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VisionIAS Research and Analysis December 2024 Environment (10 Years UPSC PYQ Trend Analysis)

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233 views252 pages

VisionIAS Research and Analysis December 2024 Environment (10 Years UPSC PYQ Trend Analysis)

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hymavathichiluveru15

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(An All India GS Prelims Test Series feature

Smart Revision, Practice and Holistic Preparation

UPSC Prelims)
Extensive Question Bank:
Access 20,000+ VisionIAS and
UPSC PYQ questions.

Current Affairs Integration:

Practice with current affairs
questions.

Personalized Test Creation:

Customize tests by subjects and
topics.

Timed Assessments:
Enhance time management with
timed tests.

Detailed Performance Analysis:

Track overall, subject, and
topic-level progress.

Targeted Recommendations:
Receive personalized insights for
specific improvement areas.

Admission Open Scan to

know more
1. Ecosystems �� 6
2. Environmental Degradation �� 15
3. Biodiversity �� 21
4. Protected Areas �� 72
5. Conventions and Organizations �� 90
6. Laws & Policies �� 118
7. Forests & Forest Laws �� 141
8. Climate Change �� 148
9. Pollution �� 166
10. Unconventional Sources of Energy �� 194
11. Agriculture �� 214
12. Terms in News �� 244

3
General Observations on Environment Section

Total Number of Questions Asked in the last

ten years

2015
Question: 17
2024 2016
Question: 20 Question: 20

2023
2017
Question: 16
Year-Wise Question: 15
number of
questions
2022
Question: 19
asked: 2018
Question: 11

2021 2019
Question: 22 Question: 21
2020
Question: 19

4
Topic Wise Questions
Topic Wise Questions
Ecosystems Biodiversity Protected Areas Conventions and Laws & Policies Forests & Forest
Organizations Laws

6 41 11 23 23 5

Climate Change Pollution Unconventional Agriculture Terms in

Sources of Energy News

15 19 12 18 7

Sources

Class XII Biology Vision IAS PT 365 Vision IAS Monthly Standard
NCERT Environment Current Affairs Newspapers

90
50

Difficulty Level
Easy Medium Difficult

5
Ecosystems

2015

Question: Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Answer C

Source:
NCERT Class 12th Biology Page 241

TYPES OF ECOSYSTEM

Explanation:
An ecosystem includes all of the living things
(plants, animals and organisms) in a given NATURAL ARTIFICIAL/MAN MADE

area, interacting with each other, and also

with their non-living environments (weather,
earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere).
TERRESTRIAL AQUATIC

FOREST GRASSLAND DESERT FRESHWATER MARINE

LOTIC - RIVER, STREAM OR SPRING LENTIC - LAKE, POND OR SWAMP

6
2017

Question: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions”

Answer C

What is Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?

Explanation: BOD: the amount of dissolved oxygen that microorganisms need to break
down organic materials in water
Healthy water contains a balance of: When water contains excess As micro-organisms break
Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is the dissolved oxygen organic materials, micro-or- down the excess organic

amount of dissolved oxygen needed (i. e., micro-organisms

organic materials
ganisms begin to break
them down
materials, they
use up dissolved oxygen,

demanded) by aerobic microorganisms deplete O levels, and harm

aquatic life

to break down organic material present

in a given water sample. A highly polluted
water will have a high level of biological
oxygen demand (BOD). Hence option (c)
is the correct answer.

Source:
Biology NCERT Class XII

Motivation:
To check the basic concepts of ecology and environment.

7
2018

Question: Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water
loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
These are plants growing in extreme dry conditions throughout the year. For example, plants
growing in deserts (psammophytes), on rock (lithophytes) or alpine plants growing above 14000
feet altitude.
Xerophytes Adaptations: Plants adapted to dry, hot and arid climates are considered xerophytes.
Examples include the entire yucca family, acacia trees, and mesquite trees. Xerophytes spend
much of their energy in the pursuit and maintenance of water.
» Conservation of Water- Modifications:
■ Leaves few or absent or represented by spines only
■ Petiole modified into leaf like structure
■ Stem reduced, branching sparse
■ In some cases stem flattened, leaf like, green, photosynthetic in nature Thick, fleshy and
succulent leaves as well as stem
» Storage of Water- Modifications:
■ Thick, fleshy and succulent leaves as well as stem
» Prevention of loss of water by transpiration- Modifications:
■ Intercellular spaces reduced
■ Spongy parenchyma/ palisade parenchyma present
■ Stomata on lower surface, sunken in stomatal pits

8
■ Leaves needle like
■ Thick cuticle on leaf surface
» Prevention of excessive heat-
Modifications:
■ Leaves covered with dense hairs;
■ Leaf surfaces shiny or glabrous
■ Leaf blade remains rolled during the
day
» Efficient mechanism of water
absorption- Modifications:
■ Long and profusely branched roots
■ Dense root hairs
■ Well developed xylem
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Source:
NCERT Class 6 and Biology NCERT Class XII

Motivation:
Previous year question

9
2021

Question: In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is
the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle
(d) Sulphur cycle

Answer C

Explanation:
Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy
transfer systems. Many animals also need large quantities of this element to make shells, bones
and teeth.
The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock,
which contains phosphorus in the form of Phosphorus Cycle
phosphates. When rocks are weathered,
minute amounts of these phosphates
dissolve in soil solution and are absorbed by
the roots of the plants. Herbivores and other Weathering
of rocks
Incorporation
animals obtain this element from plants. The by animals Phosphate
carried
Geological
uplift and
formation
waste products and the dead organisms
by water
of new rock
sition

Phosphate
are decomposed by phosphate-solubilising fertilizer runoff
from farmland
mpo

bacteria releasing phosphorus. Absorption

Deco

by plants Formation
of
Unlike the carbon cycle, there is no respiratory Underground Leaching
phosphate
reserve
phosphate
sediments

release of phosphorus into the atmosphere.

The other two major and important differences
Underwater phosphate reserve
Decomposers

between carbon and phosphorus cycle are

firstly, atmospheric inputs of phosphorus
through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs, and, secondly, gaseous exchanges of
phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.

Source:
NCERT Class XII Biology

Motivation:
Basic concepts given in the NCERT are often tested by UPSC.

10
2021

Question: The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive
areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more
or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer C

Explanation:
Savanna ecosystems are heterogeneous environments characterised by the presence of trees,
bushes, and grasses. Nutrient and soil moisture availability are usually the limiting factors
affecting the biomass growth in savannas, and overall biomass is impacted by competition, fire,
grazing, and harvesting.
Savanna grassland soils are not very fertile. The nutrients in the soil are found near the surface
as they come from decayed organic matter (vegetation) from the previous growing season. This
organic matter decays rapidly due to the high temperatures.
In the parched grasslands and savannas, or drylands, of Africa, South America and Asia, termite
mounds store nutrients and moisture and via internal tunnels, allow water to better penetrate
the soil. Dirt mounds the insects build sustain significantly more shrubs, fruit-bearing trees, bugs,
and animals, such as elephants, cheetahs, and zebras, than do surrounding areas.
Herbivory and burrowing activities can reduce overall plant biomass associated with
burrowing mammal colonies, but the higher levels of soil nutrients and greater degree
of water infiltration that occurs around their mounds can result in elevated foliar nutrient
concentrations and greater plant biomass surrounding their burrows.
In general, savannas grow in tropical regions 8° to 20° from the Equator. Conditions are warm to
hot in all seasons, but significant rainfall occurs for only a few months each year—about October
to March in the Southern Hemisphere and April to September in the Northern Hemisphere. Due
to limited rainfall, it is characterised by an open tree canopy. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.

11
Source:
Geography by GC Leong

Motivation:
Following question on the similar line was asked by UPSC in 2013.

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession
because of
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above

2022

Question: “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function
as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and
mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer D

12
Explanation:
Tropical rainforests are often called the “lungs of the planet” because they generally draw in
carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen. Natural wetlands have often been referred to as “earth’s
kidneys” because of their high and long-term capacity to filter pollutants from the water that
flows through them. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Aquatic plants can uptake large amounts Contaminants
and sediment
of metals from water and/or sediment are ﬁltered
Provides
through active and passive absorption, Dissipates
stream critical wildlife
with this absorption capacity of metals energy habitat

through different organs such as roots, Cleaner water

stems, and leaves, making these plants outﬂow

suitable for heavy metal alterations in the Groundwater

ﬂow
aquatic environment.
Bacteria

Wetlands do many important jobs called break down

contaminants Slow release
Saturated peat
ecological services. An ecological service stores water
of stored water Stream

is a benefit that we as humans get from

the environment around us. Just as a dry How wetlands work
cleaner provides the service of cleaning
clothes, the environment provides services like cleansing water and giving wildlife places to live.
Wetlands are like sponges soaking up water and pollutants.
Wetlands are transitions, or buffers, between waterways and the surrounding land (such as fields,
neighbourhoods and forests).
Wetlands provide habitat for many different types of wildlife. Birds, amphibians, fish, insects,
mammals, reptiles and many types of plants can be found in wetlands.

Source:
https://www.tiredearth.com/articles/wetlands-the-earth-s-kidneys

Motivation:
Role and importance of wetlands is often discuss in news.

13
Mastering CSAT:
A Strategic Roadmap for rof
UPSC Prelims Examination
The UPSC Prelims is the initial, highly competitive stage of the Civil Services Examination, consisting of two
objective-type papers: General Studies and the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). These papers assess a candidate's
knowledge, understanding, and aptitude.
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Practice summarizing paragraphs and infer the main ideas
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14
Environmental
Degradation

2018

Question: Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in river
beds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Excessive instream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining
lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed
and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of
river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. Any volume of sand exported
from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system.
Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand
mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of
the river.

15
Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand mining causes sinking of water
tables in the nearby areas, drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these
rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.

Adverse effects of sand mining

Physical environment Chemical

• Riverbed deepening and environment
widening • Increased turbidity and
• Riverbed, -bank and slope total suspended solids
instability (TSS)
• Increased erosion • Increased concentrations
• Reduced sand of heavy metals
replenishment • Pollution of air, water and
• Altered hydrological soil
table
• Riverbed coarsening

Biological
environment Anthropogenic
• Habitat loss and environment
fragmentation
• Destruction of infrastructure
• Smothered microorganisms
• Loss of agricultural land
• Reduced respiration and
• Reduced yield of farmers
photosynthesis
and ﬁsheries
• Reduced presence of benthic
• Increased risk of
organisms
waterborne diseases
• Noise pollution
• Poor working circumstances

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-launches-sand-mining-framework/
article23302652.ece

Motivation:
Sand mining guidelines were issued in 2016 and amended in 2020, sand mining framework was
issued in 2018.

16
Extra Information:
Sand is classified as a “minor mineral”, under the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulations) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), and administrative control over minor minerals vests with
the State Governments, accordingly,
regulated through State specific
rules. Why M.Sand is better than River Sand?
Sand Mining Framework (2018)
prepared by the Ministry of Mines
envisages alternative sources of
sand in the form of Manufactured Concrete strength is
Sand (M-Sand) from crushed rock higher in M.Sand as Price of
fines (crusher dust), and sand from it is manufactured M.Sand is low
Overburden (OB) of coal mines. in a controlad
process
» M-Sand, or Manufactured Sand, No oversized
is an alternative to natural river materials and
sand used in construction. It is thus no need
produced by crushing rocks or to sieve
quarry stones to obtain sand before usage Uniform
particles of consistent size and No organic gradation of
impurities in the particles
shape.
Msond sizes
Enforcement and Monitoring
Guidelines for Sand Mining 2020:
» It provides a uniform protocol for monitoring sand mining across India.
» It covers the identification of sand mineral sources, their dispatch, and their end-use.
» It also considers the use of new surveillance technologies, such as drones and night vision, to
monitor the sand mining process.

2022

Question: Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta

Answer B

17
Explanation:
Lake Faguibine is an isolated lake in Mali,
west of Timbuktu (Tombouctou). It lies north
of the Niger River in the Macina depression.
Lake Faguibine in northern Mali is dry and
has been since the 1970s. Over seven years,
droughts in the 1970s dried up the lakes.
Then sand filled the channels connecting
the lakes to the River Niger, with the result
that when rain finally returned the water
could no longer reach the lakes. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.climatecentre.org/6788/icrc-climate-change-transforms-malis-lake-faguibine-
into-desert-and-forces-people-to-move/

Motivation:
Impact of climate change such as lakes that are drying up. Following question on the similar line s
was asked by UPSC in 2018

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due
to human activities ? (Pre18 Set-D)
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

18
2024

Question: One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about
three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which
can exert detrimental effects on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ?
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikori Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Answer B

Explanation:
The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia.
The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately
equivalent to three years’ worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole
absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide a year . The Basin stretches across six countries-
Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea
and Gabon.
The Congo Basin is one of the
world’s last regions that absorbs What Are Peatlands?
more carbon than it emits. Peatlands are a type of wetland found
Hence option (b) is the correct in many parts of the world.
answer.
Water-
saturated
vegetation

Standing
Partially water
decomposed
plant
material (peat)

Although peatlands may look very

different depending on their Mineral
location, they all have a layer of soil
(often thick) peat, which is formed
and conserved by persistent
saturation with water, which
causes oxygen-free conditions.

19
Peatlands provide important ecosystem services and support people
and cultures worldwide. The degradation of peatlands, such as by
drainage, can have far-reaching impacts.

Benefits of healthy peatlands Impacts of degraded peatlands

Absorb
Provide places atmospheric Store &
for education Support carbon as filter
& recreation biodiversity peat forms freshwater

CO2

Release of Reduced Reduced Reduced

carbon from biodiversity water opportunities
oxidation & storage & for education
erosion of filtration & recreation
peat capacity

Motivation:
In Feb 2023, UNEP published a report on “Critical ecosystems: Congo Basin peatlands”. In 2023 ‘The
Summit of the Three Basins’ was held in Brazzaville, the capital of the Republic of Congo which
resulted in a seven-point declaration on protection of the three basins of the Amazon, Congo and
Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia.

20
Biodiversity
Number of questions asked

30 9 2
Animals Plants Microorganisms
& Others

2015

Question: With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements
is/are correct ?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer C

Explanation:
Feeding on seagrass, dugongs are found in seagrass beds, sheltered waters, lagoons and bays.
Fourteen seagrass species are found in the marine waters in the country of which 13 are found
in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay areas. Dugongs had been brought under Schedule I of the
Wildlife Protection Act, the punishment for its poaching is imprisonment.

21
ORDER Sirenia (manatees and dugongs both called sea cows) FAMILY Dugongidae
WEIGHT 230-400 kg LENGTH 2.4-4 m. LIFE SPAN 55-70 years

Dugongs (Dugong dugon)

LARGE, STOUT, HERBIVOROUS MARINE MAMMALS

GEOGRAPHIC RANGE HABITAT

Broad but fragmented Found in tropical shallow marine
range across 48 habitats at an average depth 10 m.
countries in the Indian Often occur in protected bays,
and Western Pacific mangrove channels, or sheltered
Oceans shorelines rich in seagrasses

Mouth turned
downwards to graze
State animal of the on seagrass beds
Andaman & easily
Nicobar Islands
Have a pair of tusks,
formed by incisor
teeth
No dorsal fin
Can stay underwater
Fulked or forked for 10 minutes befor
dolphin-like tail coming to the
surface for air

ECOLOGICAL ENGINEERS SOCIAL

Dugongs are "ecological engineers" BEHAVIOUR
practising "cultivation grazing" - Very social
consuming entire meadows, then Short paddle-like
front flippers species. Found in
abandoning them and returning once groups of 2-200
the seagrass has recovered. individuals
CONSERVATION
Migrate large distances in search of BABIES STATUS
their favourite seagrasses
Females reach sexual maturity Vulnerable on the
THREATS
between 6-17 years; males between IUCN Red List
SENSORY ABILITIES Coastal development - dredging,
6-12 years Schedule I of
Echolocation (sound wave construction, and sewage
Females breed once every 2.5-7 years; India's Wildlife
reflection) allows them to Plastic pollution and marine debris
EAT Seagrasses produce a single calf Protection Act
navigate turbid waters
(primarily of the Gestation is 13-15 months; calves wean (1972) Entanglement in fishing nets
Visual communication used
Halophila and off the mother's milk at 14-18 months Seagrass habitat destruction
during mating displays
Halodule varieties) Calves stay with mothers, feeding and
Smell and touch senses Boat traffic
bonding, till age 6-7
used during foraging

Source:
NCERT India Physical Environment Class XI Page No. 66 http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/
home/environment/flora-fauna/Dugongs-on-brink-of-extinction-poaching-continues-in-India/
articleshow/48037397.cms

Motivation:
Was covered in The Times of India July month 2015

22
2015

Question: Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India ?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial

Answer C

23
GANGETIC DOLPHIN
(Platanista gangetica gangetica)
It is a subspecies of South Asian River Dolphin.
Dolphins are one of the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles and sharks.
The Ganges river dolphin was officially discovered in 1801. But the species is extinct from most of its early
distribution ranges.
Blowhole (They
HABITAT
They are Blind cannot breathe in the
water. It surfaces Slow-flowing freshwater rivers
(Tiny, lensless
every 30-120 seconds mostly in plains. Often sighted
eye serves for
to breathe in fresh air at river confluences.
light detection,
not imaging as it is a mammal).
Grey or Light Brown colour
They relies heavily on
Echolocation (Sonar The Ganges river dolphins
Technology) Female can only live in freshwater
(Ultrasound Waves) (Females are larger than males)
to navigate and hunt
LIFESPAN
18-22 YEARS
Pinkish Belly

Length: 2.70 m (Female), 2.12 m (Male)

Long, sharp teeth IUCN
visible even with the Status
mouth closed.
Male The Ganges river
dolphin is also
known as the
Susu because of
POPULATION (APPROX.) the sound it
produces.
3,500-5,000
(80% found in the Indian
Typically seen alone or with Females give birth once
subcontinent).
one other, but some live in every two to three
groups of less than 10. years to only one calf.

THREATS GEOGRAPHIC RANGE CONSERVATION

They are historically distributed in Declared the Ganges River Dolphin

major river systems as National Aquatic Animal on 10th
Water-related Hunting May 2010.
(Ganges-Brahmaputra- Meghna
Infrastructure
and Karnaphuli-Sangu) of India, Protected under Schedule I of the
Nepal and Bangladesh. Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
Declared as non human-persons
by Government of India.
Pollution Human The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin
Disturbance Sanctuary, Bihar is the only wildlife
sanctuary in India specifically for
the protection of the Gangetic
dolphins.
Fishing Gear Poaching Dolphin Day: 5th October
Entanglement (for dolphin oil) Project Dolphin started in 2020

24
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/counting-dolphins-in-the-ganga/ +also in
India Year book

Motivation:
Gangetic Dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India.

2016

Question: In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great
Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats

Answer D

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/growing-threat-to-great-indian-hornbills/
article7137163.ece

Explanation:
The great hornbill, a magnificent bird reaching a length of three-and-a-half feet, is distinguished
by a big yellow beak with a casque and striking tail feathers; the magnificent birds which were a
common sight in the Western Ghats are rarely seen, due to deforestation. habitat loss threatens
its future, and hunting has depleted populations. It is protected at the highest level under Schedule
I of the Wildlife Protection Act, but that can do little to save the habitat.

25
2016

Question: What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:
“The Kharai camel grazes on mangroves and is tolerant to saline water. It is found only in
Gujarat’s coastal areas. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers into the sea in search of
mangroves.
Statement 3rd is incorrect. It can be domesticed. Given the breed’s ability to survive both on land
and sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most preferred choices of graziers in the arid coastal
region of Kachchh. People consume its milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns.

Source:
“http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-sinking-ship-of-the-desert/article7671220.ece
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/Kharai-camels-to-get-
protection-as-endangered-species/articleshow/46980354.cms
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/the-sinking-ship-40705”

26
2016

Question: With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer A

Explanation:
Red Sanders, botanical name Pterocarpus santalinus, is a non-fragrant variety of sandalwood
that mostly grows in rocky, hilly regions. Saplings reach 8 to 10 m in 3-4 years, but growth slows
down after that. The trunks are slender, and it takes at least 20-25 years for the tree’s beautiful,
deep red wood to be of use.
It is found in the thorny scrub/dry deciduous forests of the central Deccan, between 500 ft and
3000 ft. only in a small pocket roughly 5,200 sq km in the Palakonda and Seshachalam hills
in the districts of Kadapa and Chittoor, in some contiguous areas of Anantapur district, in the
Nallamalla forests in Kurnool and Prakasam, and in parts of Nellore district. Some contiguous
patches in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka see some wild growth.
Red Sanders is a protected species under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Source:
“http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/red-sanders-govt-steps-up-vigil-in-
seshachalam-hills/article8661718.ece
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-logs-of-blood/“

27
2017

Question: Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what
could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 and 3 are correct. Butterflies are pollinating insects. They help in pollination of many
flowering plants. Pollination is defined as the transfer of pollen from stamen to pistil. Bees are also
well known pollinators.
Butterflies also act as a lower member of the food chain. A number of animals, including birds
and mice feed on butterfly. As populations of butterfly diminish, so will populations of birds and
other animals that rely on them as a food source. This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of the
“butterfly effect.”
There is no proven link between fall in butterfly population and a drastic increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated plants.

28
Hummingbirds transfer pollen with their
Bees pollinate many of the fruits and beaks and on their heads as they feed
vegetables we like to eat. on nectar.

Butterﬂies are dusted with pollen while Moths get covered in pollen while using
sipping nectar from ﬂowers. their tongues like straws to sip nectar.

Wind moves the pollen of grasses, Flies are often considered pests, but
conifers, and many other trees. some species are valuable pollinators.

Arunachal Pradesh Kaiser-i-Hind

Goa Malabar Tree-Nymph

Union Territory of Jammu and

Blue Pansy
Kashmir

Karnataka Sahyadri Birdwing

Malabar Banded
Kerala
Peacock

Maharashtra Blue Mormon

Sikkim Blue Duke

Tamil Nadu Tamil Yeoman

Uttarakhand Common Peacock

Tripura Common Birdwing

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Tiruchirapalli/when-butterflies-take-a-hit/article7928831.
ece

Motivation:
Role of pollinators is often discussed in the news.

30
2017

Question: If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best
place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel

Answer B

Explanation:
National Chambal Sanctuary, also called the National
Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is a tri-state protected Gharial
area in northern India for the critically endangered gharial
(small crocodiles), the red-crowned roof turtle and the
endangered Ganges river dolphin.
The gharial, also known as gavial or fish-eating crocodile, Alligator
is a crocodilian in the family Gavialidae and among the
longest of all living crocodilians.
Crocodile
Their primary threats include habitat loss due to human
encroachment, unsustainable fishing practices and hunting.
The species came alarmingly close to extinction in the 1970s.
Today, their major population occur in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and
the Girwa Rivers in India and the Rapti-Naryani River in Nepal. The Gharial reserves of India are
located in three States – Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

31
The Gharial and Saltwater are Crocodile Conservation Program was launched in Odisha in early
1975, followed by the Mugger Conservation Program.

Aspects Crocodiles Alligators Gharials

Family Crocodylidae Alligatoridae Gavialidae

Body Color Olive and Tan (Lighter) Gray and black (Darker) Olive colored

Water bodies Saltwater Freshwater Freshwater

Long, thin and distinct boss

Snout Shape Pointed & V-shaped Wide & U-shaped
at the end snout Present

Present and osmoregulate

Salt Glands in salinity regionsregulate in No salt glands Present
salinity regions

Behavior Aggressive Less Aggressive Very shy

Lower jaw teeth visible when Lower jaw teeth not visible
Teeth Sharp teeth
mouth shut when mouth shut

Locomotion Speed 20 mph 30 mph 15 mph

Body Length Up to 17 feet long Up to 14 feet long Up to 15 feet long

Over 2200 lbs (Saltwater Around 1000 lbs (American
Body Weight Up to 2000 lbs
Crocodile) Alligator)
3500 pounds per square
Bite Force 2900 PSI 2006 PSI
inch (PSI)
Life Span Up to 70 years Up to 50 years Up to 50 to 60 years

Total Species 13 8 2

Source:
NCERT: Contemporary India - II , Chapter -2 Forest and Wildlife Resources.
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/agra/number-of-gharials-muggers-goes-up-in-
chambal/articleshow/57993791.cms

Motivation:
Recently it was reported that the population of Ghariyals has increased in the Chambal Gharial
Wildlife Sanctuary.

32
2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Asiatic Lion African Lion

Characterstics

IUCN Status Vulnerable Vulnerable

Asiatic Lions are lighter, weighing 240 African lions weigh 345 (female) and
Weight
(female) and 450 pounds (male). up to 500 pounds (male).

They have sparser mane but have

Mane They have bushier mane.
bushier tails.
Their range is limited to the Gir Forest They are spread over sub-Saharan
Distribution
National Park in India. Africa and west Africa.
Males live with the females of their Males live with the females of their
Pride
pride only for mating or for hunting. pride.
Habitat Forest, savanna, shrubland, grassland,
Dry deciduous forest.
and desert.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) is found naturally in India only. Gir
National Park is the last natural habitat of this species. IUCN Status of Asiatic Lion was reclassified
from “endangered” to “vulnerable,” signifying a significant improvement in their conservation
status. Today, the state is home to 674 lions according to the last census. 10 districts of Gujarat
Junagadh, Amreli, Jamnagar, Porbandar, Gir-Somnath, Rajkot.

33
Statement 2 is not correct: The Bactrian camel or Double-humped camel is a large, even-toed
ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. The Bactrian camel occupies habitats in Central
Asia from Afghanistan to China, primarily up into the Mongolian steppes and the Gobi desert. In
India, it is found in the Nubra valley

The Bactrian camel (Camelus bactrianus), also known as the Mongolian camel,
domestic Bactrian camel or two-humped camel, is a large even-toed ungulate
native to the steppes of Central Asia.
Its population of 2 million exists mainly in the domesticated form. With its tolerance
for cold, drought, and high altitudes, it enabled the travel of caravans on the Silk
Road.
These camels are migratory, and their habitat ranges from rocky mountain massifs
to flat steppe, arid desert, (mostly the Gobi Desert), stony plains and sand dunes. he
coat of the Bactrian camel can withstand cold as low as −30 °C (−22 °F) in winter to
50 °C (122 °F) in summer. They have a remarkable ability to go without water for months at a time, but when water is
available they may drink up to 57 liters at once.
Bactrian camels are diurnal, sleeping in the open at night and foraging for food during the day. They are primarily
herbivorous. With tough mouths that can withstand sharp objects such as thorns, they are able to eat plants that are
dry, prickly, salty or bitter, and can ingest virtually any kind of vegetation.
The Indian Army uses these camels to patrol in Ladakh.
Wild camels live in the Gobi desert. The Bactrian camel occupies habitats in Central Asia from Afghanistan to China,
primarily up into the Mongolian steppes and the Gobi desert. The International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) has listed the wild Bactrian camel as a critically endangered species since 2002, owing to
multiple threats.

Statement 3 is not correct: One-horned rhino is natually found in areas of Assam such as Kaziranga
National Park, India and also in Chitwan National Park (CNP) of Nepal.

Important Note: Five Rhino Range Countries countries - India, Bhutan, Indonesia,
Malaysia and Nepal - signed the Chitwan Declaration for Asian Rhinos
Conservation (2023) and agreed on managing the population of the greater
one-horned Rhinos, Javan and Sumatran Rhinos with the intention of achieving
at least 3% annual growth rate in their population

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-collaborate-with-four-nations-to-protect-
asian-rhinos/article26431985.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=186688

Motivation:
Animals which are exclusively found in India is one of the often repeated themes of UPSC. Also,
Government Launched Asiatic Lion Conservation Project ; New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019

34
2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer D

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Green sea turtles eat seagrasses
and algae, though juveniles snack on crabs, sponges, and
jellyfish. In the wild, they can live up to 80 years and grow
up to five feet long. Once mature, it is the only sea turtle
that is strictly herbivorous.
Statement 2 is correct: Parrotfish are algae eaters.
They obtain the algae by ripping small chunks of coral
from a reef. Many other herbivores thrive among the
fish population. Other herbivores include the Japanese Parrotfish
angelfish, damselfish, surgeonfish, yellow bloth rabbitfish,
and tilapia.
Statement 3 is correct: The diet of Manatees consists
of water grasses, weeds, and algae. Dugongs are
related to manatees, which are both endangered and
protected animals. These slow-moving herbivores graze
on underwater grasses, rooting them out with bristled,
sensitive snouts and chomping them with rough lips.
Statement 4 is correct: Snakes that are viviparous nourish
their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac,
something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa
constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of
viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young
with no eggs involved at any stage of development

35
THREE WAYS SNAKES ARE BORN
OVIPAROUS VIVIPAROUS OVOVIVIPAROUS
snakes that give birth to offspring young develop inside the mother’s eggs incubate and hatch inside the
by laying eggs placenta and are born live mother’s body and are baby
snakes are born live
70% of
snakes are
OVIPAROUS

Eastern Milksnake Northern Watersnake Massasauga Rattlesnake

(Lampropeltis triangulum) (Nerodia sipedon) (Sistrurus catenatus)
Least Concern Least Concern Least Concern

Source:
https://sciencing.com/list-herbivores-ocean-8599405.html

Motivation:
Dietary preferences of animals and exceptions in biology is a common theme.

