11-12-2022 Batch: ONLINE

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET EXAMINATION
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + BIOLOGY
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS : Electrostatics
1. The SI unit of surface integral of electric field
1) V-m 2) V 3) Nc–1m 4) cm–3
2. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an electrical dipole of dipole moment P. If the distance of Q
from the dipole is r (much larger than the size of dipole), then the electric field at Q is proportional to
1) p-1 and r-2 2) p and r-2 3) p2 and r-3 4) p and r-3
3. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charge 10C and 20C respectively and placed at
a distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and seperated to the same
distance, they experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is
1) 1:2 2) –8:1 3) 1:8 4) –2:1
4. What is the smallest electric force between two charges placed at a distance of 1.0m
1) 2.304  1028 N 2) 2.304  1026 N 3) 3.204  1028 N 4) 2.304  1028 N
5. The mathematical form of Gauss’s law is :
 
0  E.ds  q

In this reference which of the following is correct?

1) ‘E’ depends on the charge ‘q’ which is enclosed within the Gaussian surface only
2) ‘E’ depends on the charge which is inside and outside the Gaussian surface
3) ‘E’ does not depend on the magnitude of charge q
4) All of the above
6. Two pith balls of mass m each having equal and similar charger are suspended from same point through
insulating threads of length  each. The balls repel each other by a distance d such that their threads make
an angle  with vertical. Then the charge on each ball is given by q =

mg tan  4 od 2
1) 4 od 2 2) 3) mg tan  4o d 2 4) mg sin  4 od 2
mg tan 

7. A molecule with a dipole moment P is placed in an electric field of strength E. Initially the dipole is aligned
parallel to the field. If the dipole is to be rotated to be antiparallel to the field, the work required to be done
by an external agency is
1) –2PE 2) –PE 3) PE 4) 2PE
8. Two point charges Q and -2Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the location of Q is
E, the electric field at the location of -2Q will be :

3E E
1) 2) 3) E / 2 4) -2E
2 2
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9. A imaginary, closed, spherical surface ‘S’ of radius R is centered on the origin. A positive charge +q is
originally at the origin, and the flux through the surface is E . Three additional charges are now added along
R R 3R
the x - axis : 3q at x   ,  5q at x  and  4q at x  . The flux through ‘S’ now is :
2 2 2

1) 2E 2) 3E 3) 6E 4) 7 E

10. Two point charges A and B separated by a distance R attract each other with a force of 12  10 3 N . The
force between A and B when the charges on them are doubled and the distance is halved.
1) 1.92 N 2) 19.2N 3) 12N 4) 0.192N
11. The graph between E and r for a conducting uniformly charged sphere of radius R is:

1) 2)

3) 4)

12. A cube of side 1.2 m is kept in a uniform electric field as shown in fig. Find the electric flux through the
shaded face if the electric field is 3iˆ  2ˆj N / C .

1) zero 2) -4.32 Nm2 c-1

3) -3.6Nm2c-1 4) 2.88 × Nm2c-1
13. Two fixed point charges q each are placed at points x = a and x = -a, on the x axis. A charge -q is first placed
at origin and is then displaced through a small distance y along y axis. If y<< a, then the charge -q will;
1) Move along a straight line upto infinity
2) Perform oscillatory motion but not SHM
3) Perform SHM
4) Move in a circular path of radius a
14. A system has 2 charges qA= 2.5×10-7 C and qB =-2.5×10-7 C located at the points A (0,0, -15) cm and B
(0,0, 15) cm. The dipole moment of the system is;

1) K̂ 3.75  10 8 Cm 2)  K̂ 3.75  10 8 Cm

3)  K̂ 7.5  10 8 Cm 4) K̂ 7.5  10 8 Cm
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15. Consider the charge configuration and the closed Gaussian surface as shown. While calculating the flux of
the electric field over the surface, the electric field will be due to

1) All the three charges 2) Only q3

3) Only q1 and -q2 4) Only due to positive charges

16. A square surface of side L is in the plane of paper. A uniform electric field E also in the plane of paper, is
limited only to the lower half of the square surface. The electricflux associated with the surface is;

