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D C Electric 1

NCAA DC electrics pdf

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
56 views25 pages

D C Electric 1

NCAA DC electrics pdf

Uploaded by

isaac
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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AMEL D.

C ELECTRIC

1. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound to motor?


a. Constant Speed.
B High Starting torque.
c. Low starting torque

2. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker over a fuse?


a. Always eliminates the need of a switch.
b. Never needs replacing.
c. Resettable and reusable.

3. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the _


a. resistance in the generator output circuit.
b. current in the generator output circuit..
c. resistance of the generator field circuit.

4. The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when


excessive
voltage is present by ------
a. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control relay.
b. opening and resetting the field control relay.
c. opening the shunt field circuit.

5. A d.cgenerator system provides direct current. On installations requiring


alternating
current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have _
a. a transformer.
b. a variable resistor between the battery and generator.
c. an inverter.

6. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit


consisting of three
resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor?
a. 4 ohms.
b. 12 ohms.
c. 36 ohms.

7. Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit?


a. Total resistance will be smaller than the smallest resistor.
b. Total resistance will decrease when one of the resistances is
removed.
c. Total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance.

8. Through which material will magnetic lines of force most readily pass?
a. Aluminum.
b. Copper
c. Iron

9. lf a dc generator produces voltage but ammeter reads zero when load is


turned on, the probable cause is:
a. Burned out current limiter or fuse in the generator power lead.'
b. Open field circuit.
c. Reversed polarity of generator field.

10-. The inter-pole and compensating windings are connected in series with the
brush of dc
generators. The purpose is to:
a. Assist the shunt field winding
b. Control the effect of armature reaction
c. Regulate the generator output.

11. In large aircraft, the source of electrical power is normally:


a. A.C. generator with constant speed
b. D.C generator of large capacity
c. A.C. generator with variable speed

12. The operation of the carbon-pile type voltage regulator is based on the fact
that the contact electrical resistance between the faces of carbon discs
varies with the:
a. Actual area of contact of discs
b. Pressure which holds the faces together.
c. Speed of the generator.
13. Electric cables passing through holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls,
etc., are protected from chafing by ------
a. using suitable grommet
b. wrapping with electrical tape.
c. wrapping with plastic.

14 For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a


terminal to a wire is by -----
a. crimping
b. soldering.
c. crimping and soldering.

15. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire
in an MS electrical connector is by ----
a. crimping
b. soldering
c. crimping and soldering.

16. What does a rectifier do?


a. Changes direct current into alternating current.
b. Changes alternating current into direct current.
c. Reduces Voltage.

17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely
be a ---
a. shunt field series-wound motor.
b. split field shunt-wound motor.
c. split field series-wound motor.

18 . A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to


protect the ----
a. circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.
b. circuit and should be located as close to the unit as possible.
c electrical unit in the circuit and should be located as close to the
source as possible.
19. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices most commonly used in
aircraft circuits are:
a. circuit breakers, resistors, and current limiters.
b. circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters.
c. circuit breakers, capacitors, and current limiter plug-ins mechanical
reset types.

20. How should a voltmeter be connected?


a. In series with the source.
b. In parallel with the load
c. In series with the load.

21. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in ---


a. amperes.
b. ohms.
c. volts.

22. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary


structure. One purpose of grounding is to ----
a. allow static charge accumulation
b. prevent development of radio frequency potentials
c provide current return paths.

23. A voltage regulator controls generator output by ----


a. introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of
overload.
b. shorting outfield coil in the event of overload.
c. varying current flow to generator field coil.

24. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?
a. Hook.
b. Ring
c Slotted.
25. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of ---
a. Fuses.
b. shunts.
c. thermocouples.
b. Pressure which holds the faces together.
c. Speed of the generator.

26. When RPM of a shunt-wound motor increases, the current drawn by it:
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same

27. The principal advantage of the series wound d.c. motor is its:
a. High Starting Torque
b. Low Starting Torque
c. Suitability for constant speed use

28. Torque characteristics of shunt -wound motors require the motors to be


started on:
a. Full load
b. Light or no load
c. Light, full or no load

29. Passenger entrance doors fully closed and locked position WARNING use:
a. Micro-switch
b. Push switch
c. Proximity switch

30. The function of limiting resistor as protection device is to:


a. Break the circuit in case of high current flow
b. Reduce the resistance of the circuit
c. Reduce the peak current during starting

