Q2. Surface which gives high thermal radiation is in short!!!!

a. Black and rough

b. White and smooth

c. White and rough

d. Black and smooth

Ans. a. Black and rough

A surface that is black and rough gives high thermal radiation. Black surfaces are efficient absorbers and
emitters of thermal radiation, while rough surfaces increase the surface area and enhance radiation
exchange with the surroundings. This combination allows for better heat transfer through radiation.

Q3. Identify the correct sequence in chemical engineering project design based on the following
activities. 1-Material and energy balances and preliminary equipment selection 2-Project specification;
3-Preliminary cost estimation; 4-Process selection and preliminary flow diagrams. In short!!!

a.2, 4, 1, 3

b.1 ,2 3,4

C 3,2,2,4

d. 1, 4, 2,3

Ans: The correct sequence in chemical engineering project design based on the given activities is:
d. 1, 4, 2, 3

1. Material and energy balances and preliminary equipment selection: This is typically the initial step in
the project design process. It involves analyzing and calculating the material and energy flows within the
system and making preliminary equipment selections based on the process requirements.

4. Process selection and preliminary flow diagrams: Once the material and energy balances are
established, the next step is to select the appropriate process or processes for the project. This involves
considering various factors such as reaction kinetics, separation requirements, and overall process
efficiency. Preliminary flow diagrams are then developed to illustrate the process flow and major
equipment involved.

2. Project specification: After the process selection and flow diagrams are established, the project
specification is developed. This includes defining the project scope, objectives, and requirements. It
outlines the specific goals and deliverables of the project.
3. Preliminary cost estimation: Once the project specifications are in place, a preliminary cost estimation
is performed. This involves estimating the costs associated with equipment, materials, labor, and other
project-related expenses. It provides an initial assessment of the project's financial feasibility and helps
in budgeting and planning.

Therefore, the correct sequence is d. 1, 4, 2, 3.

Q4. The internal energy of a cyclic process that has gone one complete cycle is In short!!!!
a. Greater than zero

b. Is path dependent

c. Zero

d. Less than zero

Ans: c. Zero
The internal energy of a system in a cyclic process that has gone through one complete cycle is zero. In a
cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state after completing the cycle. The internal energy is a
state function, meaning it depends only on the initial and final states of the system, not on the path
taken. Since the system returns to its initial state in a cyclic process, the change in internal energy is zero,
and thus the internal energy itself is zero. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Zero.

Q7. Inorganic coagulants used for the treatment of potable water exhibit the following characteristics
in short!!!!

a. They are nontoxic at the working dosage

b. They have a high charge density

c. They are insoluble in the neutral pH range

d. All

Ans: The correct answer is d. All.

Inorganic coagulants used for the treatment of potable water typically exhibit the following
characteristics:
a. They are nontoxic at the working dosage: Inorganic coagulants are chosen for their ability to
effectively treat water while maintaining safety standards. They are typically used at appropriate
dosages to ensure they do not pose a health risk.

b. They have a high charge density: Inorganic coagulants, such as aluminum sulfate (alum) or ferric
chloride, have a high charge density. This allows them to attract and neutralize particles and colloids in
the water, aiding in the coagulation and sedimentation process.

c. They are insoluble in the neutral pH range: Inorganic coagulants are typically added to the water at a
pH range where they are insoluble, such as acidic conditions. This helps to ensure that the coagulant
remains in a solid or precipitate form, facilitating its removal during the clarification process.

Therefore, all of the given characteristics are exhibited by inorganic coagulants used for the treatment of
potable water.

Q8. Which of the following is not true about Newtonian fluids in short!!!!
a. it give a straight line curve on a logarithmic shear stress-shear rate plot

b. exhibits shear thinning viscosity

c. viscosity is independent of shear rate

d. the value of n = 1 for Newtonian fluids in a power low model

Ans: The correct answer is b. Newtonian fluids do not exhibit shear thinning viscosity.
Option b is not true. Newtonian fluids have constant viscosity regardless of the shear rate applied to
them. This means that the viscosity of Newtonian fluids remains constant regardless of the magnitude of
the applied shear stress or shear rate. Examples of Newtonian fluids include water, most oils, and some
gases.

The other options are true:

a. Newtonian fluids do indeed give a straight line curve on a logarithmic shear stress-shear rate plot. This
is a characteristic behavior of Newtonian fluids, where the shear stress is directly proportional to the
shear rate. The slope of the straight line on the logarithmic plot is equal to the viscosity of the fluid.

c. Viscosity of Newtonian fluids is independent of shear rate. As mentioned earlier, the viscosity of a
Newtonian fluid remains constant regardless of the applied shear rate. In other words, the shear rate
does not affect the viscosity value of a Newtonian fluid.

d. The value of n is 1 for Newtonian fluids in a power-law model. The power-law model is a
mathematical model used to describe non-Newtonian fluids. However, for Newtonian fluids, the power-
law model simplifies to a simple linear relationship with n = 1, indicating that the fluid behaves as a
Newtonian fluid with constant viscosity.
Therefore, the incorrect statement is b. Newtonian fluids do not exhibit shear thinning viscosity.

Q9. Co-efficient of thermal expansion of glass is decreased by the addition of during its manufacture.
a.Fes

b.ZnO

c.CaO

d. MnO2

Ans: The correct answer is b. ZnO.

The addition of ZnO (zinc oxide) during the manufacture of glass can decrease the coefficient of thermal
expansion. When ZnO is added to the glass composition, it acts as a network modifier, reducing the
mobility of the glass network and decreasing the coefficient of thermal expansion. This helps to make
the glass more resistant to thermal stress and potential breakage caused by temperature changes.

Option a (FeS), option c (CaO), and option d (MnO2) do not typically have a significant impact on
reducing the coefficient of thermal expansion in glass.

Q10. In a shell and tube heat exchanger tube pattern that gives lower heat transfer rate is in short!!!
a. triangular tube pattern

b. square tube pattern

c. rotated square tube pattern

d. None

Ans: The correct answer is d. None.