EL2 EL2
1) EL 2 2) 3) Zero 4)
2 2

17. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1mm. The charge per cm length of
the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and length 1m symmetrically encloses the
wire. The total electric flux passing throgh the cylindrical surface is;

100Q 10Q 100Q Q

1) 0 2)  3)  4) 100
0 0 0

 
18. A dipole of moment P is placed in a uniform electric field E. If θ is the angle blw the directions of E and P ,
then the potential energy of the dipole is largest when θ is;

 2
1) 2)  3) 0 4)
2 3
19. A polyethene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3.2×10-7C. The mass transfered
is
1) 1.8×10-18 Kg from polythene to wool 2) 1.8×10-18Kg from wool to polyethene
3) 9×10-16Kg from wool to polythene 4) 10-10Kg from polythene to wool.
20. An electric dipole placed with its axis in the direction of uniform electrifield experiences;
1) A force but no torque 2) A torque but no force
3) A force and a torque 4) Neither a force nor a torque
21. Two balls carrying +7 C and –5 C attract each other with a force F. If a charge –2 C is added to both the
force between them will be:
1) F 2) F/2 3) 2F 4) Zero
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22. Two equal metal balls are charged to 10 and –20 units of electricity. Then they are brought in contact with
each other and then again separated to original distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of force between the
two balls before and after contact is
1) 8 : 1 2) 1 : 8 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
23. Repulsive force between two  -particles separated by a distance of 3.2 x 10–15 m in air is
1) 90 N 2) 900 N 3) 9000 N 4) 80 N
24. A force of 80N acts between two equal and opposite charges which are placed a certain distance apart. If
25% of one charge is transferred to the other, then what is the force between them
1) 80 N 2) 40 N 3) 45 N 4) 55 N
25. Two point charges repel each other with a force of 100 N. One of the charges is increased by 10% and
other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at the same distance would be
1) 100 N 2) 121 N 3) 99 N 4) 110 N
26. A metallic sphere having no net charge is placed near a finite metal plate carrying a positive charge. The
electric force on the sphere will be
1) towards the plate 2) away from the plate 3) parallel to the plate 4) zero
27. Fg and Fe represent gravitational and electrotic force respectively between electrons situated at a distance
10cm. The ratio of Fg/Fe is of the order of
1) 1042 2) 10–21 3) 1024 4) 10–43
28. The distance between two point charges is increased by 10%. The force of interaction
1) Increases by 10% 2) decreases by 10%
3) decrease by 17% 4) Decreases by 21%
29. +Q charge is placed at the point A,B,C of a triangle having equal limbs. The intensity of electric field at 0 will
be:

1 Q 1 Q 1 Q2
1) 4  . r 2 2) 4 . r 3) Zero 4) 4  . 2
0 0 0 r

30. A charged particle of mass 5 × 10–5 kg is held stationary in space by placing it in an electric field of strength
107NC–1 directed vertically downwards. The charge on the particle is
1) –20 × 10–5C 2) –5 × 10–5C 3) 5 × 10–5C 4) 20 × 10–5C
CHEMISTRY
31. Addition of HCl to 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene yields two products, one of which has a rearranged carbon
skeleton. Which of the following cations are intermediate in that reaction?
 
