Inorganic Sheet

Daily Practice Paper-1 (Fundamental Particles)
1. Where are protons located in an atom?

(A) Around the nucleus (B) Inside the nucleus (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) A ‘p’ is 1837 times heavier than an ‘e’. (B) A ‘p’ is 1/1837 times heavier than an ‘e’.
(C) A ‘p’ is 1837 times lighter than an ‘e’ (D) ‘p’ has the same mass as an ‘e’.
3. Nucleus consist of
(A) Proton and electron (B) Proton and neutron (C) Neutron and electron (D) Only neutron
4. Mass number of elements is -
(A) Number of protons in its nucleus (B) Number of electrons and protons in the atom
(C) Number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus (D) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
5. Neutron is a fundamental particle which have
(A) +1-unit charge and 1 unit mass (B) No charge and 1 unit mass
(C) Have no charge and no mass (D) Have-1 unit charge and I unit mass
6. Atomic number of any element
(A) Atomic weight divided by two (B) Number of neutrons in nucleus
(C) Nucleus weight (D) Nuclear charge
7. Lightest particle is
(A) n (B) e (C) p (D) None of these
8. Fundamental particle of atomic nucleus is
(A) p. e- (B) p. n. e (C) p. n (D) n, e
9. The total number of neutrons in zinc (z= 30) with mass number 70 is
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 36 (D) 38
10. The charge carried by an electron is in coulombs
(A) 1.602 x 1019 (B) 1.602 x 10-19 (C) 1.609 (D) 6.02 x 1019
11. The mass of a proton is:
(A) 1.609 g (B) 1.6 x 1024 g (C) 1.6 × 10-23 g (D) 1.6 × 10-24 g
12. Which of the following is false?
(A) Neutron has highest mass among fundamental particles (B) e/m is highest for a proton
(C) The mass of an electron is negligible (D) Charge of neutron is zero
13. Which of the following statement are wrong?
(A) An atom is electrically neutral
(B) An atom & its ion have an unequal number of protons
(C) The size of a cation is smaller than that of corresponding atom
(D) An atom & its corresponding anion have equal number of electrons
14. A proton is identical to
(A) the nucleus of helium (B) the nucleus of a hydrogen atom
(C) a molecule of a hydrogen (D) an atom of hydrogen
15. The e/m ratio of an electron for all type of substances is
(A) constant (B) less than one (C) greater than one (D) zero
16. Mass of electron is
(A) 9.1083 × 10-31 kg (B) 9.1083 x 10-24 kg (C) 9.1083 × 10-28 kg (D) 1.67 × 10-24 kg
Daily Practice Paper-2 (Representation of an atom)
1. Total number of neutrons in dipositive Zinc ion (Zn²+) with mass number 70 is (Z=30)
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 20
2. An atom which has a mass number of 14 and has 8 neutrons is an
(A) isotope of oxygen (B) isobar of oxygen (C) isotope of carbon (D) isobar of carbon
3. Difference between Cl atom and CI- ion of
(A) ‘e’ (B) ‘p’ (C) ‘n’ (D) A & B
+2 -
4. Mg and F ions differ in which of the following fundamental particle?
(A) Electrons, protons and neutrons (B) Protons and neutrons
(C) Only protons (D) Neutrons and electrons
5. An atom of an element has 26 electrons and has a mass number 56. The nucleus of this atom
contains ......... neutrons.
