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 QR Code Questions & Answer 1

10th SCIENCE
QR CODE QUESTIONS & ANSWER
1. LAWS OF MOTION
1. A heavy truck and bike are moving with same kinetic energy. If the mass of truck is four times that of the
bike, then calculate ratio of their momenta)
a) 1:4 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 1:1
Solution :
Let, Mass of the bike = 𝑚𝐵
Mass of the truck = 𝑚 𝑇 = 4𝑚𝐵
1 1 𝑚 𝑚2 𝑣 2
Kinetic Energy = 𝑚𝑣 2 = 𝑚𝑣 2 × =
2 2 𝑚 2𝑚
𝑝2
i.e. KE = 𝑝 = 𝑚𝑣 ]
[∵
2𝑚
K.E of truck = K.E of bike
p2T p2B
=
2(4mB ) 2mB
p2T 8mB 4m 4
= = B =
p2B 2mB mB 1
pT 4 2
=√ =
pB 1 1
∴ Ratio of the momentum of truck to that of the bike is 𝟐 ∶ 𝟏.
i.e. Momentum of the truck is twice the momentum of the bike.

2. A planet has a mass of 20% more than that of earth, and radius is 20% less than that of earth. Then find the
acceleration due to gravity.
a) 17.375 m s-2 b) 18.375 m s-2 c) 16.375 m s-2 d) 11.375 m s-2
Solution :
Mass of the Earth = ME Acceleration due to gravity of the Planet
G (1.2)M 1.2 GM
Mass of the Planet = ME + 0.2 ME = 1.2ME g ′ = (0.8R )2E = (0.8)2 × 2E
E RE
Radius of the Earth = R E ′ 1.2 1.2
Radius of the Planet = R E − 0.2 R E = 0.8R E g = × gE = × 9.8
0.64 0.64
′ −𝟐
𝐠 = 𝟏𝟖. 𝟑𝟕𝟓 𝐦𝐬

3. Two planets are spiraling around sun in circular orbits of ratio m:n and the density ratio p:q, the acceleration
due to gravity g is the ratio of
a) mq : np b) np : mq c) nq : mp d) mp : nq
4
Solution : M1 d1 × πR1 3
d R 3
= 3
4 3 = 1 13
Ratio of the Radius, R1 : R 2 = m: n M2 d2 × 3πR2 d2 R2
2
Ratio of the density,d1 : d2 = p: q G1 GM R M R 2
4 = 21 × 2 = 1 × 2 2
g2 R1 GM2 M2 R1
For sphere, volume = πR3
3 d1 R1 3 R2 2 d1 R1 𝑚𝑝
Mass = density × volume = × 2 = =
d2 R2 3 R1 d2 R2 𝑛𝑞
∴ Ratio of acceleration due to gravity of the two planets is 𝐦𝐩: 𝐧𝐪

4. Two asteroids of equal masses revolve diametrically opposite to each other in circle of radius 1000km with
equal velocity. If the mass of one of them is 108 kg, then find their velocity.
(G = 6.6 × 10 -11 N m -2 kg -2) (0.66) 1/2 = 0.8124
a) 0.816 x 10 -2 ms-2 b) 0.816 x 10 -3 ms-2 c) 0.716 x 10 -3 ms-2 d) 0.716 x 10 -2 ms-2

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5. A bomb of mass 10 kg is initially at rest explodes into two parts. Mass of 4 kg is moving with kinetic energy
of 200 J. Velocity of other mass is _____m/s
a) 2.54 b) 6.6 c) - 5.67 d) -6.6
Solution :
Mass of the bomb = 10kg, m1 = 4kg, m2 = 6kg Law of conservation of momentum,
(m )
Kinetic Energy of mass 4 kg 1 = 200J m1 V1 + m2 V2 = 0
1 2 4 × 10 + 6 × V2 = 0
∴ m1 V1 = 200
1
2 40 + 6V2 = 0
× 4 × V12 = 200 6V2 = −40
2
200 −40
2
2V1 = 200 ⇒ V1 = 2
= 100 V2 =
2 6
V1 = √100 = 𝟏𝟎𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 𝐕𝟐 = −𝟔. 𝟔 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏
6. Average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 Ns momentum in 0.04s is _______N.
a) 625 N b) 225 N c) 50 N d) 25N
Solution :
Initial momentum P1 = 0 Ns, Time t = 0.04s
Change in momentum 25−0
Final momentum P2 = 25 Ns Force = = = 𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝐍
Time 0.04

7. A person jumps onto a swimming pool from a height of 1m and comes to rest by 0.2s If the same person
increases his height by 8 m from its old position and jumps, comes to rest by 2s. Compare the ratio of forces
exerted by him in both the cases.
a) 10: 3 b) 3:10 c) 1:1 d) none of the above
Solution :
From 3rd equation of motion, V 2 = u2 + 2gh Case 2: 𝒉𝟐 = 𝟏 + 𝟖 = 𝟗𝒎
V 2 = 2gh (∵ 𝑢 = 0) V2 = √2gh2 = √2g × 9 = 3√2g
V = √2gh m(v2 − u2 ) m (3√2g − 0) 3m√2g
Case 1: 𝒉𝟏 = 𝟏𝒎 F2 = = =
t2 2 2
V1 = √2gh1 = √2g F1 m√2g 2 1 10
= × = =
m(v1 −u1 ) m (√2g −0) m√2g F2 0.2 3m√2g 0.3 3
F1 = = =
t1 0.2 0.2
The ratio of force is = 𝟏𝟎: 𝟑
8. Some force acts on two bodies of different masses 2kg and 4 kg initially at rest. The ratio of time required to
acquire same final velocity is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:1 d) 4:16
Solution :
a2 m1
F1 = F2 ⇒ m1 a1 = m2 a2 ⇒ =
a1 m2
v−u v a2 v2 t1
𝑎= = (∵ u = 0) ⇒ = ×
t t a1 v1 t2
a2 t1 m1 2 1
∵ v1 = v2 , = = = =
a1 t2 m2 4 2
∴ 𝐭 𝟏 : 𝐭 𝟐 = 𝟏: 𝟐
9. The lift is going up with the passengers. Total mass is 1 ton. The variation in velocity of lift in 2 sec is
3.6ms-1. Then the tension in the rope pulling the lift is ___________ N.
a) 1000 N b) 80000 N c) 800 N d) 8000 N
Solution :
change in velocity
Acceleration = Tension in the rope, T = m(g + a)
Time taken
a=
0−3.6
= −1.8 ms −2 𝐓 = 1000 (g + a) = 1000(9.8 − 1.8)
2
𝐓 = 1000 × 8 = 𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍
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 QR Code Questions & Answer 3

10. When a person standing on spring balance. Reading on the balance is 65 kgf. If the man jumps off from the
balance, then the momentary reading in the balance will be
a) first increases and decreases b) first decreases and increases
c) decreases d) no change
Solution : For jumping he presses the spring platform. So, the reading of spring Balance increases
and then it decreases and becomes zero.

2. OPTICS
1. The refractive index of water with respect to air is 1.33 and the refractive index of glass with
respect to air is 1.52. The refractive index of glass with respect to water is
a) 1.33 b) 1.52 c) 1.142 d) 0.875
Solution :
𝜇 𝑜𝑓 𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡𝑜 𝑎𝑖𝑟 1.52
Refractive index of glass with respect to water = 𝜇 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡𝑜 𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 1.33 = 1.142

2. The time taken by a light ray to travel through a glass slab of thickness 8 mm is (Take μ glass = 1.5)
a) 4 x 10 -11 s b) 4 x 10 +11 s c) 2.5 x 10 -11 s d) 2.5 x 10 +11 s
Solution : We know that,
speed of light in vaccum c distance travelled
Refractive index(μ) = = Velocity =
velocity of light in a medium V Time taken
c 3×108 distance travelled
∴V=μ= = 2 × 108 ms −1 ∴ Time taken =
velocity
1.5
8×10−3 m
V = 2 × 108 ms −1 t= = 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟏𝐬
2×108ms−1
The time taken by light ray to travel through the glass slab is 4 × 10−11 s
3. A lens of focal length 12cm magnifies the object by three times and produced an erect image.
Then the distance between the object and the lens is
a) 8 cm b) 16 cm c) 24 cm d) 32 cm
Solution : 1 1 1−3 −2
V − = =
3u u 3u 3u
Magnification m = =3
u 1 −2
V = 3u =
f 3u
1 1 1 −2f −2×12 −24
From lens formula, = V−u u= = = = −8 ⇒ 𝐮 = 𝟖 𝐜𝐦
f 3 3 3
∴ The distance between the object and the lens is 8 cm.