In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the tube pattern does not directly determine the heat transfer rate.
The heat transfer rate in a shell and tube heat exchanger is primarily influenced by factors such as the
overall heat transfer coefficient, the temperature difference between the hot and cold fluids, the flow
rates of the fluids, and the thermal properties of the fluids and the tube material.

The tube pattern, such as triangular, square, or rotated square, may affect other aspects of the heat
exchanger, such as pressure drop, ease of cleaning, and mechanical considerations, but it does not
directly determine the heat transfer rate. Therefore, none of the given options (a, b, c) can be
considered as the correct answer.
Q11. The total sterilization time using a heating medium is In short!!!
a.Heating time+holding time + cool time

b.Heating time +cooling time

c.Holding time +cooling time

d. Holding time

Ans: a. Heating time + holding time + cool time

The total sterilization time using a heating medium typically includes the heating time, holding time, and
cool time.

Heating time refers to the duration required to raise the temperature of the medium or equipment to
the desired sterilization temperature.

Holding time refers to the period during which the medium or equipment is kept at the sterilization
temperature to ensure that all microorganisms are effectively killed or inactivated.

Cool time refers to the time taken for the medium or equipment to cool down after the sterilization
process is completed, allowing it to reach a safe temperature for handling or further processing.

Therefore, the correct answer is a. Heating time + holding time + cool time.

Q12. Which of the following is wrong about a proportional-only controller with unit step change with
set point for servo problem case? In short!!!

a Increasing Kc will increase the offset

b Increasing Kc will decrease the offset

c. The time constant for the controlled process will be reduced.

d. Static gain for the controlled process will be decreased

Ans: The correct answer is b. Increasing Kc will decrease the offset.

Option b is incorrect. Increasing the proportional gain (Kc) of a proportional-only controller with a unit
step change in the set point for a servo problem case will actually increase the offset. The offset refers
to the difference between the desired set point and the actual output of the system. When the
proportional gain is increased, the controller's response becomes more aggressive, which can introduce
overshoot and oscillations, leading to a larger offset.

The correct statements are:

a. Increasing Kc will increase the offset. As mentioned above, increasing the proportional gain can result
in a more aggressive response, potentially causing overshoot and increasing the offset.

c. The time constant for the controlled process will be reduced. Increasing the proportional gain typically
leads to a faster response of the controlled process. The time constant represents the time it takes for
the system to reach a certain fraction of its final value, and increasing the gain can reduce this time
constant.

d. The static gain for the controlled process will be decreased. The static gain represents the ratio of the
change in output to the change in input in steady-state conditions. Increasing the proportional gain can
result in a smaller steady-state output for a given input, effectively reducing the static gain.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is b. Increasing Kc will decrease the offset.

Q14. A hydraulic press has a ram of diameter 10 times higher than that of the plunger. How much
force must be applied on the plunger to raise a load of 500kg on the ram? Take g = 10m / (s ^ 2) a.250N

b.25N

c.500N

d.50N

Ans: To determine the force required on the plunger, we can use the principle of Pascal's law, which
states that the pressure in a fluid is transmitted uniformly in all directions.

Given that the diameter of the ram is 10 times higher than that of the plunger, the area of the ram is
100 times larger than that of the plunger (since area is proportional to the square of the diameter).

Let's denote the force applied on the plunger as F_plunger and the force exerted on the ram as F_ram.

According to Pascal's law, the pressure is the same in both the plunger and the ram. Therefore, we can
set up the following equation:
F_plunger / A_plunger = F_ram / A_ram

Since the area of the ram is 100 times larger than the area of the plunger, we have:

F_plunger / A_plunger = F_ram / (100 * A_plunger)

Simplifying the equation, we get:

F_plunger = F_ram / 100

Given that the load on the ram is 500 kg and the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s^2, we can
calculate the force exerted on the ram:

F_ram = mass * acceleration = 500 kg * 10 m/s^2 = 5000 N

Now, we can substitute the value of F_ram into the equation to find F_plunger:

F_plunger = 5000 N / 100 = 50 N

Therefore, the correct answer is d. 50N.

Q15. Which of the following is true? In short!!!

a.The Michaelis-Menten equation relates specific growth rate and the substrate concentration.

b. The Monod equation relates the death rate and substrate concentration

c. The Michaelis-Menten equation relates the enzymatic reaction rate and the substrate concentration.

d. The Monod equation relates the reaction rate and substrate concentration

Ans: The correct answer is c. The Michaelis-Menten equation relates the enzymatic reaction rate and
the substrate concentration.

The Michaelis-Menten equation is a fundamental equation in enzyme kinetics that describes the
relationship between the reaction rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction and the concentration of the
substrate. It provides a mathematical model for understanding how the rate of an enzymatic reaction
changes as the substrate concentration increases.

On the other hand:

a. The statement "The Michaelis-Menten equation relates specific growth rate and the substrate
concentration" is incorrect. The Michaelis-Menten equation is specifically used to describe enzymatic
reaction rates, not growth rates.

b. The statement "The Monod equation relates the death rate and substrate concentration" is also
incorrect. The Monod equation, which is commonly used in microbial growth kinetics, relates the
specific growth rate of microorganisms to the substrate concentration, not the death rate.

d. The statement "The Monod equation relates the reaction rate and substrate concentration" is also
incorrect. The Monod equation is specifically used to describe the growth rate of microorganisms in
relation to the substrate concentration, not the general reaction rate.

Therefore, the correct statement is c. The Michaelis-Menten equation relates the enzymatic reaction
rate and the substrate concentration.

Q17. Toxicity water indicates the presence of in short

a.dissolved matter in the water

b.The presence of bubbles in water

c.suspended matter (which can be inorganic or organic or both) in water

d.volatile matter in the water

Ans: The correct answer is c. Toxicity in water indicates the presence of suspended matter (which can
be inorganic or organic or both) in the water.

Toxicity refers to the harmful effects or potential for harm caused by certain substances or materials.
When toxicity is observed in water, it suggests that there are suspended substances present in the water
that have the potential to cause harm to living organisms.