31. The function of "economy resistor" of continuous rated circuit breaker is to:
a. Adjust the value of tripping current
b. Re-trip the circuit breaker
c. Reduce coil current and prevent temperature rise
32. The chemical principle during charging on Ni-cad battery is:
a. Hydrogen group is removed from the negative plates and added to
positive plates
b. Oxygen is removed from the positive and added to negative plates
c. Oxygen is removed from the negative plate and added to to the
positive plates

33. A certain battery is rated at 30 ampere-hours based on the five hour


discharge rate, it will:
a. Deliver 6 amperes for 5 hours
b. Deliver 30 amperes for 5 hours
c. Deliver 150 amperes for 5 hours

34. To prevent reverse charging:


a. The polarity of the supply leads should be checked with the aid of a
center zero type voltmeter
b. The polarity of each group of battery should be checked with center
zero type voltmeter
c. The polarity of supply leads should be checked with the aid of center
zero type wattmeter.

35. The minimum acceptable capacity of any battery for use on aircraft is:
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 100%

36. Which is the truest statement about charging Ni-cad battery?


a. Two or more batteries can be charged in series by constant-current
method if they require same charge rate
b. Two or more batteries can be charged in parallel using constant-
voltage if they use same charge voltage
c. Both A & B are true.

37. The algebraic sum of the voltage rise (drop) encountered in tracing around
any closed-
loop circuit is:
a. Zero
b. 12 volt
c. 24 volt

38. The probable cause of too Iowa speed in a motor is:


a. High voltage
b. Low voltage
c. Short-circuit in the field circuit

39. Rectification is the process of converting:


a. High value A.C. into a lower value
b. Direct current into alternating current
c. Alternating current into direct current

40 The voltage required of a generator in a 24-volt system is:


a. 12 volts
b 24 volts
c. 28 volts

41. ln voltage regulators, the control of output voltage is achieved by


controlling the:
a. Field strength
b. Number of armature windings
c. RPMN

42. The external characteristics of a d.c. generator means:


a. Relation between terminal voltage and load current
b. Relation between the actual e.m.f. generated in the armature
windings and load current.
c. Relation between the actual e.m.t. generated in the field windings
and load current.

43. The field winding of aircraft d.c. generators are:


a. Parallel connected
b. Series connected '
c. Series-parallel connected
44. lf the cable code is 3-R-123-S-20-C, the R represents:
a. Cable segment
b. Cable size

c. Circuit function

45. ln an ammeter circuit with a shunt resistor a current of 0.01 amp causes full
scale deflection of the needle and the resistance of the movement is 5
ohms. To use the ammeter where the range of current is from 0 to 30 amps
the value of the shunt resistance must be:
a. 167 ohms
b. 0.167 ohms
c. 0.00167

46. How should a voltmeter be connected?


a. In parallel with load
b. In parallel with source and series with load
c. In series with load

47. The most satisfactory instrument for measuring high frequencya.c. values
is:
a. A simple galvanometer
b. Hot-wire meter
c. Iron-vane movement

48. The current in a purely capacitive circuit will:


a. Be in phases with the applied voltage
b. Lag the applied voltage
c. Lead the applied voltage

49. The magnetic permeability of iron and its alloys is:


a. Equal to one(1)
b. High
c. Low
50. Electricity is produced in a generator by electromagnetic induction and the
direction of the
electromagnetic field produced is determined by:
a. Left hand rule.
b. Ohms law.
c. Right hand rule

51. The sensitivity of electric measuring instrument is determined by the


amount of:
a. Current required to produce full scale deflection.
bb.Power required to produce full scale deflection
c. Voltage required to produce full scale deflection

52. Lead-acid batteries vary by type principally in the:


a. Thickness of their plates only
b. Thickness of their plates and the type of separators employed.
c. Type of their separators only.

53. What period of time has been established as the discharge time in rating
aircraft battery
capacity:

a. 1 hour
b. 5 hours
c. No established time

54. The usual method to determined the state of charge of a lead-acid battery
is to check the:
a. Amperage of a cell with full load.
b. Gassing rate while charging at a normal rate
c. Specific gravity of the electrolyte.

55. If battery acid is spilled in the battery compartment the correct procedure
to follow is:
a. Apply sodium bicarbonate powderto the affected area and wipe with
oil soaked cloth
b. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a
water wash
c. Apply water to the affected area until the acid turns cloudy white.

