Test Booklet Code-D

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 04-FEB-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
2. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered
by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
04. In a series L-C-R circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the
impedance Z = 10Ω The phase difference between
Attempt All 35 Questions the current and the voltage is
(1) 0° (2) 30°
01. If reading of an ammeter is 10A, then the peak value (3) 45° (4) 60°
of current is
10 5 05. In an AC circuit, the current lag behind the voltage
(1) A (2) A
2 2 by /3. The components of the circuit is/are
(3) 20 2A (4) 10 2A (1) R and L (2) L and C
(3) R and C (4) Only R
02. The minimum orbital angular momentum of the
electron in a hydrogen atom is 1
06. The power factor of an R-L circuit is . If the
(1) h (2) h/2 2
(3) h/2 (4) h/ frequency of AC is doubled, then what will be the
power factor?
03. The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes 1 1
from maximum to minimum in 5ms when connected (1) (2)
3 5
to an ac source. The frequency of the source is
(1) 20 hz (2) 50 hz 1 1
(3) (4)
(3) 200 hz (4) 500hz 7 11
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Test Booklet Code-D
07. In the circuit of figure X and Yare identical bulbs 11. The value of alternating e.m.f in the following circuit
which are initially glowing with equal brightness. will be
The inductor is having an air –core and the capacitor VL = 40 volt
has air as the dielectric medium between its plates. A
dielectric (K) is now filled between the plates of the VR = 80 volt VC = 100
capacitor, then volt

(1) 220 volt (2) 140 volt

(3) 20 volt (4) 100 volt

12. The graph shows variation of I with f for a series

(1) X will glow brighter than Y R-L-C network. Keeping L and C constant. If R
(2) Y will glow brighter than X decrease:
(3) X and Y will keep on glowing with equal
brightness
(4) Change of brightness cannot be predicted

08. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the

terminals of a resistance and current will be:

(1) Maximum current (I0) increases

(2) Sharpness of the graph increases
(3) Quality factor increases
(1) 400V, 2A (2) 800V, 2A (4) Band width increases
(3) 100V, 2A (4) 100V, 4A
09. The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC. With 13. The instantaneous values of alternating current and
frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for what voltage in a circuit are given as
frequency point, the circuit is inductive. 1 1
i sin (100 t)e  sin (100t   / 3) volt. The
2 2
average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is
1 1
(1) (2)
2 8
1 3
(3) (4)
4 4

14. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are

140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in
(1) A (2) B primary is 4A then that in the secondary is
(3) C (4) At all points (Transformer in ideal)
(1) 4A (2) 2A
10. With the aim of determining the resonance
frequency, an inductance, a capacitance and a (3) 6A (4) 10A
resistance are connected to an ac source of a variable
frequency. It was noticed that at frequency 1 and 15. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working
2, current amplitudes in the circuit assumes the on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the current in the
same value. The resonance frequency is  . secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the
1  2 1  2 secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
(1) (2)
2 2 respectively are
12 (1) 300V, 15A (2) 450V, 15A
(3) 12 (4) (3) 450V, 13.5A (4) 600V, 15A
2
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
16. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage 22. A current of 1A and frequency n1 is passed through a
source are all connected in series. When L is coil subsequently the frequency is made n2. If
removed from the circuit, the phase difference 1 and  2 be the induced peak emf in the coil, in the
between the voltage and the current in the circuit is 
/3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit the two cases then 1 will be equal to :
2
phase difference is again /3. The power factor of
the circuit is : (1) n 22 :n12 (2) n12 :n 22
(1) 1 (2) 3 / 2 (3) n1 : n2 (4) n 2 : n1
1 1 23. A semicircular loop of radius R is rotated with an
(3) (4)
2 2 angular velocity . perpendicular to the plane of a
uniform magnetic field B as shown in the figure.
17. The Bohr model of Atom:
Emf induced in the loop is:
(1) Assumes that the angular momentum of electrons
is quantised (1) BR2
(2) Uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation 1
(2) BR 2
(3) Predicts continous emission spectra for atoms 2
(4) Predicts the same emission spectra for all types 3
(3) BR 2
of atoms 2
18. A hydrogen atom and Li++ ion are both in the second 1
(4) BR 2
excited state. If LH and LLi are their respective 4
electronic angular momenta and EH and ELi their
respective energies, then: 24. Two coils have self inductance L1 = 4mH and
(1) LH > LLi and |EH| > |ELi| L2 =1 mH respectively. The currents in the two coils
(2) LH = LLi and |EH| < |ELi| are increased at the same rate. At a certain instant of
(3) LH = LLi and |EH| > |ELi| time both coils are given the same power. If I1 and I2
(4) LH < LLi and |EH| < |ELi| are the currents in the two coils, at that instant of
I 
19. In a hypothetical system, a particle of mass m and time respectively, then the value of  1  is:
charge (3q) is moving around a very heavy particle  I2 
charge q. Assume that Bohr’s model is applicable to 1 1
(1) (2)
this system, then velocity of mass m in first orbit is: 8 4
3q 2 3q 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
2 0 h 4 0 h 2
3q 3q
(3) (4)
20 h 40 h 25.
20. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron
in a certain atom. Which transition shown represents
the emission of a photon with the most energy?
The figure shows three circuits with identical
batteries, inductors and resistances. Rank the circuits
according to the currents through the battery just
after the switch is closed, greatest first.
(1) I2 > I3 > I1 (2) I2 > I1 > I3
(3) I1 > I2 > I3 (4) I1 > I3 > I2

26. A bar magnet is made to fall through a long vertical

copper tube. The speed (v) of the magnet as a
(1) III (2) IV function of time (t) is best represented by :
(3) I (4) II

21. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the

same plane. The current in outer loop is clockwise
and increasing with time. The induced current in the
inner loop is:
(1) Clock wise
(2) Zero
(3) Anticlockwise
(4) In a direction that depends on the ratio of 100p (1) a (2) b
radii (3) c (4) d
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Test Booklet Code-D
27. The voltage supplied to a circuit is given by 32. An AC voltage is represented by
V =V0t3/2, where t is time in second. Find the RMS E = 575 5 cos (75)t
value of voltage for the period t = 0s to t = 1s How many times will the current become zero in 1
V second?
(1) 0 (2) V0
2 (1) 75 times (2) 50 times
3V0 (3) 100 times (4) 575 times
(3) (4) 2V0
2
33. In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source
28. If instantaneous current in a circuit is given by resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading will
I = (2+3 sin t) A, then the rms value of resulting respectively be:
current in the circuit is :
17 2
(1) A (2) A
2 17
3
(3) A (4) 3 2A
2

29. If current in the circuit is 3A, then impedance of the

circuit shown in the figure is:

(1) 0 V, 3A (2) 150 V, 3A

(3) 150 V, 6A (4) 0V, 8A

34. In a box Z of unknown elements, L or R or any other

combination, an ac voltage E = E0 sin (t+) is
(1) 100 Ω (2) 50 Ω applied and current in the circuit was found to be
(3) 30 Ω (4) 40 Ω  
I  I0 sin  t     . The unknown element in the
 4
30. A long solenoid connected to a 12 volt DC source
box may be:
passes a steady current of 2A. When the solenoid is
connected to an AC source of 12 volt at 50Hz, the
current flowing is 1A. Calculate inductance of the
solenoid:
(1) 33 mH (2) 66 mH
(3) 16.5 mH (4) 40 mH