These suspended substances can include various types of inorganic or organic matter, such as pollutants,
chemicals, heavy metals, or biological contaminants. The presence of these suspended particles in the
water can lead to adverse health effects and pose a risk to aquatic life and ecosystems.

Option a (dissolved matter in the water) refers to substances that are dissolved in the water and may
not necessarily indicate toxicity.

Option b (the presence of bubbles in water) typically does not directly indicate toxicity but can be a sign
of other factors such as aeration or gas release.

Option d (volatile matter in the water) refers to substances that evaporate easily, and while they can be
toxic, it does not specifically indicate the presence of toxicity in water.

Q18. Phosphate rock is not a raw material for the manufacture of in short!!!
a. superphosphates

b. potash

c. phosphoric acid

d.phosphorous

Ans: The correct answer is b. potash.

Phosphate rock is a raw material for the manufacture of the following:

a. Superphosphates: Phosphate rock is commonly used to produce superphosphates, which are

fertilizers containing phosphorus. Superphosphates are created by treating phosphate rock with sulfuric
acid, resulting in the formation of water-soluble phosphates that can be readily absorbed by plants.

c. Phosphoric acid: Phosphate rock is a key source of phosphoric acid production. Phosphoric acid is
used in various industries, including fertilizer production, food and beverage manufacturing, and the
production of detergents and animal feed.

d. Phosphorous: Phosphorus is obtained from phosphate rock through different chemical processes. It is
an essential element for various applications, including the production of fertilizers, detergents, flame
retardants, and pharmaceuticals.

On the other hand, potash refers to different potassium compounds, typically potassium chloride (KCl),
potassium sulfate (K2SO4), or potassium carbonate (K2CO3). Potash is not directly derived from
phosphate rock but is sourced from potassium-rich minerals or deposits.

Q19. Which of the following is not important in cement production? In short!!!

a. Stockpiling of raw materials

b. calcination

c.Ball milling

d. gasification

Ans: The correct answer is d. gasification.

Gasification is not directly involved in cement production. The key processes in cement production
include the following:

a. Stockpiling of raw materials: Raw materials, such as limestone, clay, shale, and iron ore, are stockpiled
and stored before being used in cement manufacturing.
b. Calcination: Calcination is a crucial step in cement production where raw materials, typically
limestone, are heated at high temperatures to drive off carbon dioxide and convert calcium carbonate
into calcium oxide (lime).

c. Ball milling: After calcination, the resulting clinker is mixed with gypsum and other additives and then
ground in a ball mill to produce cement. Ball milling helps in reducing the particle size and homogenizing
the components.

d. Gasification: Gasification is not directly related to cement production and is not considered an
important process. Gasification is a thermochemical process that converts carbonaceous materials into a
gaseous fuel called syngas. It is typically used in applications such as biomass gasification or coal
gasification for energy production, but not in cement manufacturing.

Therefore, the correct option is d. gasification.

Q20. In an ideal plug flow reactor in short!!!

a. There is no mixing in the radial direction

b. There is a uniform velocity across the radius

C.There is uniform reactant concentration throughout reactor

d. Mixing occurs in the longitudinal direction

Ans: In an ideal plug flow reactor (PFR), the correct statements are:
a. There is no mixing in the radial direction: In a PFR, the fluid flows in a continuous, streamlined manner
along the reactor's axial direction. The absence of radial mixing means that there are no lateral
variations in composition or velocity.

d. Mixing occurs in the longitudinal direction: While there is no radial mixing in a PFR, there can be
mixing in the longitudinal (axial) direction. This occurs due to the convective and dispersive effects of
flow, which can cause some degree of mixing between the reactants as they move down the reactor.

Regarding the remaining statements:

b. There is a uniform velocity across the radius: This statement is not true for a PFR. In a PFR, the
velocity profile across the reactor's cross-section is not uniform. The velocity is highest at the center of
the reactor and decreases towards the reactor walls due to the no-slip condition at the walls.

c. There is uniform reactant concentration throughout the reactor: This statement is also not true for a
PFR. In a PFR, the reactant concentration changes along the axial direction of the reactor due to the
progress of the reaction. The concentration is highest at the reactor inlet and decreases as the reactants
are consumed.

Therefore, the correct statements for an ideal plug flow reactor are a. There is no mixing in the radial
direction, and d. Mixing occurs in the longitudinal direction.

Q21. Which on of the following is not a mechanical unit operation? In short!!!

a. Sedimentation

b. Centrifugal separation

c. Filtration

d. Distillation

Ans: The correct answer is d. Distillation.

Distillation is not a mechanical unit operation; it is a thermal separation process. It involves the
separation of components in a mixture based on their different boiling points. Distillation relies on the
principle of vaporization and condensation to separate the components.

On the other hand, sedimentation, centrifugal separation, and filtration are mechanical unit operations
commonly used for separation processes.

Sedimentation involves the settling of particles or solids in a liquid due to gravity.

Centrifugal separation utilizes centrifugal force to separate components of different densities or sizes.

Filtration involves the separation of solids from a fluid by passing the mixture through a porous medium,
such as a filter.

Therefore, the correct answer is d. Distillation is not a mechanical unit operation.

Q22. According to Bond's law the work required to reduce a larger size particle to a particle of smaller
diameter is proportional to in short!!!

a. The square root of the particle size of the input

b.Independent of the product dimensions

C.The square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product

d. The square root of the particle size of the product

Ans: According to Bond's law, the work required to reduce a larger size particle to a particle of smaller
diameter is proportional to the square root of the particle size of the input.

Therefore, the correct option is a. The square root of the particle size of the input.