56. To measure the state of charge for Ni-cad battery:


a. Carry out a measured discharge test
b. Check electrolyte relative density
c. Check battery voltage

57. During electrical leak check on Ni-cad battery the value of leak current was
found to be
0.020amps. Is thisvalue:
a. Impermissible?
b. Permissible?
c. Unimportant since voltage is measured during leak check?

58. When performing capacity recycling, a cell voltage of 1 volt was measured
after 10 min.
of charge:
a. The cell is acceptable
b. The cell could be recycled a second time to be acceptable.
c. The cell should be rejected.

59. If it is necessary to return a battery to the manufacturer or approved


overhaul
organization it should be sent:
a. In a charged condition
b. In accordance with manufacturer's transportation requirements
c. In a discharged condition

60. MOR scheme stands for:


a. Maintenance Organisation Requirement
b. Mandatory Occurrence Report
c. Management of Regulations

61. Airworthiness Directives applicable to an aircraft are:


a. Mandatory
b. Optional
c. For information only

62. Impulse couplings (starters) when used are fitted:


a. along the magneto shaft
b. along the drive shaft
c. between the magneto shaft and drive shaft.

63. The power supply needed for smoke detection systems is normally:
a. 14voltsd.c.
b. 28 volts d.c
c. 115 volts d.c.

64. The indication of fire detection system in the event of fire is:
a. Audible warning
b. Illumination of warning light
c. Illumination of warning light and audible warning.

65. The operation of unit type fire detector is caused by:


a. Differential expansion of dissimilar metals with changes in
temperature
b. Variation in resistance of the elements with changes in temperature
c. Variation in capacitance of the element with changes in temperature

66. During insulation resistance test for catridge unit the acceptable value is:
a. Not less than 20 mega ohm
b. Not more than 20 mega ohm
c. Not more than 20 kilo ohm

67. A circuit with a voltage of 10 volt and current of 5 amperes has a resistance
of:
a. 2 ohms
b. 5 ohms
c. 10 ohms'

68. Three resistors R1 = 3 ohm, R2 = 6 ohm, R3 = 2 ohm are connected in


parallel with a
battery of 12 volts. The respective currents through R 1, R2 and R3 are:
a. 6 amps, 2 amps, 4 amps
b. 4 amps, 2 amps, 6 amps.
c. 2 amps, 6 amps, 4 amps

69. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must driven


at:
a. Half the speed of the engine
b. One and a half times the speed of the engine
c. The same speed as the engine.

70. Bonding is necessary for aircraft for:


a. Dissipating static charges from the airframe
b. Protecting the airframe from ice formation
c. Safe distribution of electrical charges and current on the airframe

71. Navigation lights requirement is that every aircraft in flight or moving


during the hours of darkness shall display:

a. A green light at starboard wing tip, a red light at port wing tip, white
light visible from the rear of the aircraft.
b. A red light at starboard wing tip, a green light at port wing tip, white
light visible from the rear of the aircraft.
c. A white light at starboard wing tip, a green light at port wing tip, a
red light visible from the rear of the aircraft.

72. The cable most suitable for use where severe flexing under low-
temperature conditions is
encountered e.g. landing gear shock strut switch circuit is:

A. EFGLAS
B. NYVIN
C. NYVINMETSHEATH

73. One of the installations where coaxial cables are commonly used is:
a. Cylinder head thermocouple connection to indicator
b. Radio, for connection of antennae
c. Ignition system

74. The height of a lock nut is:

a. Half the width of a normal nut


b. Twice the width of a normal nut
c. The same that of a normal nut

75. When using a stiff nut, how much thread should project through the nut
after tightening:
a. None
b. At least one and a half times
c. At least 3 threads.

76. Spring washers can be used:


a. Once only
b. As many times as you like
c. As long as they retain their tension

77. When using spring washer:


a. Fit double spring washer without the plain washers
b. Fit coil round springs
c. Fit a plain washer between the spring washer and the component
and tighten down the nut to the correct torque.

78. B A threads are used:


a. Under (one quarter inch) 6.25mm diameter screw ,
b. Over (one quarter inch) 6.25mm diameter
c. Not used

79. The lead of a Metric Micrometer is:


a. Two revolutions of the thimble
b. One revolution of the thimble
c. Two amvil revolutions.