31. Given figure shows a source of alternating voltage

connected to a capacitor and a resistor. Which of the (1) Only capacitor
following phasor diagrams correctly describes the (2) Inductor and resistor both
phase relationship between IC, the current between (3) Either capacitor, resistor and inductor or only
the source and the capacitor and IR, the current in capacitor and resistor
resistor? (4) Only resistor

35. The sinusoidal potential difference V1 shown in

figure applied across a resistor R produces heat at a
rate W. What is the rate of heat dissipation when the
square wave potential difference V2 as shown in
figure is applied across the resistor:

V1 V2
V0 V0
(1) (2)
-V0 -V0

W
(3) (4) (1) (2) W
2
(3) 2 W (4) 2W
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
39. A hydrogen like gas atoms absorb radiations of
wavelength 0 and consequently emit radiations of
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 6 different wavelengths of which, three wavelengths
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 are shorter than 0. Choose the correct alternative (s).
questions.
(1) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 3
36. For series L-C-R circuit the plot of Imax versus  is (2) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 4
shown in the figure. The bandwidth will be: (3) The initial state of the atoms is n = 1
(4) The initial state of the atoms is n = 3

40. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited

state. It may come down to second excited state by
emitting ten different wavelengths. What is the value
of n:
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 5

41. In the spectrum of single ionized helium, the

wavelength of a line observed is almost the same as
the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen. It is due
to transition of electron from
(1) 0.2 rad s1 (2) 0.3 rad/sec (1) n1 = 6 to n2 = 4 (2) n1 = 5 to n2 = 3
(3) 0.6 rad/sec (4) 0.5 rad/sec (3) n1 = 4 to n2 = 2 (4) n1 = 3 to n2 = 2
37. The following diagram indicates the energy levels
42. A photon of 10.2 eV energy collides with a hydrogen
of a certain atom when the system moves from 4E
atom in ground state inelastically. After few
level to E. A photon of wavelength 1 is emitted. The
microseconds one more photon of energy 15 eV
7
wavelength of photon during its transition from E . collides with the same hydrogen atom. Then what
3 can be detected by a suitable detector.
 (1) One photon of 10.2 eV and an electron of energy
Level to E is 2. The ratio 1 will be:
2 1.4eV
9 (2) 2 photons of energy 10.2 eV
(1) (3) 2 photons of energy 3.4 eV
4
4 (4) 1 photon of 3.4 eV and one electron of 1.4eV
(2)
9 43. The figure indicates the energy level diagram of an
3 atom and the origin of five spectral lines in emission
(3)
2 spectra. Which of the spectral lines will also occur in
7 the absorption spectra?
(4)
3 3rd
2nd
38. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn.
time period and frequency of revolution of electron First
in nth orbit are Tn abd fn choose the correct option: Excited
state

ground
state
(1) (2)
(1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 2, 3, 4, 5
(3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

44. According to the Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom:

(1) Total energy of electron is quantised
(2) Angular momentum of the electron is quantised
nh
(3) (4) All of the above and given as
2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
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Test Booklet Code-D
45. A stationary hydrogen atom of mass M emits a photon
corresponding to the longest wavelength of Balmer
series. The recoil velocity acquired by the atom is : Attempt All 35 Questions
(R = Rydberg consant and h = planck’s constant)
Rh Rh 51. Which of the following compound is formed when
(1) (2) sodium carbonate extract is treated with sodium
M 4M
nitroprusside solution? :
3 Rh 5 Rh
(3) (4) (1) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] (2) Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]
4 M 36 M
(3) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (4) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
46. In which of the following transitions will the
wavelength be minimum?
(1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
52.  X   H 2SO 4   Y  , a colourless gas with
(3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1 irritating smell  Y   K 2 Cr2 O 7  H 2SO 4  green
47. In the figure, a block slides along a track from one solution. [X] and [Y] are :

level to a higher level, by moving through an (1) SO3 ,SO 2 (2) Cl , HCl
intermediate valley. The track is frictionless until the
block reaches the higher level. There a frictional (3) S , H 2S (4) CO3 , CO 2
force stops the block in a distance d. The block’s
initial speed vo is 6 m/s, the height difference h is 53. Chromyl chloride test given by ;
1.1m and the coefficient of kinetic friction  is 0.6. (1) Hg2Cl2 (2) Cu2Cl2
the value of d is
(3) SnCl4 (4) None of these
  0.6
v0
h 54. Salt of which of the following radicals will not give
brown fumes when treated with conc. HNO3 :
 0 (1) NO3 (2) Br–
(3) I– (4) Cl–
(1) 1.17 m (2) 1.71 m
(3) 7.11 m (4) 11.7 m
55. Identify the species with green colour in appearance;
48. A light spring of length 20cm and force constant (1) Cr(OH)3 (2) BaSO4
2N/cm is placed vertically on a table. A small block (3) BaCl2 (4) Mn+7
of mass 1kg falls on it. The length h from the surface
of the table at which the block will have the 56. Yellow coloured precipitate from the given species
maximum velocity is: is;
(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (1) AgI (2) CHI3
(3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm (3) NO2 (4) Both 1 and 2
49. Block a of mass 1 kg is kept on block B of mass 2kg
which is kept on smooth surface as shown in figure. 57. STATEMENT - 1
At t = 0 both blocks are at rest and a force of 6N is
Br  ions do not interfere in the chromyl chloride
applied on block B. Friction coefficient between A
test for chlorides.
and B is 0.5. Which of the following is/are incorrect:
STATEMENT - 2
A bromide, on oxidation with
K 2Cr2O7 / concentrated H 2 SO4 , liberates Br2 ,
which dissolves in NaOH to give a colourless
(1) Acceleration of Both the blocks is 2m/s2 solution.
(2) Work done by friction (in ground frame) on A is (1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
zero from t = 0 to t = 2 sec True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation
(3) Friction force on A is 2N for STATEMENT–1
(4) Kinetic energy of A at t = 2 sec is 8J (2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
50. In which of the following systems will the radius of True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum? explanation for STATEMENT–1
(1) Hydrogen atom (3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(2) Deuterium atom False
(3) Singly ionized helium (4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
(4) Doubly ionized lithium True
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
58. STATEMENT–1 63. The ease of acid-catalysed dehydration of
CO2 is evolved when NaHCO3(aq) is added to FeCl3 C2H5OH,(CH3)2CHOH and (CH3)3COH follows the
solution. order
STATEMENT–2 (1)  CH 3 3 COH   CH 3 2 CHOH  C 2 H 5OH
FeCl3 undergoes hydrolysis giving HCl which reacts
with NaHCO3 to form CO2. (2) C 2 H 5OH   CH 3 2 CHOH   CH 3 3 COH
(1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation (3)  CH 3 2 CHOH   CH 3 3 COH  C 2 H 5OH
for STATEMENT–1 (4)  CH 3 2 CHOH  C 2 H 5OH   CH 3 3 COH
(2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1 64. The action of HX on alcohols is in the order of ;
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is (1) HBr  HCl  HI  HF
False (2) HI  HBr  HCl  HF
(4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
(3) HCl  HI  HBr  HF
True
(4) all are equal reactive
59. Suppose you have given certain reagents like :
K 2 Cr2 O 7 / H  , dilute H2SO4 , AgNO3 solution, Br2 65. Which of the following compound is dihydric
alcohol ?
How many of them can be used to detect Cl– in
(1) Ethanol (2) Glycerol
given sample ?
(3) Ethylene glycol (4) Methanol
(1) All of them (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None
66. Sodium tertiary butoxide can form ether with :
60. AgX that insoluble in ammonia solution is ;
(X = halogens) (1) CH3CH2Br (2)
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr
(3) AgI (4) AgF
(3) CH3Br (4) All of these