Q23. What is the characteristic equation for the closed loop diagram shown? Where y(s) y_{m}(s)
and(s) are output, set point and disturbance, respectively and G_{c}(s) G_{f}(s) G_{p}(s) G_{m}(s) and
G_{d}(s) are transfer function for controller final control element, process and measuring device
respectively. In short!!!!!

a. (G_{m}*G_{e}*G_{f}*G_{p})/(1 + G_{m}*G_{c}*G_{f}*G_{p}) = 0

b.G_{m}*G_{c}*G_{f}*G_{p} = 0

C.(1 - G_{m}*G_{c}*G_{f}*G_{\mathfrak{p}}) = 0

d.(1 + G_{m}*G_{c}*G_{f}*G_{p}) = 0

Ans: The characteristic equation for the closed-loop diagram can be represented as:
d. (1 + G_{m}*G_{c}*G_{f}*G_{p}) = 0

The characteristic equation is obtained by equating the denominator of the closed-loop transfer
function to zero. In this case, the closed-loop transfer function is given by the product of the transfer
functions of the measuring device (G_{m}), controller (G_{c}), final control element (G_{f}), and the
process (G_{p}). The characteristic equation represents the equation that needs to be satisfied for the
closed-loop system to reach stability.

Q24. One of the following does not take place during the lag phase in short!!!
a. Cells begin to synthesize the enzymes

b.Inoculated cells into the new medium self-adjust to the new environment

c.They synthesize components necessary for growth

d.The number of cells increase during this period.

Ans: The correct answer is d. The number of cells does not increase during the lag phase.
During the lag phase of microbial growth, the cells are adapting to the new environment and preparing
for growth. The other options, a, b, and c, are all true for the lag phase:
a. Cells begin to synthesize the enzymes: During the lag phase, the cells adjust their metabolic activities
and start synthesizing the enzymes necessary for growth in the new environment.

b. Inoculated cells into the new medium self-adjust to the new environment: The cells that are
inoculated into a new medium undergo an adjustment period where they adapt to the new conditions
of the medium, including nutrient availability, temperature, pH, and other factors.

c. They synthesize components necessary for growth: During the lag phase, the cells synthesize various
components such as ribosomes, DNA, RNA, and other cellular machinery required for growth.

However, the number of cells typically remains relatively constant or may even decrease during the lag
phase. This is because the cells are focusing on adapting to the new environment and preparing for
growth rather than actively dividing and increasing in number.

Q26. Work done is zero for: in short!!!

a. an isochoric process

b. an isothermal process

c. an isobaric process

d. an adiabatic process

Ans: In short, the work done is zero for:

a. an isochoric process: In an isochoric process, also known as a constant-volume process, the volume
remains constant. Since work is defined as the product of force and displacement, and there is no
displacement occurring in a constant-volume process, the work done is zero.

d. an adiabatic process: In an adiabatic process, there is no heat transfer between the system and its
surroundings. The work done in an adiabatic process can be nonzero if there is a change in volume.
However, if there is no change in volume, such as in an isochoric adiabatic process, the work done is
zero.

Therefore, the correct options are a. an isochoric process and d. an adiabatic process.

Q27. By how much should the temperature of a given amount of an ideal gas be raised from 27°C to
double the volume of the gas at constant pressure in short!!!

a. 327°C
b.27°C

C. 300°C

d. 54°C

Ans: To double the volume of an ideal gas at constant pressure, the temperature must be raised by a
factor of 2.

Using the ideal gas law, which states that PV = nRT (where P is pressure, V is volume, n is the number of
moles, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is temperature), we can see that if the pressure and number of
moles remain constant, doubling the volume requires doubling the temperature.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. 27°C. No additional temperature change is needed to double the
volume of the gas at constant pressure.

Q28. Which one of the following is not true? In short!!!

a. Bubble-cap plates are most expensive as compared to valve and sieve plates

b. Bubble-cap plates are used for very low vapour flow rates

c. Generally, sieve plates give the lowest pressure drop

d. None

Ans: The correct answer is a. Bubble-cap plates are most expensive as compared to valve and sieve
plates.

Bubble-cap plates are not the most expensive compared to valve and sieve plates. In fact, bubble-cap
plates are usually less expensive than valve plates. Bubble-cap plates consist of bubble caps that allow
vapor to pass through while trapping liquid, promoting efficient mass transfer. They are commonly used
in distillation columns. Valve plates, on the other hand, have movable valves that open and close to
control the flow of vapor and liquid. Sieve plates have holes or slots that allow vapor to pass through
while retaining liquid.

Option b is true. Bubble-cap plates are often used for very low vapor flow rates because they provide
good liquid-vapor contact and help prevent flooding at low flow rates.

Option c is true. Generally, sieve plates provide the lowest pressure drop compared to bubble-cap and
valve plates. This is because sieve plates have larger open areas for vapor flow, resulting in lower
resistance to flow and lower pressure drop.

Therefore, the correct answer is a. Bubble-cap plates are most expensive as compared to valve and sieve
plates.
Q29. Performance equation for Ideal Plug flow reactor, if epsilon = 0 In short!!!!
a. V/F_{m} =- 1 C A0 int C A0 ^ C Af dC A r A

b. V F s0 = integrate 1/r_{A} dX_{A} from 0 to X_{A}

с.V F A0 = r_{A}/X_{A}

d. None

Ans: The correct answer is d. None.

The performance equation for an ideal plug flow reactor (PFR) when epsilon (ε) is zero is not
represented by any of the given options. The parameter ε represents the effectiveness factor, which is
used to account for deviations from ideal behavior in non-ideal reactors.

For an ideal plug flow reactor (PFR), the performance equation is typically expressed as:

V * dF_A = -r_A * dV

Where V is the reactor volume, F_A is the molar flow rate of species A, r_A is the rate of reaction, and
dV and dF_A represent infinitesimal changes in volume and molar flow rate, respectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is d. None.

Q30. Which one of the following is a direct contact heat exchanger for heat transfer? In short!!!
a. Shell and tube heat exchanger

b. Condensers

C. Double pipe heat exchanger

d. Cooling towers

Ans: The correct answer is C. Double pipe heat exchanger.

A double pipe heat exchanger is a type of direct contact heat exchanger. In this heat exchanger, the hot
and cold fluids come into direct contact with each other, allowing for efficient heat transfer between
them. The fluids flow through separate pipes within a larger pipe, facilitating the transfer of heat.