4. A convex lens has a focal length of 12cm. An object is placed at some distance from the lens
so that an image is formed at a distance of 24cm in front of the lens. Then the distance between
the object and the lens is
a) 8 cm b) 12 cm c) 24 cm d) 32 cm
1 1 1
Solution : From lens formula, = − f v u
f = 12 cm (Positive for convex lens) 1 1 1 1 1
= v − f = 24 − 12 =
1−2
=
−1
u 24 24
V = 24 cm (Positive as image is
u = −24 cm
infront of the lens)
∴ The distance between the object and the lens is 𝟐𝟒 𝐜𝐦.

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4 Way to Success - 10th Science 

5. A lens forms a real image of height 6cm of an object of height 2 cm. If the distance between
the object and the image is 16 cm, then the focal length of the lens is
a) 2cm b) 3cm c) 6cm d) 12cm
Solution : Distance between the object and the image
Height of the image ℎ𝑖 = 6𝑐𝑚 −u + V = 16 ⇒ −u − 3u = 16
Height of the object ℎ0 = 2𝑐𝑚 −4u = 16 ⇒ u = −16⁄4 = −4cm
h 6 V = −3u = −3 × −4 = 12cm
Magnification m = h i = 2 = 3 1 1 1 1 1 1+3 4 1
0
V
= − = − = = =
f V u 12 −4 12 12 3
Since, u is negative m = −u = 3 ⇒ V = −3u
f = 3cm
∴ Focal length of the lens 𝐟 = 𝟑𝐜𝐦

6. The refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is ‘x’ and refractive index of medium 2
with respect to medium 3 is ‘y’. Then the refractive index of medium 3 with respect to medium 1 is
𝒙 𝑦 1
a) xy b) c) d)
𝒚 𝑥 𝑥𝑦
Solution :
μ of medium 2
μ of medium 2 w.r.to medium 1 = = x
μ of medium 1
μ of medium 2
μ of medium 2 w.r.to medium 3 = = y
μ of medium 3
μ of medium 3 𝑥
μ of medium 3 w.r.to medium 1 = μ of medium 1 = 𝑦
𝒙
∴ The refractive index of medium 3 with respect to 1 is 𝒚 .

7. A convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is placed somewhere in between an object and a screen. The
distance between the object and the screen is x. If the numerical value of the magnification
produced by the lens is m, then the focal length of the lens is
𝒎𝒙 𝑚𝑥 (𝑚+1)2 (𝑚−1)2
a) b) c) d)
(𝒎+𝟏)𝟐 (𝑚−1)2 𝑚𝑥 𝑚𝑥
Solution :
1 1 1 1 1
Since, u is negative, f
= v−u= mx − −x
v 1+m 1+m
Magnification m = −u ⇒ ∴ v = −mu
1 1+m 1+m m2 +2m+1
−u + v = x ⇒ −u − mu = x = + =
f mx x mx
−x
( )
−u 1 + m = x ⇒ u= 1 (m+1)2 𝐦𝐱
1+m
mx = ⇒𝐟=
∴ v = −mu = f mx (𝐦+𝟏)𝟐
1+m

8. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When upper half of the lens is covered
by an opaque screen
a) Half the image will disappear
b) Complete image will be formed of same intensity
c) Half image will be formed of same intensity
d) Complete image will be formed of decreased intensity
Solution :
When the converging or diverging lens is covered along the axis, full image will be formed.
But, its intensity will get reduced.
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 QR Code Questions & Answer 5

9. The ray diagram could be correct (Here n1 , n2 be the refractive index of
medium1 and medium 2, ng - refractive index of the glass)
a) If n1 = n2 = ng b) If n1 = n2 and n2 < ng
c) If n1 =n2 and n1 > ng d) Under no circumstances
(Image change)
Solution :
From n1 to n2, there is no change in incident ray. Therefore n1 = n2
From n2 to ng, there is no change in incident ray. Therefore n1 = n2

10. An object is placed at a distance of f/2 from a convex lens. The image will be
a) At one of the foci, virtual and double its size b) At 3f / 2, real and inverted
c) At 2f, virtual and erect d) None of these
Solution :
Object is placed between O and F, ∴ virtual image is formed. u, v both are negative.
1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 1
= − = + ⇒ = − + = ⇒𝑣=𝑓 ∴ image is formed at Focus (f).
𝑓 −𝑣 −𝑢 −𝑣 𝑓 𝑣 𝑓 𝑓 𝑓
−v −f
Magnification m = −u = −f/2 = 2 ∴ formed image is Double its size.
3. THERMAL PHYSICS
1. A piece of ice can
a) not radiate heat b) radiate and absorb heat
c) radiate heat but not absorb heat d) absorb heat but not radiate heat
Hint : All body above 0 K will radiate and absorb heat. Ice is at 273 K (or) 0℃.

2. The bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter even when the surface is all frozen. Why ?
a) The water has large specific heat
b) The water has large latent heat of fusion
c) The conductivity of ice is low
d) The temperature of the earth at the bottom of the lake is high

3. Why does the cooking pot is coated with black?

a) black surfaces reflect more heat b) black surfaces are easier to clean
c) black surfaces absorb more heat d) none of above

4. Which of the following thermometers is used for measuring temperature around 1200° C?
a) Optical pyrometer
b) Mercury thermometer
c) Constant volume gas thermometer
d) Platinum resistance thermometer

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6 Way to Success - 10th Science 

5. At what temperature are the Celsius value and Fahrenheit value equal?
a) + 40 o b) - 40° c) - 0 o d) + 100 o
9
Hint : F = C + 32 ; to find C when F = C
5
9 9−5 5
C= C + 32 ⇒ C = −32 ⇒ C = −32 × = −𝟒𝟎℃
5 5 4

6. What would happen to a hole in a metal sheet when the sheet is heated?
a) The size of hole is decreases b) The size of hole is increases
c) No change in size d) None of above
Hint : When a metal sheet with hole is heated the sheet expands uniformly on all side. Like
liquid or gas, the expanded metal sheet cannot occupies the spaces in the hole.
∴ The size of the hole increases.

7. The surface which radiates more heat energy at a given particular temperature is
a) Black and Rough b) Black and Polished
c) White and polished d) White and Rough
Hint : Black surface absorbs more heat ; Rough surface reflects less and gives more area.
Hence, black and rough surface radiates more heat energy.

8. Which of the below is used for measurement of high temperature?

a) vapour thermometer b) energy meter
c) pyrometer d) resistance thermometer
9. If boiling water is taken to the dark side of the moon it will be
a) vaporized b) continue to boil
c) stop boiling but remain hot d) freeze
Hint : On the dark side of the moon, the temperature is very low that it freezes.

10. Order the substances iron, glass and water in descending about thermal conductivity
a) iron, glass, Water b) iron , Water, glass
c) Water, iron, glass d) Water ,glass, iron
11. If a heater coil is cut into four equal parts and only one part is used in the heater, the heat generated is:
a) increases b) decreases
c) no change d) may increase or decrease
Hint : Coil is cut into four equal parts ⇒ length decreases ⇒ resistance decreases
∴ Heat generated is increased.

12. Which of the following denotes highest temperature?

a) 1° C b) 1K c) 1°F d) All are equal
Hint : Convert all to ° C
for 1 K, C = 1 − 273 = −272℃
5 5
for 1°F, C = 9 (1 − 32) = (−31) = −17.2 ℃
9

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 7

4. ELECTRICITY
1. Two charged bodies having equal potential are connected through a wire, in this case
a) current will flow b) current will not flow
c) cannot say d) current will flow if a resistor is connected
Hint: Current will flow only if there is a potential difference.