61. 67. 2-Phenylpropene on acidic hydration gives

(1) 2-Phenyl-2Propanol (2) 2-Phenyl-1-Propanol
(3) 3-Phenyl-1-Propanol (4) 1-Phenyl-2-Propanol
(1)

(2) OH OH
COOH
1) NaOH
(3) + CO2
2) 5.1 atm
68. 3) H+
(4) only Name of the above reaction is
(1) Kolbe’s reaction
(2) Elb’s reaction
62. The final product of the reaction (3) Reimer – Tiemann’s reaction
(4) Duff’s reaction.

Hg(OAc)2
NaBH 4
 'X'
69. Which of the following alcohols will get dehydrated
fastest

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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Test Booklet Code-D
70. Consider the reaction. 74. STATEMENT – 1:
H3C CH3 CH3OH is stronger acid than water and alkyne
OH H SO because
2 4
heat STATEMENT – 2
Bond angle in alcohol is almost equal to water.
The alkene formed in major amount is (1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation
for STATEMENT–1
(2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(1) (2) True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
False
(3) (4) (4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
True

71. Which of the following geminal diols is most 75. Which among the following compounds will have
unstable : the highest boiling point ?
OH OH
F 3C H3C (1) CH4
(1)
(A) C (2)
(B) C (2) CH3OCH3
F 3C OH H3C OH
(3) C2H5OH
ClCH 2 OH Cl3C OH
(4) (4) HCHO
(3)
(C) C (D) C
ClCH 2 OH H OH
76. STATEMENT – 1:
72. Bromination of salicyclic acid with Br2 water The reactivity order for acid catalyzed dehydration
of alcohols is R3C – OH > R2CHOH > RCH2OH.
gives :
STATEMENT – 2:
Acid catalyzed dehydration follows saytzeff
(Zaitsev’s) rule.
(1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(1) (2) True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation
for STATEMENT–1
(2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
False
(3) (4)
(4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
True

77. STATEMENT–1
73. STATEMENT – 1:
Boiling point of alcohols is more than ethers. Phenol undergoes oxidation with PCC.
because STATEMENT–2
STATEMENT – 2 PCC oxidises all primary and secondary alcohols
Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in alcohols (1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation
True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT–1
for STATEMENT–1 (2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT–1
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
False
False
(4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is (4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
True True
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 Test Booklet Code-D
78. In the reaction sequence:
NaCN/HCl H2O/H /  82.
C6H5CHO 
[X] 

Product will be
(1) Racemic mixture of two optically active
α –hydroxy acids
(1)
(2) Optically inactive α–hydroxy acid
(3) Optically inactive acid
(4) Racemic mixture of two optically active (2)
secondary alcohols

(3)
79. 
O3 / H 2 O
 A 
Ca ( OH )2

B
O

(4) None of these

COOH
83. An organic compound C6H8 (molecular formula) on
(1) (2)  CH 2 4 reductive ozonolysis given 2 moles of
COOH CHOCH2CHO. The possible structure will be :
O

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

80. An optically active compound ‘X’ has molecular

(3) (4)
formula C4 H 8O2 . X reacts with LAH to give an
achiral compound. X is :
84. In base catalysed dehydration, when the product
aldol is slightly heated, gives ,  unsaturated
(1) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CHO
carbonyl compounds. The reaction takes place as
|
OH 
CH3  CH  CH 2CHO 
OH
 CH 3  CH  CH  CHO
(2) CH 3  CH  CHO |
OH
|
(I) (II)
CH 3
The formation of (II) takes place by :
(3) CH 3  CH  CHO (1) E1 mechanism
| (2) E2 mechanism
CH 2  OH (3) E1 and E2 both mechanism
(4) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO (4) E1 CB mechanism
|
OH 85. STATEMENT-1:
From RCOCl, a ketones RCOR is obtained by
reacting it with R2Cd rather than with RMg, and
C2 H 5  Mg  I  CH 3CHO  subsequent acid catalysed hydrolysis.
81. H 2O / H  STATEMENT-2:
Addition Compound  ? RCOCl can be converted into an aldehyde RCHO by
Rosenmund’s reduction.
(1) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is a correct explanation
(1) (2) for STATEMENT–1
(2) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(3) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is
False
(3) (4) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH (4) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is
True
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9
Test Booklet Code-D
89. The product from the reaction of 1- pentene with Cl2
in H2O is named :
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can (1) 1 – chloro -2 – pentanol
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. (2) 2 – chloro - 2 – pentanol
(3) 1 – chloro – 1 – pentanol
OH (4) 2 – chloro – 1 – pentanol


OH
 (A) (major product)
86. Cl 90. The reaction (CH3)3 CBr 
H2O
(CH 3 )3 COH is :
(1) elimination reaction
A is : (2) substitution reaction
(3) free radical reaction
(1) HO—CH2CH2CH2CH2OH (2)
(4) displacement reaction

91. Column - I Column – II

(3) (4) A) Phenol + Neutral FeCl3 p) No reaction
B) Phenol+Br2(aq) q) Violet colour
C) Phenol+NaHCO3 r) White PPt
87. The major product for the reaction D) Picricacid + NaHCO3 s) CO2 gas is evolved
CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3 2 Br   CH 3 3 CONa 
 (1) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s (2) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-s
would be (3) A-r, B-r, C-q, D-s (4) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s

92. Match the column (I) and (II).

(1)
Column I Column II
CH3 OH CH3 Cl
C + SOCl2 C
Ph H Ph H
(A) (+) (+) (p) SN1

(2)
CH3 OH Pyridine CH3 Cl
C + SOCl2 C
(B) Ph H H 5C 6 H (q) SN2
(+) (-)

(3) CH 3  C H  Br + - OC 2 H 5
(C) | (r) SNi
CH3

CH3 OH CH3 Cl
C + HCl C
(4) (D) H5C6 H C6H5 H (s) E2
(+)  

(1) (A – r), (B – q), (C – s), (D – p)

88. In order to bring about the given conversion, choose (2) (A – p), (B – q), (C – s), (D – r)
the reagents form the list given below and put them (3) (A – r), (B – s), (C – q), (D – p)
in correct order. (4) (A – s), (B – q), (C – r), (D – p)
CH CH2