On the other hand:

a. Shell and tube heat exchangers are not direct contact heat exchangers. They consist of multiple tubes
enclosed within a shell, and the heat transfer occurs through the tube walls without direct contact
between the fluids.
b. Condensers are not typically classified as direct contact heat exchangers. They are devices used to
transfer heat from a vapor to a cooling medium, generally through the condensation of the vapor. The
heat transfer occurs across a surface or through tubes, but not through direct contact between the
fluids.

d. Cooling towers are also not direct contact heat exchangers. They are used to remove heat from a
process fluid, typically through the evaporation of water. The heat transfer occurs through the
evaporation process and subsequent cooling of the water, but not through direct contact between the
process fluid and the cooling medium.

Therefore, the correct option is C. Double pipe heat exchanger.

Q31. For a series of reactions of the form A B C if the k_{1} << k_{2} the rate of the reaction can be
approximated by in short

a.AB

b. A ^ k_{1} * C

C.A -> C

d.AB

Ans: The correct answer is d. AB.

When k₁ is significantly smaller than k₂ (k₁ << k₂), it implies that the rate of the forward reaction (A → B)
is much slower compared to the rate of the reverse reaction (B → A). In this case, the rate-determining
step is the forward reaction, and it becomes the limiting step for the overall reaction rate.

Since the forward reaction is rate-limiting, the rate of the reaction can be approximated by the
concentration of the reactants involved in the rate-determining step, which in this case is AB. Therefore,
the correct answer is d. AB.

Q32. Absorber are best operated at: in short!!!

a.High pressure

b.High pressure and low temperature

c.High temperature and low pressure

d.High temperature

Ans: Absorbers are best operated at high pressure and low temperature.
In an absorption process, an absorber is a unit where one component of a gas mixture is selectively
absorbed by a liquid. The absorption efficiency is typically higher at higher pressures because it
increases the concentration of the gas component in the gas phase and enhances the contact between
the gas and liquid phases, promoting absorption.

However, operating at high temperature can decrease the absorption efficiency because it can reduce
the solubility of the gas component in the liquid phase. Therefore, a combination of high pressure and
low temperature is often preferred to achieve optimal absorption performance in an absorber.

So, the correct option is b. High pressure and low temperature.

Q33. How does heat transfer through vacuum? In short!!!

a. By convention

b.By bulk flow of fluids

c.By radiation

d. By conduction

Ans: In short, heat transfer through a vacuum occurs by radiation.

In a vacuum, there is no physical medium for heat transfer to occur through conduction or convection,
as these mechanisms require the presence of a material medium. However, heat can still be transferred
through a vacuum by radiation.

Radiation is the transfer of heat energy through electromagnetic waves, such as infrared radiation. It
does not rely on the presence of a material medium and can occur even in the absence of air or any
other substance. This is why heat from the Sun can reach the Earth through the vacuum of space.

Therefore, the correct option is c. By radiation.

Q34. The temperature gradient used in the heat exchanger design calculations is: in short!!!
a. Logarithmic mean temperature difference

b. Arithmetic mean temperature difference

c. Geometric mean temperature difference

d. None

Ans: The correct answer is a. Logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD).

The logarithmic mean temperature difference is used in heat exchanger design calculations to
determine the temperature driving force for heat transfer between two fluids. It takes into account the
varying temperature profiles of the hot and cold fluids along the length of the heat exchanger.

The arithmetic mean temperature difference (AMTD) and geometric mean temperature difference
(GMTD) are not commonly used in heat exchanger design calculations.

Therefore, the correct option is a. Logarithmic mean temperature difference.

Q35. Which of the following is not a purpose of liquid mixing in biochemical stirred tank reactors? In
short!!!

a. To suspend particles or cells in the liquid

b. To facilitate settling of substrates

c. To the concentration of liquid inside the tank as uniform as possible

d. In case of aerated stirred tanks, to disperse gas as bubbles in a liquid

Ans: The correct answer is b. To facilitate settling of substrates.

The purpose of liquid mixing in biochemical stirred tank reactors includes:

a. To suspend particles or cells in the liquid: In stirred tank reactors, mixing is essential to keep particles
or cells suspended in the liquid medium. This promotes efficient mass transfer and reaction kinetics.

c. To make the concentration of liquid inside the tank as uniform as possible: Mixing ensures that the
concentration of substrates, nutrients, and other components in the liquid is evenly distributed
throughout the reactor, providing optimal conditions for biochemical reactions.

d. In the case of aerated stirred tanks, to disperse gas as bubbles in a liquid: Stirring helps in the
dispersion of gas into small bubbles throughout the liquid medium. This promotes efficient gas-liquid
mass transfer and provides oxygen for aerobic processes.

However, facilitating the settling of substrates is not typically a purpose of liquid mixing in biochemical
stirred tank reactors. Settling of substrates can hinder efficient mixing and may lead to incomplete
reaction or reduced productivity.

Therefore, the correct option is b. To facilitate settling of substrates.

Q36. How long does it take for the decomposition of half of reactant A in a batch reactor? The amount
of A fed into the reactor is 50mol, rate of decomposition of A in the reactor is 10m ^ 3 * s ^ - 1 * mol * ^
- 1 the volume of the reactor is 1m ^ 3 and assume epsilon_{A} is zero. In short!!!

a 7.5s

b. 5s

C 10s

d. 2.5s

Ans: To find the time it takes for the decomposition of half of reactant A in a batch reactor, we can use
the concept of reaction half-life.

The reaction half-life is the time it takes for the concentration of a reactant to decrease by half. It can be
calculated using the formula:

t(1/2) = ln(2) / k

where t(1/2) is the half-life, ln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2 (approximately 0.693), and k is the rate
constant of the reaction.

In this case, we are given the rate of decomposition of A in the reactor as 10 m^3 * s^-1 * mol^-1. Since
we are working in a batch reactor, the volume of the reactor is 1 m^3.

The rate of decomposition (r) can be related to the rate constant (k) and the concentration of A (C_A)
using the expression:

r = -k * C_A

Since we want to find the half-life, we can rearrange the equation as:

k = -r / C_A

Substituting the given values, we have:

k = -10 m^3 * s^-1 * mol^-1 / 50 mol

k = -0.2 s^-1

Now, we can substitute the value of k into the half-life formula:

t(1/2) = ln(2) / (-0.2 s^-1)

t(1/2) ≈ 3.465 s
Therefore, the time it takes for the decomposition of half of reactant A in the batch reactor is
approximately 3.465 seconds.