Question: Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Blue-finned Mahseer is found
naturally in the Cauvery river. Mahseer fish belongs to the
genus Tor of the family Cyprinidae (carps), It thrives in clear
rivers and lakes of India and southeastern Asia, and among
the largest of Indian river fishes. The Golden Mahseer inhabits
the Himalayan foothills, the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra
basins and can also be found down south in the Balamore,
Cauvery, Tambraparini, and Kosi Rivers.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Irrawaddy dolphin is a critically endangered species. It is
found near sea coasts and in estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast
Asia. In India, it is found in Lake Chilika and not the Chambal river. The gangetic dolphin is found
in the Chambal river.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rusty Spotted Cat
is one of the world’s smallest feline.The rusty
spotted cat, one of the few wild cats that inhabit
the forests of Andhra Pradesh, is among the
animals in the Eastern Ghats

37
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-hump-backed-mahseer-
critically-endangered/article26653559.ece
https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/cauvery-fish-faces-extinction/cid/1511529
http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2019/may/10/chilikas-4-new-mouths-evoke-
mixed-reaction-1974991.html
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/spotted-cats-find-home-at-sgnp/
articleshow/67445358.cms
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/This-cat-is-so-small-science-is-
forgetting-it/article16695161.ece

Motivation:
Natural Habitats of various species and where they are found in India is an important topic in
biodiversity. It is important to note here that the question requires application of both environment
and geography. One must not only know the important protected areas where various species are
found but also where these protected areas lie within the physiographic divisions of India.

2020

Question: With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer A

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian elephant is one of three extant recognised subspecies of the
Asian elephant and native to mainland Asia. The oldest female in an elephant herd is always the
leader.
38
Statement 2 is correct: Elephants have the longest gestation period of all mammals. The average
gestation period of an elephant is about 640 to 660 days, or roughly 95 weeks.
Statement 3 is not correct: Female elephants live for 60 to 70 years, but only have about four
offspring throughout their lifetime. Fertility decreases after age 50 in elephants, but the pattern
differed from a total loss of fertility in menopausal women with many elephants continuing to
reproduce at least until the age of 65 years. Therefore it is not till the age of 40 years only.
Statement 4 is not correct: South India had the highest number of wild elephants - 14,612. Among
the south Indian states, Karnataka leads the table with 6,049 elephants followed by Kerala.

(Elephas maximus)

Asian Elephant
Geographic range
India, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
Habitat Grasslands, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Laos,
ﬂoodplains, evergreen Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal,
rainforests, deciduous forests, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Vietnam
scrub forests

Earts Plants - leaves, grass, Did You Know?

bamboo, fruits, tree bark, roots, • Elephants are good swimmers,
agricultural crops like millets, using their trunk as a snorkel
paddy, bananas, and sugarcane
• Believed to have
incredible memory, often
Family
remembering old migration
21 months - gestation period
route and perennial sources
1 call is born
of water
4-5 years - breeding interval
36 to 48 months - maternal care
• Can learn to negotiate electric
of offspring
fences and other human
obstacles

Asia’s largest terrestrial mammal is a herbivore

20,000-40,000 wild population 60-70 years in the wild 86 years in captivity - Lifespan 2,000-6,000 - weight

Different From Afcrican TUSKS HERDS

Elephant • Only male elephants have tusks. Tusks • Led by a matriarch, usually one of the
• Smaller than African eleohant. grow throughout their lifetime oldest elephants in the group
• Smaller, rounder ears • Used in combat while competing for • Adult male elephants may from bachelor
• African elephant has two access to females herds or are solitary, joining herds during
ﬁnger-like projections at tip of • Demand for tusks has largely led to the mating season
the trunk to manipulate objects; poaching and decline in elephant numbers • Calves are communally cared for and
Asian elephant has one • Adult male elephants without protected, not just by the mother
tusks are known as makhnas

THREATS
• Poaching for tusks • Hunting for meat • Retaliatory killing • Accidental deaths on roads,
railway track, and by electrocution • Habitat loss

Protection Status : Endangered on the IUCN Red List

39
Motivation:
A tragic case of death of a young pregnant
elephant, who was fed a cracker-filled pineapple
in Kerala, was extensively covered and discussed
in the news. The incident occurred in June 2020
and the question was asked in September the
same year.

2020

Question: With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-
chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
(a) Birds
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Amphibians

Answer A

The Sri Lanka frogmouth, Sri Lankan frogmouth or Ceylon frogmouth is a small frogmouth (The
frogmouths are a group of nocturnal birds) found in the Western Ghats of south India and Sri
Lanka. The coppersmith barbet, also called crimson-breasted barbet and coppersmith, is an
Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar
to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer.
The grey-chinned minivet is a species of bird in the family Campephagidae. It is found from the
Himalayas to China, Taiwan and Southeast Asia. The white-throated redstart is a species of bird
in the family Muscicapidae. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

2021

Question: Consider the following animals:

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll
up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?

40
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer D

Explanation:
Hedgehogs are a small mammal with short limbs and a body low to the ground. When they are
frightened, or annoyed, hedgehogs will roll into a ball so that a predator will feel the full brunt of
its sharp spines and will then leave the hedgehog alone. Hence option 1 is correct.
Marmots are relatively large ground squirrels in the genus Marmota, with 15 species living in Asia,
Europe, and North America. These herbivores are active during the summer when often found
in groups, but are not seen during the winter when they hibernate underground. They are the
heaviest members of the squirrel family. They do not roll up when threatened. Hence, option 2 is
not correct.
Pangolins are uniquely covered in tough, overlapping scales. These mammals eat ants and
termites using an extraordinarily long, sticky tongue, and are able to quickly roll themselves up
into a tight ball when they feel threatened. Hence option 3 is correct.

Motivation:
Unique behavioural aspects such as defence mechanisms of various species is an often repeated
theme in the Prelims examination.

Additional Information:
Defence mechanisms of various organisms (infographic) (See link: https://www.pugdundeesafaris.
com/blog/defence-mechanisms-in-nature/)

2021

Question: Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

(a) Catfish
(b) Octopus
(c) Oyster
(d) Pelican

Answer C

41
Explanation:
A Filter Feeder is an animal (such as a clam or baleen whale) that obtains its food by filtering
organic matter or minute organisms from a current of water that passes through some part of its
system.
Oysters are natural filter feeders. This means they feed by pumping water through their gills,
trapping particles of food as well as nutrients, suspended sediments and chemical contaminants.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Source:
Class XI NCERT covers types and modes of nutrition in animals.

Additional Information:
Other Filter Feeder Organisms

Classification of animals based on Nutrition

The animal which exclusively feeds on plants. Their length of alimentary canal is more as
Herbivorous compared to others. Examples – Tadpole larva of frog, rabbit, cow, horse, sheep etc.

The animal which kills and feeds on other animals. The length of their alimentary canal is
Carnivorous minimum. Examples – Tiger, lion etc.

The animal which can take both plant and animal products as food. They have maximum
Omnivorous type of digestive enzymes. Example - Human, Dog, Prawn.

Insectivorous The animal which feeds on insects. Example - Frog, Common bats, wall lizards.

The animal which feeds on blood of other animal. Examples - Leech, body louse, mosquito,
Sanguivorous vampire bat etc.

Carrion Eaters They feeds on dead animals also termed as scavengers. Examples - Hyaena, neltura, kites
(scavengers) etc.

Organisms which feeds on its own species. Examples - Cockroaches, some fishes, frog,
Cannibalus snakes etc.

Detritus Animals feed chiefly upon organic matters present in the humus. Examples - Earthworm.

Coprophagus or
pseudorumination or Animals which feeds on their own faeces. Example - Rabbit, Guinea pig
refection

Larvivorous Feeds on larva. Example - Gambusia (mosquito fish) and Dragon fly.

Frugivorous Feeding on fruits. Example - Parrot, Bat, Squirrel.

Food robbers Feed upon food formed in alimentary canal. Example - Ascaris, Taenia solium.

Filter feeder Paramecium, Unio, Sponge.

42
2021

Question: Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer C

Explanation:
Detritivores are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus. By doing so, all these
detritivores contribute to decomposition and the nutrient cycles.
Examples of detritivores are earthworms, blowflies, millipedes, maggots, and woodlice.

Decomposer vs Detritivor
Decomposer Detritivor

Decomposer is an organism that breaks Detritivore is a decomposer that eats dead organic
DEFINITION down dead organic matter in the matter and digests internally to gain nutrients.
environment.

Earthworms. millipedes. sea stars, crab and

EXAMPLES Bacteria. fungi, protists. etc. dung ﬂies. etc.

Decomposers secrete enzymes on the

DIGESTION OF digest organic matter in order to Detritivores actually eat organic matter and
DEAD ORGANIC absorb nutrients. So the digestion carry out internal digestion.
MATTER occurs externally.

Seahorse is considered a secondary consumer. They occupy a middle position in their food
chain. Seahorses do not have teeth; they suck in their food and swallow it whole. Thus their prey
needs to be very small. Primarily, seahorses feed on plankton, small fish and small crustaceans,
such as shrimp and copepods. Fish, jellyfish and crustaceans are common secondary
consumer. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

43
Source:
Class 12 Biology NCERT

Motivation:
Basic concepts covered in NCERT are important from examination point of view.

2022

Question: Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis

Answer A

Explanation:
Golden Mahseer, a fish, lives in fast-moving
waters, inhabiting hill streams with a rocky
and stony substrate. They can be found in
temperatures between 5°C and 25°C. Also
known as Tor putitora, the Putitor mahseer,
Himalayan mahseer, or golden mahseer, is an
endangered species of cyprinid fish. Its native
range is within the basins of the Indus, Ganges
and Brahmaputra rivers.

The Indian nightjar is a small bird which is a

resident breeder in open lands across South
Asia and Southeast Asia. The first bird to be
called a “nightjar” was the European Nightjar
(Caprimulgus europaeus) which was so
named in the 17th-century because it was
active at night and made a jarring noise
(night + jar = nightjar).

44
Spoonbills are tall white waterbirds with long broad
black bills and black legs. They fly with necks and
legs extended. Spoonbills are found in estuaries,
saltwater bayous, and lakes. They feed by sweeping
the long bill from side to side in the mud or shallow
water and thereby catching mostly small fishes
and crustaceans.Spoonbill is a summer migrant to
Ranganatittu Bird Sanctuary

White Ibises are wetland birds. They use

freshwater marshes, coastal estuaries,
mangroves, flooded pastures, mudflats, and
swamps.

2022

Question: Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of
fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider

Answer A

Explanation:
The ant–fungus mutualism is a symbiosis seen between certain ant and fungal species, in which
ants actively cultivate fungus much like humans farm crops as a food source.
Leafcutter ants use leaves as their fertilizer to grow their crop: fungus. They cultivate their fungal
gardens by providing them with freshly cut leaves, protecting them from pests and molds, and
clearing them of decayed material and garbage. In return, the fungus acts as a food source for
the ants’ larvae.

45
Motivation:
Types of Interactions and relationships between species is a common theme covered by UPSC. For
example UPSC asked a similar question on Lichens, in the Civil Services preliminary examination, in
2014.

Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are
actually a symbiotic association of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) agae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses

2023

Question: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II:
Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer C
46
Explanation:
Marsupials: Marsupials give birth to a tiny,
immature embryo. The embryo then continues
to grow and develop in a pouch on the mother’s
belly. Marsupial development is less risky for
the mother. However, the embryo is fragile, so it
may be less likely to survive than the fetus of a
placental mammal.
Characteristics of marsupials include small birth
size, short gestation period, the presence of
pouches or protective skin folds used to protect
offspring during their development outside the
uterus, unique reproductive anatomy, and the
lack of a corpus callosum in their brains.
The largest and most-varied assortment of
marsupials—some 200 species—is found in Australia, New Guinea, and neighbouring islands,
where they make up most of the native mammals found there. They are not restricted to montane
grasslands. Hence statement I is correct and statement II is not correct.

Motivation:
Smuggling of Baby kangaroos, also known as, Joeys,
was reported in eastern India.

Important Note: UPSC emphasizes wildlife conservation issues in the news, making
them potential themes for examination questions. For example: If Kangaroos were
smuggled into India, the question was asked about their natural habitat.

47
2023

Question: Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer A

Explanation:

1. The lion-tailed macaque is a rainforest dweller, often being found in the upper
canopy of tropical moist evergreen forests or monsoon forests. It is diurnal,
meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours. Hence option 1 is not correct.

2. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known
about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. Hence option 2 is correct.

3. Sambar deer are crepuscular (active at dusk and dawn) animals. Hence
option 3 is not correct

Motivation:
Behavioral aspects of species, such as their eating (herbivore, carnivore) and sleeping patterns
(nocturnal, diurnal) is an oft-repeated theme in the civil services examination.

Note:
On similar lines, aspirants are advised to look up for special characteristics of any of the species they
read about. Also cover social behavior, learned behavior, reproductive behavior, communication
etc.

48
2023

Question: Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate
the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps

Answer C

Explanation:

The honey bee dance – also known

as the waggle dance, is a form of
communication performed by worker
honey bees to other members of the
honey bee colony. The waggle dance was
famously decoded by Austrian scientist,
Karl von Frisch.
The waggle dance - the direction the bee
moves in relation to the hive indicates
direction; if it moves vertically the
direction to the source is directly towards
the Sun. The duration of the waggle part of the dance signifies the distance. Hence option (c) is
the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/unlocking-secrets-of-the-honeybee-dance-
language/article66603728.ece

49
NCERT

Motivation:
An article on the waggle dance of honey bees was reported
in the hindu newspaper.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

Explanation:
Squirrels are generally small to medium-size rodents but there are
few species that are giant in size like Malabar giant squirrel and
Malayan giant squirrel. Giant tree squirrels are the members of the
squirrel family, They are arboreal species and live mostly on trees in
the forest but now also have adapted to human environments. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
To prepare for colder months, squirrels cache food during the spring
and summer by gathering extra nuts. They bury the surplus in the area
surrounding their nests, splitting it into different underground pantries
to save for later. Hence statement 2 is correct.
While nuts and fruits make up a majority of its diet, the Indian sun squirrel will also eat insects,
other smaller mammals, and reptiles. Hence statement 3 is correct.

50
Motivation:
Article dated 10 Nov 2022

2023

Question: Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrap insects from a hole in a tree
or a log of wood?
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer B

Explanation:
In animal tool use, the physical aspects of mediation are easy
to see: a chimpanzee might use its hand to strike a surface with
some force; if the chimpanzee strikes with a stone in its hand,
the force is amplified. An orangutan might reach into a hole
with its finger; a stick held in its hand will reach farther or into
narrower openings. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Motivation:
Unique abilities of species is one of the most commonly repeated themes in the prelims examination.

51
2024

Q. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are :

(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles

Answer C

Source:
https://www.wildlifetrusts.org/wildlife-explorer/invertebrates/bugs/common-pond-skater

Explanation:
All of the Cicada, Froghopper and Pond Skater belong to insects. The cicadas are a superfamily
of insects in the order Hemiptera (true bugs). The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea,
are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Pond Skaters are a family
of insects in the order Hemiptera. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Cicadas are known for their distinctive sound produced by males. Froghoppers, also called
spittlebugs, are noted for their ability to jump la

2024

Question: Consider the following pairs :

Country Animal found in its natural habitat
1. Brazil Indri
2. Indonesia Elk
3. Madagascar Bonobo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D
52
Explanation:
Option 1 is not correct: The indri also called the babakoto, is one of the largest living lemurs. It is
endemic to Madagascar, and it is losing its rainforest habitat for fuel, timber, and slash-and-
burn agriculture.
Option 2 is not correct: The elk is the second largest species within the deer family, Cervidae, and
one of the largest terrestrial mammals in its native range of North America and Central and East
Asia.
Option 3 is not correct: The bonobo also historically called the pygmy chimpanzee (less often the
dwarf chimpanzee or gracile chimpanzee), is an endangered great ape. The bonobo is found
in a 500,000 km2 area within the Congo Basin of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC),
Central Africa.”

2024

Question: Consider the following statements :

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Lions have no particular breeding season, and often synchronize breeding,
especially after a pride takeover, raising the cubs communally.
Statement 2 is correct: The bones of the cheetah’s voice box form a fixed structure, with divided
vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths. This structure is the same for all the ‘small’
cats. While this design enables these cats to purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds
and prevents them from being able to roar. Cheetahs produce a variety of sounds including
growls, purrs that generally denote contentment, chirps (between a mother and her cubs), and
an “explosive yelp”.
Statement 3 is not correct: Leopards are territorial and mark their territory with faeces, urine and
cheek-rubbing on trees. They can also leave scrape markings on the ground, trees or logs. This
communicates to other leopards passing through that the territory they are in is occupied.”

53
2024

Question: Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved
with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ?
(a) Fig
(b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood
(d) Silk cotton

Answer A

Explanation:
In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of
wasp. It means that a given fig species can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species and
no other species. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while looking for suitable egg-laying
sites. In return for the favour of pollination, the fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds as
food for the developing wasp larvae. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

2024

Question: Consider the following :

1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

54
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: Papilio antimachus, also called African giant swallowtail, is the most poisonous
butterfly in the world. It contains a lot of cardiac steroid toxins. The toxin in a male Papilio
antimachus can poison 20 cats. The males have narrow forewings with a maximum wingspan of
25cm, ranking first among all the male butterflies.
Option 2 is correct: Venomous fish are species of fish which produce strong mixtures of toxins
harmful to humans which they deliberately deliver by means of a bite, sting, or stab, resulting in
an envenomation. The Reef Stonefish is the most venomous fish in the world. It has thirteen stout
spines in the dorsal fin which can inject a highly toxic venom.
Option 3 is correct: Many species of frog are known to be poisonous, such as the often colourful
poison dart frogs. There are currently only two species of frog known to be venomous: Bruno’s
casque-headed frog (Aparasphenodon brunoi) and Greening’s frog (Corythomantis greeningi).
Both are found in Brazil and produce skin secretions like other poisonous frogs - but these species
have spiny bone protrusions that make their poison venom.”

2024

Question: Consider the following :

1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer A

Explanation:
Option 1 is not correct: The cashew is native to northeastern Brazil. Portuguese missionaries took
it to East Africa and India during the late 16th century, where it became abundant at low altitudes
near the seacoast.
Option 2 is not correct: Papaya cultivation had its origin in South Mexico and Costa Rica. Total
annual world production is estimated at 6 million tonnes of fruits. India leads the world in papaya
production with an annual output of about 3 million tonnes.
Option 3 is correct: As a native species to Andhra Pradesh, Red Sanders (also known as Red
Sandalwood) use and trade are regulated by the State.”

55
2024

Question: Consider the following :

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All Five

Answer B

Explanation:
In evolutionary ecology, a parasitoid is an organism that lives in close association with its host at
the host’s expense, eventually resulting in the death of the host. Parasitoidism is one of six major
evolutionary strategies within parasitism, distinguished by the fatal prognosis for the host, which
makes the strategy close to predation.
Option 1 is correct: Carabid beetles are a family of beetles that includes many parasitoid species
Option 3 and 5 are correct: Most parasitoids are either wasps and bees (Hymenoptera) or flies
(Diptera), although a few species of beetles, twisted wing insects, moths, and other insects have
been identified as parasitoids.
Option 2 is not correct: Centipedes are predatory arthropods. Centipedes are predominantly
generalist predators, which means they are adapted to eat a broad range of prey. Common prey
items include lumbricid earthworms, dipteran fly larvae, collembolans, and other centipedes.
Option 4 is not correct: Termites are primarily detritivores, consuming dead plants at any level of
decomposition. They also play a vital role in the ecosystem by recycling waste material such as
dead wood, faeces and plants.

56
2024

Question: Consider the following statements

Statement-I:
The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II:
The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-l is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement I is correct*: The nectar and fruit-eating flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally
considered a vermin as they raid orchards. It had a similar official status under Schedule V of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 until it was put on the Schedule II list entailing a higher degree of
protection.
Statement II is not correct: As a keystone species causing seed dispersals of many plants in
tropical systems, the flying fox has fascinated zoologists over the years. The Indian flying fox is
vermin because they believe that it “”poaches”” ripe fruit from orchards. A study in India found
that of all orchard crops, Indian flying foxes did the most damage to mango and guava crops.”

57
How to Approach
Current Affairs?
Frida
y, Augu
st 25,
2023

Econ omic Surv ey

Friday, August 25, 2023

Current affairs form the cornerstone of civil services exam preparation, permeating all its phases - Prelims,
Mains, and the Interview. Exam questions are increasingly drawn from dynamic sources, intertwining
directly with current occurrences or bridging static content with present events. In this
context, staying updated with current affairs equips aspirants to navigate the evolving
landscape of the civil services exam. Candidates can transform this vast section into a strong
advantage with the right resources and a strategic approach.

Scan this QR code

A Dual-Layered Strategy for Current Affairs

to watch video

Strengthening Your Foundation Mastering the Preparation & Revision

Newspaper Reading: The Foundation Weekly Focus: Strengthening Foundations

Devote an hour daily to reading newspapers Refer to Weekly Focus to solidify your
for a comprehensive understanding of global understanding of a topic, covering static and
and national events. dynamic components along with various
aspects and dimensions of a major issue.

News Today: Context Simpliﬁed Highlights & Summary Documents of

Complement daily newspaper reading with Economic Survey and Budget
News Today, offering a concise overview of Gain key insights from summary documents of
current affairs in 180 or 80 words. This resource the Economic Survey and Union Budget,
aids aspirants in identifying crucial news, distilling complex information into a compact
understanding technical terms, and grasping format for easy comprehension.
phenomena.

Monthly Current Affairs Magazine: In-Depth PT 365 & Mains 365: Enhancing performance
analysis in the examination
Dive into the Monthly Current Affairs Magazine Utilize PT 365 and Mains 365 for continuous
for comprehensive coverage and detailed current affairs coverage throughout the year,
analysis of events. This facilitates aiding in revision for both Prelims and Mains
understanding the context, signiﬁcance, and examinations.
implications of various events across diverse
areas.

The Quarterly Revision Document of Vision IAS is useful resource for students who
have missed reading monthly updates for 2-3 months. It supports on going learning
Scan this QR code
by providing a summary of key developments. to read brochure

2018

Question: Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in the news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of these

Answer B

Explanation:
Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders
in India. A native of South and Central America, it was introduced in
India to meet the fuelÃ and ªwood requirement of the rural poor and
to restore degraded lands. A recent study has shown that apart from
threatening local plants, with whom it competes for resources, this
tree is also affecting the nesting success of birds.

Source:
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/silent-invader-44025
http://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kesy203.pdf

Motivation:
Often in news due to its impact on habitat loss.

59
2019

Question: Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre

Answer D

Explanation:
Girardinia diversifolia, a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for
people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Himalayas.

Source:

Motivation:
Himalayan Nettle was reported to have increased the livelihood of people in the Himalayan region.

60
2021

Question: In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface
without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer C

Explanation:
A fern is a member of a group of vascular plants that reproduce via spores and have neither
seeds nor flowers. Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere. Ferns
prefer potting soil with good drainage and high organic content. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Lichens are a complex life form that is a symbiotic partnership of two separate organisms, a
fungus and an alga. They only require an undisturbed surface, time, and clean air. Lichens grow
on any undisturbed surface--bark, wood, mosses, rock, soil, peat, glass, metal, plastic, and even
cloth. Hence option 2 is correct.
Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don’t
have true roots. Moss is very low maintenance and needs virtually nothing except shade and
moisture to thrive. Hence option 3 is correct.
A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced
above ground, on soil, or on its food source. Mushrooms can be cultivated hydroponically as
fungi. Hence option 4 is not correct.

Source:
Class XII NCERT Ecological succession

Elimination Technique:
Lichens and mosses are known to be one of the pioneer species that occupy a barren rock/land in
primary ecological succession where soil development is poor. Ferns are large vascular plants that
require soil and similarly mushrooms also need a soil substratum to grow on.

61
2021

Question: Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
(a) Congress grass
(b) Elephant grass
(c) Lemongrass
(d) Nut grass

Answer C

Explanation:
Citronella is an essential oil found in Lemongrass. It is the most widely
used natural mosquito repellent found in candles, sprays, and lotions.
To help deter mosquitoes with its strong fragrance, plant lemongrass
along walkways and in locations close to seating areas. Hence, option
(c) is the correct answer.

Source:
Chapter -9 Biomolecules, Class XI NCERT

Motivation:
India, being a tropical
country, is always confronted
with the problem of vector
borne diseases.

62
2021

Question: Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Answer B

Explanation:
Autotrophs or primary producers are organisms that acquire their energy from sunlight and
materials from nonliving sources.
Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and saltwater
habitat. Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean. They represent an
important link between phytoplankton, microzooplankton and higher trophic levels such as fish.
They are an important source of food for many fish species but also a significant producer of
detritus. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally
in all types of water. Cyanobacteria are important primary producers and form a part of the
phytoplankton. They may also form biofilms and mats (benthic cyanobacteria). Hence option 2
is correct.
Diatoms are photosynthesising algae, they have a siliceous skeleton (frustule) and are found in
almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters. Diatoms are one of the
major primary producers in the ocean, responsible annually for ~20% of photosynthetically fixed
CO2 on Earth. Hence option 3 is correct.
Foraminifera are single-celled organisms, members of a phylum or class of amoeboid protists
characterized by streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food and other uses. Hence, option
4 is not correct.

Source:
Class XII NCERT Ecological succession

63
Important Note: Try to remember one species for each of the taxonomic
classification to remember their characteristics. For example - Mollusca-
Octopus, Crustaceans-Crab etc.

2021

Question: With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil derived from the mesocarp (reddish pulp) of the fruit of the oil
palms. Palm oil tree is native to Africa. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Palm oil is used in lipstick as it holds color well, doesn’t melt at high temperatures, and has a
smooth application and virtually no taste.
Also, palm oil makes perfumed and deodorants more effective and helps the fragrance to last
longer. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Palm oil contains various phytonutrients that can be separated out prior to biodiesel production.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Motivation: Often in news due to its impact on habitat loss.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-would-the-proposed-
large-scale-cultivation-of-oil-palm-mean-to-indias-ecology-and-economy/article36510961.ece

64
2021

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer B

Explanation:
Moringa has a straight trunk with cork-like bark. Depending on the species and climate, Moringa
trees may be evergreen or semi-deciduous. Moringaceae is a member of the mustard-oil plants,
the great group of families that includes the mustards, the capers, the papayas etc. It does not
fix nitrogen. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Tamarind is native to tropical Africa. It is widely cultivated in tropical and subtropical regions
for its edible fruit, the sweet and sour pulp of which is extensively used in foods, beverages, and
traditional medicines. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Tamarind (with seeds) is classified as minor forest produce. It s also covered under Minimum
Support Price Scheme for NTFP. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
India produces 1.2-2 million tonne moringa every year making it the largest producer of the crop
in the world. The country is also the largest moringa exporter and meets 80 per cent of its world
demand. Last year China procured huge quantity of moringa seeds from India at Rs 3,000 per kg
while the usual cost is between Rs 800 and Rs 1,000 per kg.
Tamarind seed is highly nutritious and contains upto 17-20 percent protein. Chemical called
Pectin extracted from the seed is added in bakery products. Tamarind is exported from India
to about 60 countries. Karnataka is the largest producer of tamarind in the country. About 18
percent of the national production is from Kerala and half of this is from Palakkad district. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
Tamarind seed oil biodiesel possesses excellent combustion properties and can be sanctioned
for its adoption in engine. Moreover, the tamarind seed oil biodiesel is environment-friendly and
can contribute in the reduction of carbon emission when used as an engine fuel.

65
Moringa seed oil exhibit a high oxidative stability and its thermal stability exceeds other oil crops
like sunflower oil, soybean oil amongst others. Biodiesel produced from M. oleifera seed oil exhibit
enhanced oxidative ability, high cloud point and a higher cetane number of approximately 67
than for most biodiesels. Hence, statement 5 is correct.