80. The lead of an English Micrometer is:


a. 1/50 inch
b. 1/40 inch
c. 1/25 inch

81. The taper of the taper pin is:


a. 1 in 49
b. 1 in 48
c. 1 in 29

82. ln wire locking, the untwisted length should not be more than:
a. 3/8 inch
b. Half inch
c. 3 inches

83. Locking plates may be used repeatedly provided that:

a. The serration remains in a good fit around the Hexagon on the bolt
b. It is springy
c. It is thick

84. The ratings that an Aircraft maintenance Engineer can obtain in current
Regulations are:
a. A, Bl, and B2
b. Category A, Category C, Category X & category R.
c. Airframe, Powerplant and Avionics

85A licensed Aircraft Maintenance Engineer with appropriate ratings, may


perform or
supervise the maintenance; modification, inspection or return to service of
aircraft; engine, propeller, appliances or component provided.
a. He/she had satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date or
received course of training on the aircraft; engine, propeller or
appliances.
b. He/she had received training acceptable to the Authority on the
tasks to be performed or had seen other Aircraft maintenance
Engineer performing such tasks.
c. He or she had performed the task satisfactorily before or performed
the task under the direct supervision of a repair specialist who is
appropriately rated who had done such tasks earlier.

86. The responsibility of ensuring that the aircraft is in airworthy condition is that
of
a. Aviation Safety Inspector (Airworthiness)
b. Civil Aviation Authority of the of state of Registry.
c. Registered owner or operator of the aircraft.

87.For applicant to be issued with Aircraft Repair specialist license and ratings he
or she must
be

a. 18 years old
b. 21 years old
c. 23 years old

88. Which section of CIVIL AVIATION ACTS 2006 empowered the Promulgation
of the
NIGERIA CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS:
a. Section 17
b. Section 27
c. Section 30

89. The Classifications of Airworthiness Certificate are:


a. Standard and Special
b. Utility and Transport
c. Transport and limited.

90. Each report of failures, malfunctions and defects referred to by


Regulation 5.5.1.4 should be made after the determination of failures
within
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days

91.Which of the following statements is correct for an applicant for Aircraft


maintenance engineer's license and ratings?
a. He must pass the knowledge Test only to obtain his /her license
b. He must pass the knowledge and the skill test before he can obtain
his/her license.
c. He must pass the skill Test only before he can obtain his/her license

92. The Power to make Regulations for Civil Aviation Activities in Nigeria is
vested on:
a. The National Assembly's
b. The Honourable Minister of Aviation
c. The Director General of Nigerian Civil Aviation Authority

93. An application for initial issue of AOC shall be made at least before the date of
intended operation.
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 180 days

94. A circuit with 250 volts a.c. supplying current at 50 hertz through 4.9 henry
inductor has a
reactance value of:
a. 1000 ohms
b. 770 ohms
c. 245 ohms

95. Fuses and circuit breakers are:


a. Devices used to produce electricity in aircraft
b. Devices used to protect circuits from excessive current
c. Devices to give a warning alarm in the event of power failure.
96. The resistance value of a thermistor:
a. Increases with increase in temperature
b. Increases with decrease in temperature
c. Remains the same with increase/decrease temperature.

97. The materials commonly used in bi-metallic switches are:


a. Brass and invar
b. Chrome and nickel
c. Brass and steel

98. Shunts are normally used:


a. In radio circuits
b. As heating elements
c. In ammeter circuits

99. Relay contacts are classified as:


a. Normally open, normally closed and change over contacts
b. Normally open, current limited, and high voltage contacts
c. Normally closed, high voltage and normally open.

100. The Issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by


a. Part 3 and Part 6 of the Regulations
b. Part 5 of the Regulations
c. Part 6 of the Regulations

5. The rotating part of a motor/generator is called.


A. commutator.
B. armature.
C. yoke.

8. The electron flow through a conductor will be decreased the most if the cross
sectional area.
A. is decreased and the length is increased.
B. and the length are both decreased.
C. and the length are both increased.

14. Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite
directions so that the.
A. speed of the motor can be more closely controlled.
B. motor can be operated in either direction.
C. power output of the motor can be more closely controlled.

12. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?.
A. secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
B. primary turns × secondary turns.
C. primary turns ÷ secondary turns.

18. In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens to the
back EMF?.
A. decreases.
B. remains the same.
C. increases.

22. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?.


A. Heavier than like for like.
B. Will not supply output at low rpm.
C. Can only be used on piston engines.

23. The shunt wound generator is normally started.


A. on load.
B. Either of the above.
C. off load.

24. One advantage of a DC motor over an AC motor is.


A. the direction of rotation of the rotor can be changed.
B. less voltage is required in DC than AC.
C. the DC motor will use less current.