2. The relation between potential difference (V) and Current (I) is

a) V α I b) V α I2 c) V2 α I d) V α I3

3. If a 12 V battery is connected in series with resistors 3ohm, 4ohm, 5 ohm, then the current flows
through the 3 ohm resistor is
a) 1 A b) 2 A c) 3 A d) 4 A
Solution :
Same current flows through the series resistance
V = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 = I(R1 + R2 + R3 )
12 = I(3 + 4 + 5)
12
𝐈= =𝟏𝐀
12

4. The rheostat is used in the circuit to :

a) increase the magnitude of current only
b) decrease the magnitude of current only
c) increase or decrease the magnitude of current
d) none of these

5. There are ‘n’ resistor each of resistance R. First they all are connected in series and equivalent
resistance is X. Now they are connected in parallel and equivalent resistance is Y. What is the ratio
of X and Y?
a) X : Y = 1: n b) X : Y = 1: n2 c) X : Y = n: 1 d) X : Y = n2 : 1
R
Hint : R𝑠 = nR = X R𝑃 = 𝑛 = Y
𝑿 𝒏𝑹 𝒏𝟐
= =
𝒀 𝑹/𝒏 𝟏

6. The heat generated while transferring 50 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential difference of
50V is
a) 50 J b) 250 J c) 500 J d) 2500 J
Solution : Q = 50 C, V = 50V, t = 1hour = 60 × 60 = 3600 s
w = QV = 50 × 50 = 𝟐𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐉

7. The amount of heat produced by a conductor of resistance 20Ω, while 5A current flows for 30 seconds.
a) 150 J b) 1500 J c) 15000 J d) 1000 J
Solution : R = 20 Ω I = 5 A t = 30 secs
H = I2 Rt = 5 × 5 × 20 × 30 = 𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐉
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8 Way to Success - 10th Science 

8. A 12V battery is connected across a resistor, if the current through the resistor is 2A, then the
resistance of the resistor is
a) 2 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 6 Ω d) 12 Ω
Solution : V = 12V, I = 2A
V 12
𝐕 = 𝐈𝐑, R = I = 2 = 𝟔 Ω

9. If ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel, then the effective resistance is

a) nR b) n/R c) R/n d) R/2n

10. One Kilowatt hour is equal to

a) 3.6 × 105 J b) 3.6 × 106 J c) 3.6 × 10-5 J d) 3.6 × 10-6 J

5. ACOUSTICS
1. The waves that required a material medium for their propagation is called
a) Matter waves b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Carrier waves d) Mechanical waves

2. Assertion(A): The velocity of sound in air increases due to the presence of moisture in it
Reason(R) : The presence of moisture in air lowers the density of air.
a) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are false
b) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are true but Ꭱ is not the correct explanation of Ꭺ
c) Ꭺ is false but Ꭱ is true
d) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are true and Ꭱ is the correct explanation of Ꭺ
3. Doppler effect is depend on
a) velocity of listener
b) distance between the source and listener
c) velocity of the source
d) all the above
4. If wind blows in a direction opposite to the sound propagation, then the velocity of sound
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Cannot be determined
5. A longitudinal wave of wavelength 1cm travels with a speed of 300 m/s .Can this wave be heard by a normal
human being?
a) no b) yes c) only in day time d) only in night time
𝑣 300
Hint : n= = = 30,000 Hz
𝜆 1 ×10−2
This is greater than 20,000 Hz (maximum frequency that a human can hear)
∴ Normal human being cannot hear this wave.

6. An observer stands at a distance of 850 m from the mountain and fires the gun. If the sound travels at speed
of 350 m/s After what time gap he will hear the echo,
a) 2 s b) 2.2 s c) 2.4 s d) 4.86 s
Hint :
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 1700
For echo, sound has to hit the mountain and Time taken to hear echo= 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 350 = 4.857 s
return back. i.e. distance = 850×2 = 1700 m ∴ Sound of echo will be heard after 4.857 s.

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 9

7. The waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are
a) transverse b) longitudinal
c) longitudinal and transverse d) stationary

8. A wave of frequency 500Hz travels between X and Y, distance’ of 600 m in 2s. How many wavelength are
there in distance XY?
a) 1000 b) 300 c) 180 d) 2000
Solution : Frequency (n) = 500 Hz,
distance travelled (d) = 600 m, time (t) = 2s
d 600
velocity of the wave (v ) = = = 300 m/s
t 2
v 300 3
wavelength of the wave (λ ) = = = m Number of wavelengths between X and Y (N),
n 500 5
d 600
N= = 3⁄ = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝒘𝒂𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒏𝒈𝒕𝒉𝒔
λ 5
∴ 1000 wavelengths are present in the distance XY.

9. Sound waves of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enter into another medium where
its speed is 2v m/s. wavelength of sound waves in the second medium is
a) λ b) λ /2 c) 2 λ d) 4 λ

Hint : frequency remains unchanged

𝜆2 2𝑣 𝑛
𝑣
Wavelength in 1st medium = 𝜆1 = 𝑛 ………… (1) (2) ÷ (1), = × =2
𝜆1 𝑛 𝑣

Wavelength in 2 medium = 𝜆2 =
nd 2𝑣
……….(2) 𝜆2 = 2𝜆1
𝑛

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of musical sound?

a) pitch b) wavelength c) quality d) loudness
11. What does it mean when a wave's amplitude increases
a) its frequency also increasing b) its moving in denser medium
c) its wavelength gets longer d) its carrying more energy
12. Assertion : (A ) Solids can support both longitudinal and transverse waves but only longitudinal waves can
propagate in gases.
Reason : (R ) solids posses two types of elasticity.
a) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are false
b) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are true but Ꭱ is not the correct explanation of Ꭺ
c) Ꭺ is false but Ꭱ is true
d) Both Ꭺ and Ꭱ are true and Ꭱ is the correct explanation of Ꭺ
6. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. β rays are emitted from the ___________.
a) sun b) stars
c) atom whose atomic number less than 50 d) radio active nucleus of an atom
2. Radio activity may be ___________.
a) natural b) artificial
c) natural and artificial d) none of the these
3. The natural source of a gamma radiations are ___________.
a) natural gas b) radio carbon c) radio ions d) all the above

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10 Way to Success - 10th Science 

4. The alpha particle carries two positive charges and its mass is nearly equal to ------
a) two protons b) two electrons c) an atom of helium d) atom of hydrogen
5. In the nuclear reaction 90Hg198 + X -------> 89 Au198 + 1H1 , X stands for ___________.
a) neutron b) proton c) electron d) deuteron
6. The radio isotope used in agriculture is ___________.
a) 15P32 b) 15P31 c) 11Na23 d) 11Na24
7. The ___________ is a natural radio active element , whose atomic number is less than 83.
a) Aluminium b) Silver c) Technitium d) calcium
8. The SI unit of radioactivity is ___________.
a) rutherford b) becquerel c) curie d) roentgen
9. ___________ travel with the speed of light.
a) alpha rays b) beta rays c) gamma particles d) none of the above
10. ___________ is an example for fertile material
a) Uranium 235 b) Thorium-232 c) Plutonium 239 d) Plutonium 241
7. ATOMS AND MOLECULES
1. Which of the following has largest number of particles?
a) 8 g of CH4 b) 4.4 g of CO2 c) 34.2 g of C12 H22 O11 d) 2 g of H2
Solution :
8
a) 8 g of CH4 molecule is = × 6.023 × 1023 = 3.0115 × 1023 molecules
16
4.4
b) 4.4 g of CO2 molecule is = × 6.023 × 1023 = 0.6023 × 1023 molecules
44
6.023 × 1023
c) 34.2 g of C12H22O11 molecule is = × 34.2 = 0.6023 × 10 molecules
23
342
𝟔.𝟎𝟐𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑
d) 2 g of H2 molecule is = × 𝟐 = 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 molecules
𝟐