(A) 26 (B) 36 (C) 30 (D) 56
#$ #"
6. !"Cl and !"Cl differ from other in number of
(A) ‘e’ (B) ‘p’ (C) ‘n’ (D) A & C
&' &'
7. !%Ar and ('Ca have the same number of
(A) ‘e’ (B) ‘p’ (C) ‘n’ (D p+n
8. A monovalent anions has 10 electrons and 10 neutrons The atomic number and mass number
of the element are respectively
(A) 10, 20 (B) 9, 18 (C) 10,20 (D) 9, 19
9. A trivalent cation of an element contains 10 electrons. The atomic number of the element is
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 13 (D) None of these
10 4
10. 5B + ₂He → X+ 0n¹ 'X' in the above reaction is
(A) 7N¹2 (B) 7N13 (C) 6B13 (D) None of these
11. An atom has 12 protons and 12 neutrons; its mass and atomic numbers are:
(A) Mass number 12, atomic number 12 (B) Mass number 24, atomic number 12
(C) Mass number 12, atomic number 0 (D) None of these
12. The number of electrons and neutrons in tritium (₁T³) respectively is:
(A) 3, 1 (B) 1, 3 (C) 1, 2 (D) None of the above
13. An atom with atomic number 18 and mass number 40, has the following arrangement.
(A) 18p, 18e, 22n (B) 18p, 18e, 40n (C) 22p, 18e, 18n (D) 22p,22e, 18n
14. An anion has
(A) more electrons than protons (B) more protons than electrons
(C) more neutrons than protons (D) more protons than neutrons
15. Species 'X' contains 9 protons, 10 electrons and 11 neutrons. It is :
(A) A neutral atom (B) An isotope (C) A cation (D) An anion
235
16. If three neutrons are added to the nuclei of 92U , atomic number of new nucleus is :
(A) 89 (B) 95 (C) 90 (D) 92
Daily Practice Paper-3 (isotope, isotone, isobar)
1. Neutron is present in all atom except
(A) Protium (B) Deuterium (C) Tritium (D) Helium
2. Select correct statement
(A) Isobars have the same mass number
(B) Isotopes have same mass but different atomic number having in elements
(C) mass number is negative charged particle
(D) isotone have same p-n
3. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) F- has more electrons than Na+ (B) F- has less electrons than Na+
(C) Na+ and F- has equal electrons (D) None of the above
4. Isotopes differ in:
(A) Physical properties (B) Chemical properties (C) Number of protons (D) None of these
5. Which of the following triad represents isotones?
(A) 6C¹2, 6C13, 6C14 (B) 18Ar40, 20Ca42, 21Sc43 (C) 18Ar40, 20Ca40, 21Sc41 (D) 7N14, 8O16, 9F19
6. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) 7N¹4 and 6C¹3 are isotones (B) 7N¹4 and 6C¹4 are isotopes
(C) 7N¹4 and 6C¹2 are isobars (D) 7N¹4 and 6C¹5 are isotones
7. Isotopes of an elements have –
(A) different chemical properties (B) different atomic
(C) The same physical properties (D) Different number of neutrons
8. Isotopes of an element are the atom which have -
(A) The same number of neutrons in their nuclei (B) The same mass number
(C) Different number of electrons in their orbit (D) The same number of protons in their nuclei
9. The sum of number of neutron and protons in one of the isotopes of hydrogen is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
40 40 40
10. 8Ar , 19K , 20Ca
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) A & B both (D) None
11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) 11Na23 and 12Mg24 are isotones (B) 18Ar40 and 20Ca40 are isobars
(C) N–3 and P–3 are isoelectronic species (D) 92U235 and 92U238 are isotopes
Daily Practice Paper-4 (Quantum numbers introduction)
1. The number of quantum numbers required to describe an electron in an atom completely is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. The number of electrons which can be accommodated in an orbital is
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
3. The quantum number which specifies the location of an electron as well as energy is
(A) Principal quantum number (B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Spin quantum number (D) Magnetic quantum number
4.The electrons of the same orbitals can be distinguished by
(A) principal quantum number (B) azimuthal quantum number
(C) spin quantum number (D) magnetic quantum number.
5. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to
(A) Size, shape, and orientation (B) Shape, size and orientation
(C) Size, orientation, and shape (D) None of the above
6.Principal quantum number of an atom represents.