Source:
Down to Earth Article

2022

Question: Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa
2. Amarnath
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer A

Explanation:
Alfalfa, also called lucerne, is a perennial flowering plant in the legume family Fabaceae. It is
cultivated as an important forage crop in many countries around the world. Symbiotic N2 fixation
by alfalfa provides substantial amounts of nitrogen (N) to livestock operations, subsequent crops,
and soil organic matter. Hence option 1 is correct.

66
Amarnath: Amaranthus is a cosmopolitan genus of annual or short-lived perennial plants
collectively known as amaranths. Hence option 2 is not correct.
Chickpea: The chickpea or chick pea is an annual legume of the family Fabaceae. Hence option
3 is correct.
Clover: Nitrogen is “fixed” in clovers through a symbiotic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria that
infects the plant’s roots. Hence option 4 is correct.
Purslane: Purslane is a green, leafy vegetable that can be eaten raw or cooked. It is known
scientifically as Portulaca oleracea, and is also called pigweed, little hogweed, fatweed and
pusley. This succulent plant contains about 93% water. It has red stems and small, green leaves.
Hence option 5 is not correct.
Spinach: Spinach is a leafy green flowering plant native to central and western Asia. It is of the
order Caryophyllales, family Amaranthaceae. Hence option 6 is not correct.

Source:
Class 12th Biology NCERT

Motivation:
In 2021 UPSC asked a question on the leguminous nature of certain plants. In 2022 it sought to test
the candidates on nitrogen fixing plants.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer D

67
Explanation:
Pleurotus or “oyster mushroom” possesses medicinal properties and health-promoting effects.
These species have been used as medicinal mushrooms for long time since they contain several
compounds with important pharmacological/nutraceutical properties. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Psilocybin or magic mushrooms are naturally occurring and are consumed for their hallucinogenic
effects. They are psychedelic drugs, which means they can affect all the senses, altering a person’s
thinking, sense of time and emotions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Recently, an increasing number of mushrooms have been found to contain insecticidal

compounds. Among these are species of Lactarius (Russulaceae), which react to wounding
by exuding a milky fluid and/or color change reactions (Ramsbottom, 1954), which could be a
warning reaction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Some mushrooms use luciferins—light-emitting compounds found in other glowing animals and
plants—to attract insects. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Motivation:
In 2022, a question on Gucci mushroom was asked. The following year, UPSC asked a general
question on the properties of mushrooms.

68
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69
AHMEDABAD
71 BENGALURU BHOPAL CHANDIGARH DELHI GUWAHATI HYDERABAD JAIPUR JODHPUR LUCKNOW PRAYAGRAJ PUNE RANCHI
Biodiversity
(Microorganisms
& Others)

2021

Question: Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other
organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Cnidaria is a phylum under kingdom Animalia containing over
11,000 species of aquatic animals found both in freshwater and
marine environments. Cnidarians, also called coelenterate,
are mostly marine animals. They include the corals, hydras,
jellyfish, sea anemones, sea pens, sea whips, and sea fans.
The relationship between cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae
is termed as ‘symbiotic’, because both the animal host and
the algae are benefiting from the association. It is a mutualistic interaction.
Fungi have several mutualistic relationships with other organisms. In mutualism, both organisms
benefit from the relationship. Two common mutualistic relationships involving fungi are
mycorrhizae and lichen.

70
Termites have a mutualistic relationship with protozoa that live in the insect’s gut. The termite
benefits from the ability of bacterial symbionts within the protozoa to digest cellulose. Hence
option (d) is the correct answer.

Source:
Class XII Biology NCERT

Motivation:
Mutualism and similar interactions between species is one of the key components of plant and
animal behavior.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of
water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point
of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolobus fumarii, an archaeon living at 113 °C in Atlantic hydrothermal
vents. Pyrococcus furiosus, an archaeon which thrives at 100 °C, first discovered in Italy near a
volcanic vent.
Statement 2 is correct: Psychrophiles or cryophiles (adj. psychrophilic or cryophilic) are
extremophilic organisms that are capable of growth and reproduction in low temperatures,
ranging from −20 °C (−4 °F) to 20 °C (68 °F).
Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly
acidic environments. These are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with
a pH value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging
between 3 and 5.

71
Protected
Areas

2015

Question: Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation
that supports a rich biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park

Answer B

Explanation:
Keibul Lamjao National is world’s only floating national park and last natural habitat of Manipur
Brow antlered deer - Sangai (Cervus eldi eldi). The national park is characterized by many floating
decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis. was in the news - (June month) http://
www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/manipur-to-translocate-critically-
endangered-sangai-deer/article7321501.ece

Source:
http://www.neceer.org.in/2011/05/keibul-lamjao-national-park-for-world_28.html

72
2015

Question: Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to
subtropical, temperate and arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park

Answer D

Source:
https://books.google.co.in/
books?id=JYFmoOWfmX8C&q=namdapha#v=snippet&q=namdhapa&f=false

Explanation:
Namdapha National Park, located in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh, has a climate that
varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate, and arctic. The park encompasses a wide range
of altitude, ranging from 200 meters to 4,571 meters, and has a diverse range of flora and fauna
that correspond to the different altitudes and climatic zones.

2017

Question: Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their habitat in
Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park

Answer B

Explanation:
An environment ministry’s expert committee approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the
second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir national park. However, the Gujarat government
will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by international wildlife watchdog IUCN is
completed. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

73
2018

Question: In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland

Answer A

Explanation:
Pakhui is a Wildlife Sanctuary and a dedicated Tiger Reserve (also known as the Pakke Tiger
Reserve) in the district of East Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh, India. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
It has an area of over 860 square kilometres and is bordered by the Kameng River and Pakke
River, which are important sources of water for the animals and the irrigation of the vegetation.
The Pakhui reserve is neighbour to the Nameri Tiger reserve in Assam, making this area a true
treasure trove in terms of these spectacular animals.
This area was first declared the Pakke Reserve Forest in July of 1966. Eleven years later, it was
named the Camo Sanctuary. Then, in 2002, it was formally christened Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary
and Pakke Tiger Reserve.

Pakhui is mainly important from two aspects, one is

tiger reserve as it is a part of ‘Project Tiger’ and another
hornbills.
The great hornbill is the state bird of Arunachal
Pradesh and is the most valued and hunted by tribal
groups, followed by the Rufous-necked hornbill. There
has been campaigns to save hornbills. Hornbills
are especially vulnerable in North-east India due to
the traditional value of these birds for their feathers,
casques, medicinal value of their fat and flesh among
many tribal groups. Many areas especially in eastern
and central Arunachal have such high hunting pressure
that the great hornbill has become extremely rare or
locally extinct.

74
Seven Sisters of Northeast India
D’Ering Memorial (Lali) WLS
Mouling NP Dibang WLS-TR

Nameri NP-TR Dibang WLS

Pakke (pakhui) TR
Mehao WLS
Yordi Rabe Supse WLS
Bura Chapori WLS Dibru-Saikhowa NP
Kamala WLS Bherjan-Borajan-Padumoni WLS
Sessa Orchid WLS Kane WLS

Sonai Rupai WLS Tale WLS Kamlang TR

Raimona NP
Eagle Nest WLS
Manas NP-TR Itanagar WLS Pani-Dihing Bird WLS
Barnadi WLS
Chakrasila WLS S
Kaziranga NP-TR WL Namdapha NP-TR
S m bor
L Na
Lawkhowa WLS W
n g
Dehing Patkai NP
Orang NP-TR ru
ig Ga
Deepor Beel
- Do ram
r pa
Pabitora WLS bo ni W Singphan WLS
m Rangapahar WLS LS
Deepor Beel WLS N a
Hollongapar Gibbon WLS
Marat Longri WLS
Siju WLS East Karbi Anglong WLS
Amchang WLS Fakim WLS
Nongkhyllem WLS
Puliebadze WLS
Narpuh WLS Jiri Makru WLS
Bunning WLS
Ntangki (Intanki) NP
Nokrek NP
Balphakram NP Zeilad WLS
Barail WLS Barail WLS Loktak L
Baghmara Pitcher Plant WLS Kailam WLS
Rowa WLS Keibul-Lamjao NP
Pualreng WLS
Sepahijala WLS
Yangoupokpi Lokchao WLS

Clouded Leopard NP Lengteng WLS

Gumti WLS Khongjaingamba Ching WLS
Rudrasagar L
Thinungi Bird WLS
Bison (Rajbari) NP
Dampa TR Murlen NP

Tawi WLS
Trishna WLS
Thorangtlang WLS Khawnglung WLS

Phawngpui Blue Mountain NP

Ngengpui WLS

Pala
Tokalo WLS

Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/magazines/panache/history-amid-natural-beauty-
tawang-in-arunachal-pradesh-has-a-culture-of-its-own/articleshow/51297423.cms
https://www.fantasticindia.org/pakhui-wildlife-sanctuary.html

75
Motivation:
This Tiger Reserve has won India Biodiversity Award 2016 in the category of ‘Conservation of
threatened species’ for its Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme.
The Prime Minister’s frequent visit to North-East India and his inauguration of Hornbill festival
has kept the region in news.
Orang Tiger Reserve in Assam and Kamlang Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh were notified
of the 49th and 50th tiger reserves in the country.

2019

Question: Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National
Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi
National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger
Reserve

Answer A
Agasthyamala Biosphere
Reserve - Zonation

Achankovil
Explanation: Aryankavn pass
Thenmala Thenkasi
Courtallam
Located in the Western Ghats in the south of the
Shenduruny WLS
country, the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve K
is a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated
Arabian Sea M
plants. Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara WLS
Agasthyimala
Peppara and Neyyar, are located in the site, as T
well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve Thiruvananthapuram Neyyar WLS R
(KMTR) Neyyattinkara

Source:
Thakkalay
Nagarcoil
Core zone - 1135 Km2 Kanyakumari
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ Buffer zone - 1445 Km2
thiruvananthapuram/women-get-nod-to-trek-
Transition zone - 920 Km2
to-agasthya-mala/articleshow/67402572.cms Total - 3500 Km2

76
Motivation:
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve was in the news.

Biosphere Reserves in India

Cold Desert *Khangchendzonga
Himachal Pradesh Sikkim Dehang Debang
Manas, Dibru Arunachal Pradesh
*Nanda Devi Saikhowa
Uttarakhand Assam

Kachchh
Gujarat
*Nokrek
Meghalaya

Pachmarhi, Panna Sunderbans

Madhya Pradesh West Bengal
*Similipal
*Achankmar-Amarkantak Odisha
Chattisgarh,
Madhya Pradesh
Seshachalam
Andhra Pradesh
*Nilgiri
Karnataka
*Gulf of Mannar
Tamil Nadu
*Agasthyamala
Tamil Nadu & Kerala *Great Nicobar
Andaman &
Nicobar Islands

*World Network of Biosphere Reserve (NAB-UNESCO)

Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:

» Nilgiris (blue mountain) got their name from the purplish blue flowers of Neelakurinji (blossoms
once in 12 years).
» The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster (UNESCO World Heritage Site) includes the Mudumalai, Mukurthi,
Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Aralam, Wayanad and
Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.

77
» Vegetation: tropical evergreen forests (western side of Western Ghats), montane sholas and
grasslands (at high altitudes), semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, dry deciduous
forests, and thorn forests.
» Major Fauna: Lion Tailed Macaque (EN), Nilgiri Tahr (EN), Malabar Giant Squirrel (LC), Nilgiri
Langur (VU), etc.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve:
» Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve = Nanda Devi National Park + Valley of Flowers NP.
» Major Fauna: Snow Leopard (VU), Musk Deer (EN), Bharal Or Blue Sheep (LC), etc.
Nokrek Biosphere Reserve:
» Nokrek (1,412 m) is the highest peak of the Garo hills.
» Vegetation: Evergreen, semi-evergreen & deciduous.
» Key Fauna: Red Panda (EN), Hoolock Gibbons (EN), Red Giant Flying Squirrel (LC), etc.
Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve:
» It lies between the west coast of Sri Lanka and the south-eastern tip of India, in the Coromandel
Coast region.
» The chain of low islands and reefs known as Ramsethu (Adam’s Bridge), which includes Mannar
Island, separates the Gulf of Mannar from Palk Bay, which lies to the north between Sri Lanka
and India.
» The biosphere reserve comprises islands with estuaries, seagrasses, coral reefs, salt marshes
and mangroves.
» Major Fauna: Dugong (VU), Olive Ridley turtles (VU), etc.
Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve:
» It is located in the vast Delta of the Ganges, south of Kolkata and bordering Bangladesh in the
east. It provides habitat for the threatened Royal Bengal Tiger (EN).
» Sundarbans BR = Sundarbans National Park + Sajnekhali Wildlife Sanctuary + Lothian Wildlife
Sanctuary + Halliday WLS.
» Manas Biosphere Reserve
» Manas BR = Manas National Park. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
Manas is famous for its population of the Wild Water Buffalo (EN).
» Rare and endemic wildlife: Assam Roofed Turtle (EN), Hispid Hare (EN), Golden Langur (EN) &
Pygmy Hog (EN).
» The grassland biomes: Pygmy Hog, Rhinoceros (re-introduced in 2007), elephants, Bengal
florican (CR) etc.
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve:
» Great Nicobar BR = Campbell Bay National Park + Galathea NP.
» Vegetation: tropical wet evergreen forests.
» Major Fauna: Dugong (VU), Saltwater Crocodile (LC), etc.

78
Similipal Biosphere Reserve:
» It includes Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve (Similipal TR + Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary +
Kuldiha WLS).
» Tribes: Erenga, Kharias, Mankirdias, Ho, Gonda & Munda.
» Major Fauna: Royal Bengal Tigers, Wild Elephants (EN), Gaurs (VU – Indian Bison), Chausingha
(VU).
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve:
» Pachmarhi BR (Satpura National Park + Bori Wildlife Sanctuary + Pachmarhi WLS) lies in the
centre of the Satpura Range. The highest peak is the Dhoopgarh (1,352 m). Gonds are the
major tribes.
» Fauna: Tiger, Gaur, Indian Giant Flying Squirrels (LC), etc.
Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve:
» The biosphere reserve is a transboundary bio-diversity hotspot conservation area. It includes
the third highest mountain peak in the world, Kanchenjunga (8,586 m). It is one of the highest
ecosystems in the world, reaching elevations of 1,220 m to 8,586 m above sea level.
» The Khangchendzonga NP, which comprises the core area of the KBR, was inscribed as India’s
first “Mixed World Heritage Site”.
» Major Fauna: Red Panda (EN), Snow Leopard (VU), Musk Deer (EN), Great Tibetan Sheep
(Argali – NT), etc.
Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve:
» Dibru-Saikhowa BR = Dibru-Saikhowa National Park.
» Major Fauna: Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard (VU), Gangetic Dolphin (EN), etc.
Dihang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve:
» The Mouling NP and the Dibang WLS are located fully or partly within this biosphere reserve.
The terrain is rugged, with an altitudinal range of 750 to 3000 m at the highest point, the Mouling
Peak.
» Major Fauna: Takin (VU), Red Panda (EN).
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve:
» Agasthyamala BR = Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary + Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary + Neyyar
Wildlife Sanctuary + Kalakad Mundanthurai TR. The reserve is home to Kani tribes from both
Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
» Major Fauna: Nilgiri Tahr (EN)
Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve:
» It extends across the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Maikal hills together with
eastern Vindhyas and Satpuras lie within the reserve.
» Major Fauna: Four Horned Antelope (Chausingha (VU)), Indian Wild Dog (VU), etc.
» Vegetation: moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests.

79
Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve:
» The Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh in the Thar Desert.
» Great Rann of Kutch BR = Kachchh Desert Sanctuary (in Great Rann of Kutch) + Wild Ass
Sanctuary (in Little Rann of Kutch), Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary + Kutch Bustard Sanctuary
+ Banni Grasslands Reserve.
» Major Fauna: Great Indian Bustard (CR), Indian Wild Ass (NT), etc.
Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve:
» It includes Pin Valley National Park, Chandratal, Sarchu and Kibber Wildlife Sanctuaries.
» Major Fauna: Snow Leopard (VU), Himalayan Ibex (also referred to as Siberian Ibex – LC).
Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve:
» The Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats (south of Panna River) in southern Andhra
Pradesh.
» Tirupati, a major Hindu pilgrimage town and Sri Venkateswara National Park are located in
these ranges.
» Major Flora: rare and endemic plant species like Red Sanders (NT) are of great economic
importance.
» Major Reptilian Fauna: Golden Gecko (LC – Endemic To Tirumala Hills).
Panna Biosphere Reserve:
» Panna Biosphere Reserve = Panna TR.
» Fauna: Tiger (EN), Chital (LC), Chinkara (LC), Sambar (VU).

80
2019

Question: Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer D

Explanation:
The Western Himalayan region extends
from Kashmir to Kumaon. Its temperate
zone is rich in forests of chir, pine, other
conifers and broad-leaved temperate
trees. Higher up, forests of deodar, blue
pine, spruce and silver fir occur. The alpine
zone extends from the upper limit of the
temperate zone of about 4,750 metres or
even higher. The characteristic trees of this
zone are high-level silver fir, silver birch
and junipers.
Valley of Flower National Park is a high
altitude Himalayan valley in the transition
zone between Zanskar and Great
Himalayas. It is known for its meadows of
endemic alpine flowers.
Both the Valley of Flowers National Park and the Nanda Devi National Park forms the core area
of Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
Vegetation: Alpine vegetation.
Major Flora: Orchids, poppies, marigold, daisies, rhododendron and birch.
Major Fauna: Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, musk deer, brown bear, red fox, and bharal (blue
sheep). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://uttarakhandtourism.gov.in/valley-of-flower

81
National Parks of India
Jammu & Kashmir Himachal Pradesh Uttarakhand Sikkim
1. City Forest (Salim Ali) 1. Great Himalaya 1. Jim Corbett 1. Khangchendzonga
2. Dachigam 2. Pin Valley 2. Gangotri Assam
3. Kishtwar 3. Inderkilla 3. Govind 1. Dibru-Saikhowa
4. Kazinag 4. Khirganga 4. Nanda Devi 2. Dehing Pathai
5. Simbalbara 5. Rajaji 3. Raimona
Haryana 6. Valley of 4. Kaziranga
1. Kalesar Flowers 5. Manas
2. Sultanpur
6. Nameri
Uttar Pradesh 7. Orang
Rajasthan 1. Dudhwa
Ladakh Arunachal Pradesh
1. Mukundra Hills 1. Hemis 1. Mouling
2. Desert 2. Namdapha
3. Keoladeo Ghana Bihar
4. Ranthambhore 1. Valmiki
5. Sariska
Nagaland
1. Intanki

Meghalaya
Gujarat 1. Balphakram
1. Vansda 2. Nokrek Ridge
2. Blackbuck
3. Gir Manipur
4. Marine (Gulf 1. Keibul Lamjao
of Kutchh) 2. Sirohi
Mizoram
Maharashtra 1. Murlen
1. Chandoli 2. Phawngpui
2. Gugamal
3. Nawegaon Tripura
Jharkhand 1. Clouded
4. Pench (Jawaharlal Nehru) 1. Betla
5. Sanjay Gandhi (Borivilli) Leopard
6. Tadoba Odisha 2. Bison
1. Bhitarkanika (Rajbari)
2. Simlipal
Madhya Pradesh West Bengal
1. Bandhavgarh Goa 1. Buxa
2. Fossil Chhattisgarh 2. Gorumara
1. Mahavir (Mollem) 1. Indravati
3. Kanha 3. Neora Valley
4. Madhav (Kutru) 4. Singalila
Karnataka 2. Kanger Valley
5. Panna 5. Sunderban
1. Anshi 3. Guru Ghasi
6. Pench (Priyadarshini) 6. Jaldapara
2. Bandipur Das (Sanjay)
7. Sanjay
3. Bannerghatta Andaman and
8. Satpura Telengana
4. Kudremukh Nicobar
9. Van Vihar 1. Kasu
5. Rajiv Gandhi 1. Campbell Bay
10. Dinosaur Brahmananda
(Nagarahole) 2. Galathea
11. Kuno Reddy 3. Mahatama
2. Mahaveer Gandhi Marine
Kerala Harina
1. Anamudi Shola 4. Middle Button
Vanasthali Island
2. Eravikulam Tamil Nadu 3. Mrugavani
3. Mathikettan Shola 5. Mount Harriett
1. Guindy
4. Pambadum Shola 6. North Button
2. Gulf of Mannar Andhra Pradesh
5. Periyar 7. Rani Jhansi
3. Indira Gandhi (Annamalai) 1. Sri Venkateswara
6. Silent Valley Marine
4. Mudumalai 2. Rajiv Gandhi
8. Saddle Peak
5. Mukurthi (Rameswaram)
9. South Button
3. Papikonda

82
2020

Question: With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are
correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Desert National Park, Rajasthan, India, is situated in the west Indian state of Rajasthan near the
towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162
km². The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The
Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district
and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of
83 persons/km² (compared to 7km² of other deserts) (Baqri and Kankane 2001). However, the
human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are 73 villages and also
settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. These communities have inhabited this area
for hundreds of years and with their rich culture and tradition they are an integral part of this
ecosystem. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
The DNP is the most important site for the long-term survival of the Globally Threatened Great
Indian Bustard and other endemic fauna and flora. Other birds of significance include the
endangered Oriental White-backed vulture Gyps bengalensis and Long-billed Gyps indicus,
Stoliczka’s Bushchat Saxicola macrorhyncha, Green Munia Amandava formosa MacQueen’s or
Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis maqueeni. Eleven bird species representative of Biome-13 have
been identified by BirdLife International. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source:
https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5448/#:~:text=The%20Desert%20National%20Park%20

Motivation:
Desert National Park, Rajasthan is a part of UNESCO’s tentative list. A Tentative List is an inventory of
those properties which each State Party intends to consider for nomination.

83
2020

Question: Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger
Habitat”?
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans

Answer C

Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer: Critical ‘tiger’ habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger
reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972 based on scientific evidence
that “such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without
affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers”. The notification of CTH
is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the
purpose.
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in India. The reserve
spreads over five districts, Kurnool District, Prakasam District, Guntur District, Nalgonda District
and Mahbubnagar district. The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 km2 (1,439 sq mi).

TIGER RESERVES OF INDIA ARUNACHAL PRADESH

1. Kamlang (2016)
2. Namdapha (1982-83)
3. Pakke (1999-2000)
UTTARAKHAND
RAJASTHAN 1. Jim Corbett (1973-74) ASSAM
1. Sariska (1978-79) 2. Rajaji (2015) 1. Manas (1973-74)
2. Ranthambore (1973-74)
2. Kaziranga (2008-09)
3. Mukandra Hills (2013-14) UTTAR PRADESH
3. Nameri (1999-2000}
4. Ramgarh Vishdhari (2022) 1. Dudhwa (1987-88)
4. Orang (2016)
2. Pilibhit (2014)
MADHYA PRADESH 3. Amangarh (Buffer)2012-2013
Mizoram
1. Kanha (1973-74) 4. Ranipur (2022-2023)
1. Dampa (1994-95)
2. Pench (1992-93)
Bihar
3. Bandhavgarh (1993-94)
1. Valmiki (1989-90)
4. Panna (1994-95)
5. Satpura (1999-2000)
6. Sanjay Dubri (2008-09)

Jharkhand
MAHARASHTRA 1. Palamau (1973-74)
1. Nawegaon-Nagzira (2013-14)
2. Tadoba-Andhari (1993-94) WEST BENGAL
ODISHA 1. Sunderbans (1973-74)
3. Pench (1998-99) 1. Satkosia (2008-09)
4. Melghat (1973-74) 2. Buxa (1982-83)
2. Similipal (1973-74)
5. Sahyadri (2009-10) CHHATTISGARH
6. Bor (2014) TELANGANA 1. Indravati (1982-83)
1. Kawal (2012-13) 2. Udanti-Sitanadi (2008-09)
KARNATAKA 2. Amrabad (20 14) 3. Achanakmar (2008-09)
1. Biligiri Ranganatha Temple (2010-11)
2. Bhadra (1994-95)
3. Bandipur (1973-74)
4. Dandeli-Anshi (Kali) (2008-09) TAMILNADU
2. Nagarahole (2008-09) 1. Mudumalai (2008-09)
2. Anamalai (2008-09)
KERALA
3. Kalakad-Mundanthurai (1988-89)
1. Periyar (1978-79) ANDHRA PRADESH 4. Sathyamangalam (2013-14)
2. Parambikulam (2008-09) 1. Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (1982-83) 5. Srivilliputhur Megamalai (2020-2021)

84
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nearly-3000-tigers-in-india-finds-census/
article28744392.ece
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/tiger-estimation-report-provides-glimpse-of-
hope-for-human-animal-co-existence/story-Ej8dYMZLO4zXO7S3qEjYNI.html

Motivation:
Status of Tigers, Co-predators, Prey and their Habitat, 2018’ report was released.

2020

Question: Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-
species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively
graminivorous?
(a) Kanha National Park
(b) Manas national Park
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Tal Chapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer A

Explanation:
Barasingha also known as swamp deer is one of the largest
species of deer found in India, known for its distinctive character
of twelve tined stags. Today, Swamp deer or Barasingha are only
found in the Kanha National Park of Madhya Pradesh, Kaziranga
and Manas National Parks of Assam and a large population in
Dudhwa National Park of Uttar Pradesh.
Kanha Tiger Reserve has a significant population of Bengal
tiger,Indian wild dog and barasingha deer in India. The park is
the reintroduction site of barasingha and first tiger reserve in
India to introduce Barasingha as an official mascot.
There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian
Subcontinent. The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii)
found in Nepal, southern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii
branderi) found in central and north India and eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii
ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks. The southern swamp deer has
hard hooves and is adapted to hard ground. The other two subspecies are adapted to swampy
areas. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

85
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/near-extinct-hard-ground-swamp-
deer-see-revival-in-kanha-69603

Motivation:
It was recently seen in the news.

2020

Question: Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural
habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer A

Explanation:
Musk deer is a small compact deer belonging to the family Cervidae. A solitary shy animal, the
musk deer lives in mountainous regions from Siberia to the Himalayas.
Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is located 54 km from Pithoragarh near the town of Askot in
Uttarakhand. As the name suggests, the sanctuary has been set up primarily for the conservation
of musk deer and its natural habitat.
Gangotri National Park is a national park in Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand in India. Various
rare and endangered species like bharal or blue sheep, black bear, brown bear, Himalayan
Monal, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan Tahr, musk deer and Snow leopard are found in the
park. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar
Pradesh, India. It covers an area of 227 km2 (88 sq mi) and was founded in 1972. The tiger, chital,
hog deer, wild boars, otters, and many more animals find a home here.

86
Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a national park, UNESCO Natural World
Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam,
India. Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in
Bhutan.

(Moschus leucogaster) Lifespan Length Weight Height

HIMALAYAN MUSK DEER 10-14

years
86-100
cm
11-18
kg
50-60
cm
HABITAT
Alpine forests above 2,500 m and
edges of alpine forests and meadows
with a preference for steep slopes
Long rounded ears gives AKA
them a hare-like
appearance white-bellied
musk deer,
kasturi
Mostly sandy brown with
a darker brown on rump
and limbs

COMMUNICATION THROUGH GEOGRAPHIC RANGE

SMELL India (Himalayan range states
Communicate using latrines of Jammu and Kashmir,
(defecation sites) Himachal Pradesh,
Also use secretions (with strong Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and
Very short tail odour) from the caudal gland Arunachal Pradesh); also,
(4-6 cm) Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, China
(bordering India & Bhutan)
AGILE
Can climb low trees to reach
CONSERVATION STATUS
leaves and lichen
Endangered on the IUCN Red
Can leap 6 m in length
List

MUSK
BEHAVIOUR THREATS
Males secrete a waxy
substance called musk Most active during the morning Hunted for their highly prized
Hind limbs longer from a gland in the and evening musk pods (in males), used in
and more powerful abdomen Spend the day in dense making perfumes and
than forelimbs, vegetation medicine
creating a rounded Males rub musk on
surfaces to attract Males are territorial and will Intensive grazing by livestock
back
mates ﬁght other males, mostly during drives musk deer away
the mating season Loss of habitat to infrastructure
projects

Source:
https://forest.uk.gov.in/pages/view/160-gangotri-national-park

87
2023

Question: Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer B

Explanation:
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas
of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between
established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
According to the Section 36(d) of the WLPA, the State Government shall constitute a Community
Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving,
maintaining and managing the community reserve.
» The committee shall consist of not less than five representatives nominated by the Village
Panchayat or where such Panchayat does not exist by the members of the Gram Sabha and
one representative of the State Forests or WildLife Department under whose jurisdiction the
community reserve is located.
» The committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary WildLife Warden on the
community reserve. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
» The committee shall regulate its own procedure including the quorum.
» After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people cannot hunt there, nor can
they use it for agricultural practices. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct and statement 4 is
not correct.