a)  CH 3  CC HCH 2Cl b)  CH3  CC HCH3
3 3

(CH3)2C C (CH3)2

c) d)  CH3  C CH  CH 3 
2 2
Cl

1) a, b 2) a, c 3) a, d 4) b, d
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32. cis – But - 2 – ene is treated with Bayer’s reagent. The product is
1) Mesoform of Butane – 2, 3 – diol 2) Racemic form of Butane – 2, 3 - diol
3) Butine – 1, 4 – diol 4) Racemic mixture of Butan – 2 – ol
33. A hydrocarbon ‘A’ on chlorination gives ‘B’ which on heating with alcoholic KOH changes into another
hydrocarbon ‘C’. The latter decolourises Baeyer’s reagent and on ozonolysis forms formaldehyde only. ‘A’
is:
1) Ethene 2) Butane 3) Methane 4) Ethane
34. Among the following, which one has dipole moment zero
1) Cis-But-2-ene 2) cis-pent - 2 - ene
3) Propene 4) Trans - but - 2 - ene
35. tert-butyl chloride can be converted to isobutene by
1) Alc KOH 2) Na/ether 3) LiAlH4 4) All
36. i, cis alkene + syn addition  A
ii, cis alkene + anti addition  B
iii, trans alkene + syn addition  C
iv, trans alkene + anti addition  D
1) A  meso; B  meso  C  racemic D  meso
2) A  meso; B  racemic; C  racemic; D  meso
3) A  Racemic, B  Racemic,  Racemic, D  meso
4) A  Racemic; B  Meso, C  Racemic, D  meso
37. Which among the following is non-benzenoid aromatic

1) 2)

3) 4)

38. Which of the following reagents is used for the conversion of 2- hexyne into cis - 2- hexene?
1) H2/Pd - BaSO4 2) H2Pt
3) Zn/HCl 4) Li - NH3/C2H3OH
39. Which of the following reactions forms the basis of a diagnostic test to distinguish between terminal &
non - terminal alkynes, purification of alkynes & separation of terminal alkynes from alkenes?
1) HCN  C 2 H 2  H 2 C  CH  CN

2) R  C  CH  Ag   R  C  C  Ag   H 

3) CH  CH  H 2  CH 2  CH 2

4) 3C 2 H 2 873K
 C 6 H 6
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HCl
40. O2N CH CH CH3 Major product:

Cl

1) O2N CH2 CH CH3

Cl

2) O2N CH CH2 CH3

3) O2N CH2 CH2 CH2 Cl

4) None
41. Which of the following alkynes is most acidic ?

1) CH 3C  CCH 3 2) CH 3C  CH 3) CH  CH 4) CH 3CH 2 C  CH

42. Which of the catalysts should be used to hydrogenate but-2-yne into cis-but-2-ene
1) Lindlars catalyst 2) Ni\H2 3) Pt/H2 4) Birch reduction
43. A hydrocarbon with formula C4H6 gives methane with CH3MgBr. When treated with H2O in presence of
HgSO4, H2SO4 it gives butan - 2 - one. It is :
1) Buta - 1, 3 - diene 2) But - 1 - yne
3) But - 2 - yne 4) Both 2 & 3
B H CH COOH
44. C6 H5  C  C  C 6 H 5 
THF
 A 
2 6
 B. B is :
3

1) C6H5CH2CHC6H5 2) C6H5COCH2C6H5

OH

C6H5 C6H5
H C6H5
C C C C
3) 4)
H H H
C6H5

45. Which of the following gives butyne with 1, 2 - dihalogen derivative of butane?
1) Zn 2) Alc. KOH
3) NaNH2 4) KI/acetone
46. Which of the following will give glyoxal with O3?
A) Acetylene B) Benzene C) Ethene D) Ethane
1) A & B 2) B & C
3) C & D 4) A & C
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47. Which of the following gives precipitate of Ag Cl with AgNO3?

1) 2) 3) 4) 1 & 3
Cl H Cl
Cl

AlCl3
48. + CH3 CH CH2Cl X. X is :