2. Number of molecules in 16 g of Oxygen is

a) 6.023 x 1023 b) 6.023 x 10-23 c) 3.011 x 1023 d) 3.011 x 10-23
Solution : gram molecular mass of O2 = 16 × 2 = 32g
16 1
No. of molecules of O2 = × 6.023 × 1023 = × 6.023 × 1023 = 𝟑. 𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑
32 2
molecules

3. The mass of Sodium in 11.7 g of NaCl is ___________.

a) 2.3 g b) 4.6 g c) 6.9 g d) 7.1 g
Solution : Molecular mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5 𝑔
23
∴ Mass of Na in 11.7g of NaCl = × 11.7 = 𝟒. 𝟔 𝐠
58.5

4. Which of the following contains the largest number of molecules?

a) 0.2 moles of H2 b) 8.0 g of H2 c) 17 g of H2O d) 6.0 g of CO2
Solution :
a) No. of molecules in 0.2 moles of H2 = 0.2 × 6.023 × 1023
𝟖
b) No. of molecules in 8.0g of H2 = × 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 = 𝟒 × 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑
𝟐
17
c) No. of molecules in 17 g of H2O = × 6.023 × 1023 = 0.94 × 6.023 × 1023
18
6
d) No. of molecules in 6.0 g of CO2 = × 6.023 × 1023 = 0.136 × 6.023 × 1023
44

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 11

5. One gram of which of the following contains largest number of Oxygen atom.
a) O b) O2 c) O3 d) All contains Same
Solution :
a) molecular mass of O = 16 g b) molecular mass of O2 = 32 g c) molecular mass of O3 = 48 g
1 1
no of atoms in O= 16 × 6.023 × 1023
no of atoms in O2 = 32 × 6.023 × 10 × 2 noofatomsinO3 =481 × 6.023 × 1023 × 3
23

6.023 × 1023 6.023 × 1023 6.023 × 1023

= = =
16 16 16

6. The mass of one C atom is

a) 6.023 x 1023 b) 1.99 x 1023 c) 2.0 g d) 12 g
7. A group of atoms bonded together is
a) a molecule b) an atom c) a salt d) an element
8. How many molecules are present in 1 g of Hydrogen ___________.
a) 6.023 x 1023 b) 3.0115 x 1023 c) 1.511 x 1023 d) 2.511 x 1023
1
Solution : No. of H2 molecules = 2
× 6.023 × 1023 = 𝟑. 𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 molecules
35
9. 17Cl and 17Cl37 are
a) isotopes b) isobars c) isotones d) none of these
Solution : Two or more forms of an element having the same atomic number, but different
mass number is called isotopes.

10. Which one has no unit

a) AAM b) GAM c) RAM d) GMM
Solution : Relative Atomic Mass (RAM) is only a Ratio, so it has no unit.
8. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
1. Pure gold is
a) 16 carat b) 22 carat c) 20 carat d) 24 carat
2. Blue gold is
a) Alloy of 46% gold with 54% indium
b) Alloy of 36% gold with 64% indium
c) Alloy of 26% gold with 74% indium
d) Alloy of 16% gold with 84% indium
3. Give an example of a metal which is a liquid at room temperature.
a) Mercury b) Sodium c) Silver d) Lead
4. Ionic radii increases in
a) Group b) Period c) a and b d) none of these
Solution : atomic radius, ionic radii also increases in the Group. Whereas decreases in Period.
5. Which one of the following is highly electro negativity
a) fluorine b) chlorine c) bromine d) iodine
Solution :
The size of the atom decreases an electronegativity increases ( F< Cl<B<I)
6. Why sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil?
a) Sodium reacts both with air and water b) Sodium react with kerosene
c) Sodium react does not reacts both with air and water d) None
Solution :
Sodium is highly reactive metal. It reacts with oxygen in air at room temperature, the reaction is highly
exothermic. To prevent accidental damage this sodium is kept preserved under kerosene. Sodium does
not react with kerosene.

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12 Way to Success - 10th Science 

7. The poorest conductor of heat is
a) Aluminium b) Silver c) Lead d) Gold
Solution :
Gold, silver, and aluminium are very good conductor of heat. But, Lead is the poorest conductor of heat.
8. The luster of a metal is due to
a) Its high density b) Its high polishing
c) Its chemical inertness d) Presence of free electrons
Solution :
Metals are lustrous because of the Presence of free electrons they have. The free electrons can move
freely in the metal causing any light incident on them to get reflected back. This reflection is specular
reflection rather than diffused and thus the metal surface appears shiny or lustrous.
9. Which of the following metals form amphoteric oxide
a) Copper b) Silver c) Aluminium d) iron
Solution :
 Amphoteric Oxide is that metallic oxide displaying a dual behaviour. It shows the characteristics of both
an acid as well as a base. It reacts with both alkalis as well as acids.
 Amphoteric metals are Copper, Zinc, Lead, Tin, Beryllium, Aluminium.
 Al reacted with HCl, it acts as a base to form salt AlCl3(Salt)
 Al reacted with NaOH, it act as an acid to form NaAlO 2 (Salt)

10. The Electrial conductivity of a metal is due to ___________.

a) Its high density b) Its high polishing
c) Its chemical inertness d) Presence of free electrons
11. non metals generally act as
a) oxidizing agents b) reducing agents c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Solution :
non- metals act as an oxidizing agent because non-metals have a tendency to gain electrons and get reduced.

9. SOLUTIONS
Multiple choice questions :
1. Deep sea drivers use (O2 + He) mixture in preference to (O2 + N2) mixture. This is because
a) Helium is lighter than nitrogen
b) Helium is less soluble in blood than nitrogen
c) Helium is more soluble in blood
d) Helium provides a better inert atmosphere than nitrogen
Solution :
 Nitrogen and Oxygen mixture- During diving body in under high pressure. This high external pressure
causes the nitrogen to get mixed with blood, which then changes to toxic chemicals, which is fatal.
 Helium is less soluble in blood than nitrogen. So, Helium and oxygen mixture- Even if helium got mixed
with blood it will not cause any problem as helium is inert.
2. Naphthalene dissolves in kerosene because naphthalene and kerosene are respectively
a) Polar and non polar b) Polar and polar
c) Non polar and non polar d) Non polar and polar
Solution :
 Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents.
 Polar compounds are soluble in Polar solvents.
 Napthalene and Kerosene both are non polar compounds.

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 13

3. Saturated solution of NaCl on heating
a) Becomes supersaturated b) Becomes unsaturated
c) Remains saturated d) Vaporizes
Solution :
Heating a saturated usually causes some of the undissolved solid to dissolve so the solution remains saturated.
However, once this has all dissolved further heating increases the solubility so that the solution could dissolve
more and it would be unsaturated.
Fill in the blanks :
1. Nitrogen in soil is an example for saturated solution in nature.
2. A concentrated solution contains high amount of solute.
3. The solubility of gases in water increases as the pressure increases.
4. Anhydrous Calcium Chloride salt absorb moisture from atmospheric air is called hygroscopic substances.
5. The solubility of a substance is defined as the amount of solute in present in 100 g of the solvent grams.
6. Which is homogeneous mixture: soda water and air. (soda water, wood, air).
7. The solubility of ammonium chloride increases as temperature increases.
10. TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS
1. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :-
a) CaO + CO2 → CaCO3 b) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
c) SO2 +(1/2)O2 → SO3 d) NH3 + HCI → NH4CI
Solution :
Sodium (Na) and Oxygen (O2) both are elements.
2. Zn + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4 + H2 Above reaction is
a) Decomposition reaction b) Single displacement reaction
c) Combination reaction d) Synthesis reaction
Solution :
Single displacement reaction : Reaction between an element and a compound.
Zn - Element, H2SO4 – Compound

3. Rate at which reaction proceeds is directly proportional to

a) Product of the active masses of products b) Product of the active masses of reactants
c) Both a and b d) None of these

4. Take about 1.0g CaCO3 in a test tube. Heat it over a flame, when a colorless gas comes out. The reaction is
called a
a) Decomposition reaction b) Displacement reaction
c) Double decomposition reaction d) Double displacement reaction
Solution :
when calcium carbonate is heated, it breaks down into Calcium oxide and Carbon dioxide.