26. In a shunt wound direct current motor the torque is.


A. inversely proportional to the current in the armature.
B. independent of load.
C. proportional to the current in the armature.

28. An indication of good commutation on a DC machine would be.


A. high armature currents.
B. little or no sparking at the commutator.
C. silent operation of the machine.

32. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as.


A. polarization.
B. ionization.
C. hydration.

34. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid


battery is by checking.
A. the voltage with rated load switched ON.
B. the voltage on open circuit.
C. the voltage off load.

36. When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG.
A. remains the same.
B. goes up.
C. goes down.

37. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes.


A. battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge current
decreases.
B. internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the decreasing
charging current.
C. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.

41. The power dissipated by a load of known resistance connected across a


known potential difference can be calculated by.
A. dividing the square of the potential difference by the value of the load
resistance.
B. multiplying the square of the potential difference by the value of the load
resistance.
C. working out the current flowing in the circuit by using ohms law and
multiplying the result by the resistance.
Correct Answer C OR A dividing the square of the potential difference by the
value of the load resistance.

42. An ammeter is connected into a circuit in.


A. series.
B. shunt.
C. parallel.
Explanation. ammeter is always put into a circuit in series with the component it
is measuring the current through.

44. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there is.
A. current and voltage at maximum.
B. no current flow.
C. no voltage present at either end.
Explanation. The ammeter reads zero when it is balanced
45. Which is not thermally operated?.
A. A limiting resistor.
B. A current limiter.
C. A fuse.

46. Carbon has a.


A. temperature coefficient of zero.
B. positive temperature coefficient.
C. negative temperature coefficient.
Expln. Carbon is a semiconductor, so its resistance reduces with temperature.

47. The unit for resistivity is the.


A. ohms/square meter.
B. ohms/meter.
C. ohmmeter.

49. Cables are shielded to prevent 'H' magnetic interference in wires with the
following material.
A. Copper braiding.
B. Ferromagnetic material.
C. Diamagnetic material.

52. When the battery is connected to the aircraft, which terminal should you
connect first?.
A. Any.
B. Positive.
C. Negative.

57. What is the internal resistance of a battery?.


A. The resistance measured across the two terminals.
B. The resistance measured when the battery is half charged.
C. The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.
58. There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery because.
A. it is necessary for chemical action to take place.
B. it reduces the internal resistance of the cell.
C. the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place
only on one side.

59. For how many hours will a 140AH battery deliver 15A?.
Option A. 9.33 hours.
Option B. 27.25 hours.
Option C. 15.15 hours.Correct Answer A is. 9.33 hours.

62. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting
the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of
which type?.
A. Compound.
B. Shunt (parallel).
C. Series.

63. When an electrical supply becomes 'open-circuit'.


A. the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the increased
current drawn.
B. the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
C. the component will operate normally but will not switch off.

69. What is the SI unit of resistivity?.


A. Ohms.
B. Ohm metre.
C. Ohms/metre.

72. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of.


A. millivoltmeter.
B. milliammeter.
C. milliohmeter.

74. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for.
A. ground handling bus.
B. the interlock circuit.
C. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket.

75. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with.


A. Teflon.
B. Nomex.
C. PVC.
Correct Answer A is. Teflon.(Teflon is Duponttradename for PTFE).

76. A heat gun should be operated at.


A. 100°C above the specified.
B. 100°C below the specified.
C. the specified temperature.
Explanation. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or
100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature.

77. A permanent magnet should have.


A. low retentivity, low coercivity.
B. high retentivity, low coercivity.
C. low retentivity, high coercivity.

78. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery
charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in
current.
A. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the
engines.
B. the battery is faulty.
C. no cause for concern.
79. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is.
A. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
B. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
C. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.

80. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?.


A. Positive to external power relay.
B. Positive to battery relay.
C. Ground or earth.

81. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is.


A. across the generator output.
B. in series with the field windings.
C. in parallel with the field windings.

82. Zener diodes are for.


A. voltage stabilisation.
B. voltage regulation.
C. rectification.

90. When replacing a current transformer.


A. it can be fitted any way round.
B. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting.
C. it can only be fitted one way round.

94. Flashing a generator field.


A. decreases resistance.
B. restores magnetism.
C. increases resistance.

98. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a.


A. calibration check.
B. continuity check.
C. function check.

99. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential
by.
A. bonding.
B. earthing.
C. static wicks.

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