CH3

1) Isobutyl benzene 2) Sec. butyl benzene

3) 1 & 2 4) Tert. butyl benzene

COOH
1
6 2
49. is nitrated. The position of nitro group is :
5 3 NO
2
4

1) C2 2) C4 3) C5 4) C6
50. The compound (CH3)2 CH - CHCl - CH3 reacts with alcoholic KOH to give
1) (CH3)2 CH - CH = CH2 2) CH3 - CH = C = CH2
3) CH3CH2CH = CHCH3 4) (CH3)2 C=CHCH3
51. The dehydrohalogenation of neopentyl bromide with alcoholic KOH gives mainly
1) But – 2 – ene 2) 2 – Methyl but – 2 – ene
3) 2,2 – Dimethyl but – 1– ene 4) No reaction
52. A hydrocarbon with formula C8H18 gives only primary monochloro derivative. The hydrocarbon is
1) n – octane 2) 2 – methylpentane
3) 2,2,4 – trimethyl pentane 4) 2,2,3,3 – tetra methyl butane
53. The type of hybridization of carbon atoms in 1,3-butadiene is:
1) sp2 only 2) sp3 only 3) sp2 & sp3 4) sp2 & sp
54. Kolbe’s synthesis on electrolysis of sodium salt of butanoic acid gives
1) n - hexane 2) Isobutane
3) Butane 4) Ethene
55. Two gases, P and Q decolourise aqueous bromine but only one of them gives a white precipitate with
aqueous ammoniacal silver nitrate solution. P and Q are likely to be
1) Ethane and Ethyne 2) But-1-yne and but -2- yne
3) Ethane and but - 2- yne 4) Ethyne and propyne
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56. Which set of products is expected on reductive ozonolysis of the following diolefin?
CH3
|
CH 3  CH  C  CH  CH 2

1) CH3CHO; CH3COCH = CH2 2) CH 3CH  C(CH 3 )3 CHO; CH 2 O

3) CH 3CHO;CH 3COCHO;CH 2 O 4) CH 3CHO; CH3 COCH 3 ; CH 2 O

57. Which of the following is incorrect?

1) CH3  Cl  H 2 
Zn,H
 CH 4  HCl

2) CH3  CH 2  Cl  H 2 
Zn ,H
 C 2 H 6  HCl

3) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  Cl  H 2 
Zn,H
 CH 3CH 2 CH 3  HCl

4) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  F  H 2 
Zn ,H
 CH 3CH 2 CH 3  HF

58. Which of the following represents the correct reaction ?

Ni Ni
1) CH 4  2H 2 O   CO 2  4H 2 2) CH 4  H 2 O   CO  3H 2
Ni Ni
3) CH 4  H 2 O   CH 3 OH  H 2 4) CH 4  H 2 O   HCHO  2H 2
NBS AlcKOH
59. CH3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 
hv
 
 Y. Y is

1) But-3-en-2-ol 2) But-3-en-1-ol
3) Buta–1, 2 - diene 4) Buta-1, 3 – diene
60. In a reaction of C6H5Y, the major product ( > 60%) is m - isomer, so the group Y is
1) –COOH 2) –NH2 3) –OH 4) –Cl
BIOLOGY: Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Animal Kingdom Non-Chordata
61. Wherever the elements are relatively immobile and are not transported out of mature organs then the
deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in :
1) older tissue 2) Young tissue
3) both older and young leaves 4) Root
62. (i) It is used in the synthesis of cell wall
(ii) Needed during the formation of mitotic spindle
(iii) It accumulates in older leaves
These points are related to :
1) Ca2+ 2) Mg2+ 3) Fe3+ 4) Cl–
63. One mineral activates the enzyme catalase and the other is a constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll.
These minerals are respectively
1) Iron and magnesium 2) Iron and manganese
3) Magnesium and manganese 4) Calcium and magnesium
64. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plant is

1) NO3 2) Glutamate 3) NO2 4) Ammonia

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65. Arrange the correct order of the following fixation process :

1) b, d, c, a 2) c, b, a, d
3) The given order is correct 4) d, a, b, c
66. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from H2O molecules. Which one of the following pairs
of elements is involved in this reaction?
1) Magnesium and chlorine 2) Manganese and chlorine
3) Manganese and potassium 4) Manganese and molybdenum
67. Select the correct equation with regards to biological nitrogen fixation

