SYMBIOSIS INTERNATIONAL UNIVERSITY

PHD ENTRANCE TEST [PET]

FACULTY OF LAW
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR LAW SPECIFIC SYLLABUS

Q.1 Which of the following is not an essential of maintaining democracy?

a. Direct/Indirect elections
b. Free and Fair elections
c. Collegium System*
d. Election Commission’s recognition as a Constitutional Body

Answer: c

Q.2 Even though the marginal heading of Article 29 of the Constitution uses the term
‘Minorities’, Article 29 is not exclusively available to the minority, but is also
available to the majority. Which amongst the following is a landmark case in this
relation?
a. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
b. Joseph Thomas v. State of Kerala
c. Usha Mehta v. State of Maharashtra
d. State of Bombay v. Bombay Education Trust*

Answer: d

Q.3 Gender Identification has been recognized as a form of expression in which one of the
following cases:
a. People’s Union for Democratic Republic v. Union of India
b. Subramaniam Swamy v. Union of India
c. Association of Democratic Reforms v. Union of India
d. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India*

Answer: d

Q.4 Assertion (A): On the lines of the Judicial Appointment Commission of UK, the
NJAC Bill along with the 99th Amendment Bill was introduced in the Parliament.
Subsequently, it was struck down by the virtue of the decision given in Supreme
Courts Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India.
Reason (R): The Collegium system has been followed as a method for the
appointment of Judiciary.

a. A is true and R is false

b. A is false and R is true
 c. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
d. Both A and R are true, but R is not an explanation for A*

Answer: d

Q.5 In reference to the salaries, allowances and conditions of service of the Judges, which
of the following statements are incorrect?

a. The salaries and allowances are charged on the Consolidated fund of India
b. The Parliament has the authority to modify the salary, allowances and
conditions of service of the Judges
c. The salaries and allowances can be altered to the disadvantage of the
Judges*
d. The Parliament has passed an Act called as the Supreme Court Judges
(Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act for the efficient handling of the
relevant matter

Answer: c

Q.6 Article 262, has limited the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, however, in
relation to the interpretation and implementation of an award given by the Tribunal
formed under the Inter State Water Disputes Act, the Supreme Court will have the
authority to preside over the matter. Which of the following given cases has
established the same?

a. State of West Bengal v. Union of India

b. Union of India v. State of Rajasthan
c. State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
d. State of Karnataka v. State of Andhra Pradesh*

Answer: d

Q.7 The Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by __________.

a. Adam Smith
b. Plato
c. Aristotle
d. Montesquieu*

Answer: d

Q.8 Jurisprudence was defined as the formal science of Positive Law by __________.

a. Holland*
 b. Bentham
c. Roscoe Pound
d. Blackstone

Answer: a

Q.9 A member of the United Nations, who persistently violates the principles contained in
the Charter, can be expelled from the United Nations by the ________________.

a. Security Council upon the recommendation of General Assembly

b. General Assembly upon the recommendation of International Court of Justice
c. General Assembly upon the recommendation of Security Council*
d. International Court of Justice upon recommendation of Security Council

Answer: c

Q.10 Muta marriage is recognised by ______________.

a. Ithna Ashari School*

b. Hanbali School
c. Maliki School
d. Hanafi School

Answer: a

Q.11 Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural
guardian of a minor child is ____________.

a. Mother
b. Father*
c. both Mother and Father
d. decided by the family

Answer: b

Q.12 Legal Principle: An offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract
can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person.
Factual Situation: ‘A’ affirmed to the public that he would give Rs. 10000 to a person
who will find ‘A’s lost dog. ‘B’ hearing this makes efforts and finds the dog. While
returning the dog to ‘A’, ‘B’ claimed Rs. 10000.
Question: Decide the rights of ‘B’, if any with the help of the principle.

a. ‘B’ can sue ‘A’ as it was a general offer made to world at large and hence it could
be accepted by any person who is performing a condition mentioned in the offer*
 b. ‘B’ cannot sue ‘A’ as the offer was not made to him and so he cannot accept it
c. ‘B’ cannot sue ‘A’ as there was no intention to be bound by the promise so made
d. ‘B’ cannot sue ‘A’ as there was no acceptance communicated by ‘B’ to ‘A’ and
hence no contract comes into existence

Answer: a

Q.13 A contract that is dependent on the happening or non-happening of a future uncertain

event, collateral to the main contract is a __________

a. Wagering contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Uncertain contract
d. Contingent contract*