93. Acetophenone can be prepared :

(1) Oxidation of 1 – Phenyl ethanol
(2) Reaction of benzaldehyde with CH3 - MgBr
(3) Reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride and
CH3 Lewis acid
1. CH3COCl/AlCl3 (anhydrous) (4) Distillation of calcium benzoate.
2. CH3Cl/AlCl3 (anhydrous)
3. CH3–CHCl2/AlCl3 (anhydrous) 94. Which of the following reaction will give aldehyde
4. Al2O3/350C only?
5. NaBH4 (1) Wolff-kishner reduction
6. CH2 = CH – Cl/AlCl3 (anhydrous) (2) Kolbe’s Carboxylation reaction
(1) 2, 6 (2) 3,4,2 (3) Rosenmunds reduction
(3) 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 1, 2, 5, 4 (4) All of these
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
95. From toluene benzaldehyde can’t be obtained in ;
(1) First dichlorination in sunlight followed by
hydrolysis Attempt All 35 Questions
(2) Oxidation with CrO3 in presence of acetic
101. Which of the following structure is formed in the
anhydride followed by hydrolysis
life cycle of Funaria between spore and main plant
(3) Oxidation with K2Cr2O7/H+ or KMnO4/OH– and
body ?
warming
(1) Prothallus (2) Embryo
(4) Oxidation with CrO2Cl2 followed by hydrolysis
(3) Protonema (4) Spore mother cell
96. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in 102. Consider the following statements regarding
(1) Both (2) and (4) gymnosperms and choose the correct option :-
(2) Friedel-Crafts alkylation I. In gymnosperms, the male and female
(3) Clemmensen reduction gametophytes have an independent existence.
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction II. The multicellular female gametophyte is retained
within the megasporangium.
97. Consider the following reactions : III. All gymnosperms are heterosporous.
Of these statements :
Mg (1) I and II are true but III is false

SOCl2
A B 
D2 O
 C (Major)
dry ether (2) I and III are true but II is false
Major product is : (3) II and III are false but I is true
(4) II and III are true but I is false
103. Read the following statements.
(1) (2) (a) Reproduce asexually by nonmotile spores
(b) Reproduce sexually by nonmotile gametes
(3) (4) (c) Stored food is structurally very similar to
amylopectin and glycogen
(d) Cell wall with cellulose and algin
98. Major product of the following reaction is : (e) Contain Chl-a and Chl-c
CH 3CH = CH 2 
( i ) B2 H 6 / THF
 (f) Post fertilization development is complex
(ii) H O /OH 
2 2
Which of the above statements are correct for red
(1) CH3CH2CH3 algae?
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2–CH2–CH3 (1) a, b, d and f (2) a, b, c and e
(3) CH3–CH2CH2OH (3) a, b, c and f (4) a, d, e and f
(4) CH3  CH  CH 3
| 104. Prothallus is :
OH (1) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and thalloid
99. Chlorination of toluene (in excess) in the presence of gametophyte of bryophytes
light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous (2) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid
NaOH gives : gametophyte of pteridophytes
(1) o-cresol (3) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid
(2) p-cresol gametophyte of bryophytes
(3) 2, 4-dihydroxy toluene (4) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and
(4) Benzyl alcohol photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte of
pteridophytes
100. Catechol is :
105. Statement I :-
Some plants of arid regions modify their stems to
into cylindrial structures (Euphorbia).
(1) (2) Statement II:-
Cylindrical structures help to increase the rate of
water transportation.
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect
(3) (4)
106. Vascular plants that produces seeds but no fruits are :
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code-D
107. Pteridophytes differ from mosses in having :- 113. Cycas is gymnosperm because :-
(1) Independent gametophyte (1) It forms seed
(2) Dependent gametophyte (2) It bears pollen grain
(3) Independent and dominant sporophyte (3) It lacks ovary but has exposed ovule
(4) Flagellated antherozoids (4) It's xylem consist tracheids
108. Protonema is :
(1) Haploid and is found in Mosses 114. In gymnosperms, male gametophyte :
(2) Diploid and is found in Liverworts (1) Is highly developed
(3) Diploid and is found in Pteridophytes (2) Has an independent life
(4) Haploid and is found in Pteridophytes (3) Is highly reduced and confined to only a limited
number of cells
109. Assertion (A): (4) Is produced in macrosporangiate cone
Bryophytes are also called amphibians of plant
kingdom. 115. Statement-I :
Reason (R) : In Rhodophyceae food is stored as floridean starch.
These plants can live in soil but are dependent on Statement-II :
water for sexual reproduction.
Greater concentration of red algae found in the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
warmer areas.
correct explanation of (A)
(1) Statement I and II both are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) Only Statement II is correct.

110. Which one of the following statement is not true for 116. Identify the (X), (Y) and (Z) in these figures :-
bryophytes ?
(1) Their zygote undergoes meiosis and then
produces sporophytes.
(2) Their spore germinates and produces
gametophyte.
(3) They show photosynthetic nature.
(4) They are called "Amphibians of the plant
kingdom."
111. Assertion :
Pteridophytes are restricted to narrow Geographical
region.
Reason :
Prothallus requires damp and shady places and water
is required for fertilizations. (1) X–DNA, Y–Sex organ, Z-Gemma cup
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (2) X–Mid rib, Y–Daughter colony, Z-Air bladder
is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) X–DNA, Y–Oogonium, Z-Frond
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
not correct explanation of Assertion. (4) X–Air bladder, Y–Archegonium, Z-Stipe
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. 117. When spores of moss germinate, they form:
(1) Leafy gametophyte (2) Sporophyte
112. Statement-I: (3) Prothallus (4) Protonema
The female gametophytes in heterosporous
pteridophytes are retained on the parent sporophytes
for variable periods. 118. Which of the following is an example of bryophyta
Statement-II : that has more elaborate mechanism of spore
The development of zygotes into young embryos dispersal ?
take place within the female gametophyte in (1) Polysiphonia (2) Marchantia
homosporous pteridophytes. (3) Polytrichum (4) Dryopteris
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. 119. Gametes are pyriform with two laterally attached
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
flagella in :
incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox
correct. (3) Spirogyra (4) Fucus
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
120. Independent sporophyte is not found is : 128. Assertion :-
(1) Bryophyta Reticulate venation is found in dicot leaf.
(2) Pteridophyta Reason :-
(3) Gymnosperm Veinlets are present in reticulate venation.
(4) Angiosperm (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
121. In which of the following system of classification (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
equal weightage was given to both vegetative and not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
sexual characteristics ? (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) Two kingdom system (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) Artificial system
129. At the root tip, some of the epidermal cells form
(3) Phylogenetic system
very fine and delicate, thread-like structures called
(4) Natural system
root hairs in the region of:
(1) Root cap
122. The gametophyte of pteridophytes requires to grow: (2) Meristematic activity
(1) Warm, damp and shady place (3) Elongation
(2) Cool, damp and shady place (4) Maturation
(3) Warm, dry and shady place
(4) Cool, dry and place of well sunshine 130. Assertion :
Pteridophytes show origin of seed habit.
123. The sporophytes of pteridophytes bear sporangia Reason :
that are subtended by leaf-like appendages called :- Pteridophytes are first successful land plant.
(1) Tropophylls (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
(2) Sporophylls is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Sori (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
(4) Fronds not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
124. Some characters structures are given below. (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
How many of them are found in both bryophyte and
pteridophyta ? 131. Which of the following is not a stem modification?
(1) Thorn of Citrus
(A) Archegonium
(2) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(B) Protonema
(3) Tendril of Cucumber
(C) Rhizoids
(4) Flattened structures of Opuntia
(D) Ovule
(E) Vascular tissue 132. Select the incorrect option for different type of roots ?
(F) Antheridium (1) Fibrous root - Wheat
(1) Two (2) Three (2) Adventitious root - Monstera
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Tap root - Mustard
(4) Fibrous root – Sugarbeet
125. Heterosporous genera of Lycopsida is :
(1) Selaginella (2) Lycopodium 133. An example of edible underground stem is :
(3) Salvinia (4) Azolla (1) Carrot (2) Groundnut
(3) Sweet potato (4) Potato
126. ___________of sweet potato, get swollen and store
food. 134. A modification in which a lateral branch with short
(1) Fibrous root internode and each node bearing a rosette of leaves
(2) Underground stem and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants like
(3) Tap root Pistia and Eichhornia is:
(4) Adventitious root (1) Runner (2) Offset
(3) Stolon (4) Sucker
127. Axillary bud get modified into stem tendril in which
plant ? 135. Root apex is subterminal because it is:
(1) Citrus (1) covered with root hair
(2) Cucurbita (2) covered with root cap
(3) Potato (3) covered with epidermis
(4) Wheat (4) under the soil
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code-D
140. Male and female gametophytes do not have an
independent free-living existence in:
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can (1) Pteridophytes
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. (2) Algae
(3) Angiosperms
136. Observe the following figures and identify the (4) Bryophytes
labelled structures P, Q, R, and S:
141. Though their main body is sporophyte, yet, free-
living photosynthetic gametophyte can be seen in:
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