1) N 2  8H   16ATP  2NH 3  H 2  16ADP  16P2i

2) N 2  8H   8ATP  2NH 3  H 2  8ADP  8Pi

3) N 2  8H   4ATP  2NH3  H 2  4ADP  4Pi

4) N 2  8e  8H   16ATP  2NH 3  H 2  16ADP  16Pi

68. Which one of the following bacterium is involved in dentrification ?
1) Nitrococcus 2) Nitrosomonas 3) Pseudomonas 4) Nitrobacter
69. Late flowering in plant is due to the deficiency of
1) N, K, Mo 2) N, S, Mo 3) C, P, Mo 4) N, Mo, B
70. Match the element with its associated functions / roles and choose the correct option among given below.
A) Boron (i) Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during photosynthesis
B) Manganese (ii) Needed for synthesis of auxins
C) Molybdenum (iii) Component of nitrogenase
D) Zinc (iv) Pollen germination
E) Iron (v) Component of ferredoxin
1) A - (i) ; B - (ii) ; C - (iii) ; D - (iv) ; E - (v)
2) A - (iv) ; B - (i) ; C - (iii) ; D - (ii) ; E - (v)
3) A - (iii) ; B - (ii) ; C - (iv) ; D - (v) ; E - (i)
4) A - (ii) ; B - (iii) ; C - (v) ; D - (i) ; E - (iv)
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71. In 1860, ______ a German botanist, demostrated for the first time that plants could be grown to maturity in
a defined mineral solution in complete absence of soil.
1) Julius von Sachs 2) Joseph Priestley 3) Jan Ingenhousz 4) Charles Darwin
72. Which of the following is a beneficial element ?
1) Si 2) Na 3) Co 4) All of these
73. Hydroponics have been successfully employed as a technique for commercial production of
1)Tomato 2) Seedless cucumber 3) Lettuce 4) All of these
74. How many of the given elements are required by plants in less than 10 mmol/kg of dry matter ?

C, P, Mn, Cu, B, S, K, Ca, Cl, Fe, Mg

1) Six 2) Five 3) Seven 4) Eight

75. _______ is required in more abundant in the meristematic tissues, bud, leaves and root tips.
1) Boron 2) Calcium 3) Potassium 4) Iron
76. The deficiency of which of the following pair of elements will appear first in older leaves ?
1) S and Ca 2) Fe and P 3) Mg and Ca 4) N and K
77. Which of the following element is component of coenzyme A and biotin ?
1) Sulphur 2) Calcium 3) Magnesium 4) Potassium
78. All are physiological role of boron, except-
1) Required for uptake and utilization of Ca++
2) Required for cell elongation and cell differentiation
3) Required for root nodule formation
4) Required of sugar translocation
79. Plants requiring two metallic compounds for chlorophyll synthesis.
1) Fe and Ca 2) Cu and Ca 3) Fe and Mg 4) Mg and Ca
80. Choose the incorrect match.

N utrie nt e le me nt Absorbe d as
1) Phosphorus H 2P O 42 
2) Boron BO 33 
3) Molybdenum MoO 22 
4) Sulphur S O 24 