(A) Size of the orbital (B) Spin angular momentum
(C) Orbital angular momentum (D) Space orientation of the orbital
7. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :
(A) Spin quantum number (B) Principal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) Azimuthal quantum number
8. Which quantum number will determine the shape of the subshell
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) Spin quantum number
9. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :
(A) azimuthal quantum number (B) spin quantum number
(C) magnetic quantum number (D) principal quantum number
10.Which of the following statements concerning the four quantum numbers is false -
(A) n gives idea of the size of an orbital
(B) l gives the shape of an orbital
(C) ms gives the energy of the electron in the orbital in absence of magnetic field
(D) ms gives the direction of spin angular momentum of the electron in an orbital
11. Principal quantum number of an atom represents
(A) Size of the orbital (B) Spin angular momentum
(C) Orbital angular momentum (D) Space orientation of the orbital
Daily Practice Paper-5 (Principal Quantum Number)
1. The principal quantum number ‘n’ can have integral values ranging from :
(A) 0 to 10 (B) 1 to ¥ (C) 1 to (n – 1) (D) 1 to 50
2. The number of orbitals in a shell with principal quantum number ‘n’ is :
(A) 2n (B) 2n 2 (C) n 2 (D) n + 1
3. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom are :
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 4
rd
4. How many electrons can fit into the orbitals that comprise the 3 quantum shell n = 3
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
5. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in fifth energy level is
(A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 32
6. The number of sub-shells in the fifth energy level is
(A) 4 (B) 11 (C) 9 (D) 5
7.The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the Mth shell is
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
8. For the n=2 energy level, how many orbitals of all kinds are possible
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
9. What is the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in an atom in which
the highest principal quantum number value is 2
(A)10 (B)18 (C) 32 (D) 54
10. Maximum number of electrons present in 'N' shell is
(A)18 (B) 32 (C) 2 (D) 8
11. An electron has principal quantum number 3.
The number of its (i) sub-shells and (ii) orbitals would be respectively
(A) 3 and 5 (B) 3 and 7 (C) 3 and 9 (D) 2 and 5
12. Principal quantum number can be used to explain
(A) energy (B) size (C) both of them (D) none of these
13.The maximum energy is present in any electron at
(A) Nucleus (B) Ground state
(C) First excited state (D) Infinite distance from the nucleus
14. The principal quantum number represents
(A) Shape of an orbital (B) Distance of electron from nucleus
(C) Number of electrons in an orbit (D) Number of orbitals in an orbit
15. For an atom the energy of electron increases with increase in 'n' and the energy difference
between successive energy levels
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) Cannot be found
Daily Practice Paper-6 (Azimuthal Quantum Numbers)
1. The maximum number of electrons which each sub-shell can occupy is
(A) 2n2 (B) 2n (C) 2(2l + 1) (D) (2l + 1)
2. If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers, then the expression
for calculating the total number of electrons in any orbit is –
 = n  = n -1  = n + 1  = n -1
å
 = 1
2 (2 + 1) å
 =1
2 (2 + 1) å
 = 0
2(2 + 1) å 2(2 + 1)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 = 0
3. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the orbitals having
principal quantum number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
4. For (n = 3), the possible values of azimuthal quantum number (l) is
(A) 0, 1, 2, 3 (B) 0, 1, 2 (C) –2, – 1, 0, 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3
5. For a shell of principal quantum number n = 4, which is incorrect:
(A) 16 orbitals (B) maximum 32 electrons
(C) 4 subshells (D) l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
6. For an orbital with azimuthal quantum number l = 3, the maximum number of
electrons will be:
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) zero (D) 1
7. For azimuthal quantum number l = 3, the maximum number of electrons will be
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 14
8. A sub-shell with n = 6, l = 2 can accommodate a maximum of
(A) 12 electrons (B) 36 electrons (C) 10 electrons (D) 72 electrons
9. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the orbitals having principal
quantum number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
10. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression.