CaCO3(s) Heat CaO(s) + CO2(g)↑

Calcium Carbonate Calcium Oxide Colourless gas
So, It is a type of compound to compound/compound decomposition reaction.
5. What type of chemical reaction releases energy in the form of heat?
a) geothermic b) endothermic c) subthermic d) exothermic

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14 Way to Success - 10th Science 

6. In which of the following, heat energy will be evolved?
a) Electrolysis of water b) Dissolution of NH4Cl in water
c) Burning of L.P.G. d) Decomposition of AgBr in the presence of sunlight
Solution :
a) Electrolysis of water is the decomposition of water into oxygen and hydrogen gas due to the passage
of an electric current. ... It is also called water splitting.
b) Dissolution of NH4Cl in water : The ammonium chloride compound decomposes into its component
ions: NH4+ and Cl-. This is called dissociation reaction.
c) Burning of LPG: water vapour, Carbon Dioxide and heat evolved, and usually very small amounts of
Carbon Monoxide are the products are formed.
d) Decomposition of AgBr in the presence of sunlight : silver bromide absorbs photo electrons from rays
of sun forming photo chemical reaction where silver and bromide separates from each other,
2AgBr → Ag₂ + Br₂

7. The reaction in which two compound exchange their ions to form two new compounds is called
a) displacement reaction b) combination reaction
c) double displacement reaction d) redox reaction
8. As an electrolyte, water is
a) strong b) neutral c) weak d) a good insulator
9. Hydrochloric acid completely ionized in solution hence it is
a) weak monobasic acid b) strong monobasic acid
c) weak monoacid base d) strong monoacid base
10. Pure water is ______ substance.
a) Neutral b) Basic c) strong electrolyte d) Acidic
11. What is the pH value of saliva after meal?
a) 4.8 b) 5.8 c) 6.8 d) Less than 4
Solution :
 Normal pH range of saliva is 6.2 to 7.6. The pH value of saliva after the meal is 5.8.
 after meal becomes acidic in nature.
11. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Multiple choice questions:
1. Detergents pollute rivers and water bodies. However, detergents can be made biodegradable and pollution
free by taking.
a) Cyclic hydrocarbon chain b) Shorter hydrocarbon chain
c) Unbranched hydrocarbon chain d) Hydrocarbon with more branched chain
Solution :
 Detergent molecules associated with branched hydrocarbon tail which is a source of pollution of water.
 However, detergents can be made biodegradable and pollution free by taking unbranched hydrocarbon
chain because unbranched chains are more prone to attack by bacteria.
2. Which percentage of acetic acid in water can be used as preservative?
a) 5-8% b) 10-15% c) 15- 20% d) 100%

3. A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate. The possible result of the reactions were:
a) A hissing sound was evolved b) brown fumes evolved
c) Brisk effervescence occurred d) a pungent smelling gas evolved
Solution :
The following reaction occurs when Acetic acid is added to Sodium carbonate:
2 CH₃COOH + Na₂CO₃ -----------> 2 CH₃COONa + H₂O + CO₂↑
Here, The Liberation of Carbon dioxide (CO ₂) is termed as Brisk Effervescence occured.

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 15

4. Which of the four test tubes containing the following chemicals shows the brisk effervescence when dilute
acetic acid added to them?
i) KOH ii) NaHCO3 iii) K2 CO3 iv) NaCl
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) ii & iii
Solution :
 Brisk effervescence was produced in test tubes ii & iii, because of release of CO2.
 Acids on reaction with metal carbonates form corresponding metal salt, CO2 and and H2O.
The reactions involved are -
Test tube 2 CH3COOH (aq) + NaHCO3 (aq) -------> CH3COONa (aq) + H2O + CO2 (g) ↑
Test tube 3 2CH3COOH (aq) + K2CO3 --------> 2CH3COOK (aq) + CO2 (g) ↑+ H2O

Fill in the blanks:

5. A very dilute solution of ethanoic acid (acetic acid) is vinegar.
6. When sodium metal is dropped in ethanol hydrogen gas is released.
7. Match the following :
GENERAL NAME OF THE
ANSWER
FORMULA FUNCTIONAL GROUP
i) R-COOH a) Ketone d) Carboxylic acid
ii) R-CO-R b) Ether a) Ketone
iii) R-O-R c) Aldehyde b) Ether
iv) R-CHO d) Carboxylic acid c) Aldehyde

8. Match the following

SUBSTANCE CONSTITUENTS ANSWER
i) Soap a) Acetic acid b) Fatty acid
ii) Vinegar b) Fatty acid a) Acetic acid
iii) Detergents c) Alkene d) Sulphonic acid
iv) Polythene d) Sulphonic acid c) Alkene

9. This is not a characteristic of members of homologous series

a) The possess varying chemical properties
b) The properties vary in regular and predictable manner
c) The formulae fit the general molecular formula
d) Adjacent members differ by one carbon and two hydrogen atoms
Solution :
Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar.

10. Consider the chemical formulae CH3COOH and HCOOCH3 and choose the correct statement
a) Both have the equal boiling point b) Both have the equal molecular weight
c) Both have the equal number of covalent bonds d) Both have same functional group
Solution :
 The compounds having similar molecular formula but different arrangement of atoms or groups in space
are called isomers and the phenomenon is called as isomerism.
 Functional group is a group of atoms which provide characteristic properties to a compound.
 CH3COOH and HCOOCH3 are functional isomers with containing ester functional group and
containing carboxylic acid functional group.
 Thus they have same molecular weight but different functional groups attached.

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16 Way to Success - 10th Science 

12. PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
1. During light reaction which of the following molecules are formed?
a) ATP b) ATP and NADPH + H
c) NADPH2 d) None of these
2. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of
a) RUDP b) ADP c) ATP d) both ATP and ADP
3. The first product of photosynthesis is sugar and it is converted into
a) Starch b) Protein c) Glycogen d) None of these
4. The dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because it is
a) Light dependent b) Light independent
c) Cannot occur during day time d) All of these
5. Photosynthesis in green algae and bacteria is respectively
a) oxygenic and an oxygenic b) oxygenic both
c) an oxygenic both d) an oxygenic and oxygenic
6. The first step in glucose breakdown in an cell is
a) ETC b) Acetyl CO A c) Kreb cycle d) Glycolysis
7. Respiration is
a) Anbolic process b) Catabolic process
c) Both a and b d) Endothermic process
8. Respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen is called
a) Fermentation b) Anaerobic respiration
c) Glycolysis d) Aerobic respiration
9. End product of aerobic respiration in plants are
a) Sugar and Oxygen b) CO2, Water, energy
c) CO2 and energy d) Water and energy
10. R.Q. is
a) C/B b) N/C c) CO2 / O2 d) O2 /CO2
11. Which of the following is the key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to the Kreb’s cycle?
a) Pyruvic acid b) Malic acid c) Acetyl COA d) None of these
12. ETC can produce a total of
a) 6 ATP b) 8 ATP c) 24 ATP d) 38 ATP
13. Ground tissue system includes
a) xylem and phloem b) stomata, epidermis, trichomes
c) cortex, endodermis, pericycle, pith d) meristems
14. Which is not a function of epidermis?
a) Gaseous exchange b) conduction of water
c) transpiration d) protection
15. conjoint, collateral, open and end arch vascular bundles found in
a) monocot stem b) dicot stem c) monocot root d) dicot root
13. STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION OF ANIMALS
1. Leech saliva contains _______ that prevents blood coagulation.
a) Hirudin b) amylase c) lipase d) pepsin
2. How many pairs of eyes are present on the dorsal side of leech?
a) Two pairs b) Three pairs c) Four pairs d) Five pairs
3. what are the functions of the suckers in leech ?
a) Attachment and locomotion b) attachment and respiration
c) attachment and reproduction d) attachment and circulation
4. How does a leech move on a substratum?
a) By looping or crawling b) By pseudopodia
c) By the contractions of muscle d) Oscillatory movement
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 QR Code Questions & Answer 17