Source:

88
89
Conventions
and
Organizations

2015

Question: With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
(IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between
governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Conventional does not take
the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Source:
http://www.iucn.org/about/

Explanation:
Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation. IUCN supports scientific
research, manages field projects all over the world, and brings governments, NGOs, the UN and
companies together to develop policy, laws and best practice. IUCN is not an organ of UN. This
eliminates other 3 options.

90
CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)
» About: An international legally binding agreement between governments to ensure that
international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of
the species.
» Genesis: Drafted in
1963 following an IUCN
resolution, it came into
force in 1975.
» Parties: 184 (including
India)
» CITES Appendices:
Contains lists of
species afforded
different levels or types
of protection from
over-exploitation.

2015

Question: What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the Inter Government Panel on Climate Change.
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Answer A

Source:
https://sustainabledevelopment.un.org/rio20

Explanation:
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development - or Rio+20 - took place in Rio de
Janeiro, Brazil on 20-22 June 2012. It resulted in a focused political outcome document which
contains clear and practical measures for implementing sustainable development.
Important due to intense negotiations on climate change and frequent news item about Paris
Summit in coming December

91
2015

Question: With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific
forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable
forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation +)’ efforts by
providing them which financial and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
https://www.forestcarbonpartnership.org/

Explanation:
The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil
society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries
The four strategic objectives of the FCPF:
» To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with financial and technical
assistance in building their capacity to benefit from possible future systems of positive
incentives for REDD+.
» To pilot a performance-based payment system for REDD+ activities, with a view to ensuring
equitable benefit sharing and promoting future large-scale positive incentives for REDD+.
» Within the approach to REDD+, to test ways to sustain or enhance livelihoods of local communities
and to conserve biodiversity.
» To disseminate broadly the knowledge gained in the development of the Facility and the
implementation of Readiness Preparation Proposals (RPPs) and Emission Reductions Programs
(ERPs).
FCPF grants fund to developing countries but not to to universities, individual scientists and
institutions.

92
2015

Question: With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://www.birdlife.org/
The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term “biodiversity hotspot” in 1988 in news,
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/openbilled-storks-flock-to-raiganj/article6747797.
ece http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/angry-birds-in-a-real-battle/
article7159361.ece

Explanation:
BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to
conserve birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability
in the use of natural resources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
BirdLife International was founded in 1922 as the International Council for Bird Protection.
» The group was renamed International Committee for Bird Preservation in 1928, International
Council for Bird Preservation in 1960, and BirdLife International in 1993.
It publishes a quarterly magazine, World Birdwatch, which contains recent news and
authoritative articles about birds, their habitats, and their conservation around the world.
It is the official scientific source of information on birds for the IUCN Red List.
It also published important bird areas (IBA) inventory. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The concept of biodiversity hotspots was developed by the British ecologist Norman Myers in
1988 when he identified that the tropical forest was losing its plant species as well as habitat.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.

93
2016

Question: With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in
2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global
temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2oC or even 1.50C above pre-industrial
levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and
committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with
climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/cop-21-historic-paris-climate-pact-adopted/
article7981450.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138511

Explanation:
21st Conference of Parties (COP21) also known as Paris Agreement successfully concluded in Paris
under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The agreement
is scheduled to go into effect from 2020. (Statement 1 is not correct).
One of the main focus of the agreement is to hold the increase in the global average temperature
to well below 2°C above pre- industrial level and on driving efforts to limit it even further to 1.5°C. It
covers all the crucial areas identified as essential for a comprehensive and balanced agreement,
including mitigation, adaptation, loss and damage, finance, technology development and
transfer, capacity building and transparency of action and support. A marked departure from the
past is the Agreement’s bottom-up approach, allowing each nation to submit its own national
plan for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, rather than trying to repeat a top-down approach
advocated by the Kyoto Protocol, giving each country an emission reduction target.
Staement 3 is not correct.

94
UNFCCC
Conference of Parties (COP)

Supreme decision-making body of UNFCCC Meets in Bonn, the Secretariat (unless a Party offers to
host the session)
Meets every year (unless the Parties decide
First COP-held in Berlin, Germany (1995)
otherwise)

COPs and Their Major Outcomes

COP 3 (1997) COP 7 (2001) COP 8 (2002) COP 13 (2007)

Kyoto, Japan Marrakech, Morocco New Delhi, India Bali, Indonesia

Adopted Kyoto Protocol Marrakech Accords Delhi Declaration Bali Road Map and
(legally binded developed signed (set stage for (development needs Bali action plan
countries to reduce emission ratification of Kyoto of the poorest
targets) Protocol) countries)

COP 19 (2013) COP 18 (2012) COP 16 (2010) COP 15 (2009)

Warsaw, Poland Doha, Qatar Cancun, Mexico Copenhagen, Denmark

Warsaw Framework for Doha Amendment to Kyoto Cancun Agreements Developed countries
REDD Plus Protocol (reducing GHG (assist developing nations pledged up to $30 billion in
Warsaw International emissions by 18% compared in dealing with Climate fast-start finance (for
Mechanism for Loss and to 1990 levels) Change) 2010-12
Damage Estd: Green Climate Fund

COP 21 (2015) COP 26 (2021)

Paris, France Glasgow, UK

Paris Agreement (global temp. well below India announced Net Zero Targets 2070
2°C above pre-industrial times) India called for "phase-down" of coal-based power
Climate finance by rich countries Glasgow Breakthrough Agenda (by 41 countries + India)
(yearly $100bn funding pledge)

COP 28 (2023) COP 27 (2022)

Dubai, UAE Sharm-el-Sheikh, Egypt
USD 700 mn pledged by UAE, Germany, UK, EU, & Japan Loss & Damage Fund
for the Loss & Damage Fund USD 3.1bn plan for early warning systems
Phase out fossil fuels to achieve net zero by 2050 G7-led 'Global Shield Financing Facility'
Reach 11,000 GW of RE by 2030 for countries suffering climate disasters
66 nations to cut cooling emissions by 68% by 2050 African Carbon Market Initiative
Triple global nuclear energy capacity by 2050 Action for Water Adaptation and
Resilience (AWARE) initiative
India led Initiatives at COP 28:
Mangrove Alliance (in partnership with India)
Green Credit Initiative: Issues credits for eco- friendly
actions like planting on degraded lands India's Long-Term Low Emission Development
Strategy
LeadIT 2.0: Supports fair industry transitions & low-carbon
technology
Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA): Promotes sustainable
river development & best practice sharing COP 29
to be held in
Quad Climate Working Group (QCWG): Enhances local &
Baku, Azerbaijan
regional sustainability efforts
in November,
2024

95
2016

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called
the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/un-officially-adopts-ambitious-new-set-of-
global-goals/article7689726.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136880

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global think tank is a global think tank which
in its 1972 book “Limits to Growth” talked about sustanibility; however they didn’t propose
Sustainable Development Goals. As per the resolution of UN General Assembly in September,
2015 the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been adopted by 193 member nations.
Statement 2 is correct: These developmental schemes are mostly addressing the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) which are targeted to be achieved by 2030.

The History of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

Brundtland Commission
» In 1983, the United Nations created the World Commission on Environment and Development,
later known as the Brundtland Commission. It defined sustainable development as “meeting
the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet
their own needs“.

96
UNCED or Earth Summit 1992, Rio De Janeiro Brazil
» The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is popularly
known as Earth Summit 1992. It raised public awareness of the need to integrate environment
& (sustainable) development.
Significance of Earth Summit 1992
» The Earth Summit 1992 resulted in the following documents:
■ Rio Declaration: Principles intended to guide countries in future sustainable development.
■ Agenda 21: Non-binding action plan of the United Nations regarding sustainable
development.
■ Forest Principles: Non-legally binding document on the Conservation and Sustainable
Development of all types of forests.
UN Agenda 21
» Agenda 21 (an agenda for the 21st century) is a non-binding action plan of the UN related to
sustainable development. It aims to achieve global sustainable development.
Post UNCED
» As a follow-up to UNCED, the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio+10) was held
in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa. In 2012, the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development (Rio+20/Rio Earth Summit 2012) was also held in Rio, Brazil.
Rio+10 (2002) or Earth Summit 2002
» Rio+10 affirmed the UN commitment to Agenda 21, alongside the Millennium Development
Goals (MDGs). The ensuing Johannesburg Declaration committed the nations of the world
towards sustainable development.
Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) by 2015
» MGDs had been established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. The
SDGs replaced the MDGs (eight development goals for 2015) in 2016.
Millennium Development Goals aimed to:
» Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
» Achieve universal primary education.
» Promote gender equality and empower women.
» Reduce child mortality.
» Improve maternal health.
» Combat HIV/aids, malaria, and other diseases.
» Ensure environmental sustainability.
» Develop a global partnership for development.

97
Rio+20 (2012) or Earth Summit 2012
» Rio+20 was a 20-year follow-up to the Earth Summit 1992 and a 10-year follow-up to the Earth
Summit 2002. It is also known as Rio 2012 or Earth Summit 2012. The Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) were born at Rio+20. Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in
the Agenda 2030.
Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE)
» PAGE, launched in 2013, is a direct response to the Rio+20 Declaration, The Future We Want. It
seeks to assist countries in achieving SDG (2030 Agenda), especially SDG 8: “Promote sustained,
inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment.”

1 NO
POVERTY 2 ZERO
HUNGER 3 GOOD HEALTH
AND WELL-BEING 4 QUALIATION
EDUCATION 5 GENDER
EQUALITY

6
CLEAN WATER
AND SANITATION 7 AFFORDABLE AND
CLEAN ENERGY 8 DECENT WORK
AND ECONOMIC
GROWTH
9 INDUSTRY,
INNOVATION AND
INFRASTRUCTURE
10 REDUCED
INEQUALITIES

11 SUSTAINABLE
CITIES AND
COMMUNITIES
12 RESPONSIBLE
CONSUMPTION
AND
PRODUCTION

13 CLIMATE
ACTION 14 LIFE BELOW
WATER 15 LIFE
ON LAND 16 PEACE AND
JUSTICE STRONG
INSTITUTIONS
17 PARTNERSHIPS
FOR THE GOALS

98
2016

Question: The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news
in the context of
(a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected
Middle East
(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
(c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development
Goals

Answer B

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sets-ambitious-goals-to-tackle-climate-
change/article7715679.ece
Economic survey
http://unfccc.int/focus/indc_portal/items/8766.php
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/here-are-indias-indc-objectives-and-
how-much-it-will-cost/

Explanation:
Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a term used under the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions
that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United
Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015
The INDCs, which lay out the blueprint for tackling climate change, emphasised eight key goals
— sustainable lifestyles, cleaner economic development, reducing emission intensity of GDP,
increasing the share of non-fossil fuel based electricity, enhancing carbon sink, adaptation and
mobilising finance, technology transfer and capacity building.

99
2016

Question: What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Convention to Combat

Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive
international partnerships
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat
facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in
combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=39572
http://www.unccd.int/en/about-the-convention/Pages/About-the-Convention.aspx
http://www.unesco.org/mab/doc/ekocd/chapter14.html

Explanation:
Desertification, along with climate change and the loss of biodiversity, were identified as the
greatest challenges to sustainable development during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. Established
in 1994, UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and
development to sustainable land management.
The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as
the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
The Convention’s 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people in drylands,
to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the effects of drought.
The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation
of local people in combating desertification and land degradation.
The UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between developed and developing countries,
particularly around knowledge and technology transfer for sustainable land management.

100
2016

Question: Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in the news Their origin
1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanisms : Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are corectly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
Economic survey (2015-16) Vol 2 pg. 187
http://unfccc.int/kyoto_protocol/mechanisms/clean_development_mechanism/items/2718.php

Explanation:
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), created multilaterally under the UNFCCC is one of
the mitigation instruments under the Kyoto Protocol.
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), defined in Article 12 of the Protocol, allows a country
with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex
B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries. Such projects can
earn saleable certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2,
which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets.
Annex-I countries are parties to Kyoto protocol.

101
2016

Question: With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
(TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture
the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/books/literary-review/review-of-green-signals-ecology-growth-and-
democracy-in-india/article7407556.ece
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/how-green-is-my-balance-sheet/article8447419.
ece

Explanation:
The initiative on ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity’ (TEEB) is an important partner
in implementing the CBD programme of work on incentive measures, and in particular its work
on valuation. This major international initiative, funded by the European Commission, Germany,
United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and Sweden, and managed by the United Nations
Environment Programme as part of its Green Economy Initiative (GEI), seeks to draw attention to
the global economic benefits of biodiversity, to highlight the growing costs of biodiversity loss and
ecosystem degradation, and to draw together expertise from the fields of science, economics
and policy to enable practical actions moving forward.
Members of the TEEB Advisory Board include the Executive Director of UNEP, the Executive Secretary
of the CBD and the Director General of IUCN, amongst others.

102
2016

Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute
to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/wondering-whats-cop21-adp-heres-a-glossary-
for-un-climate-talks/article7929948.ece
http://www.unep.org/climatechange/reddplus/Introduction/tabid/29525/Default.aspx
http://theredddesk.org/what-redd

Explanation:
Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD) attempts to create
financial value for the carbon stored in forests, offering incentives for developing countries to
reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development.
REDD+ goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation, and includes the role of conservation,
sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
It is predicted that financial flows for greenhouse gas emission reductions from REDD+ could
reach up to US$30 billion a year. This significant north-south flow of funds could reward a
meaningful reduction of carbon emissions and support new, pro-poor development, help
conserve biodiversity and secure vital ecosystem services.

103
2016

Question: With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer A

Source:
http://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/jess101.pdf
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/the-unfinished-agenda-of-the-21st-century/
article6975352.ece
http://www.un.org/geninfo/bp/enviro.html

Explanation:
Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard
to sustainable development. It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment
and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.

104
2017

Question: Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and
Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the
conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Source:
http://www.traffic.org/traffic-programme

Explanation:
TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, is the leading non-governmental organization
working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation
and sustainable development. Hence statement 2 is correct.
TRAFFIC was established in 1976 by IUCN and WWF to respond to the growing threats posed by
illegal wildlife trade and overexploitation. It is not a bureau under UNEP. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom
TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
TRAFFIC operates as a Programme Division of WWF-India, based in New Delhi since 1991.

Motivation:
Recent issues of wildlife poaching and organisations related.

105
2017

Question: With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations Programme working towards
a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially
and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributed to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty
and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer B

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-elected-president-of-un-habitat/article18413884.
ece
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/Making-cities-inclusive/article16079545.ece https://
unhabitat.org/about-us/un-habitat-at-a-glance/

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: UN-Habitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better
urban future. Its mission is to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human
settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: It partners with a range of organizations in its endevaour. For example,
governments, local authorities, NGOs, Trade unions, professionals, Academics and Researchers,
Human Solidarity Groups, Indigenous People, Private Sector, Foundations, Financial Institutions.
Statement 3 is correct: In the absence of effective urban planning, the consequences of this
rapid urbanization can lead to lack of proper housing and growth of slums, inadequate and out-
dated infrastructure – be it roads, public transport, water, sanitation, or electricity – escalating
poverty and unemployment, safety and crime problems, pollution and health issues. UN-Habitat
contributes to the overall objective of a sustainable urbanization.”

106
Motivation:
It was in news due to two factors: 1. In October 2016, at the UN Conference on Housing and Sustainable
Urban Development – Habitat III – member states signed the New Urban Agenda. This conference
happens once in 20 years. 2. In May 2017, India was elected as the president of the UN-Habitat. On
behalf of India, Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation Minister will preside over the meetings of UN-
Habitat.

2018

Question: How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive
order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher
courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the
quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Explanation:

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that was established in 2010 by the
National Green Tribunal Act.
» It was set up to handle cases and speed up the cases related to environmental issues.
» The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
» The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy
environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
» The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of filing the same. Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of
sittings and will follow circuit procedure for making itself more accessible. New Delhi is the
Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the
other 4 places of sitting of the Tribunal.

107
» NGT adjudicates matters relating to following Acts:
■ Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
■ Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
■ Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
■ Biological Diversity Act, 2002
■ Forest Conservation Act, 1980
■ The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in
September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB
was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1981. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
» It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment
and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
» Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
■ to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention,
control and abatement of water pollution, and
■ to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
Hence statement 2 is correct.

Source:
http://envfor.nic.in/rules-regulations/national-green-tribunal-ngt
http://cpcb.nic.in/Introduction/

Motivation:
NGT and CPCB were in news throughout the year due to various reasons.

108
2018

Question: With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially
presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in
2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food
Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
They have been established based on bottom-up, inclusive, independent and voluntary
processes, with specific objectives, functioning and institutional setting. The emergence of CSA
alliances and platforms worldwide is a positive and strong signal to the international community
on the willingness of all stakeholders, at various levels of action, to tackle the climate challenges
in the agricultural sectors, based on joint efforts and context-specific approaches. India (only a
signatory) was not involved in the creation of it. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is
not correct

Timely CA mechanization Site-specific Need sufficient Resilience with Integrated Pest Agroforestry &
planting (eg direct seeder) Extension fertilization stress-tolerant seeds & Weed green cover crops:
address labor systern (chemical & Management increasing biomass
shortage organic) & soil fertility
Crop variety choice
e.g. rought-Tolerant
Maize

Legume
intercropping

109
Source:
http://sdg.iisd.org/news/gacsa-annual-forum-focuses-on-collective-action-for-climate-smart-
agriculture/
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-smart-agriculture-proposed-at-cop-raises-many-
concerns-56358

Motivation:
GACSA Annual Forum Focuses on Collective Action for Climate-Smart Agriculture- 21 December
2017: Participants at the Second Annual Forum of the Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture
(GACSA) discussed how multi-stakeholder efforts can promote the implementation of climate-
smart agriculture (CSA) practices and systems that address the implications of climate change in
diverse ago-ecological regions.

2018

Question: The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries
transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer B

Explanation:
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to
the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive
growth trajectories.
PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance
the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions in reframing
economic policies and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income
and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their
economies.
PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN
Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training
and Research – whose mandates, expertises and networks combined can offer integrated and
holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding
duplication. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

110
2021

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international
waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
The Global Ocean Commission was an international initiative between 2013 and 2016 to raise
awareness, and promote action to address, the degradation of the ocean and help restore it to
full health and productivity. Licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters
are granted by International Seabed Authority (ISA). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
India has been exploring deep sea for minerals since 1981. in 2017, India’s exclusive rights to explore
polymetallic nodules from seabed in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by
five years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The deep seabed contains two potential sources for rare earth elements: polymetallic nodules
which typically contain manganese, nickel, copper, cobalt and rare earth minerals; and sea-
floor hydrothermal vents which pump out rare-earth elements dissolved in their hot fluids. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

Source:
https://www.firstpost.com/india/explained-india-launches-deep-ocean-mission-what-is-seabed-
mining-and-its-challenges-9789581.html

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/why-is-india-pulled-to-deep-sea-mining/
article28809029.ece

Motivation:
Recently india has launched Deep Ocean Mission.

111
2022

Question: In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements :
1. The 24-hour mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not
exceed 5 µg/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: According to the guidelines, The annual average for PM2.5 should not
exceed 5 micrograms per cubic metre of air, while the 24-hour average should not exceed 15
micrograms per cubic metre.
Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone at ground level is one of the major constituents of photochemical
smog. It is formed by the reaction with sunlight (photochemical reaction) of pollutants such
as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and industry emissions and volatile organic compounds
(VOCs) emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a result, the highest levels of ozone pollution
occur during periods of sunny weather. (Inclement weather is unpleasant, especially with cold
wind and rain.)
Statement 3 is not correct: While particles with a diameter of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can
penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the even more health-damaging particles are those
with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5). PM2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
the blood system.
Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It
can cause breathing problems, trigger asthma, reduce lung function and cause lung diseases.”

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/who-tightens-global-air-quality-norms/
article36617490.ece

112
Motivation:
The World Health Organisation (WHO) in its first-ever update since 2005 tightened global air
pollution standards in Sep, 2021

Elimination technique
Fomation of ground level ozone may require sunlight and inclemet weather with heavy rains may not
be a suitable condition for its formation. Thus option 2 can be eliminated.

In Mains 2021 UPSC asked the following question on the exact same theme
Q. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently
released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its
last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are
required to achieve revised standards?

2023

Question: Invasive species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database)
belongs to which one of the following organizations?
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development.
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer A

Explanation:
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on
invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

113
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2022/Oct/02/tamil-nadu-coral-reefs-in-
chokehold-of-exotic-seaweed-2504390.html
http://www.iucngisd.org/gisd/about.php

Motivation:
The Invasive Species Specialist Group of IUCN had described the exotic sea weed Kappaphycus
as “destructive invasive species and poses a serious danger to the coral reefs”. This sea weed was
cultivated in Tamil Naidu

2021

Question: ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
(a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
(b) ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar
Convention
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands.
(d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer A

Source:
https://www.trustcobalt.com/articles/what-is-r2-certification-and-why-is-it-important/

Explanation:
R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics
recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). Hence, option (a) is
the correct answer.
SERI is the housing body and ANSI-accredited Standards Development Organization for the R2
Standard: Responsible Recycling Practices for Use in Accredited Certifications Programs.
Stakeholders who contributed to the creation of these standards include the U.S. Environmental
Protection Agency (the EPA was responsible for a study of the implementation of the R2 standards);
regulators from state agencies; electronics recyclers, refurbishers, and their trade associations;
OEMs/customers of electronics recycling services; and non-governmental organizations.

114
Motivation:
Recently SERI (Sustainable Electronics Recycling International), Minnesota, has launched the latest
R2 Standard for electronics reuse and recycling, R2v3

2021

Question: Consider the following statements:

Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently
recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and
maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for
Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation
for Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer D

Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/hyderabad-a-tree-city-of-the-world/
article33874032.ece

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: Hyderabad is the only city from India to
have been recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban
forests.

115
2023

Question: Consider the following statement :

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for
international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The Objectives and commitments sated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and
commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

Explanation:
“The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the first intergovernmental
agreement, adopted under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions
of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. It was adopted at an
intergovernmental conference on migration in Marrakesh, Morocco, on 10 December 2018. At
the ceremony to adopt the text on 10 December, only 163 countries formally adopted it. Further,
countries like Austria were critical of it and refrained to adopt it in 2018. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a common approach
to international migration in all its dimensions. The global compact is non-legally binding. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
The Global Compact enumerates 23 objectives for State action, bolstered by specific commitments,
that seek to address challenges related to today’s migration. The GCM commitments and
actions can be seen as a guide for States to meet their human rights obligations when designing
migration governance measures to reduce the risks and vulnerabilities migrants face at different
stages of migration and to create conducive conditions that empower all migrants to become
active members of society. Key commitments include:
» Strengthening evidence-based and human rights-based policy-making and public discourse
on migration;
» Minimizing the adverse drivers of migration, including combatting poverty and discrimination
and addressing climate and disaster-related displacement;
» Ensuring migrants’ rights to information and to a legal identity;
» Expanding and diversifying availability of pathways for safe, orderly and regular migration,
taking into account the particular needs of migrants in situations of vulnerability;

116
» Protecting the right to decent work and other labour rights for migrants;
» Addressing and reducing vulnerabilities and human rights violations in the context of migration;
» Protecting the right to life in the context of migration;
» Combatting smuggling and trafficking while protecting the human rights of those who have
been smuggled or trafficked;
» Respecting human rights at borders and conducting human rights-based and individualized
screening, assessment and referral of migrants;
» Protecting the right to liberty and freedom from arbitrary detention, including by prioritizing
alternatives to immigration detention;
» Ensuring migrants’ rights to access basic services, including health, education, and social
support, without discrimination;
» Eliminating discrimination and combatting hate speech and xenophobia;
» Upholding the prohibitions of collective expulsion and refoulement for all migrants, ensuring
that returns are safe and dignified and reintegration is sustainable. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

117
Laws
& Policies

2015

Question: Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct ?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to
counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer A

Source:
Economic Survey

Explanation:
The Fund is governed by the GCF Board. GCF is currently structured into two themes—mitigation
and adaptation.
GCF is a fund within the framework of UNFCCC. GCF is an important Financial mechanism for
combating Climate Change

118
2015

Question: BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank

Answer D

Explanation:
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund,
supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. Hence option (d) is the
correct answer.
It promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, including efforts to reduce
deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), sustainable agriculture,
as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.

2015

Question: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer C

Source:
http://envfor.nic.in/major-initiatives/geac-clearances

Explanation:
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the
Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage
of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the
Environment Protection Act, 1986. GEAC has been frequently in news since last few years

119
2015

Question: With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets in initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released
into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/biotoilets-for-all-trains-in-5-years/
article7038628.ece

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as it is Anaerobic microbial inoculum. Statement 2 is incorrect as Bio
Digester disposes human waste in 100% eco-friendly manner and generates color less, odorless
water and inflammable Methane- Gas for cooking, water heating & room heating etc. as a by
product.

120
2016

Question: On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/features/homes-and-gardens/conserving-power-holds-key-to-
future/article8625361.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=137917
https://beeindia.gov.in/content/star-labelled-appliances

Explanation:
The Bureau initiated the Standards & Labeling programme for equipment and appliances in
2006to provide the consumer an informed choice about the energy saving and thereby the cost
saving potential of the relevant marketed product. The scheme is invoked for 21 equipment/
appliances, i.e. Room Air Conditioners, Tubular Fluorescent Tube Lights, Frost Free Refrigerators,
Distribution Transformers, Induction Motors, Direct Cool Refrigerator, electric storage type geyser,
Ceiling fans, Color TVs, Agricultural pump sets, LPG stoves, Washing machine, Laptops, ballast,
floor standing ACs, office automation products, Diesel Generating sets & Diesel pumpsets.

121
2016

Question: Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the
Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby
implementing the ‘green accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food
security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of
adaptation and mitigation measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=128649
http://www.envfor.nic.in/major-initiatives/national-mission-green-india-gi

Explanation:
The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National
Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It aims at protecting; restoring and enhancing India’s
diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and
mitigation measures.
It envisages a holistic view of greening and focuses on multiple ecosystem services, especially,
biodiversity, water, biomass, preserving mangroves, wetlands, critical habitats etc. along with
carbon sequestration as a co-benefit.
Statements 1 and 2 are not the aims of Green India Mission.

122
2016

Question: Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the
news, are related to
(a) constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) linking of rivers
(d) protection of Western Ghats

Answer D

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/fighting-over-the-western-ghats/
article7490293.ece

Explanation:
The Kasturirangan panel was set up to study the Gadgil committee report on the Western Ghats.
The Kasturirangan report seeks to bring just 37% of the Western Ghats under the Ecologically
Sensitive Area (ESA) zones — down from the 64% suggested by the Gadgil report.
Recommended prohibition on development and commercial activities like mining, thermal power
plants, polluting industries and large housing plans in Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) zones.

2017

Question: The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways

Answer B

123
Explanation:
Monitoring System for Tigers: Intensive Protection and Ecological Status (M-STrIPES) is a
software monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger reserves
to reduce vulnerability of Tigers. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
The MSTrIPES program uses Global Positioning System (GPS), General Packet Radio Services
(GPRS), and remote sensing, to collect information from the field, create a database using modern
Information Technology (IT) based tools, analyses the information using GIS and statistical tools
to provide inferences that allow tiger reserve managers to better manage their wildlife resources.

Source:
http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2017/feb/08/m-stripes-to-monitor-str-from-
april-1568257.html
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/mobile-app-to-monitor-tiger-reserves-
launched/articleshow/56896945.cms

Motivation:
Official launch of M-STrIPES (Monitoring System For Tigers-Intensive Protection and Ecological
Status) software-enabled mobile app at Corbett Tiger Reserve.

124
Tiger Census 2022 The tiger population in India
grew by 200 from 2018 to
2022, according to the ﬁfth
cycle of the All India Tiger
ONCE Estimation (2022) released
4YR
The national tiger
EVERY census is conducted recently.
once every four years

The National Tiger Conservation

Authority (NTCA) conducts tiger
censuses in partnership with state
75%
forest departments, conservation India hosts some 75% of the
NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India global tiger population living
(WII). in forests

The Nationwide tiger census

was earlier held in
Key ﬁndings of All India 2006, 2010, 2014, & 2018.
Tiger Estimation (2022):

The tiger population Shivalik: the number Although the tiger

in India grew by 200 of tigers has populations in the
from 2018 to 2022 increased to 804 Periyar landscape
from 646 in 2018. remained stable, 3,080 tigers were
the tiger occupancy photographed in
The tiger population
has declined 2022, compared with
has grown the most Northeastern
outside Periyar. 2,461 captured on
in the Shivalik hills landscape:
camera in 2018
and Gangetic ﬂood increased to 219
plains, followed by from 194 in 2018
central India, the
northeastern hills, Decline in tiger
plains, and the occupancy was
Number of tigers also observed However, most tiger
Sundarbans. in India:
outside the reserves in India are
increased to
protected areas like “tiny islands of
3,167, a rise of
Western Ghat: it 6.74% from 2,967 of the Anamalai- conservation” and
showed a signiﬁcant in 2018. Sunderbans: Parambikulam unsustainable land
decline in numbers, increased to complex. use outside the
from 981 in 2018 to 100 from 88 protected zones
824 in 2022 in 2018 could lead to
localised extinction
The local tiger population Tiger occupancy in in some parts of
has become extinct in Central Indian Jharkhand, Odisha, central India.
several areas including Sri landscape: Chhattisgarh and
Venkateswara National Park, increased to Telangana showed
Tiger Reserves like Kawal, 1,161 from 1,033 a decline.
Satkosia, and Sahyadri. in 2018.