142. Assertion:
The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and
restricted to narrow geographical regions.
Reason:
Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first terrestrial
plants to possess vascular tissue – xylem and
phloem.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
P Q R S (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(1) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Antheridiophores Capsule (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(2) Antheridiophores Rhizoids Archegoniophore Capsule
143. Axillary bud is derived from:-
(3) Antheridiophores Seta Antheridiophores Leaves
(1) Root apical meristem
(4) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Archegoniophore Capsule (2) Phellogen
(3) Shoot apical meristem
137. In a sphenopsida plant number of chromosome in (4) Mesophyll of leaf
the cells of scaly leaves is 24, what will be the
number of chromosomes in its cells of stem, spore, 144. In some legumes plants, the leaf base may become
and prothallus respectively : swollen which is called –
(1) 24, 12, 12 (1) Phyllode
(2) 24, 24, 12 (2) Pulvinus
(3) 12, 24, 12
(3) Leaf pitcher
(4) 24, 12, 24
(4) Sheathing leaf base
138. Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in : 145. Assertion :-
(1) Red algae In cymose inflorescence flowers are borne in the
(2) Blue-green algae
basipetal order.
(3) Green algae
Reason :-
(4) Brown algae
Younger flower are present towards the base and
139. Which of the following statements is incorrect about older flower are present at the tip.
gymnosperms? (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
(1) They are heterosporous is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Male and female gametophytes are free-living (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
(3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
cuticle (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Their seeds are not covered (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

 Test Booklet Code-D
146. Statement-I :-
Selaginella and Salvinia show seed.
Statement-II :- Attempt All 35 Questions
Both of them are heterosporous. 151. Vaccination works by producing
(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect (1) Long lived plasma cells
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is (2) Long lived CTLs
incorrect (3) Macrophages
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is (4) Memory B and T cells
correct
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct 152. A person “Mary Mallon” preparing food was carrier
of disease
(1) Pneumonia (2) Leprosy
147. Match the two columns and identify the option
(3) Cancer (4) Typhoid
having correct match :
(a) spirogyra (i) Gymnosperm 153. AIDS was first reported in
(1) 1986 (2) 1881
(b) Cedrus (ii) Angiosperm (3) 1981 (4) 1891
(c) Polytrichum (iii) Bryophyte
154. Which of the following drugs are normally used as
(d) Wolffia (iv) Alga medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses
like depression and insomnia?
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(a) Marijuana (b) Barbiturates
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (c) Benzodiazepines (d) Heroin
(1) b and c (2) a and d
148. Read the following statements and choose the (3) a and c (4) c and d
incorrect statement
(1) In Cycas female cone is absent 155. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and
(2) Pinus have winged pollen grains death due to
(3) In Angiosperms, male gamete fuses with egg to (1) Respiratory failure (2) Digestion failure
(3) Cerebral hemorrhage (4) 1 and 3
form a zygote
(4) Bryophytes have more economic importance but 156. Which one is obtained by acetylation of morphine?
less ecological importance. (1) Smack (2) Charas
(3) Cocaine (4) Ganja
149. Which of the following are correctly matched
regarding Gymnosperm ? 157. Cocaine interferes with transport of neurotransmitter
(A) Megasporangium – Ovule (1) Secretin (2) Dopamine
(B) Female gametophyte – Endosperm (3) Seratonin (4) Acetycholine
(C) Male gamete – Pollen grain
158. Which of the following technique is safest for the
(1) Only (A) detection of cancer?
(2) (A) & (C) (1) MRI
(3) (A) and (B) (2) Radiography
(4) (A), (B) and (C) (3) Computed tomography
(4) CAT-scan
150. Consider the following statements:
(a) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place 159. Match the following columns.
by fragmentation of thalli or by specialised Column -I Column-II
structure called gammae. A. Auto-immunity 1. Addison’s disease
(b) Marchantia thallus is liver shaped and B. Allergic disease 2. Asthma
dorsiventral. C. Contact inhibition 3. Normal cells
(c) In mosses, the early stage of sporophyte is
D. Metastasis 4. Sarcoma
called protonema.
(d) In Marchantia, sporophyte is differentiated into
A B C D
foot, seta and capsule.
(1) 1 2 3 4
How many above statements are true : (2) 1 2 4 3
(1) One (2) Three (3) 2 1 3 4
(3) Four (4) Two (4) 2 1 4 3
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15
Test Booklet Code-D
160. Grafted tissue/organ may be rejected in a patient 169. Find out the feature of cancer cells ?
due to (1) Abnormal surface proteins
(1) Cell-mediated immune response (2) Metastasis
(2) Passive immune response (3) (1) and (2)
(3) First line of defence (4) Programmed cell death
(4) Humoral immune response
170. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the
161. Antibodies are produced by malarial parasite ?
(1) T-cells (2) Mast cells (1) Lymph nodes of infected humans
(3) Plasma cells (4) Fibroblasts (2) Salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Saliva of infected human
162. A communicable disease is (4) RBC of humans suffering from malaria
(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Ringworm
(3) Diabetes (4) Albinism 171. The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an
example of
163. Infective stage of malarial parasite to the primary
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
host
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(1) Gametocytes (2) Sporozoite
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(3) Merozoite (4) Gametes
(4) Naturally acquired active immunity
164. Match the following columns.
172. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
Column-I Column-II (1) Two light chains
A. Cellular barrier 1. Natural killer cells (2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
B. Physiological 2. Interferons
barrier (4) Two FC ends of heavy chains

