hypothalamus (4) Leucocytes
(3) Pons (4) Medulla
164. Which white blood cell releases chemical to inhibit
158. Identify the incorrect statement regarding plasma: blood clotting?
(1) It constitutes about 55% of the blood (1) Monocyte
(2) The most common plasma protein is albumin (2) Eosinophil
(3) Globulins are mainly responsible for colloid (3) Basophil
osmotic pressure in the blood (4) Neutrophil
(4) If clotting factors are removed from the plasma,
what remains is the serum 165. In a normal ECG recording, heart sound will occur
(1) On the 𝑃 wave and at the end of QRS complex
159. Match each item in COLUMN I with one in (2) On the QRS complex and at the end of T wave
COLUMN II and choose the correct answer from (3) At the end of 𝑃 wave and on the 𝑇 wave
the codes given below: (4) At the end of QRS complex and on T wave
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
[WBC] [Function] 166. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds
A. Monocyte I. Inflammatory responses produced during each cardiac cycle. The second
B. Basophils II. Allergic reactions sound is heard when
C. Eosinophils III. Phagocytosis (1) AV node receives signal from SA node
D. Lymphocytes IV. Adaptive immunity (2) AV valves open up
A B C D (3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of
(1) III I IV II blood from atria
(2) I III IV II (4) Semilunar valves closes down after the blood
(3) III I II IV flows into vessels from ventricles
(4) I IV II III
167. Louder sound of heart beat occurs during closure of
160. Which one is the reason for fast conduction of (1) Tricuspid valve
impulse in heart muscles? (2) Atrio-ventricular valves
(1) Presence of intercalated discs (3) Mitral valve
(2) SA node (4) Semilunar valves
(3) AV node
(4) Purkinje fibers 168. Systemic circulation of oxygenated blood starts
from
161. Which of the following is correct? (1) Right atrium
Inter-atrial Inter-ventricular Atrio-ventricular (2) Left atrium
septum septum septum (3) Left ventricle
(1) Thick, Fibrous Thick, Fibrous Thin, Muscular (4) Right ventricle
(2) Thin, Muscular Thin, Fibrous Thin, Fibrous
(3) Thin, Muscular Thick-walled Thick, Fibrous 169. Systemic heart refers to
(4) Thick, Muscular Thick-walled Thick, Fibrous (1) Heart that contracts under stimulation from
nervous system
[16]
 (2) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher
vertebrates.
(1)
(3) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
(4) The two ventricles together in humans

(2)
170. The diagram shows the valves inside the heart.

(3)

(4)

174. Match the Column I with Column II –

Column I Column II
A. Heart failure I. Heart muscle is suddenly
Which valves are open or closed when the atria are damaged by an inadequate blood
relaxed and the ventricles contracted? supply
Valves open Valves closed B. Cardiac arrest II. Chest pain due to inadequate
(1) 3 and 4 1 and 2 O2 reaching the heart muscles
(2) 2 and 4 1 and 3 C. Heart Attack III. Atherosclerosis
(3) 2 and 3 1 and 4 D. Coronary IV. Heart not pumping blood
(4) 1 and 4 2 and 3 Artery disease effectively enough to meet the
(CAD) needs of the body
171. Which of the following statements are incorrect E. Angina V. Heart stops beating
w.r.t. regulation of cardiac activity? pectoris
A. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can A B C D E
increase the rate of heart beat and cardiac output. (1) IV V I III II
B. Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the speed (2) V IV I III II
of conduction of cardiac impulse, so stroke volume (3) IV V I II III
is increased. (4) V IV II III I
C. Sympathetic nervous system increases the strength
of ventricular contraction and stroke volume is
175. Identify the following blood vessels –
same.
A B C
D. Parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart
rate, cardiac output and stroke volume.
(1) B and C
(2) C and D
(3) A and C A B C
(4) B and D (1) Artery Vein Capillary
(2) Capillary Artery Vein
172. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by
(3) Artery Capillary Vein
phagocytosis?
(4) Vein Capillary Artery
(1) Eosinophil and Basophil
(2) Basophil and Lymphocyte
(3) Neutrophil and Monocyte
176.
(4) Neutrophil and Lymphocyte

173. Which of the following is the diagrammatic

representation of standard electrocardiogram
(ECG)?

[17]
 (1) Birds,
Fishes Reptiles All reptiles
Mammals
(2) Reptiles,
Fishes Birds Mammals
birds
(3) Crocodiles,
Fishes Amphibians Reptiles Birds,
Mammals
(4) Amphibians, Birds,
Fishes Crocodile
Reptiles Mammals