Answer: d

Q.14 “Quantum Meruit” literally means __________

a. as much as earned*
b. quality of goods
c. quantity of goods
d. as much as lost

Answer: a

Q.15 As per Section 135 of Companies Act 2013, to which of the following ‘Corporate
Social Responsibility’ is applicable?

a. A company whose net worth is less than Rs.500 crore.

b. A company whose turnover of the company is less than Rs.1000 crore.
c. A company whose net profit is Rs.5 crore or more.*
d. A company whose net worth is more than Rs.5 crore and turnover is less than
Rs.100 crore

Answer: c

Q.16 Martin was prevented from voting in the annual general meeting held for appointing
secretary of his Apartment under Society Registration Act. Martin can claim damages
under the principle of:

a. Damnun sine Injuria

b. Injuria nova scotia damnum
 c. Injuria damnum non abstusue
d. Injuria sine damnum*

Answer: d

Q.17 Choose the appropriate option with the help of Rule and Situation given below:
Rule: According to Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) “any person
who publishes any material concerning any other person intending to harm the
reputation of the said person is responsible for the defamation.” According to
exception provided to Section 500 of IPC “expression of opinion in good faith
respecting the conduct of any person touching any public question is not defamation.”
Situation: Mr. ‘Z’ a political leader from ‘Y’ political party makes a statement about
an education policy prepared by the Minister of Human Resource Development.
According to him policy reflects lack of intellectualism and wisdom for the higher
education in India.

a. Mr. ‘Z’ is not responsible for defamation of the Minister of Human Resource
Development because Mr. Z criticized the policy in good faith which is question
of public importance.*
b. Mr. ‘Z’ is responsible for the defamation of the Minister of Human Resource
Development because he is a public figure and the leaders from opposite party
should behave responsibly while making comments about other public
functionaries.
c. Mr. ‘Z’ is responsible for defamation because Minister of Human Resource
Development is representative of the people in India.
d. Mr. ‘Z’ is responsible for defamation because the minster is supposed to know
what the policy requirements for their own country are.

Answer: a

Q.18 A intentionally gives Z a sword-cut sufficient to cause the death of a man in the
ordinary course of nature. Z dies in consequence.

a. A is guilty of murder*
b. A is guilty of culpable homicide
c. A is guilty of grievous injury
d. A is not guilty of any offence because there is no intention

Q.19 An actus reus of attempt means____

 a. the mere intention to carry out the act
b. the doing of an act which is merely preparatory to the commission of the offence
the accused intends to commit
c. the doing of an act which is more than preparatory to the commission of the
offence the accused intends to commit*
d. the intention of the act even if the judge finds that there is not sufficient evidence
to support a finding that the accused did such an act.

Q.20 Who out of the following cannot be appointed as a presiding officer of the Labour
Court?

a. The one who has held any judicial office in India for not less than seven years.
b. The one who has been civil judge for 2 years.*
c. The one who has for a period of not less than 3 years, been a District Judge or an
Additional District Judge
d. The one who has been a Judge of High Court.

Answer: b

Q.21 The Taj Trapezium case is the popular name for ____________________.

a. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 Kant 82*

b. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1999 SC 1502
c. Rural Litigation & Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP, AIR 1985 SC 652
d. Research Foundation For Science v. Union of India and Others, (2012) 7 SCC 764

Answer: a

Q.22 Which one of the following is correct according to Art 1 of the Universal Declaration
of Human Rights, 1948?

a. All human beings are born free and equal in rights

b. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity
c. All human beings are equal in dignity and rights
d. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.*

Answer: d

Q.23 The term of Patent in India is ______________.

a. Twenty years from the date of application*

b. Twenty years from the grant of patent
c. Ten years from the date of application
 d. Ten years from the grant of patent

Answer: a

Q. 24 The Central Electricity Regulation Commission (CERC) was created by

____________________.

a. Indian Electricity Act, 1910

b. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
c. National Electricity Policy
d. Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1988*

Answer: d

Q.25 Which one out of the following statutes regulates the printing presses and newspaper
and makes registration with an appointed authority compulsory for all printing
presses?

a. The Press (Objectionable Matters) Act, 1951

b. The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867*
c. The Newspaper (Prices and Pages) Act, 1956
d. Press Council Act, 1978

Answer: b

Q.26 The Information Technology Act. 2000 deals with ________________.

a. E-Commerce and E-Governance

b. E-Commerce and E-banking
c. Cyber Crimes and digital signature
d. E-Commerce, E-Governance, E-banking and Cyber Crimes*

Answer: d