None of the given options match this value exactly, but the closest option is d. 2.5 seconds.

Q37. Turbulent flow of a Newtonian fluid is observed when the Reynolds number exceeds in short!!!
a. 3000

b. 2000

c. 1500

d: 4000

Ans: The correct answer is a. 3000.

Turbulent flow of a Newtonian fluid is observed when the Reynolds number exceeds a certain value. The
Reynolds number (Re) is a dimensionless parameter that relates the inertial forces to the viscous forces
within a fluid flow. It is calculated using the formula:

Re = (ρvd) / μ

where ρ is the density of the fluid, v is the velocity of the fluid, d is a characteristic length or diameter,
and μ is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid.

For most practical cases, turbulent flow occurs when the Reynolds number exceeds approximately 3000.
Therefore, the correct option is a. 3000.

Q38. Convection is a heat transfer mainly through in short!!!

a. Random molecular movement

b. Bulk transport of fluid

c. Electromagnetic waves

d. None

Ans: The correct answer is b. Bulk transport of fluid.

Convection is a heat transfer mechanism that primarily occurs through the bulk movement of a fluid. It
involves the transfer of heat energy through the motion of the fluid itself. Convection can be classified
into two types: natural convection and forced convection.
In natural convection, the fluid motion is driven by density differences caused by temperature variations.
Hotter fluid becomes less dense and rises, while cooler fluid sinks. This creates a circulation pattern that
facilitates heat transfer.

In forced convection, the fluid motion is induced by an external force, such as a fan or a pump. The fluid
is forced to move, enhancing heat transfer by increasing the contact between the fluid and the heated
or cooled surface.

On the other hand:

a. Random molecular movement refers to heat transfer through conduction, where heat energy is
transferred from higher-energy molecules to lower-energy molecules through direct molecular
interactions.

c. Electromagnetic waves refer to heat transfer through radiation, which involves the transfer of heat
energy through electromagnetic waves, such as infrared radiation.

Therefore, the correct option is b. Bulk transport of fluid.

Q39. The rate expression of the reaction 2A + B -> 3C is - r_{A} = K_{A} * C_{A} ^ 2 Which one of the
following is not true about the reaction and the rate expression? In short!!!

a The reaction is an elementary reaction

b. The rate is independent of amount of B

c. It is a second order reaction

d. It is zero order with respect to B

Ans. The correct answer is c. It is a second order reaction.

The given rate expression, -r_{A} = K_{A} * C_{A}^2, indicates that the rate of the reaction is proportional
to the square of the concentration of species A (C_{A}). This implies that the reaction is second order
with respect to species A, not zero order.

Option a is true. The rate expression does not provide any information about the reaction mechanism,
so it cannot be determined whether the reaction is elementary or not based solely on the given rate
expression.

Option b is true. The rate expression explicitly states that the rate is independent of the concentration
of B.

Option d is true. The given rate expression, -r_{A} = K_{A} * C_{A}^2, does not include the concentration
of species B, indicating that the reaction is zero order with respect to B.
Therefore, the correct answer is c. It is a second order reaction.

Q40. An enzymes are made of in short!!!

a. fats

b.proteins

C.amino acid

d.carbohydrates

Ans: The correct answer is b. Proteins.

Enzymes are biological catalysts that facilitate chemical reactions in living organisms. They are typically
made of proteins, which are large molecules composed of amino acids. Proteins are formed by the
linkage of amino acids through peptide bonds, creating a chain-like structure.

While fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids are all important components of biological systems, enzymes
themselves are primarily composed of proteins. The specific sequence and arrangement of amino acids
in an enzyme determine its unique structure and function, allowing it to catalyze specific reactions.

Therefore, the correct option is b. Proteins.

Q42. What is the relationship between kinematic and dynamic viscosities in short!!!
a. Kinematic viscosity is density times dynamic viscosity

b. Dynamic viscosity mass times kinematic viscosity

c.Kinematic viscosity is mass times dynamic viscosity

d. Dynamic viscosity is density times kinematic viscosity

Ans: The correct answer is d. Dynamic viscosity is density times kinematic viscosity.
The relationship between kinematic viscosity (ν) and dynamic viscosity (μ) is given by the equation:

Dynamic viscosity (μ) = Density (ρ) × Kinematic viscosity (ν)

In other words, dynamic viscosity is equal to the product of density and kinematic viscosity. This
relationship holds true for fluids and is an important concept in fluid mechanics. Therefore, the correct
answer is d. Dynamic viscosity is density times kinematic viscosity.
Q44. Overall column efficiency is defined as: In short!!!
a. The ratio of the number of stages in the stripping section to the number of stages in the rectifying
section

b. The ratio of the energy from the condenser to the heat supplied to the reboiler

c. The ratio of the number of ideal stages to the number of real stages

d. The ratio of the number of stages in the rectifying section to the number of stages in the stripping
section

Ans: The correct answer is c. The ratio of the number of ideal stages to the number of real stages.
Overall column efficiency is a measure of how effectively a distillation column is performing in achieving
separation. It is defined as the ratio of the number of ideal stages to the number of real stages.

Ideal stages refer to theoretical stages with perfect equilibrium between the liquid and vapor phases,
while real stages take into account non-idealities and deviations from equilibrium in the actual column.

The efficiency of a distillation column can be calculated by dividing the number of theoretical stages
required for a given separation by the actual number of stages in the column. This ratio provides an
indication of how closely the column is approaching the ideal separation performance.

Therefore, the correct option is c. The ratio of the number of ideal stages to the number of real stages.

Q45. Rate of reaction is always affected by the following except in short!!!

a. Catalyst

b. Atmospheric pressure

c.Concentration of reactants

d. Temperature

Ans: The correct answer is b. Atmospheric pressure.

The rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by several factors, including the presence of a catalyst, the
concentration of reactants, and the temperature. However, atmospheric pressure does not directly
affect the rate of a reaction.