125
2017

Question: In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and not it is
impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer A

Source:
NCERT: Contemporary India - II , Chapter -2 Forest and Wildlife Resources.

Explanation:
The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants; and for matters connected
therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It extends to the whole of India, except the State of
Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act.
It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.
Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection - offences under these are
prescribed the highest penalties.
Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower.
Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.

Motivation:
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is often seen in the news.

126
2017

Question: According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be
hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:

Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus
bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Species listed
under Schedule I can not be hunted. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Indian Wild Ass GHUDKHUR, khur, Indian onager, GHOR KHUR

GEOGRAPHIC RANGE: mainly in Gujarat in the Indian Wild Ass
(Equus hemionus khur) Sanctuary in the Little Rann of Kutch. also in Greater Rann of Kutch
and bordering districts in Rajasthan

Population
4,800 Run
70-80 kmph is the speed it can reach. One of the fastest Indian mammals.
HERD
• Group size varies widely through the year
HABITAT: hot and • Family groups consist of breeding females, foals, yearlings and sub-adult males
arid environmwent, • Stallions are either solitary or live in small male groups
saline desert, arid • Dominant males defend territories throughout the year
grasslands and WATER
shrub land
• Need to drink water at least once a day
• Proximity to water determines how wild asses use their landscape
EAT Grass, BABIES
Prosopis pods, • Mares give birth to one foal who is weaned at 1-2 years
Leaves, Fruits, • The female-foal bond is the strongest in the group
Saline
vegetation like PROTECTION STATUS: NEAR THREATENED ON THE IUCN RED LIST
morud (Suaeda THREATS - Proliferation of the invasive and alien plant Pr osopis juliﬂora that alters
fruticosa) native habitat
• Roads and infrastructure projects
• Susceptibility to diseases

127
(BUBALUS ARNEE) ASIATIC WILD BUFFALO or

WILD WATER BUFFALO

Among the largest members
of the cattle family-second
only to gaur (Bos gaurus)

THOUGHT TO BE THE
ANCESTOR OF THE WATER
BUFFALO

CAN WEIGH BETWEEN

800-1200 KG

CLASSIFIED AS
"ENDANGERED" IN THE IUCN
RED LIST

ONLY 3,400 LEFT, OF Kaziranga National Park A small, isolated Is a grazer, preferring
and Manas National Park population alluvial grasslands,
WHICH 3,100 ARE IN INDIA
exists in central and feeds mainly on
in Assam are the best India, but status grasses and sedges
places to see them is unknown

Main threats are

interbreeding with Assam Forest Department, Herds are mostly Most commonly
domestic cousins, loss Wildlife Trust of India, and 20-30 individuals preyed upon by
of habitat, and Nepal's Depart-ment of National but can tigers. Calves
transmission of Parks and Wildlife Conservation sometimes go up are particularly
diseases from domestic are all working to conserve the to 100 vulnerable
livestock wild water buffalo.

Source:
NCERT: Contemporary India - II , Chapter -2 Forest and Wildlife Resources.
http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1.pdf

Motivation:
The questions aim to test general awareness on endangered species.

128
2018

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of ”Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Bangas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares
Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes
and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is correct: In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities
living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh, for the first time, recognised the habitat
rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.
Statement 3 is not correct: Under the act the District Level Committee shall ensure that all Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups receive habitat rights, in consultation with the concerned traditional
institutions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups and their claims for habitat rights are filed before
the concerned Gram Sabhas.”

Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=69806
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/baiga-tribals-become-india-s-first-community-to-get-
habitat-rights-52452” EN “Critical Wildlife Habitat guidelines were issued
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/critical-wildlife-habitat-guidelines-issued-ntca-order-
superseded-59934

Elimination technique
Rights of forest tribes and other traditional forest dwellers are granted under FRA 2006 which is
under Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Hence option 3 may be eliminated

129
2019

Question: In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in

which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011”

Answer C

Explanation:
“Extended producer’s responsibility (EPR) is the main feature of the E-waste (Management
and Handling) Rules, 2011, wherein the producer of electrical and electronic equipment has the
responsibility of managing such equipment after its ‘end of life’, thus the producer is responsible for
their products once the consumer discards them.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-about-e-waste/
article24193081.ece
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/report-on-e-waste-management-places-5-
companies-in-the-red-63317””

Motivation:
The term EPR is frequently seen in news.

Elimination technique
UPSC has attempted to confuse students as the concept of EPR was also introduced in the Plastic
Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2016.
However, option(b) mentions The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999.
Therefore the correct answer is E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, in which Extended
producer’s responsibility (EPR) was also the main feature.”

130
2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and
the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various
sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Source:
“http://extwprlegs1.fao.org/docs/pdf/ind4656.pdf

Motivation:
The-Environment-Protection-Act-1986 is frequently seen in news.

2019

Question: As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial
townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills
and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district
cannot be moved to another district.”

Answer C
131
Explanation:
The SWM Rules 2016 provide for detailed criteria for setting up solid waste processing and treatment
facility, solid waste management in hilly areas, for waste to energy process, for Sanitary Landfills,for site
selection, development of facilities at the sanitary landfills, specifications for land filling operations
and closure on completion of landfilling, pollution prevention, Closure and Rehabilitation of Old
Dumps etc.

Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138591

Motivation:
For major Acts and Rules, it is expected to know the associated detailed guidelines and how they
have been an improvement over previous rules.

2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect
and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of
India based on the recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area
or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Article 4 of the Ramsar Convention states that “Each Contracting Party
shall promote the conservation of wetlands and waterfowl by establishing nature reserves on
wetlands, whether they are included in the List or not, and provide adequately for their wandering.”

132
It is not mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands
in the territory of India.
Statement 2 is not correct: Article 3 of the Ramsar Convention states that “The Contracting Parties
shall formulate and implement their planning so as to promote the conservation of the wetlands
included in the List, and as far as possible the wise use of wetlands in their territory.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, a “wetland”
means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary,
with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the
depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes,
reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of
direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands
as determined by the authority.

Source:
https://www.ramsar.org/sites/default/files/documents/library/scan_certified_e.pdf

2020

Question: If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,
1972, what is the implication?
(a) A license is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
(c) It is Genetically Modified crop plant.
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Answer A

*Explanation: (Please note that the said Act has now been amended. This explanation is according
to the previous Act.)

Option (a) is the correct answer: There are six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting. The
Enforcement authorities have the power to compound offences under this Schedule (i.e. they
impose fines on the offenders).
The wildlife Protection Act defines “”specified plant”” as any plant specified in Schedule VI.
It further states that “”Cultivation of specified plants without license prohibited. - (1) no person shall
cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a license granted by the Chief
Wildlife Warden or any other officer authorized by the State Government in this behalf; 2) Every
license granted under this section shall specify the area in which and the conditions, if any, subject
to which the licensee shall cultivate a specified plant.”

133
Source:
“THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972
http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/A1972-53_0.pdf”

Motivation:
Frequently seen in news. It is also the only schedule which includes plants under the Wildlife Protection
Act. However now the act has been amended.

2020

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “”overexploited”” or “”critical”” by the Central Ground
Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer B

Explanation:
To effectively regulate the groundwater extraction, the Centre, following the NGT’s directions,
has divided areas with declining water tables in three categories: Overexploited, Critical,
Semi-critical.
Statement 1 is not correct: In India, extraction rate is of 70-100% of groundwater recharge. To
effectively regulate the groundwater extraction, the Centre has divided areas with declining water
tables in three categories: Overexploited, Critical, Semi-critical. These categories are together called
the OCS areas. Of the 6,584 groundwater units in India, 1,034 are ‘overexploited’; 253 are ‘critical’;
and 681 are ‘semi-critical’ – making up 1,968 OCS units in all. Around 80,000 industrial units run in
these OCS areas. Most of them are in the Delhi-NCR region.

134
Statement 2 is correct: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section
(3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control
of ground water development and management in the country.
Statement 3 is correct: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest
groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is
third). India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh are, respectively, the first, fourth and sixth largest users of
groundwater globally. India pumps more than the US and China combined - the second and third
largest users, respectively.

Source:
https://science.thewire.in/environment/india-groundwater-extraction-replenishment-ngt-cgwa-
industrial-growth-sustainability/
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/the-respect-she-deserves-water-
crisis-6236859/

Motivation:
Ground water and its related bodies are frequently asked by UPSC

2022

Question: Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act,
1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency

Answer C

Explanation:
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water
development and management in the country.

Source:
https://cgwa.mowr.gov.in/AboutUs.html

135
2022

Question: With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether
it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground
for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, states that all wild animals,
when captured, killed, or found dead, become the property of the State Government. However, this
does not mean that the government has the same rights as a private owner would have over
their property. The Act imposes a duty on the government to protect wildlife and its habitat, and it
restricts the trade, hunting, and exploitation of wild animals.
Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for
equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found. The WLPA prohibits people
from hunting wildlife, provides legal safeguards for different species based on their threat status,
regulates trade and commerce in wild species, imposes penalties for wildlife-related crimes and
specifies the terms to declare protected areas.
Statement 3 is not correct: Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased
or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority,
the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. This provision is applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule
I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which includes leopards. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild
animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing.

Elimination technique
Mere apprehension may not be a sufficient condition. In may be conisdered as dangerous if there
is human casuality. Hence option 3 may be eliminated.

136
2022

Question: Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of
their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research
studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer A

Explanation:

The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters or Polar Code is an international regime
adopted by the International Maritime Organization in 2014. The Code sets out regulations for
shipping in the polar regions, principally relating to ice navigation and ship design.

POLOR CODE LIMITATIONS Does not clearly state who is responsible

for making sure ships obtain polar ship
The WWF Arctic Programme is calling on Arctic certificates
nations to address gaps in the Polar Code to protect
Is neither strong enough nor clear
ships, crews, and the pristine waters that unique Arctic enough about the tools and data
ecosystems depend on. needed for safe navigation in
Right now, the Polar Code. polar waters

Allows ships
without ice-
strengthening to
operate in
first-year ice,
increasing the risk
Does not of accidents
address pollution
Does not apply to
fishing vessels,
including accident
prone smaller boats

Excludes a large area of

Does not address grey water the Arctic where there is
and underwater noise seasonal ice, putting
generated by ships ships at risk

137
Source:
https://www.imo.org/en/OurWork/Safety/Pages/polar-code.aspx
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-arctic-policy-climate-change-mineral-
resources-7825518/

Motivation:
India recently unveiled its Arctic policy.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements :

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management committees are key to the realization of the objectives
of Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management committees have important functions in determining access
and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological
resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body
in the State shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction
for the purpose of promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological
diversity including preservation of habitats, conservation of land races, folk varieties & cultivars,
domesticated stocks and breeds of animals and micro-organisms and chronicling of knowledge
relating to biological diversity.
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits
Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as the Nagoya
Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing is a 2010 supplementary agreement to the 1992 Convention
on Biological Diversity. It aims to share the benefits that arise from the utilization of genetic resources
fairly and equitably thus BMCs have important role to play in the implementation of the provisions
of the Nagoya Protocol.

138
Statement 2 is correct: The main function of the BMC is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Register
(PBR) in consultation with local people. The Register shall contain comprehensive information on
availability and knowledge of local biological resources, their medicinal or any other use or any
other traditional knowledge associated with them. The BMC may levy charges by way of collection
fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes
from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction.

Motivation:
Implementation of International conventions is an important theme.

2024

Question: Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore
aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer C

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Recently the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero industry Act to
bolster EU production in technologies needed for decarbonisation. The “”Net-Zero industry Act””
sets a target for Europe to produce 40% of its annual deployment needs in net-zero technologies
by 2030, based on National Energy and Climate Plans (NECPs) and to capture 15% of the global
market value for these technologies.
Statement II is not correct: The EU aims to be climate-neutral by 2050 – an economy with net-
zero greenhouse gas emissions.

139
140
Forests &
Forest Laws

2015

Question: Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest,
evergreen forest and deciduous forest ?
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer D

Explanation:
All three occur together in Andaman and Nicobar islands only.

Source:
http://www.and.nic.in/andaman/flora.php

141
2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists
at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried
out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer A

Explanation:
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 was enacted to manage the funds collected for
compensatory afforestation which till then was managed by ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA).
Compensatory afforestation means that every time forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes
such as mining or industry, the user agency pays for planting forests over an equal area of non-
forest land, or when such land is not available, twice the area of degraded forest land.
Statement 1 is correct: As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
Statement 2 is not correct: It does not provide for mandatory people participation in the
compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Act, 2016.”
The CAF Act was enacted to manage the funds collected for compensatory afforestation, driven
by the ad hoc CAMPA.
90% of the CAF money will be given to the states, while the Centre will retain 10%.
The funds can be used for:
» Treatment of catchment areas,
» Assisted natural generation,
» Forest management,
» Wildlife protection and management,
» Relocation of villages from protected areas,

142
» Managing human-wildlife conflicts,
» Training and awareness generation,
» Supply of wood-saving devices and allied activities.

Source:
“https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/green-fund-rules-notified-some-hits-major-
misses-61381
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-the-new-caf-rules-imply/
article24782006.ece
http://egazette.nic.in/WriteReadData/2018/188469.pdf
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=181889

Motivation:
The CAF Rules were recently published on August 10, 2018, paving the way for smooth implementation
and coming into force of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
A controversy regarding the same had emerged as rights of gram sabhas or Van Sanrakshan
Samitis (Village Forest Committees) had been restricted to mere ‘consultation’ and not ‘consent’.
However, the Act still mandates that consultation shall be taken up paving the way for people’s
participation in management of working plans in forest land.”

2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the
bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act,
2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B
143
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 exempts bamboo
grown in non-forest areas from definition of tree, thereby dispensing with the requirement of
felling/transit permit for its economic use.
Statement 2 is correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined under the Scheduled Tribes and
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, as all non-timber forest
produce of plant origin, and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey,
waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
Statement 3 is correct: The Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as inclusive of ‘Right of
ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which have traditionally
been collected within or outside village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and gram sabhas
having rights under this particular section of the Act will not only have the rights to use but also
rights of ownership over MFPs.”

Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/bamboo-now-a-minor-forest-produce-33239
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Minor_Forest_Produce_(MFP)

Motivation:
The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests has asked states to treat bamboo as a minor forest
produce (MFP).

2019

Question: Consider the following states:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total
area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer C
144
Explanation:
The percentage of forested area in 2017 by state as published by the Forest Survey of India in
ascending order is: Maharashtra (16.47%), Madhya Pradesh (25.11%), Odisha (32.98%), Chattisgarh
(41.09%). Hence option (c) is Correct answer.

Motivation:
The 16th India State of Forest Report 2019, besides providing regular information on forest resources
of the country, has also brought out findings of a few special studies which are important for the
policy makers, planners, forest managers, researchers and students.

145
India State of Forest Report 2021

State wise top losses

(area wise in sq km)
Categorization of surveyed forests

Canopy density of Forests

dense Forests >70% 235

Moderately Forests 40-70% Arunachal Pradesh
Open Forests 10-40% 235
Present state of forests 249 Nagaland

7,12,789 sq km 537 Manipur

Odisha
Overall forest cover of 632 647
the country Telangana Andhra 1,582 SQKM
Pradesh
7,204 mn tonnes
Decline in moderately
dense forests
Total Carbon Stock of State wise
the country forest cover 1,020 SQKM
Increase in last 2 yrs High % of Decline in Northeast
21.70% 1,540 SQKM forests
Mizoram,
Forest Cover

of forest cover as a Increase in forest cover

Arunachal
country’s geographical Pradesh & 35.46%
area
721 SQKM Meghalaya Area prone to
Increase in tree cover Forest fires

23.75% Highest Forest Area (sq Km-MP)

Share of Northeast states 79.4 mn tonnes Arunachal
Pradesh and
as a % of total forest cover Increase in total
carbon stock Chhattisgarh

146
2021

Question: With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements
are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5

Answer A

Explanation:
The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a political declaration calling for global action to
protect and restore forests. It offers a common, multi-stakeholder framework for forest action,
consolidating various initiatives and objectives that drive forest protection, restoration, and
sustainable use.
It is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration which grew out of dialogue among
governments, companies and civil society, spurred by the United Nations Secretary-General’s
Climate Summit held in New York in 2014. Hence statements 1 and 4 are correct while statement
3 is not correct.
The declaration includes ambitious targets to end natural forest loss by 2030, with a 50% reduction
by 2020 as a milestone toward its achievement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Declaration is currently endorsed by over 190 entities including more than 50 governments,
more than 50 of the world’s biggest companies, and more than 50 influential civil society and
indigenous organizations. It is not endorsed by India. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.

Motivation:
A study published in the journal
Nature Ecology and Evolution in 2020,
was reported in the news which
mentioned this declaration.

147
Climate
Change

Questions under the overarching topic of Climate Change include a range of topics such as those
from impact of Climate Change, Adaptation and Mitigation Conventions, Carbon Sequestration
technologies among others.

IMPACT OF CLIMATE CHANGE

2015

Question: Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the
use of ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol

Answer B

Explanation:
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna
Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect
the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for
ozone depletion.

Source:
NCERT http://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo116.pdf

148
Climate Change Conventions and International Initiatives

2017

Question: With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/
are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate
climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the
European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries,
in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).
Statement 2 is correct: Under the first pillar, the GCCA+ serves as a platform for dialogue and
exchange of experience between the EU and developing countries, focusing on climate policy
and bringing renewed attention to the issue of international climate finance. Under the second
pillar, the GCCA+ acts as a source of technical and financial support for the world’s most climate-
vulnerable countries, whose populations need climate finance the most.
Statement 3 is not correct: International organisations – notably the Centre for International
Forestry Research (CIFOR), the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), the United Nations
Capital Development Fund (UNCDF), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), UN Habitat and the World Bank – are involved
in the implementation of some GCCA-funded interventions, and also co-finance some initiatives.

Source:
https://climatefundsupdate.org/the-funds/global-climate-change-alliance/

Motivation:
To check about the Institutions related to climate change and climate change financing mechanism

149
2018

Question: Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer A

Explanation:
Rising levels of CO2 in the atmosphere drive an increase in plant photosynthesis—an effect known
as the carbon fertilization effect. Hence option (a) is correct answer.
It causes an increased rate of photosynthesis while limiting leaf transpiration in plants. Both
processes result from increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2). The carbon
fertilization effect varies depending on plant species, air and soil temperature, and availability of
water and nutrients.

Source:
http://environmentalresearchweb.org/cws/article/news/54347

Motivation:
Impact of climate change and increasing anthropogenic sources of carbon emissions is an often
discussed theme in the news.

150
2018

Question: “Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Answer C

Explanation:
The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the
secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate
Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://unfccc.int/climate-action/momentum-for-change/climate-neutral-now

Motivation:
India ratified the Paris Agreement to the UNFCCC in 2016. The action plan for implementation of the
Paris Agreement and its components is being developed.

2019

Question: Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D
151
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Methane hydrate (CH4•5.75H2O
or 4CH4•23H2O) is a solid clathrate compound in which
a large amount of methane is trapped within a crystal
structure of water, forming a solid similar to ice. Methane Gas
molecules
hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane
molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water
molecules. Methane hydrate is an “ice” that only occurs
naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and Water molecules 7.9

pressure conditions are favorable for its formation. Owing

to melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
Statement 2 is correct: Four Earth environments have the temperature and pressure conditions
suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrate. These are: 1) sediment and sedimentary
rock units below Arctic permafrost; 2) sedimentary deposits along continental margins; 3) deep-
water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and, 4) under Antarctic ice.
Statement 3 is correct: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of
methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide after a decade or so, mainly by reaction with
another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays
in the atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to reduce methane emissions would
have almost immediate results in terms of reduction of greenhouse effect.

Source:
https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/india-might-hold-world-s-
second-largest-gas-hydrate-reserves-118060501430_1.html
http://www.bbc.com/future/story/20181119-why-flammable-ice-could-be-the-future-of-energy
https://geology.com/articles/methane-hydrates/

Motivation:
IT Madras team produces gas hydrates under ‘space’ conditions.

152
CONVENTIONS

2021

Question: The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for
(a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
(b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
(d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit
time

Answer A

Explanation:
The Common Carbon Metric is the calculation used to define measurement, reporting, and
verification for GHG emissions associated with the operation of buildings types of particular
climate regions. It does not include value-based interpretation of the measurements such as
weightings or benchmarking. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
While it is not a building rating tool, it is consistent with methods for assessing the environmental
performance of buildings used globally.
The Common Carbon Metric is applied to the specific inventory of the buildings under study. Such
an inventory can be developed from a top-down or bottom-up approach, depending on the
scope and goal of the investigation.

Source:
https://wedocs.unep.org/
handle/20.500.11822/7922;jsessionid=9BC477336B8DDA4AC9DB1DE59033A231

Motivation:
A new initiatives in building energy efficiency launched by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

153
2022

Question: Climate Action Tracker, which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different
countries is a:
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer A

Explanation:
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate
action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming
well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.”
A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has
been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.
CAT quantifies and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies and action. It also
aggregates country action to the global level, determining likely temperature increases during
the 21st century using the MAGICC climate model.
MAGICC stands for ‘Model for the Assessment of Greenhouse Gas Induced Climate Change’. It
is a prime reduced-complexity model, often used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC), for key scientific publications and by a number of Integrated Assessment Models.
CAT tracks 39 countries and the EU covering around 85% of global emissions
CAT covers all the biggest emitters and a representative sample of smaller emitters covering
about 85% of global emissions and approximately 70% of global population. Hence option (a) is
the correct answer

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/explained-is-the-worlds-climate-
action-plan-on-track/article66070590.ece

Motivation:
The Climate Action Tracker classified india’s climate action as “highly insufficient.”

154
2022

Question: Consider the following statements :

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by
building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global
initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency
and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is a non-profit organisation that works with business and
government leaders around the world to address climate change. The group has programmes
focussing on renewable energy and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a global initiative led by the
international non-profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses
committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. The Climate Group’s
global EP100 initiative, delivered in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, brings together
leading companies improving their energy productivity; using less energy to achieve higher
economic output.
Statement 4 is correct: Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd., the world’s largest manufacturer of tractors,
has signed up to EP100. The Indian-based company has committed to doubling their energy
productivity by 2030, a core requirement for any business signing on to the campaign. Recently,
Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement – two leading Indian cement companies - committed to the
Climate Group’s flagship business initiatives RE100, EV100 and EP100. Dalmia Cement committed
to EV100, while they are already members of RE100 and EP100. JSW Cement, committed to all the
three campaigns in one go.
Statement 5 is not correct: It is the largest global network of state and regional governments
committed to reducing emissions in line with the Paris Agreement.

155
Source:
https://www.theclimategroup.org/our-work/news/indias-road-cop26-summit-mobilising-
business-commitment-and-action-climate

Motivation:
In 2021, Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement – two leading Indian cement companies - committed
to the Climate Group’s flagship business initiatives RE100, EV100 and EP100. In 2016, Mahindra &
Mahindra became the first company to join EP100 campaign.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II:
Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Carbon markets are trading systems in which carbon credits are sold and
bought. Companies or individuals can use carbon markets to compensate for their greenhouse
gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits from entities that remove or reduce greenhouse
gas emissions. Several countries and territories have started carbon trading programs. Carbon
trading is adapted from cap and trade, a regulatory approach that successfully reduced sulfur
pollution in the 1990s.
Statement 2 is correct: Carbon markets have become one of the most widespread tools in
the fight against climate change. By the end of 2021 more than 21% of the world’s emissions
were covered by some form of carbon pricing, up from 15% in 2020. Like taxes, carbon markets

156
transfer resources from the
private sector to the state.
So, carbon markets will likely
be an effective tool against
Climate change.However,
the mere reason that carbon
markets transfer resources
from the private sector to
the state is not the primary
reason for their popularity
but also other factors such
as channeling of financial
resources to support
emissions reduction. 83%
of NDCs submitted by countries mention their intent to make use of international market
mechanisms to reduce GHGs.Also, the World Bank estimates that trading in carbon credits
could reduce the cost of implementing NDCs by more than half - by as much as $250 bn by
2030. Hence statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

Source:
https://www.economist.com/finance-and-economics/2022/05/26/carbon-markets-are-going-global

Motivation:
Carbon Credits and markets were often in the news due to global carbon market value hits record
$949 in 2023.

157
Climate
Change
(Technologies)

2017

Question: In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic
emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon
capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon
dioxide. Geological sequestration involves the storage of
CO2 underground in depleted oil and gas reservoirs, saline
formations or deep, unmineable coal beds. Hence option
(d) is the correct answer.

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/Carving-out-a-model-for-
enhancing-CO2-sinks/article14001561.ece

158
Motivation:
Carbon sequestration and its methods are often seen in news. UPSC has gone one step further to
ask potential sites for geological carbon sequestration.

2019

Question: In the context of which of the following do some

scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique
and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer D

Explanation:
The geo-engineering technique known as stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) could limit rising
temperatures that are causing climate change.
Cloud thinning strategy would be used to shoot powder over cirrus clouds, which would thin out
their coverage and alter their radiative effects over Earth. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/scientists-mull-stratospheric-
barrier-to-curb-warming/article25587354.ece

Motivation:
Stratospheric barrier to curb warming were often seen in the news.

159
2020

Question: Steel slag can be the material for which of the

following?
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: Steel slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation
of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. One of the ingredients of asphalt is
steel slag, a by-product of the steel and iron production processes. Asphalt roads are made of
a mixture of aggregates, binders and fillers. The aggregates are typically iron and/or steel slag,
sand, gravel or crushed rock, and they are bound together with asphalt itself, which is a bitumen.
Option 2 is correct: Steel slags can be used in several activities, such as construction and paving,
and also in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some
nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the
plants.
Option 3 is correct: Steel slag, another waste from Iron & Steel Industry, has shown potential for
use as a raw mix component up to 10% in the manufacture of cement clinker. Steel slag can also
replace granulated blast furnace slag up to 10% in the manufacture of Portland Slag Cement. Steel
slag has been used successfully to treat acidic water discharges from abandoned mines.

Source:
https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/nitin-gadkari-warns-cement-companies-asks-
construction-firms-to-cut-costs-but-not-quality/2079919/
https://www.financialexpress.com/market/commodities/steel-slag-may-now-be-used-as-
fertiliser-for-soil/1115559/”

Motivation:
Applications of steel slag were often seen in the news.

160
2020

Question: In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring
environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 5 only

Answer A

Explanation:
The use of waste materials in the road construction industry is gradually gaining significance in
India, considering disposal and environmental problems and the gradual depletion of natural
resources. Byproducts, such as biomass ash, coal ash, red mud and copper slag, generated in
large volumes, could have applications in the construction of roads, buildings and bridges.
Option 1 is correct: The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential
environmental as well as economic benefits for all related industries, particularly in areas where
a considerable amount of copper slag is produced.
Option 2 is correct and Option 4 is not correct: Cold asphalt mix is produced by mixing unheated
mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. Unlike hot mix asphalt
(HMA), cold asphalt mix does not require any heating of aggregate which makes it economical
and relatively pollution-free (no objectionable fumes or odours). Production of cold asphalt mix
does not require high investment in equipment, which makes it economical. It is also suitable
for use in remote areas. Cold asphalt mixes can be used both for initial construction (100% virgin
mixes) and for recycling of asphalt pavements.
Option 3 is correct: Geotextiles are mostly used in road construction, especially to fill gaps
between the roads to improve soil structure. Geotextile makes poor soil more beneficial for use
and then easy to build in difficult places also. It helps to prevent the erosion of soil but allows the
water to drain off.
Option 5 is not correct: Producing the portland cement that binds concrete together is energy
intensive and emits enormous amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) as well as numerous other
pollutants”

161
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1558920
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/researchers-collaborate-to-use-
industrial-agri-byproducts/article32748554.ece
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10163-014-0254-x

Motivation:
Case studies on promoting sustainable and climate resilience materials for rural roads were in the
news.