(A) 4l – 2 (B) 4l + 2 (C) 2l + 2 (D) 2n2
11. Maximum numbers of electrons in a subshell is given by -
(A) (2l+1) (B) 2(2l+1) (C) (2l+1)2 (D) 2(2l+1)2
12. If n = 3, then the value of 'l' which is incorrect
(A) 0 (B)1 (C) 2 (D) 3
13. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell for which l = 3 is:
(A) 14 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 4
14. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?
(A) 14 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 10
15. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell having n = 4 and l = 3 are:
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 10 (D) 12
16. How many electrons can be accommodated in a sub-shell for which n = 3, l = 1
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 18 (D) 32
17. The maximum number of electrons present in an suborbit l = 3, is
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 14
Daily Practice Paper-7 (shape of orbitals)
1.The quantum number which may be 13. The shape of s-orbital is
designated by s,p,d and f instead of number is (A) Pyramidal (B) Spherical
(A) n (B) l (C) 𝑚) (D) 𝑚* (C) Tetrahedral (D) Dumbbell shaped
2.. The shape of an orbital is given by the 14. The azimuthal quantum number is related to
quantum number (A) Size (B) Shape
(A) n (B) l (C) m (D) s (C) Orientation (D) Spin
3. When the azimuthal quantum number has a 15. When the azimuthal quantum number has a
value of l = 0, the shape of the orbital is value of l = 1, the shape of the orbital is
(A) Rectangular (B) Spherical (A) Unsymmetrical
(C) Dumbbell. (D) Unsymmetrical (B) Spherically symmetrical
4. The shape of p-orbital is (C) Dumb-bell
(A) Elliptical (D) Complicated
(B) Spherical 16.An orbital with l = 0 is symmetrical about
(C) Dumb-bell the
(D) Complex geometrical (A) x-axis only (B) y-axis only
5.Which is not permissible subshell? (C) z-axis only (D) All
(A) 2d (B) 4f (C) 6p (D) 3s 17.Which orbital is dumb-bell shaped ?
6.Which orbital is non-directional (A) 1s (B) 2p (C) 3s (D) 3d
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) All 18. The number of orbitals in d sub-shell is.
7.For the dumb-bell shaped orbital, the value of (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
l is 19.A sub-shell l = 2 can take how many
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2 electrons
8. The value of Azimuthal quantum number for (A) 3 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 6
all electrons presents in 5p orbitals is 20.For d electrons, the azimuthal quantum
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 1 number is
9. If n + l = 6, then total possible number of (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
subshells would be
21. The maximum number of electrons
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
accommodated in 5ƒ orbitals are
10. The number of orbitals in 3p sub-shell is.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 18
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
22. The maximum number of electrons in an
11. Which of the following orbital is not
atom with l = 2 and n = 3 is
possible
(A) 3 f (B) 4 f (C) 5 f (D) 6 f (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 10
12. 2p orbitals have 23. Which of the sub-shell is circular?