5. _______ is a hermaphrodite.
a) Frog b) Lizard c) Leech d) Dog
6. Rabbits are _______ animals, that means moving in groups.
a) sanguivorous b) Gregarious
7. Upper lip of a rabbit has a cleft in the middle called _______.
a) furrow b) Harelip c) fissure d) palate
8. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of any animal is called _______.
a) heterodont b) monodont c) homodont d) diphyodont
9. Which is the largest gland in rabbits that secrete bile?
a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Pineal d) Adrenal
10. The younger one’s of a hare and rabbit are _______ and _______ respectively.
a) Leverets and kittens b) calf and kitten
c) calf and leverets d) cub and hare
11. Where is the sublingual part of salivary gland located ?
a) Above the tongue b) Below the tongue
c) Upper jaw d) Lower jaw
12. In which angle does the eyes of the rabbit rotate ?
a) 320° b) 360° c) 260° d) 160°
13. The abbreviation of CNS is ________________
a) cerebral nervous system b) contact nervous system
c) central nervous system d) cranial nerve signals
14. The innermost layer of the brain of Rabbit is _______.
a) Duramater b) piamater c) arachanoidmater d) meninges
15. Name the specialized cells that surrounds and nourishes egg cell of a rabbit?
a) Graffian follicles b) Theca externa c) Theca interna d) None of the above
16. The secretion of _______ glands neutralizes the acidity of urethra and vagina.
a) Cowpers gland b) Pineal gland c) Adrenal gland d) Thyroid gland
17. Which of the following statement is false?
a) Hare feeds on harder bark and twigs. b) Rabbit feeds on soft grasses and vegetables
c) The external ears of Hare are shorter d) Rabbit makes their home in burrows
18. In leech , the blood vessels are replaced by channels called _______.
a) Arteries b) Veins c) Haemocoelic channels d) Hydrophilic channels
19. Leech is used to treat _______ and _______ in human beings.
a) Circulatory disorders and cardiovascular diseases
b) Nervous disorder and neural diseases
c) Respiratory disorders and lung diseases
d) None of the above
20. The gap between the incisors and premolar teeth of a rabbit is called _______.
a) diastema b) Maxilla c) Dentary d) Pre maxilla
14. TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND CIRCULATION IN ANIMALS
I Multiple Choice Questions :
1. The only artery which carries deoxygenated blood is
a) Hepatic portal artery b) Renal artery
c) Hepatic artery d) Pulmonary artery
2. Which type of blood cell will increased during the condition of allergy.
a) Eosinophils b) Basophils c) Neutrophils d) Leucocytes
3. The longest time duration for one cardiac cycle occurs in ________.
a) Auricular systole b) Ventricular systole c) Auricular diastole d) Ventricular diastole
4. Which one of the following Species contains the Haemocoel
a) Amphibian b) Arthropods c) Reptiles d) Mammals
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18 Way to Success - 10th Science 

5. In heart, the Lubb sound is produced by the closing valve of ___________.
a) Bicuspid, Tricuspid, Semilunar valves b) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
c) Tricuspid and Semilunar valves d) Bicuspid and Semilunar valves
6. Which one of the following is under the range of hypotension
a) 120 mm Hg / 80 mm Hg b) 90 mm Hg / 60 mm Hg
c) 140 mm Hg / 90 mm Hg d) 160 mm Hg / 100 mm Hg
7. Sphygmomonometer is used to measure the ____________.
a) Blood pressure b) Heart beat c) Internal organ sound d) All of these
8. AB blood group is Universal Recipient because of the following
a) Antibody ‘AB’ is not present in plasma b) Antibody present in plasma
c) Antibody ‘A’ is present in plasma d) Antibody ‘B’ is present in plasma
9. Rh-factor was discovered by ___________.
a) Landsteiner and Wiener b) Decastello and stenin
c) William Harvey d) Karl Landsteiner
10. Systemic circulation means
a) Lungs – Heart Lungs b) Heart Body – Heart
c) Heart Heart d) Lungs Heart Body
15. NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. The gap between neurons is called
a) dentrite b) Synapse c) axon d) Impulse
2. A patient is not able to balance his body, and is unable to walk properly. Name the part of the brain which is affected
a) Hind brain b) mid brain c) Spinal cord d) fore brain
3. Which part of the human brain is more developed in comparison to other parts?
a) cerebrum b) cerebellum c) optic lobes d) Medulla oblongata
4. Which of the following protects the brain from shocks?
a) Pons b) Cerebrospinal fluid c) duramater d) Arachnoid membrane
5. All the voluntary actions of the body are controlled by
a) Cerbrum b) Cerebellum c) Pons d) Medulla
6. Electrical impulse travel in neuron from
a) dentrite → axon → axon end → cell body
b) cell body →dendrite → axon → axon end
c) dendrite → cell body → axon → axon end
d) axon end → axon → cell body → dentrite
7. Which is the correct sequence of reflex arc?
a) Receptors →muscle → sensory neuron → motor neuron → spinal cord
b) Receptors → motor neuron → spinal cord → sensory neuron → muscle
c) Receptors → spinal cord → sensory neuron → motor neuron → muscle
d) Receptors → sensory neuron → spinal cord → motor neuron → muscle
8. The contraction of the pupil of the eye in the presence of bright light is an example of
a) voluntary reflex b) spinal reflex c) cerebral reflex d) Adrenal reflex
9. The number of pairs of nerves which are from the spinal cord of man is
a) 21 b) 31 c) 41 d) 51
10. Which of the following helps in maintaining posture and balance of human body?
a) cerebellum b) cerebrum c) medulla d) pons
11. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is
a) Spinal cord b) Corpus callosum
c) Hypothalamus d) Cerebellum
12. Unidirectional transmission of nerve impulse is maintained by
a) Interneurons b) Synapse c) Myelin sheath d) Membrane polarity

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 19

13. In reflex action, reflex arc is formed by
a) Receptor, Spinal cord, Muscle b) Spinal cord, Muscle, Receptor
c) Muscle, receptor, brain d) Brain, spinal cord, muscle
14. Select incorrect statement:
a) cerebral cortex, greyish in appearance thrown into prominent fold known as sulci and gyri.
b) Hypothalamus controls the body temperature and urge for eating.
c) Right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected via corpus striatum
d) Dendrites transmit impulse away from the cell body
15. The correct sequence of meninges of brain from outside to inside is:
a) piamater, duramater, arachnoid b) duramater, piamater, arachnoid
c) duramater, arachnoid, piamater d) arachnoid, duramater, piamater
16. One of the following action is an example of autonomic system
a) Knee-jerk reflex b) peristalsis of intestine
c) swallowing of food d) pupillary reflex
17. Nerve cells do not divide because they do not have
a) Golgi body b) nucleus c) centrosome d) mitochondria
18. The spinal cord originates from
a) medulla oblongata b) brain c) medulla d) brain stem
19. In a neuron the conversion of electric signal to a chemical signal occurs in
a) axon end b) cell body c) dendrites d) myelin sheath
16. PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES
1. A plant hormone is __________
a) an ion responsible for turgour pressure b) a pigment that gives colour
c) an organic compound d) a secondary metabolite
2. The plant hormones which promote growth are
a) gibberellins and ethylene b) auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins
c) abscisic acid, ethylene and gibberellins d) auxins, cytokinins and abscissic acid
3. Auxin synthesis occurs in __________.
a) root / shoot tip b) cortex c) xylem d) phloem
4. Parthenocarpy is induced by _________.
a) ethylene b) spraying auxin on pistil
c) spraying auxin on fruit d) spraying auxin on leaf
5. _________ is not an influence of auxins
a) Apical dominance b) Tropic movements
c) Cell elongation d) Bolting
6. Abscissic acid is primarily synthesized in ___________.
a) lysosome b) golgi complex c) chloroplast d) ribosome
7. Genetically dwarf plants can be induced to grow tall by using __________.
a) gibberellins b) auxins c) cytokinins d) ethylene
8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) Abscissic acid - stomatal closure b) Gibberellins - leaf fall
c) Cytokinin - cell division d) IAA - cell wall elongation
9. __________ is a natural growth inhibitor
a) NAA b) ABA c) IAA d) GA
10. Removal of apical bud of a flowering plant or pruning of a flowering plant leads to __________.
a) formation of new apical buds
b) formation of adventitious roots
c) early flowering or stopping floral growth
d) promotion of lateral branches