2023

Question: Consider the following activities :

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned
subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and
sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

Explanation:
Applied basalt or mill
CO2 from respiration of
Statement 1 is correct: Adding crushed rock
ash, which also
roots and other soil
contains K and other
organisms
dust to farmland could draw down up to two
nutrients
CaSiO3(s)+ 2CO2(g)+3H2O
Deposition and
billion tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2) from Weathering sequestration
3H2O+CO2(g)+
the air per year. The technique, known as Enhanced crop vigour H4SiO4(aq)+Ca2+(aq)+2HCO3-(aq)
CaCO3(s)+SiO2(s)
and yield due to greater
enhanced rock weathering, involves spreading uptake of Si, Ca, K and
micronutrients
finely crushed basalt, a natural volcanic rock,
on fields to boost the soil’s ability to extract Enhanced root growth
due to improved pH, Weathering products in
Enhanced ocean
alkalinity and
CO2 from the air. nutrient supply and
physical conditions
surface and groundwater
runoff (less N, higher Si:N
growth of diatoms,
foraminifera and
ratio) corals

162
Statement 2 is correct: When you add lime to Desalination plant

seawater, it reacts with that acid and neutralizes + electrochemical

weathering Alkaline solution
into seawater
it, forming a carbonate ion. The effect is a boost Limestone Ocean

in alkalinity to the ocean, and greater ocean carbon uptake increases

& acidity decreases

alkalinity means more CO2 can be absorbed. Lime kiln

(oven) Lime
Ocean Liming

Statement 3 is correct: Geological storage

involves injecting CO2 captured from carbon capture
and storage

industrial processes into rock formations deep CO2 Ocean

Alkalinization
underground, thereby permanently removing it
from the atmosphere. an extensive cap rock or
barrier at the top of the formation to contain the
CO2 permanently.

Source:
https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2020/jul/08/spreading-rock-dust-on-fields-could-
remove-vast-amounts-of-co2-from-air’
https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2022/11/volcanic-rock-dust-capture-carbo-farms-lithos/
https://www.greenbiz.com/article/microsoft-apple-frontier-extend-support-high-quality-
carbon-removal

Motivation:
Carbon sequestration and its methods are often seen in news, also UPSC has asked a question in
2017 on potential sites for carbon sequestration.

2022

Question: “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forest/protected areas

Answer A

Explanation:
Biorock technology is an innovative process originally invented in 1976 by the late architect Wolf
Hilbertz to produce natural building materials in the sea. It has been successfully applied to fish
and shellfish mariculture as well as to growing limestone breakwaters to protect islands and
coastal areas from erosion and rising sea levels.

163
It is a unique method that allows coral reefs, and
other marine ecosystems including seagrass,
salt marsh, mangrove, and oyster reefs to survive
A/C to D/C converter
BEACH
and recover. A/C Power supply
Power cabels are buried on

It is used to preserve coral reefs by constructing the beach for protection

SEA
materials under the sea that resemble rocks. It is Ocean current direction aids
the electrolytic process by
Corals

the technique through which seawater is passed carrying ions to the structure

via a very low-voltage electric current. Crystalline lon feild produced

by the Anode

salts of minerals dissolved in water are formed as

Cathode
Anode

a result, and they deposit. The deposited crystals, Biorock Structure

which are primarily calcium carbonate, form a Large boulders on cables to

structure on the waterbed that is similar to coral

keep from being damaged by boat etc.

reefs that are formed naturally. Hence option (a)

is the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.globalcoral.org/biorock-coral-reef-marine-habitat-restoration/

Motivation:
Coral Reefs in Kutch were restored for this first time using Biorock technology in India.

Coral Reefs in Gulf of Kutch Restored: How

Biorock Tech Brought Back the ‘Shape of Water’
“For the ﬁrst time in the country, we have used biorock
technology to protect coral reefs by building rock-like
materials beneath the ocean. It uses low-voltage
electric current,” says R Senthil Kumaran, Deputy
Conservator of Forests, MNP, Jamnagar

164
165
Pollution

2015

With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of them following
statements is/are correct?
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic
elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer A

Explanation:
Fly ash is used in the manufacture of building materials and in construction activity, like
replacement of cement in concrete. It contains trace levels of toxic elements (like e. g. arsenic,
barium, beryllium, boron, cadmium, chromium, thallium, selenium, molybdenum and mercury).

Source:
http://pmgsy.nic.in/nrr74.asp
http://www.ntpc.co.in/ash-download/1674/0/fly-ash-cement-concrete-%E2%80%93-resource-
high-strength-and-durability-structure-lower-cost

166
2016

Question: In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally
considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer B

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/air-pollution-in-india-clean-air-agenda-for-the-
cities/article8272573.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=110654

Explanation:
National Air Quality Index:
There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and
Severe.
The AQI considers eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-
term (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.

167
168
Air Pollutants
Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) Ozone (03)

It comes from the consumption of fossil Secondary pollutant formed from other
fuels (oil, coal and natural gas). Reacts pollutants (NOx and VOC) under the action
with water to form acid rain. of the sun
Impact: Causes respiratory problems Impact: Irritation of the eye and respiratory
mucous membranes, asthma attacks.

Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) Carbon Monoxide (CO)

Emissions from road transport, industry It is a product of the incomplete combustion

and energy production sectors. of carbon-containing compounds.
Contributes to Ozone and PM formation
Impact: Fatigue, confusion, and dizziness due
Impact: Chronic lung disease to inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain

Ammonia (NH3) Lead (Pb)

Produced by the metabolism of amino Released as a waste product from

acids and other compounds which extraction of metals such as silver,
contain nitrogen platinum, and iron from their respective
Impact: Immediate burning of the eyes, ores
nose, throat and respiratory tract and can Impact: Anemia, weakness, and kidney
result in blindness, lung damage. and brain damage

Particulate Matter (PM)

PM10: Inhalable particles, with diameters that are generally 10 micrometers and smaller
PM2.5: Fine inhalable particles, with diameters that are generally 2.5 micrometers and smaller
Source: Emitted from construction sites, unpaved roads, fields, fires
Impact: Irregular heartbeat, aggravated asthma, decreased lung function

Note: These major air pollutants are included in the Air quality index for which short-term
National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed

169
2017

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G2O group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

170
Explanation:
The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society
and the private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few
decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors. The Coalition’s initial focus is
on methane, black carbon, and HFCs.
The governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along
with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), came together to initiate the first effort
to treat these pollutants as a collective challenge. The coalition has 53 country partners and 17
International Governmental Organizations and 45 Non governmental organization partners.
India is not a partner country however The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI ) is a partner NGO
since 2015.

Source:
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/varanasi/Solid-waste-management-system-a-failure-
in-Varanasi-says-report/articleshow/29980955.cms
http://www.ccacoalition.org/en/partners
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/urgent-steps-to-check-4-key-climate-
pollutants-can-help-save-2-million-deaths-annually-who/article7796565.ece

Motivation:
The Pune Municipal Corporation (PMC) was invited to be a member of Climate and Clean Air
Coalition (CCAC) in 2013.

171
2017

Question: In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of
bioremediation techniques?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that
occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely
treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for
bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation is treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to
break down hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. It uses microorganisms
to degrade organic contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids. The microorganisms
break down contaminants by using them as an energy source or metabolising them with an
energy source.
Statement 2 is not correct: Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using
microorganisms. For example,
heavy metals such as cadmium Based on strategies applied:
and lead are not readily absorbed
or captured by microorganisms.
Bioremediation
It is the process of utilizing the
omniverse microorganisms to
Statement 3 is correct: Genetic eradicate the pollution from every
engineering has been used to possible place in our environment

create organisms designed In-situ Bioremediation Ex-situ Bioremediation

In-situ bioremediation is a strategy where, In the ex-situ Bioremediation the
for specific purposes. For without excavation, we can treat the contaminated soil and groundwater are
e.g. bacterium Deinococcus associated groundwater together with soil in taken out from their original location for
place. treatment.
radiodurans (the most
radioresistant organism known) • Percolation • Land farmirig
has been modified to consume • Bioventing • Compost piles irrigation
• Biosparging • Engineered biopiles, etc.
and digest toluene and ionic • Pump and treat
mercury from highly radioactive • Bioslurping, etc.

nuclear waste.

172
2019

Question: Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer A

Explanation:
Microbeads are manufactured solid THREAT FROM Microbeads, as per US law,
are solid plastic particles less
plastic particles of less than one millimetre
PLASTIC PARTICLES
than 5mm in size intended to
be used to exfoliate or cleanse
in their largest dimension. They are most
frequently made of polyethylene but Microbeads are found in face/
can be of other petrochemical plastics body washes, lip gloss, tooth-
pastes, shaving creams etc
such as polypropylene and polystyrene.
Microbeads, small pellets of plastic, A single cosmetic product like
a toothpaste could contain
extensively used in personal care products between from 35,000 and one lakh
microbeads
such as shampoo, baby lotion and face
cream and considered toxic to marine life,
are being banned internationally. Hence These enter the water system and become ‘toxin
carriers.’ These are effective absorbant and
option (a) is the correct answer. accumulate an astonishing level of toxins as
they pass through sewage

The particles are too small

to be ﬁltered by sewage
treatment plants
They get ingested by ﬁsh and birds.
It goes up the food chain when higher
animals consume the ‘carrier animals’

Microbeads
enter human
body through
the food chain

See if polyethylene,
More the 455 billion plastic microbeads polymethyl methacrylate,
and 749 billion microplastics have been polypropylene are listed as
released into the Indian Ocean in the ingredients.
past few years These make up microbeads

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/feeding-on-microplastics-a-
scourge-stalks-the-sea/article25527355.ece

173
2019

Question: Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer D

Explanation:
Crop residues / biomass burning are the cheapest and easiest method to dispose of the leftover
crop residues (wheat, rice, sugarcane etc.) after harvesting, for land clearing and pest control.
Burning of crop residues is a common
approach to eliminate waste after harvesting Greenhouse gases
(CO2, N2O, CH4)
all over the world. Burning of these residues Air Pollutants
(CO, NH3, NOx, SO2, Non methane
emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxides hydrocarbons, Volatile organic Smog & Haze
compounds)
of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2),
carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC),
organic carbon (OC), methane (CH4),
volatile organic compounds (VOC), non-
methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone Aerosols, Polycyclic aromatic
(O3), and aerosols etc which affect the Particulates
(PM25, PM10, PM100)
hydrocarbons
(PAHs)
global atmospheric chemistry and climate.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Source: http://www.isca.in/EARTH_SCI/Archive/v1/i1/4.ISCA-IRJES-2013-005.pdf

Motivation:
Crop Residue/Biomass burning is a long pending issue for the want of relief from smog in northern
India during winters.

174
2020

Question: Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer A

Explanation:
Benzene:
It is a chemical that is a colourless or light yellow liquid at room temperature.
It dissolves only slightly in water and will float on top of the water.
It is highly flammable.
It is formed from both natural processes and human activities.
It is found in crude oils and as a by-product of oil-refining processes.
It is a known human carcinogen and is linked to an increased risk of developing lymphatic
and hematopoietic cancers, acute myelogenous leukaemia, as well as chronic lymphocytic
leukaemia.
Exposure to benzene pollution:
Automobile Exhaust: Benzene is a well-known component of gasoline and is emitted in automobile
exhaust. Therefore, areas with heavy traffic or enclosed spaces like garages can have higher
levels of benzene pollution.
Tobacco Smoke: Tobacco smoke is a significant source of benzene exposure for both smokers
and those exposed to secondhand smoke. It is one of the most hazardous sources of indoor air
pollution in terms of benzene.

175
Wood Burning: Burning wood can release benzene, among other volatile organic compounds
(VOCs), into the environment. This is especially relevant in homes that use wood as a primary
heating source or in areas where open burning is common.
Using Varnished Wooden Furniture: Varnishes and paints can contain benzene and other
VOCs, especially if they are solvent-based. However, once these finishes have dried and cured,
the amount of benzene they emit is significantly reduced. The risk of exposure from varnished
wooden furniture is generally lower compared to direct sources like smoke or exhaust, but it can
still contribute to indoor air levels of benzene, especially in newly furnished or renovated spaces.
Using Products Made of Polyurethane: Polyurethane foam, used in furniture, mattresses, and
various building materials, can emit VOCs. However, benzene is not typically a significant
component of the emissions from polyurethane products. The primary concern with polyurethane
often relates to isocyanates used in its production and other VOCs, rather than benzene specifically.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/lockdown-impact-sharp-drop-in-nitrogen-
dioxide-benzene/
https://www.who.int/ipcs/features/benzene.pdf

Motivation:
Benzene pollution increased during the lockdown in cities. Benzene is also one of the 12 pollutants
monitored under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).

Major Exposure
Pollutant Major Emission Sources
Sources

Formaldehyde Motor vehicles, photochemistry Furniture, particle boards

Benzene Motor vehicles, industry Smoking, ETS

Benzo[a]pyrene Coke/aluminum plants, diesel vehicles Smoking, ETS

Tetrachloroethylene Dry cleaning shops Dry cleaning shops

Chloroform Sewage treatment plants Taking showers

p-Dichlorbenzene Chemical manufacturing Air deodorizers

Smoking, ETS, unvented

Particulate matter Industry, motor vehicles, photochemistry combustion devices
(indoors

Carbon monoxide Motor vehicles Driving, gas stoves

Nitrogen dioxide Motor vehicles, industry Gas stoves

176
2020

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Coal itself isn’t a particularly toxic material. But after it’s burned, what remains
in the ash includes lead, mercury, cadmium, chromium, arsenic, and selenium, all in levels that may
threaten human health.
Statement 2 is correct: Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen oxides and
sulphur dioxide—the pollutants that cause acid rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to
produce energy.
Statement 3 is correct: Ash content of coal produced in the country is generally 25 to 45 % whereas
average ash content of imported coal varies from 10 to 20 %. Indian Coal has comparatively higher
ash content than imported coal due to drift theory of formation of coal deposits in India. Coal seams
formed due to drift theory contains higher ash as compared to in-situ theory of formation.

Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/thermal-power-plants-allowed-
to-use-coal-with-high-ash-content/articleshow/76004154.cms?

Motivation:
The environment ministry had recently decided that it will no longer regulate the ash-content of
coal used by thermal power plants.

177
Pollutant Definition Source Damaging to
Suspended liquid or Old cosmetics, paint, cleaning Good, upper atmosphere
Aerosols
solid particles supplies ozone

Volatile chemical Human cells, respiratory

Ammonia Agricultural production
compound health

Fibrous, silicate Building materials, friction

Asbestos Respiratory health
minerals products

Carbon dioxide Gas that traps heat in

Burning fossil fuels Climate
(CO2) the atmosphere

Carbon monoxide Incomplete combustion from

Poisonous gas Blood, vision, brain function
(CO) heaters, furnaces, automobiles

Chlorofluorocarbons Airborne chemical Good, upper atmosphere

Old aerosols, fire extinguishers,
(CFCs) compound ozone

The chemical reaction

Ground level ozone / Motor vehicles, chemical
of 03, NOx, VOCs, and Respiratory health
smog (03) solvents, industrial emissions
sunlight

Hydrochlor-
Air conditioning and Good, upper atmosphere
flurocarbons Airborne chemicals
refrigerants ozone
(HCFCs)

Dust and soil, old paint, metal Human and animal organs,
Lead Metal
processing plant and blood, nervous systems

Emissions from burning coal or Human and animal organs,

Mercury Natural element
hazardous waste blood, nervous systems

Gas that traps heat in Landfills, natural gas systems,

Methane Climate
the atmosphere coal mining, livestock

Gas that contributes to

Nitrogen oxides Respiratory health, climate,
smog and traps heat in Burning fuel
(Nox) water ecosystems
the atmosphere

Particulate matter Tiny, suspended dust Smoke and Dust; cooking fires Respiratory health, visibility,
(PM) and liquid particles in poor countries immune system

Agricultural or household pest Respiratory, nervous system,

Pesticides Chemical compounds
killers or disinfectants cancer

Compressed gas that Old cosmetics, paint, cleaning Good, upper atmosphere
Propellants
releases an aerosol supplies ozone

Radon Natural radioactive gas Soil, rocks, water Respiratory health

Old refrigerators and air Good, upper atmosphere

Refrigerants Cooling gas
conditioners ozone Buildings, visibility

Gas that dissolves Burning fuel, gasoline and Buildings, visibility natural
Sulfur oxide (SO2)
easily in water metal extraction water ways, respiratory health

178
2021

Question: Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Smelting is a process of applying heat to ore in order to extract a base metal. The copper
concentrates are fed through the flash smelting furnace with oxygen-enriched air. In the furnace,
the concentrates are instantly oxidized, after which they melt and separate by their own reaction
heat into copper matte with a grade of 65% and slag consisting of iron oxide, silica, and other
compounds.
Extractive metallurgical and smelting processes can be highly polluting activities. Some facilities
that carry out metal and smelting processes are known to emit high quantities of air pollutants
such as hydrogen fluoride, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, offensive and noxious smoke fumes,
vapors, gases, and other toxins.
Due to the application of pyro-metallurgical processes in copper smelters, significant air pollution
occurs with suspended particles. These particles contain high concentrations of Lead (Pb),
Cadmium (Cd), Nickel (Ni) and Arsenic (As). Copper slag can have heavy metals like cobalt, zinc,
arsenic, lead, cadmium, barium etc. Slag can release these elements into the environment under
natural weathering conditions and cause pollution of soils, surface waters and groundwater.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Organic vapors and sulfur oxides resulting from secondary smelting roasting operations and fuel
combustion can cause smog, containing ozone, fine airborne particles, nitrogen oxides, sulfur
dioxide and carbon monoxide. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs from breathing in
carbon monoxide (CO) at excessive levels. Basic copper smelting reaction Cu2O + CO --> 2 Cu +
CO2 produces carbon dioxide and not carbon monoxide. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and
3 is correct.

179
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/sterlite-copper-smelting-plant-tuticorn-
protests-5193832/

2021

Question: With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Fuel oil (also known as heavy oil, marine fuel, bunker, furnace oil, or gasoil) is a fraction obtained
from petroleum distillation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Diesel-based power plants may use Diesel, Furnace Oil, Heavy Fuel Oil (HFO), Low Sulfur Fuel Oil
(LSFO) or Low Sulfur Heavy Stock (LSHS). The Basin Bridge Diesel Generator Power Plant (DGPP)
in Tamil Nadu was one such example. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The oxides of sulphur (SOx; SO2 + SO3) emissions are a direct result of the sulphur content of
the fuel oil. During the combustion process this fuel-bound sulphur is rapidly oxidised to sulphur
dioxide (SO2). A small fraction of the SO2, some 3-5% may be further oxidised to sulphur trioxide
(SO3) within the combustion chamber and exhaust duct. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Source:
https://www.worstpolluted.org/projects_reports/display/61
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/232400604_The_composition_and_environmental_
hazard_of_copper_slags_in_the_context_of_the_Basel_Convention

180
2021

Question: Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as

environmental pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer B

Explanation:
Magnetite pollution refers to the presence of a magnetic mineral called Magnetite (Fe3O4) in
the environment, as a result of human activities such as mining, steel production and industrial
processes.
» Magnetite is an oxide of iron. It is the most magnetic of all the naturally occurring minerals on
earth. It is a natural magnet.
» Magnetite contains about 72% metallic iron in it. It is found in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.
Brakes of Motor Vehicles: When brakes wear down, they can release fine particles into the air,
including magnetite due to the iron used in brake pads and other components.
Engines of Motor Vehicles: Combustion processes can generate a variety of particulate matter,
including magnetite particles, especially from diesel engines which can produce more particulate
matter than gasoline engines.
Microwave Stoves Within Homes: While microwaves do emit some electromagnetic fields, they
are not known to generate magnetite particles as a pollutant.
Power Plants: Fossil fuel-fired power plants, especially those burning coal, can emit magnetite
particles as part of the flys ash and other combustion by-products.
Telephone Lines: There is no evidence to suggest that telephone lines generate magnetite
particles as an environmental pollutant.

181
Source:
https://news.mongabay.com/2021/09/novel-entities-are-we-sleepwalking-through-a-
planetary-boundary/
https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2016/sep/05/toxic-air-pollution-particles-found-in-
human-brains-links-alzheimers

Motivation:

2022

Question: With reference to polythylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our
daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottle made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas
emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation:
Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE), a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of
the polyester family of polymers. PET is spun into fibres for permanent-press fabrics and blow-
moulded into disposable beverage bottles.
Statement 1 is correct: They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibres such as
rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibres.
Statement 2 is not correct: Plastic packaging is dangerous to human health and the country
liquor and country made foreign liquor cannot be sold in such bottles.

182
Statement 3 is correct: PET bottles are made of one of the few polymers that can be recycled
into the same form – a new beverage bottle – again and again. During the process the PET is
generally blended in a ratio of virgin to recycled, to give strength to the material for use in a
new product. Some other everyday items recycled plastic bottles can be made into are: Plastic
packaging, Clothing and shoes, Carpets and soft furnishings, Furniture, Automotive parts etc.
Statement 4 is not correct: Globally, in this year alone, researchers estimate that the production
and incineration of plastic will pump more than 850 million tonnes of greenhouse gases into the
atmosphere. Producing a 16 oz. PET bottles generate more than 100 times the toxic emissions to
air and water than making the same size bottle out of glass.

Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/how-to/how-are-plastic-pet-bottles-recycled-
into-clothing/articleshow/92016415.cms https://www.freepressjournal.in/mumbai/plastic-
industry-opposes-ban-on-alcohol-sale-in-pet-bottles

Motivation:
PET is commonly used in everyday food and beverage packaging.

2022

Question: Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer B

183
Explanation:
Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides
(NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind
and air currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and
other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids. These then
mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

2023

Question: Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer C

Explanation:
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of industrial chemicals primarily used for cooling and
refrigeration.
HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning,
insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection.
HFCs are not used for making lubricants.
HFCs were developed to replace stratospheric ozone-depleting substances that are currently
being phased out under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

184
Though HFCs currently represent around 1% of total greenhouse gases, their impact on global
warming can be hundreds to thousands of times greater than that of carbon dioxide per unit of
mass.
Kigali Amendment to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol entered into force in 2019.
Under the amendment, countries commit to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by
more than 80% over the next 30 years.Hence, all the four options are correct.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746946

Motivation:
Hydroflurocarbons are often seen in the news. Recently the Kigali Amendment was also made to
the Montreal Protocol which seeks to phase out HFCs.

185
2023

Question: With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the
following statements :
1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

Explanation:
Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS)
are unique engineered ecosystems that
minimize environmental perturbation by
reducing nutrient pollution discharge. They
are indoor, tank-based systems in which fish
are grown at high density under controlled
environmental conditions.
A biofilter system purifies the water and
removes or detoxifies harmful waste
products and uneaten feed. Biofilters use
microorganisms, which are capable of
degrading many compounds, fixed to an
inorganic/organic medium to break down
pollutants present. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Ammonia is removed from an aquarium
system through the use of a biofilter. The
biofilter provides a substrate on which
nitrifying bacteria grow. These nitrifying
bacteria consume ammonia and produce
nitrite, which is also toxic to fish. Other nitrifying bacteria in the biofilter consume nitrite and
produce nitrate. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Biofilters are also used to remove phosphorus waste by-products generated by fish. Thus biofilters
do not increase phosphorous content in aquatic systems. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

186
Motivation:
Bioremediation techniques is an often repeated theme in the exam as they are eco-friendly
means to tackle pollution and related problems.

2023

Question: Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Artisanal gold mining currently contributes more than 35 percent of all
global mercury emissions created by people.
Statement 2 is correct: Mercury is emitted in the combustion process of coal and other fossil
fuels. Coal has much higher mercury concentrations than other fossil fuels, which explains why
coal-fired power plants often emit larger quantities of mercury pollution than do power plants
that burn other fossil fuels.
Statement 3 is not correct: While mercury is highly toxic and should be avoided, WHO and other
such regulatory bodies have established reference levels for mercury exposure.

Source:
https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/gold-mining-is-poisoning-amazon-forests-with-
mercury/
https://theconversation.com/how-poisonous-mercury-gets-from-coal-fired-power-plants-into-
the-fish-you-eat-176434

187
2024

Question: According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the
largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ?
(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Answer D

Explanation:
EPA’s national ambient air quality standards for SO2 are designed to protect against exposure
to the entire group of sulfur oxides (SOx). According to EPA, the largest source of SO2 in the
atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Smaller
sources of SO2 emissions include: industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore; natural
sources such as volcanoes; and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment
that burn fuel with a high sulfur content. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Sulfur DioxidesSO2 : SO2 can be found in the troposphere at appreciable levels, its concentration
can be as low as one part per billion (ppb), and in urban areas can be as high as 1.5 to 2.3 parts
per million (ppm). Upon entering the atmosphere is typically oxidized to SO3, which is then rapidly
converted to H2SO4 and precipitated back to the earth as acid rain.
Health Effects of SO2: High concentrations of SO2 can cause breathing problems, respiratory
illness, and can aggravate respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. Although SO2 is almost
completely removed from the mouth, throat, and nose through breathing due to its solubility,
it can still disturb the function of the upper respiratory system. Low level exposure (0.25 - 0.5
ppm) can cause bronchitus, concentrations up to six ppm irritate the lungs and throat, and
concentrations above six ppm impair respiratory immune function.
About EPA: The Environmental Protection Agency is an independent agency of the United States
government tasked with environmental protection matters.

188
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2024

Question: Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental
pollution.
Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer A

189
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Modern chewing gum is made up of four groups of ingredients that give
gum its distinctive flavor, texture, and bounce:
Fillers, such as talc and calcium carbonate, bulk out the gum and give it satisfying heft.
Polymers give gum their stretch. These are polymers such as polyvinyl acetate, along with other
materials that make up the “gum base.”
Emulsifiers are chemicals that help mix flavors and colors and reduce stickiness.
Softeners, such as vegetable oil, are added to the gum base to keep it chewy rather than stiff.
Statement II is correct: Regular chewing gum has a substance called PVA (polyvinyl acetate),
which is used to make tyres and glue. The gums that we consume are plastic based, and PVA, in
fact also damages public property.
A Research Gate report states, “Each year, chewing gum generates more than 105 tonnes of
‘plastic’ garbage. Thus, the discarded non-biodegradable residue of the gum produces plastic
pollution.” This waste is hard to collect or track and ends up living and polluting the earth for
thousands of years. Hence statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

History of Plastic Pollution:

Creating Plastic Pollution:

Natural Rubber Polystyrene (PS) Parkensine Polyvinyl Vinyl or PVC

1839

1840

1862

1872

1926
Method of processing Discovered by Invented by Chloride (PVC) Plasticised PVC
invented by Charles Eduard Simon Alexander Parkes First created by invented by Walter
Goodyear Eugen Bauman Semon

High-density Polyethylene Acrylic Low-density Microplastic

1951

1941

1936

1935

1931

Polyethylene Terephthalate Poly Methyl Polyethylene discovered

Methacrylate
(HDPE) (PET) invented by Hill
(LDPE) Metal boxed dragged
Invented by Paul Hogan Invented by Winfield around ocean accidentally
and Crawford Invented by
and Robert Banks and Dickson discovered plastic
Reginald Gibson
and Eric Fawcett

Polypropylene Styrofoam Plastic Pollution Garbage Patch Actions to Mitigate

1951

1954

1960

1997

2021

(PP) Invented by Ray First observation in Great Pacific Global Plastic Standards,
McIntire for Dow the ocean. First Garbage Patch Regulations, Protests and
Also invented by Paul
Chemical plastic bag off the discovered by NGO's, fight to reduce
Hogan and Robert Banks
coast of Ireland Charles Moore plastic pollution

190
Solving Plastic Pollution:

EARTH SUMMIT GPGP DISCOVERED GYRES DISCOVERED ELLEN MCARTHUR

1992

1997

2011

2011
UN Conference on by Captain Charles Moore, Marcus Erikson, from 5 Gyres from Isle of Wight, breaks the
Environment and 1.6 million km2 area of Institute discovered the world record for solo sailing
Development (UNCED) was ocean where plastic waste Southern Ocean Gyre. A around the world and
held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, has accumulated between total of 5 patches of ocean develops Ellen MacArthur
to establish a road map for Hawaii and California. trash have now been Foundation to address
global sustainability. identified plastic pollution.