C. Cytokine barrier 3. Mucous membrane 173. Find out the helminth intestinal parasite
D. Physical barrier 4. Lysozyme (1) Entamoeba
(2) Plasmodium
A B C D
(3) Ascaris
(1) 2 3 4 1
(4) Wuchereria bancrofti
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 1 3 2 4 174. Statement-I :
IgA immunoglobulin can pass through the placenta
165. Immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen- to enter into the foetus.
sensitive lymphocytes in the Statement-II :
(1) Liver IgA immunoglobulins are common in colostrum.
(2) Spleen and lymph nodes (1) S-I is true, but S-II is false
(3) Red bone marrow and thymus (2) S-I and S-II are false
(3) S-I and S-II are true
(4) MALT
(4) S-I is false, but S-II is true
166. Antibody is composed of
175. Identify the correct statement from the following
(1) Only tow light chains and four heavy chains
(1) Ernst Haeckel: Proposed the embryos never pass
(2) Only two heavy chains and four light chains
through adult stages of other animals
(3) Four heavy chains
(2) Alfred Wallace: A naturalist who worked in
(4) Two light chains and two heavy chains
Galapagos Islands
(3) Charles Darwin: Existing living forms share
167. Character of acquired immunity is similarities to varying degrees not only among
(1) Removal of self cells themselves but life forms that existed millions of
(2) Specific immunity years ago
(3) Immunological memory (4) Oparin: Attempted Big Bang theory to explain to
(4) 2 and 3 us the origin of universe

168. Vaccination is an example of 176. Swan neck flask experiment of Pasteur disproves
(1) Passive immunity (1) Biogenesis
(2) Artificial active immunity (2) Theory of catastrophism
(3) Natural active immunity (3) Panspermia
(4) Natural passive immunity (4) Theory of spontaneous generation
16 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-D
177. Which set doesn’t include homology?
(1) Wings of butterfly and bird
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(3) Forelimbs of cheetah and whale choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
(4) Mouthparts of mosquito and cockroach questions.
186. Sauropsids gave rise to
178. Archaeopteryx is (1) Chelones, Therapsids and Squamates
(1) An extant bird (2) Turtles, Lizards and Tuataras
(2) A living fossil (3) Terrapins, Tuataras and Mammals
(3) A rare bird of recent live recovery (4) Crocodiles, Birds and Mammals
(4) A fossilized bird
187. Mark the correct option
179. Which among the following has least cranial (1) Variations explained in Darwinism are small and
capacity? directionless
(1) Homo habilis (2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(2) Homo erectus and gets selected by nature
(3) Homo sapiens (3) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of
(4) Homo neanderthelensis determinism
(4) Mutations are random and directional
180. Finches of Galapagos Islands
(1) Migrated to all over the world 188. The theory that explains the joining of South
(2) Descended from common ancestor America with North America and dominating the
fauna of North America by South America is
(3) Completely unrelated
(1) Theory of continental drift
(4) Compete for seeds and extinct due to competition
(2) Theory of catastrophism
(3) Big Bang theory
181. Which of the following statement is correct? (4) Germplasm theory
(1) Evolution is not a stochastic process
(2) Evolution is a directed process 189. Identify the INCORRECT statement from the
(3) Evolution may be a consequence of a process following
called natural selection (1) Genetic drift operates in small isolated
(4) Adaptive radiation is not a part of evolution population
(2) Homo habilis refers to tool maker
182. Marsupial evolution in Australia is an example of (3) de Vries opinioned the mechanism of evolution
(1) Analogous organs (2) Adaptive radiation is multiple step mutations
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Vestigial organs (4) The species inhabiting the same geographical
areas are sympatric species
183. Statement (A):
Though mutations are random. 190. Natural selection is based on certain observations
Statement (B): which are factual. Which one is NOT correct with
Mutations are subjected to natural selection. respect to these factual observations?
(1) Both A and B are true (1) Natural resources are limited
(2) Both A and B are false (2) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal
(3) A is true but B is false fluctuations
(4) A is false but B is true (3) Members of population vary in characteristics
even though they look superficially similar
184. Which of the following is the correct order in (4) Variations are not heritable
evolutionary history of man? 191. In a Hardy-Weinberg population, 16% of the
(1) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → population is provided with 400 ebony fruit flies,
Cro- Magnon man → Neanderthal man then the total population is (Note: Grey is dominant
(2) Cro-Magnon man → Neanderthal man → over ebony)
Homo erectus → Homo habilis (1) 1600 (2) 4000
(3) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → (3) 2500 (4) 360
Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man
(4) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → 192. Darwin used sentence "Descent with modification"
Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man for which type of evolution?
(1) Chemical evolution
185. Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth about (2) Organic evolution
(1) 200 mya (2) 25 mya (3) Spontaneous generation
(3) 500 mya (4) 65 mya (4) Artificial evolution
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 17
Test Booklet Code-D
193. The selection of resistant bacteria and industrial 198. Assertion:
melanism are an examples of Organ transplantation patients are given
(1) Artificial selection (2) Natural selection immunosuppressive drugs.
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Adaptive radiation Reason:
Transplanted tissue has antigens which stimulate the
194. A person sufferring from malaria feels fever when specific immune response of the recipient
(1) Liver cells are destroyed (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
(2) Sporozoites stage enters in the body Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) When RBC ruptures and haemozoin granules are (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
released Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(4) All the above
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is
incorrect
195. Proto oncogenes present in:
(4) Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(1) Normal body cells
(2) Cancer cells
199. Assertion:
(3) Both (1) and (2)
-interferons activates immune system and help in
(4) Only in tumor cells destroying the tumor.
Reason:
196. Our health is affected by : Cancer also removed by immunotherapy.
(a) Genetic disorders (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
(b) Infections Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) Life style (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(1) a only (2) b, c only Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(3) a, b only (4) a, b, c Assertion
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
197. Read the following statements regarding the various (4) Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
techniques used in cancer detection: ]
(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and 200. Assertion:
histopathological studies of the tissues and the Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on central
blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and
counts in case of leukemia increased energy.
(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into Reason:
thin sections is stained and examined under Injecting the microbes intentionally during
microscope by pathologist. immunization or infectious organisms gaining
(iii)Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), access into body during natural infection induces
CT (computed tomography) and MRI (Magnetic active immunity.
resonance imaging) are very useful to detect (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
cancers of the internal organs. Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(iv)Computed tomography used strong magnetic (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
fields and non-ionising radiations to detect Reason is not a correct explanation of the
physiological changes in living tissues. Assertion
Which of the following statement are incorrect? (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) incorrect
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (iv) (4) Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

18 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

 Test Booklet Code-D

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 04-FEB.-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 4 26 4 51 4 76 2 101 3 126 4 151 4 176 4
02 3 27 1 52 1 77 4 102 4 127 2 152 4 177 1
03 2 28 1 53 4 78 1 103 3 128 1 153 3 178 4
04 1 29 2 54 4 79 3 104 4 129 4 154 1 179 1
05 1 30 1 55 1 80 3 105 2 130 2 155 4 180 2
06 2 31 1 56 4 81 3 106 3 131 2 156 1 181 3
07 2 32 1 57 1 82 2 107 3 132 4 157 2 182 2
08 3 33 4 58 1 83 1 108 1 133 4 158 1 183 1
09 3 34 3 59 2 84 4 109 2 134 2 159 1 184 4
10 3 35 4 60 3 85 2 110 1 135 2 160 1 185 4
11 4 36 3 61 2 86 2 111 1 136 1 161 3 186 2
12 1 37 2 62 1 87 3 112 3 137 1 162 2 187 2
13 2 38 4 63 1 88 3 113 3 138 1 163 1 188 1
14 2 39 2 64 2 89 1 114 3 139 2 164 2 189 3
15 2 40 1 65 3 90 2 115 1 140 3 165 3 190 4
16 1 41 1 66 3 91 1 116 2 141 2 166 4 191 3
17 1 42 1 67 1 92 1 117 4 142 2 167 4 192 2
18 2 43 3 68 1 93 3 118 3 143 3 168 2 193 2
19 1 44 3 69 4 94 3 119 4 144 2 169 3 194 3
20 1 45 4 70 2 95 3 120 1 145 1 170 2 195 1
21 3 46 4 71 2 96 1 121 2 146 3 171 2 196 4
22 3 47 1 72 3 97 3 122 2 147 2 172 3 197 4
23 2 48 2 73 3 98 3 123 2 148 4 173 3 198 1
24 2 49 2 74 2 99 4 124 2 149 3 174 4 199 3
25 1 50 4 75 3 100 1 125 1 150 2 175 3 200 3