(A) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 2 (B) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0 (A) 4s (B) 4f (C) 4p (D) 4d
(C) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1 (D) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 0
Daily Practice Paper-8 (angular momentum)
1.The quantum numbers n = 2, l = 1 represent
(A) 1s orbital (B) 2sorbital (C) 2p orbital (D) 3d orbital
2. Azimuthal quantum number defines
(A) e/m ratio of electron (B) Spin of electron
(C) Angular momentum of electron (D) Magnetic momentum of electron
3. Number of orbitals in h sub-shell is
(A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 17 (D) 19
4. For principal quantum number n = 4 the total number of orbitals having l = 3
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 9
5. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in 'ƒ' subshell is
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 14
6. Energy of atomic orbitals in a particular shell is in the order
(A) 𝑠<𝑝<𝑑<𝑓 (B) 𝑠>𝑝>𝑑>𝑓 (C) 𝑝<𝑑<𝑓<𝑠 (D)𝑓>𝑑>𝑠>𝑝
7. There is no difference between a 2p and a 3p orbital regarding
(A) Shape (B) Size (C) Energy (D) Value of 𝑛
8.For a d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(A) √6ℏ (B) √2ℏ (C) ℏ (D) 2ℏ
9.The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is -
ℎ ℎ ℎ
(A) &+ (B) zero (C) (+ (D) 2 (+
10.The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as :
ℎ ℎ #ℎ ℎ
(A) (B) √3 (+ (C) 6( + (D) √6. (+
√(+
11.The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s-orbital is :
! ℎ ℎ ℎ
(A) +( (+ (B) zero (C) (+ (D) √2 (+
12.The orbital with zero angular momentum is -
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
13.The orbital angular momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s, 3d and 2p is respectively
ℎ ℎ ℎ ℎ
(A) 0, 0, (+ √6, (+ √2 (B) 1, 1, (+ √4, (+ √2
ℎ ℎ ℎ ℎ
(C) 0, 1, (+ √6,(+ √3 (D) 0, 0, (+ √20, (+ √6
14.In which of the following sets of orbitals, electrons have equal orbital angular momentum?
(A) 1s and 2s (B) 2s and 2p (C) 2p and 3p (D) 3p and 3d
Daily Practice Paper-9 (magnetic quantum number)
1. For a given value of quantum number 𝑙, the 10. The energy of an electron of 2py orbital is
number of allowed values of 𝑚 is given by (A) Greater than that of 2px orbital
(A) l + 2 (B) 2l + 2 (C) 2l + 1 (D) l + 1 (B) Less than that of 2px orbital
2. Which statement is not correct for (C) Equal to that of 2s orbital
n = 5, m = 3 (D) Same as that of 2px and 2pz orbital
! 11. What is the maximum number of orbitals
(A) l = 4 (B) 𝑙 = 0,1,3; 𝑠 = + (
that can be identified with the following
(C) l = 3 (D) All are correct
–
quantum number n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
3. An e has magnetic quantum number as –3,
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
what is its principal quantum number
12. The maximum value of m for an electron in
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
fourth energy level is:
4. When the value of azimuthal quantum
(A) +4 (B) +3 (C) +5 (D) +9
number is 3, magnetic quantum number can
13. The orbital angular momentum
have value
corresponding to n = 4 and m = –3 is :
(A) + 1, 0, – 1 h 6h 3h
(B) + 2, + 1, 0, – 1, – 2 (A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2p 2p p
(C) – 3, – 2, – 1, – 0, + 1, + 2, + 3 14. Which is not correct for an electron having
(D) + 1, – 1 n = 5, m = 2 :
5. The total magnetic quantum numbers for d- (A) l = 4 (B) l = 0, 1, 2, 3
orbital is given by (C) l = 3 (D) l = 2, 3, 4
(A) 2 (B) 0, ± 1, ± 2 15. Which of the following orbital quantum
(C) 0, 1, 2 (D) 5 number value is not possible for an electron
6. The quantum number ‘m’ of a free gaseous present in 4d subshell:
atom is associated with (A) n = 4 (B) l = 1 (C) m = 1 (D) m = 2
(A) The effective volume of the orbital 16. Maximum number of orbitals in an atom
(B) The shape of the orbital having quantum numbers
(C) The spatial orientation of the orbital n = 3, l = 2, m = + 2 are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(D) The energy of the orbital in the absence of a
17. Which of the following statements is/are
magnetic field
correct for an electron of quantum numbers
7.The maximum number of electrons in p-
n = 4 and m = 2 ?
orbital with n = 5, m = 1 is
(A) The value of l may be 2.
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 14 (D) 10
(B) The value of l may be 4.
8. The number of electrons that can be (C) The value of l may be +1/2.
accommodated in dz2 orbital is (D) The value of l may be 0, 1, 2, 3.