Catalysts can increase the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower
activation energy. The concentration of reactants affects the collision frequency and likelihood of
successful collisions between reactant particles, thus impacting the reaction rate. Temperature
influences the rate of a reaction by affecting the kinetic energy of particles, increasing their collision
frequency and the number of collisions with sufficient energy to overcome the activation energy barrier.

In contrast, atmospheric pressure primarily affects the physical properties of a system, such as boiling
point or phase transitions, rather than the rate of a chemical reaction.

Therefore, the correct option is b. Atmospheric pressure.

Q46. Which one of the following not direct cost in breakdown of fixed-capital investment? In short!!!
a.Land cost

b. Cost for Purchased-equipment installation

C .Piping cost

d. Cost for engineering and supervision

Ans: The correct answer is d. Cost for engineering and supervision.

In the breakdown of fixed-capital investment, the cost for engineering and supervision is typically not
considered a direct cost. Direct costs are expenses that can be directly attributed to a specific project or
investment. While engineering and supervision are essential for the successful execution of the project,
they are generally considered indirect costs or overhead costs.

Direct costs in the breakdown of fixed-capital investment usually include costs such as land cost, cost for
purchased-equipment installation, and piping cost. These costs are directly associated with the
construction, installation, and operation of the project.

On the other hand, the cost for engineering and supervision encompasses activities such as project
management, design, planning, and oversight, which are necessary for the project's execution but are
not directly tied to specific physical components or activities.

Therefore, the correct option is d. Cost for engineering and supervision.

Q47. Which of the following duties is slightly related to the chemical engineering profession?
a.analysing an existing process

b.designing a new process

c.building construction management

d. project management

Ans: The correct answers are a. analyzing an existing process and b. designing a new process.
Both analyzing an existing process and designing a new process are duties that are directly related to the
chemical engineering profession.

a. Analyzing an existing process involves studying and evaluating an existing chemical process to identify
areas for improvement, optimization, or troubleshooting. Chemical engineers are trained to analyze the
efficiency, safety, and environmental impact of a process and propose modifications to enhance its
performance.

b. Designing a new process involves creating and developing new chemical processes or systems to meet
specific objectives. Chemical engineers are responsible for designing processes that are efficient, cost-
effective, and environmentally friendly. This includes selecting appropriate equipment, determining
process conditions, and ensuring the desired product quality.

On the other hand:

c. Building construction management is not directly related to chemical engineering. It falls more within
the realm of civil engineering or construction management, which focuses on overseeing the planning,
design, and construction of buildings and infrastructure.

d. Project management is a skill that can be applied across various professions, including chemical
engineering. While project management is an important aspect of many engineering projects, including
chemical engineering projects, it is not an exclusive duty of chemical engineers.

Therefore, the duties that are slightly related to the chemical engineering profession are a. analyzing an
existing process and b. designing a new process.

Q50. Net present worth is preferred to evaluate profitability of a project because in short!!!
a.it considers time value of money

b.it is a simple technique

c. it has a better estimation

d. None

Ans:The correct answer is a. It considers the time value of money.

Net present worth (NPW) is a financial evaluation technique used to assess the profitability of a project.
It takes into account the time value of money, which recognizes that the value of money changes over
time due to factors such as inflation and the potential for investment returns.

In NPW analysis, future cash flows generated by the project are discounted back to their present value
using an appropriate discount rate. By discounting future cash flows, NPW accounts for the opportunity
cost of tying up capital in the project and provides a more accurate representation of the project's
profitability.
Comparing the present value of cash inflows to the present value of cash outflows allows for a
comprehensive assessment of the project's profitability over its entire lifespan. A positive NPW indicates
that the project is expected to generate more cash inflows than outflows and is therefore financially
favorable.

On the other hand:

b. It is not correct to say that NPW is a simple technique. NPW calculations involve discounting cash
flows and can be complex depending on the project's timeline and cash flow pattern.

c. The "better estimation" mentioned in option c is not clear. NPW is a widely used financial evaluation
method that takes into account the time value of money and provides a meaningful measure of a
project's profitability.

Therefore, the correct option is a. It considers the time value of money.

Q51. Which one of the following constant is second order sysetem in short!!!!
a.Time constant

b.Damping factor

c Steady state gain of system

d All

Ans: The correct answer is a. Time constant.

In a second-order system, the time constant is a constant that determines the rate at which the system
responds to changes in input or disturbances. It represents the time it takes for the system's response to
reach approximately 63.2% (1 - 1/e) of its final value in response to a step input. The time constant is
typically denoted as τ (tau) and is measured in units of time (e.g., seconds).

The damping factor (option b) represents the degree of damping or the amount of resistance to
oscillations in the system. It is denoted by ζ (zeta) and is dimensionless.

The steady-state gain of the system (option c) is a measure of the system's output in response to a
constant input or during steady-state conditions. It is a constant that represents the amplification or
attenuation of the input signal by the system. The steady-state gain is typically denoted as K and can
have units or be dimensionless depending on the specific system.

Therefore, the correct answer is a. Time constant.

Q52. which of the following not correct? In short!!!
a. In a continuous reactor operation, the inputs flow continuously but the outputs flow at the end of the
reaction

b. In sem batch process, one or more inputs may flow continuously, the other(s) are fed only once.

c. In a batch reactor operation, there are no streams that go in or out of the reactor during the reaction
time

d. in a batch reactor operation, the feed is charged to the reactor at the beginning of the process and
the vessel contents are removed sometime later

Ans: The correct answer is c. In a batch reactor operation, there are no streams that go in or out of the
reactor during the reaction time.

Option c is not correct. In a batch reactor operation, there can be streams that go in and out of the
reactor during the reaction time. In a batch process, the reactants are charged to the reactor at the
beginning of the process, and the reaction takes place while the contents are contained within the
reactor. However, it is also possible to add additional reactants or reagents during the reaction to
control the process or achieve desired reaction conditions. Similarly, products or byproducts may be
removed from the reactor during the reaction or at the end of the process.