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 19

 Test Booklet Code-D

HINT. SOLUTION
RM-NEET Batch, Weekly Test- 20, Date: 04-Feb. -2024
01. Answer (4) 1
 L2C2 =
Ammeter reads the root mean square value of current  22
2
1
(Irms) is released to the peak value of current (I0) by
1 1 1
the relation  LC   LC    12
I 12 12 LC
Irms = 0  I0  2  I rms  2  10A 10 2 A
2 11. Answer (4)
02. Answer (3)
03. Answer (2) V  VR2  (VL  VC ) 2  802  (40  100) 2 100V
T 1 Answer (1)
t =  5 103  f  50HZ 12.
4 4f e 1 L
04. Answer (1) i max  max and Q 
R R C
Impedance, Z = R 2  (X L  X C )3 13. Answer (2)
10  (10)  (X L  X C )
2 2 ie
Pavg = 0 0 cos 
2
100 = 100 + (XL  XC)2  XL  XC = 0 …….. (i)
14. Answer (2)
Let  is the phase difference between current and
N P VP iS N i 4 140
voltage    iS  P P  2A
X  XC 0 NS VS i P NS 280
 tan  = L  tan   15. Answer (2)
R R
=0 [From Eq. (i)]
05. Answer (1) Output V5 I5
We know efficiency η = 
Since, current lags behind the voltage in phase by a Input VP I P
constant angle, then circuit must contain R and L VI V (6)
06. Answer (2)  η = 5 5  0.9  5 3
VP I P 310
Power factor,  V5 = 450 V
1 R As VPIP = 3000
cos  =  3000 3000
2 R 2  2 L2 IP   A 15A
VP 200
This gives, L = R when  is doubled, we find 16. Answer (1)
R
1 R R 1 XL = XC  Z = R hence cos  =
cos  =    Z
2 R  4 L
2 2 2
R  4R
2 2
5 17. Answer (1)
07. Answer (2) According to Bohr’s hypothesis, electron can revolve
When dielectric is filled between he plates of only in those orbits in which its angular momentum
capacitor, its capacitance increases. So XC decreases. h
is an integral multiple of ; where h is planck
Then current flowing through bulb Y increases 2
08. Answer (3) constant. This is called quantisation of angular
e e 100 momentum.
i  Rms  Rms   2A
Z R 50 18. Answer (2)
VR = iR = 2 950) = 100V In the second excited state n = 3
09. Answer (3)  h 
At A XC > XL , at B XC = XL, at C XC < XL LH = LLi = 3  
 2 
 At C point circuit is inductive ZH = 1 ; ZLi = 3; E  Z2
10. Answer (3) |ELi| = 9|EH|
V0 V0 Or |EH| < |ELi|

2 2
 1   1  19. Answer (1)
R 2   1L   R 2
 
 2 L   mv 2 3q 2
 1C   2 C   ……. (1)
2 2 r 40 r 2
 1   1 
  1L     2 L   nh
1C   2 C  and  mvr
 2
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 Test Booklet Code-D
using (1) and (2) and putting [n = 1] V 240
and i 
  8A
h 3q 2 R 30
2 40 v 34. Answer (3)
35. Answer (4)
3q 2
v I02 R
20 h With sinusoidal wave P  i 2rms R   W.....(1)
2
20. Answer (1)
with equal have
1 1 P  i 2rms R  i 02 R  2W
E  Rhc  2  2 
 n1 n 2  36. Answer (3)
1 1  7  Here I0 = 1.0 A
(II) E 43  Rhc  2  2   Rhc   Bandwidth applies to frequencies when
3 4   9  16  I
E14 31  0.05 Rhc I  0  0.707A
2
1 1  = 2  1= (1.4  0.8) = 0.6 rad s1.
(IV) E14-21 = Rhc  2  2   0.2Rhc
2 4  37. Answer (2)
1 1  For transition from 4E to E
(III) E[4  2]  Rhc  2  2   0.75Rhc hc hc
1 2  (4E  E)   1 ……… (1)
1 3E
1 1
(I) E[1-4] = Rhc  2  2    0.9 Rhc 7
4 1  For transition from E to E
(It is absorption not emission) 3
21. Answer (3) 7 hc 3hc
E  E   2  ……… (2)
22. Answer (3) 3 2 4E
23. Answer (2)  4
24. Answer (2) Thus  1 
25. Answer (1) 2 9
26. Answer (4) 38. Answer (4)
27. Answer (1) Radius of nth orbit rn  n2
t2 Graph between rn and n is a parabola. Also
Vrms  V  V
2 2
V
2

 t1
V 2 dt
rn  n 
2
r 
rms
t 2  t1     loge  n   2log e (n)
r1  1   r1 
  V t  dt  V
1
3/ 2
0 1 Comparing this equation with y = mx + c
V   t dt
2 0 2 3
rms
1 0
0
0 r 
graph between loge  n  and loge(n) will be a
 r1 
1
 t4  1 0 V
2
 V02    V02     0 straight line, passing from origin.
 4 0 4 4 4
Time period (Tn)  n3
V Answer (2)
therefore , Vrms = 0 39.
2 40. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1) 41. Answer (1)
i = 2+3 sin t 42. Answer (1)
i rms  22  32 / 2  17 / 2 43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2) 45. Answer (4)
30. Answer (1) 46. Answer (4)
31. Answer (1) 47. Answer (1)
Currents in same phase in series combination
48. Answer (2)
32. Answer (1)
49. Answer (2)
E = E0 sin t 50. Answer (4)
 = 75 51. Answer (4)
2f = 75 Na2S  Na 2 Fe  CN 5 NO  
 Na 4 Fe  CN 5 NOS 
75
f  Hz 52. Answer (1)
2 SO2 and H2S both being reducing agent, can turn
In one cycle ac current becomes zero twice acidified dichromate solution green. SO2 can be
 75 times zero is one second obtained by the action of acid upon while H2S is
33. Answer (4) evolved by the action of acid upon sulphide.
 XL = XC  Resonance However, SO2 has a burning sulphur smell which is
Reading of voltmeter = VL  VC = 0V irritating H2S has rotten egg like smell.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 21
 Test Booklet Code-D
53. Answer (4) 75. Answer (3)
54. Answer (4) Hydrogen bonds are present in alcohols.
55. Answer (1) 76. Answer (2)
56. Answer (4) 77. Answer (4)
57. Answer (1) Phenol involves in resonance.
58. Answer (1) 78. Answer (1)
 Fe  OH3  3HCl
FeCl3  3H2O  Aldehydes give a recemic mixture of optically
active cyanohydrins, which on hydrolysis give
NaHCO3  HCl 
 NaCl  H2O  CO 2
 -hydroxy acids.
59. Answer (2) 79. Answer (3)
60. Answer (3) Oxidative ozonolysis gives adipic acid and
61. Answer (2) Barium salt of acid gives ketone
80. Answer (3)