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2 18. A given orbital is labelled by the magnetic
9. Maximum electrons in a d-orbital are quantum number m = –1. This can not be -
(A) 2 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 14 (A) s-orbital (B) d-orbital
(C) p-orbital (D) f-orbital
19. Which quantum number will determine the shape of the subshell
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) Spin quantum number
20. For an electron, magnetic quantum number m = +2. The electron may be present in
(A) 5s-sub-shell (B) 5d-sub-shell (C) 5p-sub-shell (D) 5f-sub-shell
21. The magnetic quantum number specifies
(A) Size of orbitals (B) Shape of orbitals
(C) Orientation of orbitals (D) Nuclear stability
22. If value of azimuthal quantum number 𝑙 is 2, then total possible values of magnetic quantum
number will be
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
23. For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value
(A) 2 (B) 4, – 4 (C) – 1, 0, +1 (D) 0
24. If the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the possible values of magnetic quantum
number would be
(A) 0, 1, 2, 3 (B) 0, – 1, – 2, – 3 (C) 0, ±1, ±2, ± 3 (D) ±1, ±2, ±3
25. If magnetic quantum number of a given atom represented by –3, then what will be its
principal quantum number
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
26. The magnetic quantum number for an electron when the value of principal quantum number
is 2 can have
(A) 3 values (B) 2 values (C) 9 values (D) 6 values
27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(P) Number of value of l for an energy level (1) 0, 1, 2, ............. (n - 1)
(Q) Value of l for a particular type of orbital (2) +l to –l through zero
(R) Number of values of m for l = 2 (3) 5
(S) Value of 'm' for a particular type of orbital (4) n
Code : P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 1 4 3 2
28. Which of the following statements is not correct for an electron that has the quantum
numbers 𝑛 = 4 and 𝑚 = 2
!
(A)The electron may have the quantum number 𝑠 = + (
(B)The electron may have the quantum number l = 2
(C) The electron may have the quantum number l = 3
(D) The electron may have the quantum number l = 0,1,2,3
Daily Practice Paper-10 (shape of orbitals)
1. The maximum probability of finding electron in the dxy orbital is –
(A) Along the x-axis (B) Along the y-axis
(C) At an angle of 45º from the x and y-axis
(D) At an angle of 90º from the x and y-axis
2. Which d - orbital has different shape from rest of all d - orbitals ?
(A) 𝑑- ! (B) dxy (C) d xz (D) d yz
3. 3py orbital has..........nodal plane :
(A) XY (B) YZ (C) ZX (D) All of these
4. In case of 𝑑. ! /0 ! orbital
(A) Probability of finding the electron along x-axis is zero.
(B) Probability of finding the electron along y-axis is zero.
(C) Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y-axis.
(D) Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
5. Which d-orbital does not have four lobes
(A) 𝑑. ! /0 ! (B) dxy (C) 𝑑- ! (D) dxz
6. Which of the following d-orbitals has dough-nut shape ?
(A) dxy (B) dyz (C) 𝑑. ! /0 ! (D) 𝑑- !
7. Magnetic quantum number specifies -
(A) Size of orbitals (B) Shape of orbitals
(C) Orientation of orbitals (D) Nuclear stability
8. A p-orbital can accommodate
(A) 4 electrons (B) 6 electrons
(C) 2 electrons with parallel spins (D) 2 electrons with opposite spin
9. A given orbital is labeled by the magnetic quantum number m = –1. This could not be
(A) s - orbital (B) p-orbital (C) d-orbital (D) f-orbital
10. Non-directional orbital is :
(A) 3s (B) 4f (C) 4d (D) 4p
11. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axis
(A) 𝑑.0 ,𝑑. ! –0 ! (B) 𝑑- ! , 𝑑.- (C) 𝑑.- , 𝑑0- (D) 𝑑- ! , 𝑑. ! –0 !