Therefore, the correct option is c. In a batch reactor operation, there are no streams that go in or out of
the reactor during the reaction time.

Q54. Identify incorrect statement about flash distillation in short!!!!

a. It is recommended to separate mixtures in to highly pure components

b.It is used to separate mixtures with high boiling point difference

c.It is an action of suddenly reducing system pressure to separate the more volatile component from a
mixture

d.it is not applicable to separate mixtures with low relative volatility

Ans: The correct answer is a. It is recommended to separate mixtures into highly pure components.
Option a is incorrect. Flash distillation is not typically recommended for separating mixtures into highly
pure components. Instead, flash distillation is commonly used when a mixture contains components
with different volatilities, and the goal is to separate the mixture into two or more streams with
different compositions. It is a relatively simple and cost-effective separation technique that can be used
to obtain partial separation of a mixture.
The other options are correct:

b. Flash distillation is indeed used to separate mixtures with high boiling point differences. This is
because the process relies on the different volatilities of the components in the mixture, and a high
boiling point difference enhances the separation efficiency.

c. Flash distillation involves the sudden reduction of system pressure to separate the more volatile
component from a mixture. By rapidly reducing the pressure, the mixture undergoes a phase change,
resulting in the separation of the more volatile component as vapor, while the less volatile components
remain as liquid.

d. Flash distillation is not applicable to separate mixtures with low relative volatility. For flash distillation
to be effective, there needs to be a significant difference in the volatilities of the components. If the
relative volatility is low, the separation achieved through flash distillation may be limited.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is a. It is recommended to separate mixtures into highly pure
components.

Q55. An orice meter is used to measure the rate of flow of a fluid in pipes. The flow rate is related to
the pressure drop by the following equation

u = c * sqrt((delta*p)/p) Where u is fluid velocity Ap is pressure drop and p is density of the flowing fluid
What is the unit of C in

the SI system of units? In short!!!!

a. s/kg.m

b. Kg m^2/s

c. It's dimension less

d. m/s

Ans: The correct answer is d. m/s.

In the given equation, the unit of C can be determined by examining the units of the other variables in
the equation.

- u (fluid velocity) is measured in meters per second (m/s).

- Δp (pressure drop) is typically measured in pascals (Pa), which have the unit of force per unit area
(N/m^2).

- p (density of the flowing fluid) is measured in kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m^3).

By substituting the units into the equation, we have:

u = c * sqrt((Δp) / p)

m/s = c * sqrt((N/m^2) / (kg/m^3))

To ensure that the equation is dimensionally consistent, the units on both sides of the equation must
match. This means that the units on the right side of the equation must be sqrt((N/m^2) / (kg/m^3)).

Simplifying the units on the right side of the equation:

sqrt((N/m^2) / (kg/m^3)) = sqrt((N * m^3) / (kg * m^2)) = sqrt(N * kg^-1) = sqrt(N/kg)

Therefore, the unit of C in the SI system of units is m/s.

The options a, b, and c are not correct because they do not represent the correct unit for C in the given
equation.

Q56. In convective heat transfer under forced convection in tubes, which one of the following is
incorrect?In short!!!

a. We use the same formula for the Nusselt number for both the heating and the cooling fluid

b. The Nusselt number is a function of the Reynold and Prandtl numbers

c.The desired convective heat transfer can be obtained once the correct Nusselt number is found.

d.The physical properties of the fluids are taken at the mean bulk temperature of the fluid

Ans: The correct answer is a. We use the same formula for the Nusselt number for both the heating
and the cooling fluid.

Option a is incorrect. In convective heat transfer under forced convection in tubes, different formulas
are used for calculating the Nusselt number for the heating and cooling fluids. The Nusselt number is a
dimensionless number that represents the convective heat transfer rate in relation to the conductive
heat transfer rate.

For the heating fluid, the Nusselt number correlation typically involves the Reynolds number (Re) and
the Prandtl number (Pr) of the heating fluid. The Reynolds number represents the ratio of inertial forces
to viscous forces, while the Prandtl number represents the ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal
diffusivity.

For the cooling fluid, a separate correlation is used to calculate the Nusselt number, which may involve
different parameters depending on the specific conditions and fluid properties.

The other options are correct:

b. The Nusselt number is indeed a function of the Reynolds number and the Prandtl number. These
parameters play a crucial role in determining the convective heat transfer characteristics of the fluid.
c. Once the correct Nusselt number is found, it can be used to determine the desired convective heat
transfer. The Nusselt number correlates the heat transfer coefficient, flow properties, and geometry of
the system, providing a means to estimate the convective heat transfer rate.

d. The physical properties of the fluids, such as density, viscosity, and thermal conductivity, are typically
evaluated at the mean bulk temperature of the fluid when calculating the Nusselt number. The mean
bulk temperature represents the average temperature of the fluid flowing through the system.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is a. We use the same formula for the Nusselt number for both the
heating and the cooling fluid.

Q57. Which one of the following is not true? In short!!!

a.input rate is greater than output rate for steady state process

b.accumulation is zero for steady state process

c.mass is conserved

d.energy is conserved

Ans: The correct answer is a. Input rate is greater than output rate for a steady-state process.
Option a is not true. In a steady-state process, the input rate is equal to the output rate. This means that
the system is in a state of balance where the rates of input and output are matched, resulting in no net
accumulation or change in the system over time.

The other options are true:

b. Accumulation is indeed zero for a steady-state process. Steady-state implies that there is no change in
the system's overall quantity or mass over time. The input and output rates are balanced, resulting in no
accumulation or change in the system's mass or quantity.

c. Mass is conserved in a steady-state process. This principle is based on the law of conservation of mass,
which states that mass cannot be created or destroyed; it can only change form or be transferred from
one system to another. In a steady-state process, the mass entering the system is equal to the mass
leaving the system, ensuring mass conservation.

d. Energy is conserved in a steady-state process. The law of conservation of energy states that energy
cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transferred or converted from one form to another. In a
steady-state process, the energy input to the system is equal to the energy output from the system,
ensuring energy conservation.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is a. Input rate is greater than output rate for a steady-state process.