81. Bell-jar experiment was demonstrated by:

1) Joseph priestly 2) Jan Ingenhousz 3) Julius Von Sachs 4) Cornelius Von Sachs
82. Who proposed that starch is the first visible and storage product of photosynthesis:
1) T.W. Engelman 2) Robert Hill 3) Priestly 4) Julius Von Sachs
83. Identify the experimental material of cornelius Van Niel :
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Blue green algae
3) Purple and green bacteria 4) Both 1 & 2
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84. Which is the site of light reactions / photochemical reactions :
1) Granum 2) Periplastidial space
3) Stroma 4) Inner membrane of chloroplast
85. Which is the most abundant plant pigment:
1) Chlorophyll 2) Carotenoids 3) Phycobilins 4) Anthocyanin
86. Identify the primary photosynthetic pigment:
1) Carotenoids 2) Carotene 3) Xanthophyll 4) Chlorophyll a
87. Photo-oxidation is :
1) Destruction of chlorophyll due to carotenoids
2) Destruction of chlorophyll due to phycobilins
3) Destruction of chlorophyll due to high light intensity
4) Destruction of chlorophyll due to light having high wavelength
88. Light harvesting system consist of :
1) All the pigments in the photosystem including reaction centre
2) All the pigments in the photosystem except chlorophyll a in the reaction centre
3) Antenna pigments
4) Both 2 & 3
89. Identify the reaction centre of photosystem I & photosystem II respectively:
1) P680 & P700 2) P870 & P700 3) P700 & P680 4) P870 & P680
90. Which pigment forms the reaction centre :
1) Chlorophyll a 2) Chlorophyll b
3) Carotene 4) Xanthophyll
91. In chloroplast during electron transport, proton gradient occurs across:
1) Outer membrane of chloroplast 2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
3) Thylakoid membrane 4) Both 1 & 2
92. Identify the site of calvin cycle:
1) Stroma 2) Granum
3) Periplastidial space 4)Thylakoid
93. Identify the primary CO2 acceptor of C3 and C4 plants respectively:
1) PEP and RUBP 2) PEP case and RUbiscr
3) Rubisco and PEP case 4) RUBP and PEP
94. Photorespiration occur in :
1) C3 plants 2) C4 plants 3) CAM plants 4) All the above
95. Law of limiting factor was proposed in :
1) 1906 2) 1907 3) 1905 4) 1904
96. Both Ferridoxin NADP reductase (FNR) and photolysis of water are associated with :
1) Cyclic electron transport 2) Non-cyclic electron transport
3) Calvin cycle 4) C2 pathway
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97. The enzymes for light independent reactions of photosynthesis are located in
1) Granum 2) Periplastidial space
3) Stroma 4) Inner membrane of chloroplast
98. In C3 plants RUBISCO present in:
1) Chloroplast of mesophyll 2) Chloroplast of bundlesheath
3) Cytoplasm of mesophyll 4) Cytoplasm of bundlesheath
99. With regarding to C4 plants, number of chloroplast found maximum in
1) Mesophyll 2) Bundle sheath 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Stomata
100. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in chloroplast is based on:
1) Proton gradient 2) Accumulation of K ions
3) Accumulation of Na ions 4) Membrane potential
101. Comb plates for locomotion are found in
1) Porifera 2) Cnidaria 3) Ctenophora 4) Mollusca
102. Match the column I and column II
Column I Column II
a) Loose cell aggregation i) Aschelminthes
b) Bilateral symmetry ii) Hemichordata
c) Pscudocoelome iii) Annelida
d) Closed circulation iv) Porifera
1) a-i b-ii c-i d-iii 2) a-i b-ii c-iv d-iii
3) a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii 4) a-iv b-ii c-iii d-i
103. Select the correct path way of water current in sycon sponge;
1) Ostia  Osculum  Canal  Spongocoel  Outside
2) Ostia  Canal  Spongocoel  Osculum  Outside
3) Osculum  Spongocoel  Canal  Ostia  Outside
4) Canal  Spongocoel  Osculum  Ostia  Outside
104. Select the correct pair, regarding the phylum Arthropoda
i) Economically important insects – Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
ii) Vector insects – Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
iii) Gregarious pest – Locusta
iv) Living fossil – Neopilina
1) i & ii only 2) ii & iii only 3) iii & iv only 4) i, ii & iii only
105. Which is the wrong statement regarding phylum Mollusca
1) It is the second largest phylum in animal kingdom
2) Possess organ - system level of organisation
3) Are bilaterally symmetrical, diploblastic and coelomate animals
4) Body is unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
106. Select the odd one from the list
1) Asterias – Star fish
2) Echinus – Sea urchin
3) Cucumeria – Sea cucumber
4) Ophiura – Sea lily
107. Annelids have
1) Tube - within - a tube plan, unsegmented body and haemocoel
2) Blind sac plan, segmented body and true coelom
3) Tube - within - a tube plan, metameric segmentation and coelom
4) Tube - within - a tube plan, metameric segmentation and enterocoelom
108. Which of the following statements is/are false about ctenophora
i) commonly known as sea walnuts
ii) radially symmetrical and diploblastic organisms
iii) body bears six external rows of ciliated comb plates
iv) comb plates help in fixation
v) sexes are separate
1) all statements are true 2) i,ii and iii are true and iv and v false
3) ii, iii and iv are false i and vtrue 4) i & ii are true and iii, iv and v are false
109. Spongilla = Freshwater sponge: Euspongia=.
1) Ascon sponge 2) Boring Sponge 3) Ascon Sponge 4) Bathsponge
110. In phylum Arthropoda the members are usually dioecious, which means
1) Both sexes are seen in the same organism
2) Sexes are separate
3) There is no cross fertilization
4) Only one sex is seen in a population
111. Given below is the diagram of a cell of sponges. Identify it.