12. The probability of finding an electron residing in a p x orbital is not zero
(A) In yz plane (B) In xy plane (C) In y direction (D) In z direction
13. The shape of dxy orbital will be
(A) Circular (B) Dumb-bell (C) Double dumb-bell (D) Trigonal
Daily Practice Paper-11 (nodes )
1. For an electron, with n = 3 has only one radial node. The orbital angular momentum of the
electron will be
2 2 2
(A) 0 (B) 6 (+ (C) 2 (+ (D) 3 ;(+<
2. Number of nodal centers for 2s orbital
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 3
3. The number of nodal planes in a p x orbital is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) zero
4. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p respectively are:
5. Which of the following orbitals has (have) one spherical node?
(A) 1s (B) 2s (C) 2p (D) 3p
6. The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) Zero
7. The sum of angular nodes and radial nodes of 4dxy atomic orbital are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
8. Which of the following pair of orbitals posses two nodal planes
(A) 𝑝. , 𝑑. ! /0 ! (B) 𝑑.0 , 𝑑-. (C) 𝑝.0 , 𝑑-. (D) 𝑑- ! , 𝑑. ! /0 !
9. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals are respectively.
(A) 2, 0 (B) 0, 2 (C) 1, 2 (D) 2, 1
10. The electron density between 1s and 2s orbital is
(A) High (B) Low (C) Zero (D) None of these
11. A 3p orbital has
(A) Two spherical nodes
(B) Two non-spherical nodes
(C) One spherical and one non-spherical nodes
(D) One spherical and two non-spherical nodes
Daily Practice Paper-12 (spin quantum numbers)
1.An electron has spin quantum number, ms = + 1/2 and magnetic quantum number, ml = +1. It
cannot be present in
(A) s-orbital (B) p-orbital (C) d-orbital (D) f-orbital
2.The maximum number of electrons with clockwise spin that can be accommodated in a f-sub-
shell is
(A) 14 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 10
3.The quantum numbers + 1/2 and – 1/2 for the electron spin represent:
(A) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction, respectively.
(B) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction, respectively.
(C) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively,
(D) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue.
4.The maximum number of 3d-electrons that can have s = –1/2, are
(A) 10 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
5.Spin angular momentum for an electron is given as :
2 2 2
(A) =𝑠(𝑠 + 1) ∗ (+ (B) =2𝑠(𝑠 + 1) ∗ (+ (C) =𝑠(𝑠 + 2) ∗ (+ (D) None
6.For a given subshell let maximum number of electrons with same spin be x and number of
possible ml values be y.
. 0
(A) x = 2y (B) x = y (C) ( = y (D) x = (
7.Assertion: Spin quantum number can have two values, +1/2 and –1/2
Reason: + and – signs signify the positive and negative wave functions.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
8.The electrons occupying the same orbital have always ________ spin.
(A) parallel (B) antiparallel (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
9. Which of the following rules limits the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to two
(A) Aufbau principle (B) Pauli's exclusion principle
(C) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity (D) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
10. In a given atom no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum numbers.
This is called
(A) Hund's rule (B) Aufbau's principle
(C) Uncertainty principle (D) Pauli's exclusion principle
11. The number of 2p electrons having spin quantum number s = –1/2 are
(A) 6 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
Daily Practice Paper-13 (set of quantum numbers)
1. For principal quantum number n = 4, the 11. All electrons on the 4p sub-shell must be
total number of orbitals having l = 3 is characterized by the quantum number
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 9 (A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = ±1/2 (B) l = 1
2. An orbital containing electron having (C) 𝑙 = 0, 𝑠 = ±1/2 (D) 𝑠 = −1/2
quantum number 12. If an electron has spin quantum number
n = 4, l = 3, m = 0 and s = +1/2 is called !
(A) 3s (B) 3p (C) 4d (D) 4f orbital of + ( and a magnetic quantum number of –
3. Which of the following represents the 1, it cannot be presented in which orbital
correct sets of the four quantum numbers of (A) d (B) f (C) p (D) s
a 4d electron. 13. Which one of the following represents
(A) 4,3,2,1/2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 0 an impossible arrangement?