WORLD ECONOMIC GREEN FENCE POLICY OUR OCEANS AGENDA -17

2012

2013

2014

2015
FORUM China announced the Green
Fence Policy to stop foreign
CONFERENCE Over 130 countries adopted
the 2030 Agenda-17
EU Committee adopts the countries exporting The first Our Oceans Sustainable Development
first economic report into contaminated waste. 274 Conference. in Chile, Goals (SDG's). Addressing
circular economy presented import licenses cancelled inviting global leaders to poverty, environmental
by Ellen McArthur at Davos, sending global shock waves commit to improving damage, pollution,
World Economic Forum. EMF through the waste ocean pollution, inequalities and tackle
spearheads a global industries. overexploitation, coastal climate change
movement to address degradation and cli-mate
pollution. change

THE PARIS MARINE POLLUTION LIFE UNDER WATER

2016

NEW PLASTICS
2016

2017

2018
Australia Parliamentary
AGREEMENT Senate inquiry conducted
4th Our Ocean conference,
ECONOMY
focused on SDG #14 Life
on Climate Change is 'The Threat of Marine EMF & UNEP launches the
Below Water, now
ratified by 191 Countries to Pollution in Australia', with New Plastic Economy:
developed as a global stage
limited global temperature concluding marine pollution Global Commitment at Our
for government, business
increases, by shifting to is one of the biggest issues Oceans Conference Bali.
and organisation to
renewables and reducing currently facing the With 290 global pledges
collaborate in finding
greenhouse gases. Australian government. from brands committing
solutions to the ocean
deterioration amount to $10.5 billion.

2024

Question: With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) thal are used in
making many consumer product, consider the following statements :
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging material.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D
191
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are synthetic
chemicals found in many products, such as clothing, carpets, fabrics for furniture, adhesives,
paper packaging for food, and heat-resistant/non-stick cookware.
Statement 2 is correct: They are also present in fire-fighting foams (or aqueous film forming
foam; AFFF) used by both civilian and military firefighters. Also known as the “forever chemicals”,
PFAS are persistent (i.e., they do not break down) in the environment, and since they are used in
the manufacturing of so many products, they are widespread internationally.
Statement 3 is correct: People may encounter different PFAS chemicals in various ways. Over
time, people may take in more of the chemicals than they excrete, a process that leads to
bioaccumulation in bodies.

PFAS Cycle PFAS TREATED MATERIAL

(such as aerosol, fabric
protectors, stain resistant
PFAS TREATED
FOOD PACKAGING
(such as
carpeting/raincoats/shoes) grease-resistant
paper products
Air
RESIDENTIAL HOMES

LANDFILL
SOIL/ Septic
FARMLAND Systems
PFAS PRODUCING/ Food
Leachate products
USING INDUSTRIES to WWTP Sludge

Biosolids
Wastewater
to WWTP
WASTEWATER
TREATMENT PLANT Infiltrate into
groundwater

Wastewater direct Plant uptake

WASTEWATER DIRECT Firefighting
discharge to stream DISCHARGE TO STREAM foam

RIVER

GROUNDWATER

192
What are PFAS
Per-and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are a series of man-made chemicals
that can be found in a variety of consumer products and water.

Products that may contain PFAS:

Fast food Water Non-stick cookware Firefighting foam Stain-resistant

packaging/wrappers carpet and fabric

Health PFAS remain in the environment and the human body for long.

concerns
periods of time. Reducing exposure to PFAS will lower your risk for
health problems. Talk to your healthcare provider about the

with PFAS
recommended screening guidelines for these effects, especially if
you have high levels of PFAS in your drinking water.

Based on current research, higher exposure to PFAS increases the risk of:

Infertility and low Certain types of Developmental Thyroid and Reduced vaccine
birth weight cancers delays heart issues response

Those at greater risk

Infants and young children whose brains and bodies are developing rapidly
Pregnant or breastfeeding women, or those planning pregnancy

Use home water

Reduce treatment systems or
specific water filters that
exposure to remove PFAS Do not drink water
with PFAS if you are

PFAS
at greater risk
limit the use of
waterproof and stain-
PFAS do not have any taste, color, resistant products
or odor. The best way to prevent
exposure to PFAS is to avoid Get water from
products and sources that may PFAS-free sources
contain them. choose non-stick,
PFAS-free cookware

193
Unconventional
Sources of
Energy

2017

Question: It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of
developing countries in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels production requires high level of expertise/
technology until the construction is complete.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may
raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. Production of algal biofuel is possible both in seas and on continents.
They can grow on marginal or non-crop land and also on brackish or polluted water. Land based
systems are more developed than sea based systems.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a high
level of expertise until construction is finished. Innovation for higher productivity also requires
some knowledge and/or experience. All Algal based biofuel concepts require significant capital
investment. Access to this technology by the poor may be difficult. Large-scale facilities are more
economically viable, but are also more likely to have higher social and ecological impacts.

194
Source:
http://www.fao.org/3/a-ak333e.pdf
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/india-can-be-a-world-leader-
in-algal-farming-says-us-expert/article9449569.ece

Motivation:
Biofuels are frequently seen in news.

Biofuel Feedstocks
Sugar beet, First Generation
Sugarcane, Corn, Palm,
Wheat, Potato Sunﬂower,
Canola

Second Generation

Wood Tung
Bioenergy Jatropha
grasses Castor
Crop Bean
residue

Algae Third Generation Algae

Enzymatic Hydrolosis Production

(when necessary) Oil Extraction
Fermentation Transesteriﬁcation
Distillation Puriﬁcation
Ethanol Blended Gas Biodiesel

195
2018

Question: With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic
units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. Manufacturing of solar panels (also called modules) starts with
polysilicon, which is made from silicon. Polysilicon is made into ingots, which are cut into wafers.
Cells are made with wafers and a string of cells is a module. Today, only modules and cells are
made in India, with imported material. At present, the only incentives available for manufacturing
these are the Modified-Special Incentive Package Scheme, which is available to all electronic
goods manufacturers and implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology,
but there have been few takers for the scheme.
China is the world’s largest silicon producer, with a production volume estimated at 5.4 million
metric tons in 2020. The second largest producer of this metalloid in the world is Russia, Norway
being third followed by the United States and Brazil.
Statement 2 is not correct. “Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd” (SECI) is a CPSU under the
administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to become
the leader in development of large scale solar installations, solar plants and solar parks and to
promote and commercialise the use of solar energy to reach the remotest corner of India. It also
explores new technologies and their deployment to harness solar energy.
Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity
Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive
bidding.

196
Applications of
Green Hydrogen
Green hydrogen will be a key element in the decarbonisation of the
planet and will have an impact on numerous industries and sectors.

Hydraulics

steel
RENEWABLE
ENERGIES Heat & cold
Solar

food
Heat Pump

wind Turbines and

fuel cells

OTHER INDUSTRIES

Electrolyser

H2V Base chemicals

Fuel cells

Trains CHEMICAL
INDUSTRIES
TRANSPORT Green
fertilisers
PETROCHEMICAL
INDUSTRY
vehicales

AGRICULTURE

Aeroplanes
Ships Green fuels

197
India’s Top Renewable
Energy Projects
Puga Geothermal
Energy Projects

Bhadla Solar
Park

Jaisalmer
Wind Park Rewa Solar
Project

Gobar-Dhan
Bio-CNG Plant
Brahmanvel
Wind Farm Ramky Enviro Landﬁll
Gas to Bio-CNG Plant
Vankusawade Simhadri Floating
Wind Park Solar PV Plant

Shakti Sthala Kurnool Ultra

Solar Project Mega Solar Park

Pavagada
Solar Park
Muppandal
Wind Farm

198
2019

Question: In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’
mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer D

Explanation:
Pyrolysis: Pyrolysis is the process of heating organic material at high temperatures in the absence
of oxygen.
Plasma Gasification: Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process using plasma which
converts organic matter into a syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen
and carbon monoxide. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Methods for removal of waste

Oldest method, waste disposed in landﬁlls.

Land ﬁlling
Waste digested anaerobically and produce biogas used as source of heating.

Mass burn technology in presence of oxygen

Incineration
Waste burn in incinerators and converted into ash and harmful greenhouse gases

Thermal treatment in the absence of oxygen at low temperature.

Pyrolysis
Syngas, pyrolysis liquid and coke obtained as products

Partial oxidation of waste at high temperature.

Gasiﬁcation
Products are low quality syngas, slag and metals.

Plasma Waste is converted into syngas and vitriﬁed slag at very high temperature.
Gasiﬁcation No emission of greenhouse gases.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/plastic-surgery/article25604517.
ece

199
Motivation:
Commonly seen in news.

2019

Question: In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for
buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 3 are correct:
H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen
concentration being 18%. Compared to conventional CNG, use
of H-CNG can reduce emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%
and 15% reduction in total hydrocarbon emissions, besides
enabling up to 5% savings in fuel.
Statement 4 is not correct: In its report to the Supreme Court,
the EPCA has estimated that to fuel Delhi’s 5,500 buses, about
400 tonnes H-CNG would be needed per day. Setting up four
fuel-dispensing facilities would cost Rs 330 crore, which can
be funded from the Environment Compensation Charge (ECC)
fund made up of cess on commercial vehicles entering Delhi, it
said. For consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of
H-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg.

200
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cng-to-hydrogen-cng-why-switch-and-
how-5278356/

2020

Question: According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw
materials for the production of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse grams
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer A

Explanation:
Under the National Policy on Biofuels ‘bioethanol’ is defined as ethanol produced from biomass
such as sugar containing materials, like sugar cane, sugar beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch
containing materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes, algae etc.; and, cellulosic materials
such as bagasse, wood waste, agricultural and forestry residues or other renewable resources
like industrial waste.
For Ethanol Production the following raw materials may be potentially used: B-Molasses,
Sugarcane juice, biomass in form of grasses, agriculture residues (Rice straw, cotton stalk, corn
cobs, saw dust, bagasse etc.) , sugar containing materials like sugar beet, sweet sorghum, etc.
and starch containing materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes etc., Damaged food
grains like wheat, broken rice etc. which are unfit for human consumption, Food grains during
surplus phase. Algal feedstock and cultivation of seaweeds can also be a potential feedstock for
ethanol production.

201
For Biodiesel Production: Non- edible Oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil (UCO), Animal tallow, Acid Oil,
Algal feedstock etc.
For Advanced Biofuels: Biomass, MSW, Industrial waste, Plastic waste etc.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/cabinet-approves-national-biofuel-
policy/article23903816.ece#:~:text=The%20Cabinet%20on%20Wednesday%20approved,to%20
be%20mixed%20in%20petrol
http://petroleum.nic.in/national-policy-biofuel-2018-0

Motivation:
National Policy on Biofuels was extensively covered in news as it was recently aproved by the Union
Cabinet.

2023

Question: Consider the following heavy industries :

1. Fertiliser plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above
industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

202
Explanation:
Green hydrogen is the hydrogen produced through electrolysis of water using electricity from
renewable sources.
Hydrogen use today is dominated by industry, namely: oil refining, ammonia production, methanol
production and steel production.
Central to a decarbonised India will be a widespread adoption of renewable power and vehicle
electrification. Targets and policies such as the 500 GW non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by
2030, scheme for Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles- Phase II (FAME II) etc
represent a concrete policy push towards fulfilling these ambitions.
To further complement these ongoing efforts, India is prioritising green hydrogen as a potential
solution to decarbonise hard-to-abate sectors such as refinery, ammonia, methanol, iron and
steel and heavy-duty trucking.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

HYDROGEN PRODUCTION METHODS

GREEN PURPLE BLUE GREY BLACK

Generally Hydrogen Produced by the Produced from Extracted from a

considered as produced from reforming of fossil fuels, using synthetic gas
hydrogen the electrolysis of natural gas into thermal produced from
produced from water using carbon dioxide processes like coal
the electrolysis nuclear as the (CO2) and steam-methane
of water using power source hydrogen, in reformation and
renewables as combination with partial oxidation.
the power source carbon capture Emissions of
and storage greenhouse
(CCS) gases occur

Note: Hydrogen produced using nuclear power has not been given an established color designation.

Motivation:
National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in January, 2023

203
2023

Question: With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements :

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

Explanation:
Green hydrogen is any hydrogen that is produced from renewable energy. This includes electrolysis
with electricity coming from green sources such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power.
Various uses of Green Hydrogen:
» Industry: Oil refining, ammonia production, methanol production, steel production etc.
» Buildings: Hydrogen could be blended into existing natural gas networks, with the highest
potential in multifamily and commercial buildings, particularly in dense cities.
» Power generation: Hydrogen is one of the leading options for storing renewable energy, and
hydrogen and ammonia can be used in gas turbines to increase power system flexibility.
» Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV): Powered by Hydrogen, it is one of the best
Zero Emission solutions. It is completely environment friendly with no tailpipe emissions other
than water. Hence statement 3 is correct.
» It can also serve as fuel for internal combustion engines. Hydrogen has a wide flammability
range in comparison with all other fuels. As a result, hydrogen can be combusted in an internal
combustion engine over a wide range of fuel-air mix-tures. A significant advantage of this is
that hydrogen can run on a lean mixture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
» Recently NTPC Ltd commissioned India’s first green hydrogen blending project. Green hydrogen
blending has been started in the piped natural gas (PNG) network of NTPC Kawas township,
Surat. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Motivation:
National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in January, 2023

204
2024

Question: Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles,
powered by hydrogen?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water vapour

Answer D

Explanation:
Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. They are more efficient than
conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—
they only emit water vapor and warm air. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

205
2024

Question: Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer D

Explanation:
Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on
the consumer’s side of the meter. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed
include: rooftop solar photovoltaic units. wind generating units. battery storage. Any small-scale
device that can produce energy convertible into electricity qualifies as a DER, including the
following:
» Rooftop solar panels
» Wind-powered generators
» Biomass generators
» Gas and diesel power generators
» Combined heat and power (CHP) systems
» Waste heat recovery systems
» Micro-hydropower schemes
» Hydrogen fuel cells
» EV and other power storage batteries
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

206
Localized power generation

Solar PV
power plant

Flow
control
Storage

Storage
Power quality
device

Power quality
device
Storage
Local CHP plant

Storage

Wind power House with

plant domestic CHP

207
2024

Question: Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer C

Explanation:
Sustainable Aviation Fuel is a liquid fuel currently used in commercial aviation which reduces
CO2 emissions by up to 80%. It can be produced from a number of sources (feedstock) including
waste oil and fats, green and municipal waste and non-food crops.
An estimated 1 billion dry tons of biomass can be collected sustainably each year in the United
States, enough to produce 50–60 billion gallons of low-carbon biofuels. These resources include:
» Corn grain
» Oil seeds
» Algae
» Other fats, oils, and greases
» Agricultural residues
» Forestry residues
» Wood mill waste
» Municipal solid waste streams
» Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge)edicated energy crops.

208
Feedstocks suitable for SAF production:

Oil seed plants SAFs can reduce

and energy Algae

80%
grasses
carbon emissions by

Fats, oils, and

greases from
Municipal solid
cooking waste in comparison to
waste
and meat using fossil-based fuels.
production

Industrial carbon
Agricultural and
monoxide waste
forestry residue
gas

Worldwide, aviation accounts for 2% of all carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions and 12% of all CO2
emissions from transportation. ICAO’s Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International
Aviation (CORSIA) caps net CO2 aviation emissions at 2020 levels through 2035. The international
aviation industry has set an aspirational goal to reach net zero carbon by 2050. SAF presents the
best near-term opportunity to meet these goals.
What is the difference between SAF and Biofuels?
‘Biofuels’ generally refers to fuels produced from biological resources (plant or animal material).
Fuels can also be sourced from non-biological resources. However, these are not deemed
sustainable and in some cases, they can be considered harmful to the environment. SAF is
the preferred term used by industry to describe alternative fuels.SAF is widely developed from
biomass and feedstocks with a low carbon content to ensure that the carbon dioxide emissions
produced during fuel burn are minimal.

FUELLING SUSTAINABILITY
Sustainable aviation fuels (SAFs) are derived from sustainable feedstocks such as
waste oils, agricultural residues, oil-rich agricultural organisms or waste carbon rich
gasses and can be used in existing aircraft technology with only minor modifications.

32%
reduction in CO2
50%
blend of SAF with fossil
70%
life cycle carbon
32%
of UK demand for
emissions by 2050 fuels are certified savings compared to kerosene could be met
through widespread use currently, with an fossil jet fuel by domestically
of SAF industry ambition to produced SAF by 2050
reach 100%

209
2024

Question: Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed
in the context of which one of the following?
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Answer C

Source:
https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/centre-approves-nearly-12-gw-pumped-
storage-hydropower-projects-124011800894_1.html

Explanation:
Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. It is a configuration
of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down
from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.

210
Open-Loop Versus Closed-Loop Pumped Storage Hydropower

PSH can be characterized as open-loop or closed-loop. Open-loop PSH has an ongoing hydrologic connection to a natural body of water.
With closed-loop PSH, reservoirs are not connected to an outside body of water.

OPEN-LOOP PUMPED STORAGE HYDROPOWER CLOSED-LOOP PUMPED STORAGE HYDROPOWER

Projects that are continuously connected to a Projects that are not continuously connected to
naturally flowing water feature a naturally flowing water feature

Upper Reservoir
Upper Reservoir

Penstock/Tunnel Penstock/Tunnel

Powerhouse Powerhouse

Generator/Motor Generator/Motor

Turbine/Pump Turbine/Pump

Lower Reservoir Lower Reservoir

Open-loop pumped storage hydropower systems Closed-loop pumped storage hydropower systems
connect a reservoir to a naturally flowing water feature connect two reservoirs without flowing water features
via a tunnel, using a turbine/pump and via a tunnel, using a turbine/pump and
generator/motor to move water and create electricity. generator/motor to move water and create electricity.

2024

Question: “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
(c) Vaccine production technologies
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Answer D

Source:
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-023-42876-7

211
Explanation:
Membrane bioreactor (MBR) is a new type of wastewater treatment technology combining
membrane separation process with conventional activated sludge (CAS) treatment process.
Due to the fact that the membrane pore size may be below 0.1μm, MBR can effectively produce a
high-quality clarified effluent. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

(a) Activated Sludge Treatment (AST) Process

Solids Sand
removal Aeration zone Settler ﬁltration
Grid Efﬂuent

Wastewater Disinfection
Pretreatment
Air
Sludge

(b) Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) process

Solids
removal Aeration zone Membrane Disinfection
Grid

Efﬂuent Efﬂuent
Wastewater
Pretreatment
Air
Sludge

212
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213
Agriculture

2015

Question: What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in

agriculture ?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground water can occur.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Source:
http://www.unep.org/yearbook/2014/PDF/chapt1.pdf

Explanation:
Nitrogen fixing bacteria converts N2 to Ammonium ion NH4+. with fertilizers already containing
NH4 ions, there is no demand or need from plants for the symbiotic association. further, we can
certainly assume that there is no positive correlation between fertilizers and bacterium. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.

214
Impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture:
» Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur:
■ Nitrogen-fixing microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi can multiply rapidly in response
to the high levels of nitrogen in the soil due to excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers.
■ This can lead to an imbalance in the soil’s microbial community, which can impact its overall
health and fertility.
Increase in the acidity of soil can take place: Nitrogenous fertilizers contain ammonium and
nitrate ions, which can increase the acidity of soil. This can lead to a decrease in soil pH and
negatively impact the growth and yield of crops. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur: Nitrate ions from excess nitrogenous fertilizers
can leach through the soil and contaminate groundwater. - High levels of nitrate in drinking water
can be harmful to human health, particularly for infants and pregnant women. Hence statement
3 is correct.

Diagram of Nitrogen Cycle

Lightning
Atmospheric
nitorgen (N2)
emissions
from
Rain industrial
Volcano combustion
and gasoline
engines

Denitrification
dead animals assimilation Fertilizer
Urine
and plants
Fossil fuels
Nitrogen
Nitrogen fixing bacteria
fixing nitrites (NO3-)
in rootnodules
bacteria Decomposers
in soil (bacteria and fungi) Nitrification
nitrites (NO2-)
ammonification
Nitrification
ammonia (NH3)

215
216
Precipitation

Di
re
c
N2- fertilizers of t a
fe pp

Eva
rt lic
ili
ze ati

p
rs on

ora
tion
Ru
pH imbalance no
ff
in soil

Leached into
Increased ground water
Acidity of soil

Groundwater
•Eutrophication
•DO loss
•Acidification
Food chain

Impact on
human health
Blue baby syndrome
Thyroid

Diabetes Carcinogenicity

2016

Question: Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?
(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms
(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields
(d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops

Answer B

217
Source:
Source: Economic survey(2015-16)

Explanation:
Urea is an important supplier of nitrogen, which is necessary for the development of plants. But
only 30-40 per cent of nitrogen present in the urea is utilised by crops. The rest gets degraded.
When ordinary urea is applied, it gets converted to ammonium carbamate. Some of this gets
converted to ammonia gas in what is called ammonia volatilisation.
About 8-10 per cent nitrogen is lost during volatilization. The rest of the ammonium carbamate
undergoes chemical transformation and nitrates are formed. Some of these are absorbed by
the plants. The rest are either leached into the underground water or are denitrified to gaseous
nitrogen and nitrous oxide under anaerobic conditions (absence of oxygen). Neem has properties
that check nitrogen loss at each stage. It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence
excess nitrate is not available for denitrification.
When farmers use this urea, the slow release of nitrogen helps the fertility of the soil. Therefore,
there will be more yield to the extent of 15-20%. Also, the higher usage of neem-coated urea
would check diversion of urea for industrial use.Neem coated urea also works as insecticide.

More Crop per

Improves NUE Unit Nutrient

Neem
Lowers Ground Coated
Reduces Nitrous
Urea
Water Pollution
Oxide Emissions

Improves Climate Action

Carbon Foot print
of Agriculture &
Food Systems Reduces Cost
of Cultivation

218
2016

Question: The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’
to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?
1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to
local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity.
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated
landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
3. The provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such
identifies GIAHS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/ecofriendly-technologies-fetch-better-results-in-rice-
production/article7154833.ece
http://www.fao.org/giahs/giahs/giahs-about/en/”

Explanation:
The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) are agroecosystems inhabited
by communities that live in an intricate relationship with their territory. These evolving sites are
resilient systems characterized by remarkable agrobiodiversity, traditional knowledge, invaluable
cultures and landscapes, sustainably managed by farmers, herders, fisherfolk, and forest people
in ways that contribute to their livelihoods and food security. Through the Globally Important
Agricultural Heritage Systems Programme, the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations has designated over 80 sites around the world
Statement 1 is incorrect: GIAHS aims to protect traditional agricultural systems. It will not provide
any modern technology and training.
Statement 2 is correct: GIAHS aims to identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm
practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of
the local communities.
Statement 3 is also incorrect: There is no such provision.

219
GIAHS Designated Sites in India

200 mi
JAMMU
&
KASHMIR

UTTARAKHAND

HA
IS
OD

KERALA

Mercator

220
Pampore Saffron Heritage, Jammu & Kashmir (2011)
» Saffron cultivation is typical of Pampore Karewas of the Kashmir region. Saffron has traditionally
been associated with the famous Kashmiri cuisine, its medicinal values, and the rich cultural
heritage of Kashmir.
» Rice is the primary staple crop. Maize, millets, and pulses are also grown. Wheat and barley are
the chief spring crops. Many temperate fruits are grown, including almonds, apples, cherries,
pears, peaches, and walnuts.
» Threats: water scarcity, productivity loss and market volatility.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture, Odisha (2012)
» The Koraput region in the Eastern Ghats is a highland plateau. Subsistence paddy cultivation
occupies most of the cultivated highland slopes. Jeypore in the region has rich genetic
resources of medicinal plants.
» Koraput traditional systems are strongly linked to the tribal communities and their indigenous
knowledge system. They have the tradition of maintaining sacred groves, which preserve plant
genetic resources.
» Tribal groups: 52 tribal groups, mainly Khond, Bhatada, Paroja, Bhumia, Bondas, etc.
» Threats: deforestation and mining.
Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System, Kerala (2013)
» Kuttanad Wetland Agriculture System is a mosaic of fragmented agricultural landscapes:
■ wetlands used for paddy cultivation and fishing,
■ garden lands used for coconut, tubers, and food crops plantation, and
■ water areas used for inland fishing.
» Kuttanad Wetland Agriculture System is the only system in India that favours rice cultivation
below sea level in the land created by draining delta swamps in brackish waters.
» Threats: sea-level rise, severe pollution, tourism, etc.

221
2017

Question: Which of the following Practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing
crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till is an agricultural
technique which increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic
matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil.
Statement 2 is Not correct: Gypsum improves the ability of soil to drain, hence, it is not a water
conservation practice in agriculture. Gypsum in the fields applied during land preparation to
maintain the soil pH at optimum level. This will help to enhance availability of different plant nutrients
especially Calcium & Sulphur, as gypsum is the cheapest source of these two secondary nutrients
for plants.
Statement 3 is correct: More agricultural remnants left after harvest help the soil retain more
water in the following ways: Reducing evaporation. Cover from plant leftovers allows less sunlight
to penetrate the soil and slows the flow of air over the soil, both of which help to lower evaporation
rates.

Source:
Official Website of FAO, Economic Times article “Pakistan exporting 2,700 tonnes gypsum daily to
India”

Motivation:
It was reported in the news that Pakistan was exporting Gypsum to India in huge quantities. Also,
conservation of water in Agriculture is one of the most important concerns in India as India is the
leading groundwater extractors for agricultural purposes.

222
2018

Question: With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation
Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer C

Explanation:
Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption
of the soil’s structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types
of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share
three core principles. These include:
» maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop residue
or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose);
» minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground) ;
» regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;
CA also uses or promotes where possible or needed various management practices such as
utilization of green manures/cover crops to produce the residue cover; no burning of crop
residues; integrated disease and pest management; controlled/limited human and mechanical
traffic over agricultural soils.
When these CA practices are used by farmers one of the major environmental benefits is reduction
in fossil fuel use and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. But they also reduce the power/energy
needs of farmers.

Source:
http://conservationagriculture.mannlib.cornell.edu/pages/aboutca/whatisca.html

223
Motivation:
Conservation Agriculture is a term sometimes seen in the news.

2018

Question: With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Organic matter affects both the chemical and physical properties of the soil. Properties influenced
by organic matter include: soil structure; moisture holding capacity; diversity and activity of
soil organisms, both those that are beneficial and harmful to crop production; and nutrient
availability. Increased levels of organic matter and associated soil fauna lead to greater pore
space with the immediate result that water infiltrates more readily and can be held in the soil.
The improved pore space is a consequence of the bioturbating activities of earthworms and
other macro-organisms and channels left in the soil by decayed plant roots.
Sulfur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere.
Sulfur is released by weathering of rocks and minerals. Water, temperature and chemical
reactions break down minerals releasing their component elements. Once sulfur is exposed to
the air, it combines with oxygen, and becomes sulfate (SO4). Plants and microbes take up sulfate
and convert it into organic compounds. As animals consume plants, the sulfur is moved through
the food chain and released when organisms and plants die and decompose.
Primary salinization occurs naturally where the soil parent material is rich in soluble salts, or in
the presence of a shallow saline groundwater table. In arid and semiarid regions, where rainfall
is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, or where drainage is restricted, soils with high
concentrations of salts (“salt-affected soils”) may be formed. When an excess of sodium is
involved in the salinization process this is referred to as sodification.

224
Secondary salinization occurs when significant amounts of water are provided by irrigation, with
no adequate provision of drainage for the leaching and removal of salts, resulting in the soils
becoming salty and unproductive. Salt-affected soils reduce both the ability of crops to take up
water and the availability of micronutrients. They also concentrate ions toxic to plants and may
degrade the soil structure.

Sulfur Cycle
Sulfur (SO2, H2S) in
the atmosphere

Sunlight
Smelting & burning
Precipitation of fossil fuels
(acid rain, Volcanization
snowfall)
Animal
uptake
Weathering Sulfate
of rocks
(SO42-) in
fertilizer
Plant & animal
Surface f remains/wastes
of

ta t
ke
runoff

up lan
n
ru Sulfate

P
r
lize (SO42-)
rti Organic
Fe ing in soil
a ch sulfur
Le
Bacterial Bacterial
oxidation reduction

Reduced
sulfur
Sulfate (H2S, HS-) Decomposition
(SO42-) in
water

Sulfide (S2-) in
sediments Fossils and fossil fuels

Source:
Official website of FAO (http://www.fao.org/docrep/009/a0100e/a0100e08.htm
https://www.fertilesoilsolutions.com/soilwater-science/how-the-sulfur-cycle-works-in-crop-
nutrition/
http://www.fao.org/tempref/agl/agll/docs/salinity_brochure_eng.pdf)

Motivation:
Soil health and conservation is a major theme often seen in the news.