1) Scleroblast 2) Archaeocyte 3) Porocyte 4) Choanocyte

112. Which set of insects are useful to human beings
1) Silkworm, Lac insect, Honey bee 2) Wasp, Anopheles, Bed bug,
3) Bed bug, silkworm, Anopheles 4) Honey bee, Bed bug, Locust
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
113. Which among the following statement is not true about the phylum Arthropoda
1) Statocyst or balancing organs are present
2) They are bilaterally symmetrical triploblastic segmented and coelomate animals.
3) Circulatory system is open type
4) The chitinous cuticle of arthropods allows body expansion they possess a fused body form
114. Which one of the following group of animals each is correctly matched with their one characterstic
morphological features
Animals Morphological features
1) Scorpion, spider, cockroach – Ventral, solid, peripheral nervous system
2) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia – Coelomate animals
3) Liver fluke, sea anemone, sea cucumber – Bilateral symmetry
4) Centipede, prawn, honey bee – Jointed appendages
115. Select the wrong statement, regarding phylum Aschelminthes, which are commonly known as ‘round
worms’
1. They are either free - living, aquatic or terrestrial, mostly endoparasites
2. Shows organ system level of body organisation
3. They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, eucoelomate animals
4. Alimentary canal is incomplete, with well - developed muscular pharynx
5. Fertilisation is internal and development is strictly direct
1) 1 & 2 2) 2 & 4 3) 1 only 4) 3, 4 & 5
116. In mollusc sensory tentacles are present in
1) Anterior head region
2) Muscular foot
3) Visceral hump
4) Mantle cavity/space between hump and mantle
117. The stinging cells of cnidarians are called
1) Trichocyte 2) Statocyst 3) Nematocyst 4) Tentacle
118. Closed blood vascular system is present in
1) Leech 2) Cockroach 3) Planaria 4) Molluscs
119. The level of organization seen in roundworms
1) Organ level 2) Tissue level 3) Organ system level 4) Cellular level
120. The mouth of molluscs contains a file like rasping organ for feeding, called
1) Torsion 2) Spiracle 3) Radula 4) Morula
 11-12-2022 Batch: ONLINE
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET EXAMINATION
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + BIOLOGY
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS :

 E .ds  Nc  m  = Nm C
1 2 1
1. 1 m  JC 1m  Vm

P
2. 4 E
4 0 r 3

3. 2 In I case, the force of attraction between the two spheres is

1 10  20 1012
F1    ;
4 0 R2

20  10
When they touch, the charge on each is =   5C
2
1 52 1012 F1 200
F2   ;    8 :1
40 R2 F2 25

1 q1q 2
4. 4 Fe 
40 r 2 For Fe to be minimum q1q2 should be minimum

ie, (q1) min = (q2) min = e = 1.6  1019 C

(F ) min 
 9.0 10 1.6 10 1.6 10   2.304 10
9 19 19
28
N
e 2
1.0 
5. 2
6. 3
7. 4
8. 3
9. 2

1 2q1 2q 2
10. 4 F 
40  r / 2  2

11. 2
12. 4
13. 3
14. 3
15. 1 field is due to all charges
 0
16 3 E ia parallel to the plane of surface Q=90

1
17. 1 q net  (100cm)Q ; Q  q net
0
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
18. 2
19. 2
20. 4