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11. Endocrine glands put their secretions directly into
a) Ducts b) Blood c) both d) none of the above
12. The secretion of the following pituitary hormones is controlled by hypothalamus
a) Thyrotropin (TSH) and cortisol
b) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and progesterone
c) Corticotropin (ACTH) growth hormone (GH) and vasopressin
d) Lutenising hormone (LH), corticotrophin (ACTH) and thyrotropin (TSH)
13. Pituitary gland is found in
a) Around trachea b) Gonad c) Pancreas d) Brain
14. Which one is Not secreted by pituitary?
a) Thyroxine b) FSH c) GH d) ACTH
15. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes
a) TSH, ADH, AND Prolactin b) LH, FSH and a growth hormone
c) ACTH, TSH, and oxytocin d) STH, GH, and antidiuretic hormone
16. Gonadotropins are secreted from
a) hypothalamus b) Posterior pituitary c) Anterior pituitary d) Gonads
17. Growth hormone is secreted by the
a) Anterior lobe of the pituitary b) Posterior lobe of the pituitary
c) Adrenal gland d) Gonads
18. In an accident the anterior pituitary of a four year old boy was severely damaged but the boy survived What
is likely to happen?
a) High levels of thyroxine will be released b) Spermatogenesis will be stimulated
c) The boy will not grow much in height d) The growth of mammary glands will be stimulated
19. A gorilla like man with huge hand and legs. This is due to the abnormal secretion of
a) Pituitary FSH b) Pituitary LH c) Pituitary GH d) Thyroid
20. Hypersecretion of growth hormone by pituitary results in
a) Dwarfism b) Gigantism c) Cretinism d) Myxedema
21. The synthesis and release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland is stimulated by
a) LH b) TSH c) ACTH d) FSH
22. LH and FSH are called
a) antistress hormones b) gonadotrophic hormones
c) emergency hormone d) neurohormones
17. REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
1. The correct sequence of reproductive phases seen in a flower is ______________
a) flowering, seed formation, fertilization, pollination
b) pollination, fertilization, seed formation, flowering
c) seed formation, fertilization, flowering, pollination
d) flowering, pollination, fertilization, seed formation
2. The number of cells and nuclei in a mature embryo sac is _____________
a) 7 cells 8 nuclei b) 8 cells 7 nuclei c) 6 cells 8 nuclei d) 7 cells 6 nuclei
3. Mango is being propagated through ___________
a) tissue culture b) grafting c) stem cutting d) layering
4. Which one of the following generate new genetic combination leading to variation
a) vegetative reproduction b) parthenogenesis
c) sexual reproduction d) asexual reproduction
5. Process of fusion of haploid gametes is known as _______________
a) cell cycle b) meiosis c) mitosis d) syngamy
6. Which one of the following produce the male gamete
a) endosperm b) synergid c) pollengrain d) antipodals

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7. Cross pollination through insects are known as
a) anemophily b) entomophily c) hydrophily d) ornithophily
8. Find out the odd one :
a) endosperm b) synergid c) pollengrain d) antipodals
9. Choose the correct match
a) endosperm - 2n b) embryo - 3n c) egg - 2n d) male gamete - n
10. Which of the following is a post-fertilization event in flowering plants?
a) transfer of pollen grains b) formation of flower
c) fruit formation d) germination of pollen grains
11. The release of sperms from the sertoli cells is called
a) Spermateliosis b) Vitellogenesis c) Spermiogenesis d) Spermiation
12. Graffian follicle contains
a) many oocytes b) many sperms c) a single oocyte d) site for egg fertilization
13. Which is correctly matched in a normal menstrual cycle ?
a) Endometrium regenerates - 5 to 10 days
b) Release of egg – 5th day
c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation - 11 to 18 days
d) Rise in progesterone level – 1 to 15 days
14. In human beings fertilization takes place in
a) fallopian tube b) eustachian tube c) ovary duct d) uterus
15. Which one of the following are primary sexual organs
a) testes and ovaries b) testes and penis
c) ovary and vagina d) testes, penis, ovary and vagina
16. Which one of the following is correct : After the removal of uterus
a) Ovulation occurs b) ovulation does not occurs
c) fertilization takes place d) None of the above
17. Which one of the following is incorrect related to Asymptomatic Bacteriuria?
a) caused due to Bacteria b) infection occur in the urinary bladder
c) it shows symptoms d) it may not show symptoms
18. To avoid sanitary pad rash, the pads should be changed __________.
a) every six hours b) every 4 hours c) every 7 hours d) twice in a day
19. A temporary association between the developing embryo and maternal tissues are called _________.
a) Uterus b) ovary c) placenta d) endometrium
20. The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is __________.
a) growth phase, multiplication phase, spermiogenesis, maturation phase
b) multiplication phase, growth phase, maturation phase, spermiogenesis
c) multiplications phase, maturation phase, spermiogenesis, growth phase
d) spermiogenesis, maturation phase, multiplication phase, growth phase
18. HEREDITY
1. If a genotype consists of different types of alleles, it is called
a) Heterozygous b) monoallelic c) uniallelic d) homozygous
2. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic
cross was developed by
a) Gregor Johann Mendel b) Har Gobind Khorana
c) James Watson d) Reginald C Punnet
3. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated on
a) Copies of the same chromosome b) two different chromosomes
c) sex chromosomes d) any chromosome

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22 Way to Success - 10th Science 

4. A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil remained dwarf when it is crossed with dwarf plants
a) All hybrid plants are dwarf b) 50% tall and 50% dwarf
c) 75% tall and 25% dwarf d) 25% dwarf and 75%
5. The F1 generation has all tall and F2 generation ratio is 3:1, it proves
a) Law of dominance b) linkage c) incomplete dominance d) Law of segregation
6. In a dihybrid cross out of 16 plants obtained, the number of genotypes shall be
a) 4 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12
7. Mendel found certain traits not assort independently, it is due to
a) Dominance b) linkage c) crossing over d) amitosis
8. Which is the functional unit of inheritance?
a) cistron b) Muton c) chromosome d) gene
9. The chromosome ends are called
a) Satellite b) telomere c) centromere d) kinetochores
10. Which of the following description of chromosomes is not correctly matched?
a) Metacentric – the chromosomes with two equal arms.
b) Sub metacentric – the chromosomes with two unequal arms.
c) Acrocentric – the chromosomes with two arms identical in size
d) Telocentric – the chromosomes with one arm.
11. Chromosomes other than sex chromosomes are called
a) Allosomes b) autosomes c) lamp brush chromosomes d) heterosomes
12. Nucleotide of DNA molecule is made up of nitrogenous bases. The base pairing occurs in which of the
following pattern?
a) Adenine – Thymine; Cytosine – Guanine
b) Adenine – Cytosine; Guanine – Thymine
c) Adenine – Guanine; Cytosine – Thymine
d) Adenine – Guanine; Cytosine – Taurine
13. Which of the following is the correct match?
a) Helicases – binds the double helix near the replication fork
b) Topoisomerases – separates the two strands of DNA at the site of origin of replication
c) DNA polymerase – stops the DNA replication
d) DNA ligase – joins the okazaki fragments
14. Sex is determined in human beings
a) By ovum b) At the time of fertilization
c) 40 days after fertilization d) 7th to 8th week when genitals differentiate in foetus.
15. Mutations are responsible for
a) Extinction of organisms b) Variations in population
c) Increase in population d) Maintaining genetic continuity
16. One of the following is a random process
a) Variation b) Adaptation c) evolution d) mutation
17. Sickle cell anaemia is a
a) Metabolic disorder b) degenerative disorder
c) genetic disorder d) pathogenic disorder
19. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
1. Fossils are generally found in
a) Sedimentary rocks b) igneous rocks c) metamorphic rocks d) any type of rocks
2. Dinosaurs are
a) Extinct amphibians b) extinct reptiles c) primitive mammals d) living reptiles