62. Answer (1)

Intra molecular – oxymercuration-demercuration
reaction
63. Answer (1) 81. Answer (3)
Acid catalysed dehydration follows C+ mech so

Θ

order is 3° R  OH > 2° ROH>iR  OH RMgx  R  Mg x
64. Answer (2) 82. Answer (2)
Reactivity order of HX is Addition of water to alkynes
HI > HBr > HCl > HF 83. Answer (1)
65. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)
CH 2 OH The resultant conjugate base is resonance
| stabilized.
CH 2  OH O
.. ||
Ethylene glycol. CH 3  CH  CH 2 -CHO  OH 
 CH 3  CH  C H  C -H
66. Answer (3) OH
| |
OH
CH3Br has no   carbon, so it will not undergo 85. Answer (2)
elimination. 86. Answer (2)
67. Answer (1) This is an example of SNi reaction
 
OH
(intramolecular ring closure).
C CH3 
H / OH
 CH CH3

CH2 CH3 H
O O
OH 

 O  Cl
2-Phenyl-2-prpopanol 

Cl Cl
Electrophillic addition will take place.
68. Answer (1) 87. Answer (3)
Phenol NaOH

 O  hydroxy benzoic acid
CO 2 H
CH3 CH2
69. Answer (4) CH3 CH2 C CH3 + (CH3)3 CONa CH3 CH2 C CH3
Depends upon stability of C. bulkybare (major)
Br
70. Answer (2)
Acid catalysed dehydration follows C+ mech.
88. Answer (3)
71. Answer (2)
Friedal craft alkylation.
(B) Due to +I effect of CH3 group, electron density
89. Answer (1)
on oxygen increases and thus repulsion increases.
72. Answer (3) Addition compound
90. Answer (2)
If any activating group is present along with –
SN1 mech
COOH for example –OH which is in salicylic acid
91. Answer (1)
then substitution w.r.t –OH and –COOH is replaced
by that new group. 92. Answer (1)
73. Answer (3) 93. Answer (3)
Inter molecular H-Bonding. 94. Answer (3)
74. Answer (2) 95. Answer (3)
Θ

CH 3O has more hydration enthalpy 96. Answer (1)

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 Test Booklet Code-D
97. Answer (3) 126. Answer (4)
OH Cl 127. Answer (2)
128. Answer (1)
 S 
O C l2  M
g
129. Answer (4)
D
130. Answer (2)
M gC l
131. Answer (2)
Pitcher of nepenthes is a leaf modification
Θ
 D
132. Answer (4)
98. Answer (3) 133. Answer (4)
99. Answer (4) 134. Answer (2)
100. Answer (1) Example of offset is –pistia and eichornia
101. Answer (3) 135. Answer (2)
In mosses, gametophyte have two stages. 136. Answer (1)
(i) Protonema, which form from germination of 137. Answer (1)
spore Leaf, stem are diploid structure in pteridophyte and
(ii) Leafy stage which form main plant body. spores are haploid.
102. Answer (4) 138. Answer (1)
Gymnosperms shows diplontic life cycle in which 139. Answer (2)
gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte. 140. Answer (3)
103. Answer (3) 141. Answer (2)
Red algae have Chl-a and Chl-d. 142. Answer (2)
104. Answer (4) 143. Answer (3)
105. Answer (2) 144. Answer (2)
106. Answer (3) 145. Answer (1)
Fruits are form from ovary, ovary is present only in 146. Answer (3)
angiosperm. Salvinia and selaginella are heterosporous
107. Answer (3) pteridophytes and show seed habit.
Sporophyte in mosses are dependent on 147. Answer (2)
gametophyte while independent in pteridophytes. 148. Answer (4)
108. Answer (1) 149. Answer (3)
109. Answer (2) 150. Answer (2)
110. Answer (1) 151. Answer (4)
Zygote undergoes immediate meiosis in algae and Memory B and t lymphocytes maintain vaccination.
form haploid spores. While in bryophytes it form 152. Answer (4)
embryo and after it foot, seta and capsule 153. Answer (3)
 Capsule form spore mother cell and meiosis take In US first time AIDS reported in 1981.
place in this structure. 154. Answer (1)
111. Answer (1)
Barbiturates (Sleeping pills) ad Benzodiazepines
112. Answer (3)
helps to cure mental illness like depression and
Heterosporous pteridophytes show seed habit
insomnia.
113. Answer (3)
155. Answer (4)
Gymnosperms are naked seed containing plant
group. 156. Answer (1)
114. Answer (3) Morephine by acetylation process form heroin/smack
115. Answer (1) 157. Answer (2)
116. Answer (2) 158. Answer (1)
117. Answer (4) Cancer detecting test MRI used Non-ionising rays.
Spores of mosses germinate to form primary 159. Answer (1)
protonema. 160. Answer (1)
118. Answer (3) Due to CMI  cell mediated immunity grafted
Mosses have elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal tissue/organ may be rejected in a patient.
than liverworts. 161. Answer (3)
119. Answer (4) 162. Answer (2)
120. Answer (1) Ringworm is a communicable disease
121. Answer (2) 163. Answer (1)
122. Answer (2) 164. Answer (2)
123. Answer (2)
165. Answer (3)
In pteridophytes sporangia containing leaves are
166. Answer (4)
called – sporophylls
124. Answer (2)
Antibody is a protein formed of 2 heavy chains and 2
125. Answer (1)
light chains.
Heterosporous pteridophytes are–salvinia and 167. Answer (4)
selaginella 168. Answer (2)

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 Test Booklet Code-D
169. Answer (3) 187. Answer (2)
Cancer cells has failure of Apoptosis ) this promotes 188. Answer (1)
the development of tumors. 189. Answer (3)
170. Answer (2) De vries opinioned the mechanism of evolution is a
171. Answer (2) single step mutation (saltation)
172. Answer (3) 190. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3) Variations are heritable
174. Answer (4)
191. Answer (3)
175. Answer (3)
16% population means q2 is 0.16, in a population
176. Answer (4)
0.16 = 400, total population is 0.16/400 = 2500
177. Answer (1)
178. Answer (4) 192. Answer (2)
Archaepteryx is a extinct (past living) fossilized bird. 193. Answer (2)
179. Answer (1) 194. Answer (3)
180. Answer (2) 195. Answer (1)
181. Answer (3) Proto oncogenes present in Normal body cells
182. Answer (2) 196. Answer (4)
183. Answer (1) 197. Answer (4)
184. Answer (4) 198. Answer (1)
185. Answer (4) 199. Answer (3)
Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth about 65 mya. -interferans activates immune system and help in
186. Answer (2) destroying the tumor.
Therapsids and mammals are evolved from 200. Answer (3)
sauropsids.

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