F q11q12  7  2  5  2 
21. 1    1 ie, F  F
F q1q 2  7  5 

q1 q 2 10  20 F1 q1q 2 10(20) 200

22. 1 q11  q12    5 ;     8 :1
2 2 F 2 q11q12 5(5) 25

9 
1  2e  2e  3.2 10 19 
23. 1 F = 4  9  10  90 N
2 15 2
0 r  3.2 10 
9
24. 3 F   80  45N
16

1 q1q 2  110  90 
25. 3 F 2
   times
4 0 r  100  100 

99 99
 times; New force =  100  99N
100 100
26. 1

G  m e  me  1    e 
27. 4 Fg = also Fe =
2 40 r 2

2
G  me 
Fg
=  1  e2 = 2.39 × 10–43
Fe
 4 0 

1 1 100
28. 3 As F 2
; F  2
times  times  0.83times
r (110 /100) 121

 Decrease in force = (1 - 0.83) × 100% = 17%

29. 3

here three vectors are in equilibrium hence net field at 0 is zero

mg 5 10 5  10
30. 2 Q=  7
 5 105 C
E 10
Since, electric field acting downward, so for balance charge must be negative.
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
CHEMISTRY

CH3 CH3

C H Cl
CH2 
  1, 2-methyl shift
31. 4 H3C CH  H3C C CHCH3
20 carbocation
CH3 CH3

CH3

H3C C CH CH3

CH3

32. 1
Cl2 /h alco.KOH O3 /H2 O
33. 4 CH3 CH3   CH3CH 2 Cl   CH 2  CH 2  
 HCHO
(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. 4 Trans-But - 2 - ene being non-polar since dipole moments of individual groups being equal and
exactly opposite cancel out each other
35. 4
36. 2
37. 4
38. 1
39. 2
40. 1
41. 3
42. 1
43. 2

BH3
44. 4 C6H5 C C C6H5 C6H5 C C C6H5

H BH2 (A)

C6H5
C6H5
CH 3COOH
A  C C
H
H

45. 3
46. 1
47. 4 The carbocations formed when Cl– is removed from 1 & 3 are aromatic and stable. Recombina-
tion of them with Cl– does not take place. So AgCl is formed.
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

48. 4 CH3 CH CH2Cl + AlCl3 CH3 C CH2 Cl AlCl3

CH3 CH3

CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH2 + AlCl3

CH3 CH3

The rearranged tert - butyl group which is more stable is introduced in the ring and tert - butyl
benzene is formed.

49. 3

50. 4 Saytzeff rule of elimination is applied ie, more substituted alkene is formed

51. 4

52. 4

53. 1 1,3-butadiene is CH 2 = CH - CH = CH all the carbons are sp2 hybridized

54. 1 2CH 3CH 2 CH 2 COONa  CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3  2CO 2  2NaOH  H 2

55. 2 Both gases P and Q decolourise aqueous Br2 soln, both are unsaturated . One of them gives a white
ppt with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution is terminal alkyne (but -1- yne) while other is ion - terminal
alkyne (but- 2- yne)

56. 3

57. 4

58. 2

59. 4

60. 1
FT23V/TP/NEET/P+C+B 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
BIOLOGY
61. 2 76. 4 91. 3 106. 4
62. 1 77. 1 92. 1 107. 3
63. 1 78. 3 93. 4 108. 4
64. 4 79. 3 94. 1 109. 4
65. 2 80. 1 95. 3 110. 2
66. 2 81. 1 96. 2 111. 4
67. 4 82. 4 97. 3 112. 1
68. 3 83. 3 98. 1 113. 4
69. 2 84. 1 99. 2 114. 4
70. 2 85. 1 100. 1 115. 4
71. 1 86. 4 101. 3 116. 1
72. 4 87. 3 102. 3 117. 3
73. 4 88. 4 103. 2 118. 4
74. 2 89. 3 104. 4 119. 3
75. 3 90. 1 105. 3 120. 3