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 QR Code Questions & Answer 23

3. Which of the following would be easily fossilised?
a) Heart b) tooth c) skin d) liver
4. The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on earth are called
a) Thermophiles b) acidophiles
c) extremophiles d) archaeobacteria
5. The study of local plants and their uses through the traditional knowledge is known as
a) Paleobotany b) ethnobotany
c) palynology d) economic botany
6. Which is not Lamarckian concept?
a) Environmental changes cause variations.
b) Rate of survival of organisms varies due to variations
c) Inheritance of acquired characters
d) If an organ is used continuously, it will develop continuously.
7. According to Darwin, evolution is a
a) Sudden but discontinuous process. b) Slow, gradual and continuous process
c) Slow, sudden and discontinuous process. d) Slow and discontinuous process
8. Which of the following is not associated with the “Theory of natural selection”?
a) Internal vital force b) over production of the offspring
c) struggle for existence d) survival of the fittest
9. Human forelimb, wing of bat and flipper of whale represent
a) analogous organs b) vestigial organs
c) Homologous organs d) evolutionary organs
10. Analogous organs have
a) Dissimilar origin and dissimilar function b) Similar origin with similar function
c) Similar origin with dissimilar function d) Dissimilar origin and similar function
11. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?
a) Nails b) scalp hair c) wisdom tooth d) all of the above
12. Which of the following is not atavistic in humans?
a) Tail in some babies b) enlarged canines
c) dense body hair d) six fingers
13. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as
a) Phylogeny b) ontogeny c) ancestry d) palaeontology
14. ‘Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’. This is
a) Hardy Weinberg law b) Darwin’s law
c) inheritance law d) bio genetic law
15. Archaeopteryx is known as missing/ connecting link. It has the characters of both
a) Fishes and amphibians b) Reptiles and mammals
c) Birds and reptiles d) Chordates and non chordates
20. BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. Triticale is the first man made cereal crop. The combination of parents involved in its production is Triticum
and _________.
a) Sorghum b) Barley c) Saccharum d) Rye
2. Aims of plant breeding are to produce _________.
a) Disease free varieties b) High Yielding varieties
c) Early maturing varieties d) All the above
3. Scientists are trying to get hybridisation between tomato and potato. The most accurate name would be ____.
a) Topemo b) Mopato c) Pomato d) Tomepo

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24 Way to Success - 10th Science 

4. When a plant species is carried from its place of origin to a new place and cultivated, it is called ________.
a) Introduction b) Transplantation c) Aforestation d) Selection
5. _____________ is the oldest breeding method
a) Introduction b) Selection
c) Hybridization d) Mutation breeding
6. The progeny of a homozygous plant constitute a _________.
a) Pureline b) Mixed population c) Mass selection d) Clone
7. The method of mass selection is applied in ________ crops
a) Cross pollinated b) Self pollinated
c) Both self and cross pollinated d) Potato and Sugarcane
8. New and better varieties of plants can be formed by ________ method.
a) Selection b) Introduction
c) Hybridisation d) Hybridisation followed by selection
9. An improved variety is _________.
a) Always superior to the other existing varieties
b) Always inferior to the other existing varieties
c) May be superior to the other existing varieties
d) Both a and b are correct
10. Semi dwarf varieties of wheat developed from wheat varieties of Mexico are _______.
a) Sonalika and NP 836 b) Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lema
c) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona d) Sonora 64 and HUW 468
11. When the breeding takes between animals of the same breed is called as ________.
a) inbreeding b) outbreeding c) breeding d) breed
12. The first cloned animal is _________.
a) cow b) sheep c) dog d) whale
13. The disease where the blood fails to clot due to the absence of clotting factor is _________.
a) Haemophobia b) Haemophilia c) Haemophotics d) Haemoethics
14. Which is an activator used to dissolve blood clot
a) plasminogen b) plasmogen c) plasm ocoel d) plasmomonogen
15. Manmade antibodies are _________.
a) monoclonal b) diclonal c) triclonal d) tetroclonal
16. Pancreatic cells secretes __________.
a) insulin b) tripsin c) rennin d) thymine
17. Bone marrow does not produce the ________.
a) blood b) skin c) stomach d) brain
18. Which one of the following is the neurogenerative disorder
a) parkinson’s disease b) alzheimer’s disease
c) neurogenital disease d) replicable disease
19. What is the use of Restriction Endonuclease in Gene cloning technology?
a) to cut the DNA at particular nucleotide b) to cut any place of the DNA
c) to join the two DNA fragments d) to separate the DNA strand
20. Which one of the following act as a vector?
a) E.coli b) plasmid of E.coli c) Nucleoid of E.coli d) cytoplasm of E.coli
21. HEALTH AND DISEASES
1. When was POCSO act introduced?
a) 2017 b) 2012 c) 2008 d) 2011
2. World Anti Tobacco Day
a) May 31st b) May 1st c) May 15th d) May 21st
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3. The target cells of the body do not respond to insulin
a) IDDM b) NIDDM c) Gestational diabetes d) Juvenile diabetes
4. Myocardial infarction is
a) death of heart muscle tissue b) deficient blood supply to heart muscle
c) deposition of cholesterol in blood vessels d) heart valves are affected
5. Cancers affecting epithelial cells
a) Sarcomas b) Carcinomas c) lymphomas d) melanomas
6. The drug which stimulates the nervous system and makes a person more alert and active is called
a) seductive b) Opiate narcotics c) Stimulant d) hallucinogen
7. Use of disposable syringes for administering medicines is recommended to prevent
a) Malaria b) Stroke c) AIDS d) Leprosy
8. Normal blood glucose level of blood is
a) 80 – 100 mg/dL b) 80 – 120 mg/dL c) 80 – 150 mg /dL d) 70 – 120 mg/dL
9. A doctor advised a patient to take less sugar in her diet. Which disease is she suffering from?
a) diabetes mellitus b) diabetes insipidus c) Goitre d) Cushing’s syndrome
10. In alcoholics liver gets damaged as it
a) accumulates excess of fats b) stores excess of glycogen
c) secretes more bile d) has to detoxify alcohol
11. A communicable disease is caused by
a) metabolic disorder b) allergy c) pathogen d) hormonal imbalance
12. Health deals with
a) social well being b) physical fitness c) mental fitness d) all the above
22. ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
1. The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world is
a) water b) forest c) wind d) sunlight
2. Select the ecofriendly activity among the following
a) using car for transportation b) using polybags for shopping
c) using dyes for colouring clothes d) using windmills to generate power
3. which one of the following fuels are formed by the degradation of biomass?
a) biogas b) CNG c) Coal and petroleum d) Nuclear fuel
4. The three “R” s which help us to conserve natural resource for future generation are
a) reduce, regenerate, redistribute
b) reduce, recycle, regenerate
c) reduce, reuse, recycle
d) redistribute, regenerate, recycle
5. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
a) LPG b) Natural gas c) Biogas d) CNG
6. The CHIPKO Andolan is associated with
a) Tigers b) Turtles c) Trees d) Marine organisms
7. Afforestation should be done with
a) exotic species b) Indigenous species c) Bamboos d) Eucalyptus
8. A man bought a device which can cook food without any fuel like wood or Kerosene but the device does not
work during night. The device is Solar Cooker.
9. An electrical device which consumes less units of electricity when used for Long hours a day is CFL.
10. Sewage water is polluted and can be acidic in nature if the pH is
a) zero b) above 7 c) below 7 d ) exactly 7

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