225
2019

Question: Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A major direct source of nitrous oxide from agricultural soils is that of
synthetic fertilizer use. Where large applications of fertilizer are combined with soil conditions
favorable to denitrification, large amounts of nitrous oxide can be produced and emitted to the
atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Ammonia is a common by-product of animal waste due to the often
inefficient conversion of feed nitrogen into animal product. Emissions of ammonia from livestock
farming are responsible for the acidification and eutrophication of deposited ammonia in the
environment.
Statement 3 is correct: Reactive nitrogen includes – ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide (NO), nitrous
oxide (N2O). Livestock and Poultry are both responsible for emissions of these.

226
Nitrogen Cycle
N2 in the
atmosphere

De
n
io
Lightning

ni
at

tr
fix

ifi
ca
n
ge

tio
o

n
tr
Ni

Absorption of N2
in animals

ion
Nitrogen-fixing Decomposers

t
bacteria

en fixa
Denitrifying
bacteria

Nitrog
Ammonification

Ab in p
As rpti nts
so la
sim on
ila of N 2
tio
n
NH4+ NO3-

NH3
Nitrifying bacteria
Nitrifying bacteria
Nitrification
NO2-
Nitri
ficat
ion

Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pollution/annual-un-report-recognises-the-threats-
posed-by-nitrogen-pollution-63469
https://www.unenvironment.org/news-and-stories/press-release/it-time-fix-broken-nitrogen-
cycle-says-un-environment-frontiers

Motivation:
The annual Frontiers report 2019 published by the United Nations (UN), has included a chapter on
nitrogen pollution in its latest edition, in a sign that pollution caused by the reactive forms of nitrogen
is now being recognised as a grave environmental concern on a global level.

227
2019

Question: In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with
apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Answer A

Explanation:
Carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and
triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture.

Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/fall-armyworm-an-insect-that-can-travel-100-km-
per-night-the-threat-it-poses-for-farmers-5710850/
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pesticide-ban-lands-kerala-in-court-33657

Motivation:
In 2018-19, reports of Fall armyworm (FAW) infestations started pouring in from across the country,
the Central Insecticide Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC) had allowed spraying of select
insecticides/formulations — Carbofuran, Phorate, Thiamethoxam (12.6%) plus Lambda-cyhalothrin
(9.5%), and Chlorantraniliprole 18.5% suspension concentrate — on a trial basis.

228
2020

Question: What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer C

Explanation:
Explanation: ‘Fertigation’ is the technique of supplying dissolved Fertigation
fertilizers to crops through an irrigation system.
When combined with an efficient irrigation system both nutrients and
water can be manipulated and managed to obtain the maximum
possible yield of marketable production from a given quantity of
these inputs.
Benefits of fertigation
Fertigation has some specific advantages over broadcast and band A. It is a safe method of
fertilization: fertilizer application without
damaging the plant's root
» (1) A frequent supply of nutrients reduces fluctuation of nutrient system.
concentration in soil. B. In this, fertilizers are given
near the roots, which
» (2) There is efficient utilization and precise application of increases the efficiency of
nutrients according to the nutritional requirements of the crop. fertilizer use and saves time,
labor and money.
» (3) Fertilizers are applied throughout the irrigated soil volume and C. Small loss of nutrients
are readily available to plants. from the soil surface such as
evaporation lass of nitrogen.
» (4) Nutrients can be applied to the soil when soil or crop conditions
would otherwise prohibit entry into the field with conventional equipment.
The pH of the irrigation water is of great importance, as it affects many chemical reactions. In
fertigation, the reasons for adjusting the pH to an optimal range are: 1. To allow optimal uptake of
nutrients, especially micronutrients; 2. To keep the irrigation system free from clogging. Alkalinity
of a fertigation system can be controlled by adding Acid. The injection of acid to the irrigation
water should be, as much as possible, uniform and continuous, throughout the entire duration of
the irrigation.

229
Drip fertigation increases water and nitrogen use efficiency. Drip fertigation reduced dissolved
inorganic and organic N leaching by 90%.
Soluble fertilizers like urea, potash and a wide variety of fertilizer mixtures available in the market
could be well mixed with irrigation water, filtered and then passed through the irrigation unit.
Rock Phosphate and some other mineral fertilizers containing phosphorus are insoluble in water
as well as in citric acid. They are suitable in strongly acid soils or organic soils. These fertilizers are
given in green manured fields. The phosphorus is very slowly released by microbes at action and
remains in soil for long time. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/active-research-work-in-organic-fertigation/
article4268032.ece
https://www.indiaagronet.com/indiaagronet/manuers_fertilizers/contents/phosphatic_fertilisers.
htm

Motivation:
Articles related to fertigation are frequently seen in the news.

2020

Question: What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is
possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

230
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Zero-till farming
is a way of growing crops without tillage No-Till Farming
or disturbing the soil in harvested fields.
Wheat can be sowed without burning the A method of growing crops without disturbing
residue of the previous crop. For example, the soil through plowing or tilling. Crop residue
remains on the soil surface to decompose
Happy Seeder, a machine developed naturally.
BENEFITS
by Department of Farm Machinery and Reduced soil erosion caused by plowing and tilling
Power Engineering, Punjab Agricultural Increased soil organic matter

University, Ludhiana is one of the unique Improved soil structure and aeration
Increased beneﬁcial soil microbes
techniques which is used for sowing seed Retained soil moisture and water conservation

without any burning of crop residue. Reduced fuel use from not plowing

Statement 2 is correct: Direct seeding is

a crop establishment system wherein rice seeds are sown directly into the field, as opposed to the
traditional method of growing seedlings in a nursery, then transplanting into flooded fields. Direct
seeded rice (DSR) has received much attention because of its low-input demand. It involves
sowing pre-germinated seed into a puddled soil surface (wet seeding), standing water (water
seeding) or dry seeding into a prepared seedbed (dry seeding).
Statement 3 is correct: Adopting no-tillage in agro-ecosystems has been widely recommended
as a means of enhancing carbon (C) sequestration in soils.

Motivation:
To tackle the problem of stubble burning Happy Seeders were frequently seen in the news. Also,
Direct seeded rice (DSR) technique is also frequently discussed in newspapers.

231
2020

Question: In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of
eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer A

Explanation:
Crop diversification is the process of shifting from regional dominance of one crop to regional
production of number of other crops. The role of crop diversification is to enhance resilience in
the agricultural sector by reducing dependency on a single crop. Crop diversification increases
agricultural biodiversity (genetic, species and ecosystem), improves crop yields and produces
quality to address both food and nutritional security.
Legume intensification: This involves increasing the productivity of legume crops through better
management practices. Legumes help to improve soil health by fixing nitrogen and are an
important source of protein.
Tensiometer use: A tensiometer is a device used to measure soil moisture. Such tensiometers are
used in irrigation scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to
water. Its also considered as eco-friendly agriculture as it help control the excessive use of water
distorting the quality of the soil.
Vertical Farming: The big disadvantage of vertical farming is the high energy demand of
vertical farms. There are many different reasons for the high energy consumption including the
automation and irrigation systems, HVAC systems and so on.

232
VERTICAL FARMING
MEANING Solution to all food crisis???
Vertical Farming is the RENEWABLE PRODUCTION
ptactice of producting food A 30 story vertical farm needs
in vertically stacked- layer 26 million kWh of electricity,
such as a used warehouse, but it can generate 56 million
skycraper, or shipping kWh through solar energy
container and the use of biogas
digesters.
BENEFITS
EFFICIENT USE OF URBAN
The Adoption of vertical
farming technique SPACE
allowsconsumers to grow Crops can be stacked as high
crops in a warehouse or a as the building is built.
multi story building
WATER CONSERVATION
Indoor farming can protect
Hydroponic uses 70%
crops from extreme
less water than
weather conditions.
traditional agriculture
Indoor farming can protect practices.
crops from extreme
weather conditions. WEATHERPROOF
Crops are grown in a controlled environmentand are therefore
not exposed to extreme weather events like drought and ﬂods.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/vertical-farming-explained/article30522508.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/vertical-farming-explained/article30522508.ece

Motivation:
Eco-friendly agricultural practices are often seen in the news.

233
2020

Question: What is the use of biochar in farming?

1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in
vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes
the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables
the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Biochar is defined as a carbon-rich material produced during pyrolysis process that is a
thermochemical decomposition of biomass with a temperature about ≤700°C in the absence or
limited supply of oxygen.
Statement 1 is correct: As the use of soilless, hydroponic growing methods becomes more
prevalent among crop producers, researchers are looking for new materials that can help
growers save money, produce healthy plants, and contribute to sustainable practices. Biochar, a
charcoal-like material produced by heating biomass in the absence of oxygen, can be used as a
substrate for soilless, hydroponic tomato production. This method could provide growers with a
cost-effective and environmentally responsible green-waste disposal method, and supplement
substrate, fertilizer, and energy requirements.
Statement 2 is correct: Biochar has the potential to boost the natural ability of legumes to fix
nitrogen to the soil. Adding biochar
to soil not only provides a way to
sequester carbon, but also has many
soil health benefits which will help
farmers adapt to climate change
and increase productivity. In addition
to supporting the life of nitrogen-
fixing microorganisms, biochar can Solid
(Bio Char)
also decrease soil N2O emission, and
increase nitrogen use efficiency and
nitrogen retention in the soil

234
Statement 3 is correct: Because of its porous nature, biochar can improve your soil’s water
retention and water holding capacity – defined as the amount of water that a soil can hold for
its crops – so that your plants will have more water available to them for a longer period of time.

Source:
https://www.dpi.nsw.gov.au/content/archive/agriculture-today-stories/ag-today-archives/june-
2010/biochar-boosts-nitrogen-fixation---study
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/biochar-application-can-help-ghana-s-
smallholder-farmers-fight-back-climate-change-study-73017

Motivation:
In 2020 it was reported in the news that new research has shown biochar application is more
effective in promoting cowpea growth and yield in Ghana.

2021

Question: How is the permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical
farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such
phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possibly in semi-arid regions but permaculture
farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in
conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3

Answer B

Explanation:
Permaculture is, amongst others, an approach to land management that adopts arrangements
observed in flourishing natural ecosystems.Permaculture can be understood as the growth of

235
agricultural ecosystems in a self-sufficient and sustainable way. This form of agriculture draws
inspiration from nature to develop synergetic farming systems based on crop diversity, resilience,
natural productivity, and sustainability.
Permaculture discourages monoculture and serves to open up the possibility of growing a
wide range of food grains, fruits and vegetables and thereby expanding the food basket; thus
permaculture also contributes to community health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Application of permaculture methods and introducing permaculture techniques like swales,
natural mulching, rainfall harvesting, legume cultivation, have a clear role in improving soil
properties, increasing soil organic matter content and reducing soil salinity. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Due to its focus on water conservation and region specific crops, it is very much suitable for arid
and semi arid regions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Mulch is a material placed on the soil surface to maintain moisture, reduce weed growth, mitigate
soil erosion and improve soil conditions. Mulching can help to improve crop yield and optimize
water use which is an essential component of permaculture. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Conventional Organic
Yield Soil Quality Yield Soil Quality
Minimize Nutritional Minimize
Nutritional Energy
Quality Quality Energy
Use Use
Minimize
Minimize
Biodi- Pesticide Biodiversity
Pesticide
versity residues
residues

Reduce Reduce
Minimize Minimize
Worker Worker
Water Water
Exposure to Exposure to
Pollution Pollution
Pesticides Pesticides

Employment Employment
Proﬁtability Proﬁtability
of Workers of Workers

Ecosystem Total Costs Ecosystem Total Costs

Services Services

Source:

Motivation:
Recently it was reported that permaculture had helped in the restoration of a village in Nepal.

236
2021

Question: In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following
statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change,
Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural
Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of
the CGIAR’s research centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an integrated approach to managing landscapes—cropland,
livestock, forests and fisheries--that address the interlinked challenges of food security and
climate change.
A climate-smart agriculture (CSA) solution will transform and re-orient agricultural systems to
support food security in the context of the new realities of climate change. CSA has three pillars: 1)
sustainably increasing agricultural productivity to support equitable increases in incomes, food
security, and development; 2) adapting and building resilience to climate change from farm
to national levels; and 3) reducing greenhouse gas emissions and sequestering carbon where
possible.
Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) is an international programme to address
the increasing challenge of global warming and declining food security on agricultural practices,
policies and measures through a strategic collaboration between CGIAR and Future Earth. CGIAR
is a global partnership that unites international organizations engaged in research about food
security headquartered in France. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
CCAFS Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs) have successfully combined global knowledge with local
action to help farmers sustainably produce more food, while curbing greenhouse gas emissions
and increasing resilience to climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, is a non-profit, non-political public international research
organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan
Africa with a wide array of partners throughout the world. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

237
Source:
Official Website of CGIAR

Motivation:
Agriculture and climate function hand in hand. Today, 32–39% of global crop yield variability is
explained by climate; this translates to annual production fluctuations of 2–22 million tonnes for
major crops such as maize, rice, wheat, and soybean. At the same time, agriculture and livestock
directly contribute about 11% of global greenhouse gas emissions, and agriculturally-driven land
use changes cause additional emissions

2022

Question: Among the following crops, which one is

the most important anthropogenic source of both
methane and nitrous oxide ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat

Answer B

Explanation:
Paddy fields are anthropogenic sources of atmospheric nitrous oxide (N2O) and methane
(CH4), which have been reckoned as 273 and 80-83 times more powerful than CO2 in driving
temperature increase in 20 years.
Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O) emission. In paddies, both the
soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the atmosphere. The rice plant in the paddy is considered
to act as a channel between the soil and the atmosphere for N2O emission

Source:
Standard Reference books. It is also frequently reported in the news.

238
2022

Question: “System of Rice Intensification” of System of Rice Intensiﬁcation

cultivation, in which alternate wetting and More grains per
An emerging alternative Larger (Heavier)
grains
drying of rice fields is practised, results in : fertile tiller

1. Reduced seed requirement More

More well-ﬁlled
fertile panicles which
tillers per plant form the tillers
that a plant puts out
2. Reduced methane production
Increased
3. Reduced electricity consumption
A healthy and strong
and bigger root system below
hills (stations)
ground for each plant

Select the correct answer using the code

All these beneﬁts works out by following four main principles of SRI method; (1) Healthy early crop establishment, (2)
given below : Reduced competition between plants, (3) Healthy soils, rich in organic matter, and (4) Moist soil (water) management

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

Explanation:
System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was 1 Seeding get 4 Intermittent water
transplanted at a application to create wet and
first developed in Madagascar in the much younger dry soil conditions, instead
1980s and since then several countries age of continuous
ﬂood irrigation.
in the world have been practising it,
including India. It promises to save 15
to 20% ground water, improves rice 2 Only single seeding, 5 Rotary weeding to
instead of a handful control weeds
productivity. of seedlings get and Promote soil
planted in each hill. aeration.
Option 1 is correct: Under SRI 2kg seed
is required to grow a nursery for one
acre against 5kg seed required in the 3 Plants are spaced 6 Increased use of
wider apart, and organic fertilizer to
traditional method. in a squre pattern. enhance soil
fertility.
Option 2 is correct: SRI is a holistic
approach to sustainable rice cultivation. Fig: How System of Rice Intensification works.
By minimizing water use and alternating
wet and dry conditions, it minimizes methane production.
Option 3 is correct: With less consumption of water, adoption of SRI saves total energy inputs.
A study found in Vietnam has also proved that applying SRI methods can save around 23% of
energy inputs, while increasing energy outputs by 11%.

239
Conventional
Practices SRI Farmer’s practices
recommended practices

Seed rate (kg ha-1) 5-7 20-30 50-75

Seedling age (days) 10-15 25-30 25-40

20 x 20 or more (square
Plant spacing (cm) 15 X 10/20 X 10 Random
planting)

Hill number m-2 16-20 50-66 50-66

Seedling number hill-1 Single 2-3 3-6 or more

Only moist conditions

Flooding to 5-10 cm depth of Continuous flooding to
Water management with shallow flooding and
water various depth
sometimes drying of field
Hand weeding twice, at 15
Weeds are turned back into 2-3 times hand
and 35 days after planting,
Weed management the field by a mechanical weeding; herbicide also
or application of herbicide
hand weeder used by some farmers
plus one is hand weeding
Weeder is used 3-4 times
Intercultivation in between rows in both No No
directions (perpendicular
Integrated nutrient
Emphasis on more Use all recommended
management using organic
application of organic manures and fertilizers,
manures, bio-fertilizers,
Nutrient management manures; sometimes but doses and timing
and chemical fertilizers at
Integrated nutrient vary according to
recommended levels and
management farmers’ resources
timing

Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/punjab-paddy-sowing-technique-water-labour-
costs-7938766/

Motivation:
SRI is often seen in the news.

240
2023

Question: Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India
extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year
to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its
territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer C

Explanation:
According to United Nation’s ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India accounts for nearly
26% of groundwater abstracted globally. The Asia-Pacific region is the largest groundwater
abstractor in the world, containing seven out of the ten countries that extract most groundwater
(Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Iran, Pakistan and Turkey). These countries alone account
for roughly 60% of the world’s total groundwater withdrawal.
Abstraction
Hence statement 1 is correct. Country
(KM /year)
3

India 251
India, as the largest groundwater user globally, at an estimated 251 China 112
km³ per year abstracted, uses 89% of its groundwater abstraction for USA 112
irrigation. The report says, reduced electricity tariffs or free electricity Pakistan 64
Iran 60
to agriculture, as exist in many Indian states, coupled with assured Bangladesh 35
state or government procurement of crops, encourage farmers to Mexico 29
grow water-intensive crops, such as sugarcane, including in semi- Saudi Arabia 23
Indonesia 14
arid regions with low natural recharge. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.

Source:
UN World Water Development Report, 2022 | https://unesdoc.unesco.org/ark:/48223/pf0000380721

Motivation:
The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a key governmental organization responsible for assessing
and managing groundwater resources in India, published the ‘Dynamic Ground Water Resources
Assessment of India – 2022‘ report last October.

241
2024

Question: Consider the following plants :

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

Explanation:
The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large
and agriculturally important family of flowering plants. It includes trees, shrubs, and perennial
or annual herbaceous plants, which are easily recognized by their fruit and their compound,
stipulate leaves.
Option 1 is correct: The peanut belongs to the botanical family Fabaceae (or Leguminosae),
commonly known as the legume, bean, or pea family.
Option 2 is correct: Macrotyloma uniflorum is a legume native to tropical southern Asia, known for
its distinct taste and texture, widely used legume in many cuisines. It also belongs to the family
Fabaceae.
Option 3 is correct: The soybean, soy bean, or soya bean is a species of legume native to East
Asia, widely grown for its edible bean, which has numerous uses. It also belongs to the family
Fabaceae.

242
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243
AHMEDABAD BENGALURU BHOPAL CHANDIGARH DELHI GUWAHATI HYDERABAD JAIPUR JODHPUR LUCKNOW PRAYAGRAJ PUNE RANCHI
Terms in
News

2016

Question: ‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the
(a) production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers
(b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households
(c) installation of CNG kits in motor-cars
(d) installation of water meters in urban households

Answer A

Source:
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/metering-policy-hindering-rooftop-solar-
sector-cleanmaxs-jain-says/article8542096.ece

Explanation:
It is the mechanism of selling the surplus solar power where meters measure the soalr power
exported to the grid; the consumer is given credit for the exported power, lightening the bill. Hence
option (a) is the correct answer.

244
How Net Metering Works
Photovoltaic Solar Example

1 Solar panels
convert 3 The energy is
used in your
energy from home, school
the sun into or business Energy used
electricity
in your home
from the
electrical grid

Excess energy
from your solar
panels not
2 An inverter converts the elec-
tricity produced by the solar
used in your
home goes
panels from direct current (DC) back to the
to alternating current (AC) for
use in your home, school or
4 A bi-directional
meter measures
electrical grid

business energy used and

excess energy pro-
duced

2016

Question: What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand,
quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United
Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer A

Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/apple-iphone-ipad-how-
long-will-it-last/

Explanation:
The Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol, developed by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World
Business Council on Sustainable Development (WBCSD), sets the global standard for how to
measure, manage, and report greenhouse gas emissions.
Many companies and organizations around the world are using GHG Protocol standards and tools
to manage their emissions and become more efficient, resilient, and prosperous organizations.”

245
2020

Question: Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?
It is measure, in monetary value, of the
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on
the burning of those fuels.
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

Answer A

Explanation:
The social cost of carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would
result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The SCC puts the
effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers and other decision makers
understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions.

Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/co2-emissions-cost-india-210-
billion-every-year-study/article25057550.ece

Motivation:
Recently, researchers have developed a data set quantifying what the social cost of carbon will be
for nearly 200 countries.

246
2021

Question: What is blue carbon?

(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
(d) Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer A

Explanation:
Blue carbon is the term for carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems. Hence,
option (a) is the correct answer.
Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast “”capture and hold”” carbon, acting
as something called a carbon sink.
These coastal systems, though much smaller in size than the planet’s forests, sequester this
carbon at a much faster rate, and can continue to do so for millions of years.

Carbon is absorbed through photosynthesis

Some carbon returns to the atmosphere

CO2
Some methane from Some carbon dioxide from
microorganisms CHA 4 respiration by microorganisms
and vegetation

Kelp Seagrass bed

Some carbon enters
from high watershed
Mangroves and Salt Marsh areas

New Carbon

Old Carbon
Exported Carbon is stored for long
carbon timescales in biomass
and sediments

247
2022

Question: The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces.

Answer C

Explanation:
Urban forests are created through Miyawaki, an afforestation method based on the work of
Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s. The technique compresses layers of a forest –
shrubs, trees, canopies – on small plots of land, turning them into tiny forests.
In the Miyawaki technique, various native species of plants are planted close to each other so that
the greens receive sunlight only from the top and grow upwards rather than sideways. As a result,
the plantation becomes approximately 30 times denser, grows 10 times faster and becomes
maintenance-free after a span of 3 years. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

WHAT IS THE MIYAWAKI METHOD?

Named after Japanese

botanist Akira Miyawaki
who invented it
It involves planting of
several species very close
together in a small pit MIYAWAKI FORESTS IN VADODARA
Plants draw nutrients from VMC's Rajivnagar
Private farm, Sun
each other and become STP, Harni
PharmaRoad
healthy
Area | 12,000 Area | 16,000
A dense forest, which square feet square feet
grows naturally in 300
Number of trees Number of trees
years is created in 30-35 planted | 3,500 planted | 4,000
years
Trees grow 10 times faster,
Bhoj village, Padra
and absorb 30 times
Forest department's demonstration plot
more carbon dioxide
Area | 30 x 10 metre
Density is 30 times that of
normal tree plantations Number of trees planted | 831

248
2022

Question: Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally
sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a
country.
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure
development.
(d) Making mandatory provision for environmental costs in a government project/programme.

Answer A

Explanation:
Greenwashing is when a company purports to be environmentally conscious for marketing
purposes but actually isn’t making any notable sustainability efforts. Hence option (a) is the
correct answer.
‘Greenwashing’ a term was coined by environmentalist Jay Westerveld in 1986.
For example : A plastic package containing a new shower curtain is labeled “recyclable.” It is
not clear whether the package or the shower curtain is recyclable. In either case, the label is
deceptive if any part of the package or its contents, other than minor components, cannot be
recycled.

Types of Greenwashing
Greenhushing: Companies underreport or hide Greenrinsing: When a company regularly
sustainable credentials to avoid scrutiny. changes its ESG (Environmental, Social,
Governance) targets before achieving them.

Greenlighting: The highlighting of a particularly

Greenlabeling: The labeling of an essentially green feature of a business's products or
unsustainable product as green or sustainable. activities to draw attention away from its
environmentally harmful actions.

Greencrowding: When a company hides within

Greenshifting: When companies reduce the a group and is slow to adopt sustainability
climate crisis to consumer behavior and shift policies (e.g. the 20 largest single-use plastic
responsibility to individuals. waste producers are members of the Alliance to
End Plastic Waste global alliance).

249
2024

Question: Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers” ?
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-
zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested
in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets
buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product
Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets
to sell their products.

Answer A

Explanation:
100 Million Farmers is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and
farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective
action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.

250
251
1

16
in TOP 20 Selections in CSE 2023 AIR

from various programs of Vision IAS Aditya Srivastava

2 5 6 7 9 10
AIR AIR AIR AIR AIR AIR

Animesh Ruhani Srishti Anmol Nausheen Aishwaryam

Pradhan Dabas Prajapati

39
Selections
in TOP 50

in CSE 2022
1
AIR
2
AIR
3
AIR

Ishita Garima Uma

Kishore Lohia Harathi N

SHUBHAM KUMAR
CIVIL SERVICES
EXAMINATION 2020

HEAD OFFICE MUKHERJEE NAGAR CENTER GTB NAGAR CENTER FOR DETAILED ENQUIRY
Apsara Arcade, 1/8-B 1 Floor, Plot No. 857, Ground Floor,
st
Classroom & Enquiry Office, Please Call:
Near Gate-6 Karol Bagh Mukherjee Nagar, Opposite Punjab above Gate No. 2, GTB Nagar +91 8468022022,
DELHI Metro Station & Sindh Bank, Mukherjee Nagar Metro Building, Delhi - 110009 +91 9019066066

[email protected] /c/VisionlASdelhi /visionias.upsc /vision _ias VisionIAS_UPSC

AHMEDABAD BENGALURU BHOPAL CHANDIGARH GUWAHATI HYDERABAD JAIPUR JODHPUR LUCKNOW PRAYAGRAJ PUNE RANCHI

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VisionIAS Research and Analysis December 2024 Environment (10 Years UPSC PYQ Trend Analysis)

Uploaded by

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(An All India GS Prelims Test Series feature

Smart Revision, Practice and Holistic Preparation

Current Affairs Integration:

Personalized Test Creation:

Detailed Performance Analysis:

Admission Open Scan to

Total Number of Questions Asked in the last

Climate Change Pollution Unconventional Agriculture Terms in

area, interacting with each other, and also

FOREST GRASSLAND DESERT FRESHWATER MARINE

LOTIC - RIVER, STREAM OR SPRING LENTIC - LAKE, POND OR SWAMP

Question: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

What is Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?

amount of dissolved oxygen needed (i. e., micro-organisms

demanded) by aerobic microorganisms deplete O levels, and harm

to break down organic material present

bacteria releasing phosphorus. Absorption

release of phosphorus into the atmosphere.

between carbon and phosphorus cycle are

through different organs such as roots, Cleaner water

suitable for heavy metal alterations in the Groundwater

Wetlands do many important jobs called break down

is a benefit that we as humans get from

Strategic Framework for CSAT Preparation

Adverse effects of sand mining

Physical environment Chemical

Although peatlands may look very

Benefits of healthy peatlands Impacts of degraded peatlands

Release of Reduced Reduced Reduced

Dugongs (Dugong dugon)

GEOGRAPHIC RANGE HABITAT

ECOLOGICAL ENGINEERS SOCIAL

Length: 2.70 m (Female), 2.12 m (Male)

THREATS GEOGRAPHIC RANGE CONSERVATION

They are historically distributed in Declared the Ganges River Dolphin

Similar UPSC Question in 2013: Consider the following kinds of organisms

Arunachal Pradesh Kaiser-i-Hind

Goa Malabar Tree-Nymph

Union Territory of Jammu and

Karnataka Sahyadri Birdwing

Maharashtra Blue Mormon

Sikkim Blue Duke

Tamil Nadu Tamil Yeoman

Uttarakhand Common Peacock

Tripura Common Birdwing

Aspects Crocodiles Alligators Gharials

Water bodies Saltwater Freshwater Freshwater

Long, thin and distinct boss

Present and osmoregulate

Behavior Aggressive Less Aggressive Very shy

Locomotion Speed 20 mph 30 mph 15 mph

Body Length Up to 17 feet long Up to 14 feet long Up to 15 feet long

Question: Consider the following statements:

Asiatic Lion African Lion

IUCN Status Vulnerable Vulnerable

They have sparser mane but have

Question: Consider the following statements:

Eastern Milksnake Northern Watersnake Massasauga Rattlesnake

Similar Previous Year Question:

Question: Consider the following pairs:

Question: With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

Earts Plants - leaves, grass, Did You Know?

Asia’s largest terrestrial mammal is a herbivore

Different From Afcrican TUSKS HERDS

Protection Status : Endangered on the IUCN Red List

Question: Consider the following animals:

Question: Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

Classification of animals based on Nutrition

Frugivorous Feeding on fruits. Example - Parrot, Bat, Squirrel.

Filter feeder Paramecium, Unio, Sponge.

Question: Which of the following are detritivores?

Earthworms. millipedes. sea stars, crab and

Decomposers secrete enzymes on the

Question: Which of the following is not a bird?

The Indian nightjar is a small bird which is a

White Ibises are wetland birds. They use

Econ omic Surv ey

Pachmarhi, Panna Sunderbans