What is the nature of blood passing through blood 180. In fishes the blood circulation is represented as –
vessels (A, B, C and D)?
A B C D
(1) Deoxygenated Oxygenated Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(2) Deoxygenated Deoxygenated Oxygenated Oxygenated
(3) Oxygenated Oxygenated Deoxygenated Deoxygenated
(4) Oxygenated Deoxygenated Oxygenated Deoxygenated
The above flow of blood indicates it is a -
(1) Double circulation
177. Which of the following options represents the (2) Single circulation
pulmonary circulation in human beings– (3) Incomplete single circulation
Left Auricle ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Lungs
Oxygenated
(1) blood (4) Incomplete double circulation
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
deoxygenated
blood
→ Right ventricle
181. Find the correct descending order of percentage
Left Auricle ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Lungs
deoxygenated
(2) blood proportion of leucocytes in human blood.
(1) Neutrophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes →
⎯⎯⎯⎯
Oxygenated
→ Right Ventricle
blood
Acidophils → Monocytes
Right Ventricle ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Lungs
deoxygenated
(3) blood
(2) Neutrophils → Monocytes → Lymphocytes →
Acidophils → Basophils
⎯⎯⎯⎯
Oxygenated
→ Left Auricle
blood (3) Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes →
Right Ventricle ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Lungs
Oxygenated
(4) blood
Acidophils → Basophils
(4) Neutrophils → Acidophils → Basophils →
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
deoxygenated
→ Left Auricle
blood Lymphocytes → Monocytes

178. Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is situated in - 182. Which of the following is expected if husband is
(1) Lower left corner of left auricle, close to AV- Rh+ and wife is Rh− ?
septum (1) No problem with 1st pregnancy
(2) Lower left corner of right auricle, close to AV- (2) Problem would be expected with future
septum pregnancies
(3) Upper left corner of right auricle, close to AV- (3) Both (1) and (2)
septum (4) No problem could be expected in any pregnancy
(4) Upper left corner of left auricle, close to AV-
septum 183. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Rh compatibility must be tested before
179. A = Auricle pregnancy establishment and blood transfusion
V = Ventricle (2) Rh antibodies can cross placenta
Following are figures of hearts in different animals (3) At the time of 1st delivery some of 𝑅ℎ+ 𝑅𝐵𝐶𝑠
from the baby (𝑅ℎ+ ) mix with the mother's
blood (𝑅ℎ− )
(4) All
Identify with their characteristic hearts –
184. What is the correct order of these events?
I II III IV
1. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
2. Clot retraction and leakage of serum

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 3. Thromboplastin formation (3) Systolic pressure
4. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) 3, 2, 1, 4
(2) 3, 4, 1, 2 190. The end of T-wave marks the end of-
(3) 3, 4, 2, 1 (1) Ventricular systole
(4) 4, 1, 3, 2 (2) Atrial systole
(3) Ventricle diastole
185. Which of the following statement are correct? (4) Both a and b
I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during 191. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from :
normal condition by heparin (1) Stomach
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen (2) Kidneys
to fibrin by thrombin (3) Intestine
IV. Blood clotting involves cascade process (4) Heart
involving a number of factors present in the active
form always 192. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to
(1) I, III, IV beat for sometime.
(2) II, IV Select the best option from the following -
(3) I, II, III Statements :
(4) III, IV I. Frog is a poikilotherm.
II. Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
SECTION – B III. Heart is "myogenic" in nature.
186. Which of the following statements is correct? IV. Heart is autoexcitable
(1) A healthy individual has 1.2-1.6 gms of (1) Only IV
haemoglobin in every 10 ml of blood. (2) I and II
(2) RBCS are devoid of nucleus in all the mammals (3) III and IV
(3) Factors for blood clothing are present in plasma (4) Only III
in an active form
(4) The fluid present in the lymphatic system is 193. Consider the two statements:
called tissue fluid. Assertion (A): Any deviation from the normal
shape of ECG indicates a possible abnormality or
187. Identify the formed elements from the following disease.
which constitutes about 0.5-1% of the total WBCs. Reason (R): The ECGs obtained from different
individuals have roughly the same shape for a given
lead configuration.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
(1) (2)
explains (A).
(2) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
correctly explain (A).
(3) (4) (4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

194. Which of the following values will not be normal

for a healthy person?
188. Beat volume is around- (1) 10 gms of haemoglobin per 100 ml of blood
(1) 50 ml (2) 5 million RBC per mm3
(2) 5L (3) 7000 WBC per mm⁡3
(3) 60 ml (4) 200000 platelets per mm3
(4) 70 ml
195. During the initiation of coagulation of blood, the
189. 120 mmHg in normal blood pressure represents. platelets are activated by-
(1) Pumping pressure (1) Thrombin
(2) Resting pressure (2) Trauma

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 (3) Ca++
(4) Thrombokinase
(1)
196. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood
group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one
doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the
blood group of the donor?
(1) Blood group B
(2)
(2) Blood group 𝐴𝐵
(3) Blood group O
(4) Blood group 𝐴

197. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid / interstitial (3)
fluid and drains it back to the major veins
II. Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have
almost similar composition
III. Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger
proteins and RBC
IV. Exchange of nutrients and gases, etc. between (4)
the blood and cells always occurs through tissue
fluid
V. Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution
as that in plasma 199. 1 mm3 blood has how many blood platelets?
VI. Lymph can be defined as blood minus RBC but (1) 150000 − 350000
has specialized lymphocytes (2) 1.5 million to 3.5 million
(1) All (3) 1500 − 3000
(2) Only III and IV (4) 10 to 15 lacs
(3) V and VI
(4) I, III, V 200. Megakaryocytes produce -
(1) Leucocytes
198. Which of the following representations is correct (2) Lymphocytes
about blood groups and donor compatibility? (3) Bone cells
(4) Blood platelets (thrombocytes)

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