(C) 4,3, −2, +1/2 (D) 4,2,1, −1/2 n l m s
4. The following quantum number are (A) 3 2 –2 -½
possible for how many orbitals? (B) 4 0 0 +½
n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 (C) 3 2 –3 +½
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4 (D) 5 3 0 -½
5. Maximum number of electrons that can 14. The set of quantum numbers not
have n = 3, l = 2, m = +2, s = +1/2 in an applicable for an electron in an atom is
atom are : (A) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚) = 1, 𝑚* = +1/2
(A) 18 (B) 6 (C) 24 (D) 1 (B) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚) = 0, 𝑚* = +1/2
6. Which of the following represents the (C) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚) = 0, 𝑚* = −1/2
correct set of quantum numbers of a 4d (D) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚) = 0, 𝑚* = +1/2
electron? 15. Which of the following sets of quantum
(A) 4, 3, 2, +1/2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 0 number are correct ?
(C) 4, 3, – 2, +1/2 (D) 4, 2, 1, – 1/2 (A) n = 3, l = 2, m = + 1, s = +1/2
7. An electron having the quantum numbers (B) n = 3, l = 3, m = + 3, s = +1/2
𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2 would be in (C) n = 4, l = -1, m = 0, s = +1/2
the orbital (D) n = 5, l = 2, m = + 4, s = +1/2
(A) 3s (B)3p (C) 4d (D) 4f 16. Which set of quantum numbers for an
8. Number of two electron can have the electron of an atom is not possible
same values of …… quantum numbers (A) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (B) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = +1/2
9. An electron having the quantum numbers (C) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2 would be in (D) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = +1/2
the orbital 17. Which of the following sets of quantum
(A) 3s (B)3p (C) 4d (D) 4f number is not possible?
10. The number of possible spatial (A) n = 3; l = 0 + 2, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2
orientations of an electron in an atom is (B) n = 3; l = 0, ml = 0, ms = – 1/2
given by its (C) n = 3; l = 0, ml = –1, ms = +1/2
(A) Spin quantum number (D) n = 3; l = 1, ml = 0, ms = –1/2
(B) Spin angular momentum
(C) Magnetic quantum number
(D) Orbital angular momentum
18. Which of the following sets of the 25. Which of the following sets of quantum
quantum numbers is permitted? number is(are) correct:
(A) n = 4, l = 2, ml = +3, ms = + 1/2 (A) n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(B) n = 3, l = 3, ml = +3, ms = + 1/2 (B) n = 3, l = 3, m = +3, s = +1/2
(C) n = 6, l = 0, m = +1, s = – 1/2
(C) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2
(D) n = 4, l = 2, m = +2, s = 0
(D) n = 4, l = 3, ml = +1, ms = 0 26. Which of the following sets of quantum
19. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4ƒ
numbers is not valid. orbital
(A) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2 (A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +1, 𝑠 = +1/2
(B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (B) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −4, 𝑠 = +1/2
(C) n = 4, l = 2, m = –1, s = +1/2 (C) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +4, 𝑠 = +1/2
(D) n = 4, l = 3, m = 4, s = +1/2
(D) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +1/2
20. Which of the following combinations of
quantum numbers is allowed? 27.Which of the following sets is possible
n l m ms for quantum numbers
(A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = 0
(A) 3 2 1 0
(B) 2 0 0 +1/2 (B) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = +2, 𝑠 = +1/2
(C) 3 -3 -2 +1/2 (C) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +1/2
(D) 1 0 1 +1/2 (D) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +1/2
21. Which set of quantum numbers for an 28. Which one of the following set of
electron of an atom is not possible quantum numbers is not possible for 4p
(A) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2 electron
(B) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = +1/2 (A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = +1/2
(C) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/ (B) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2
(D) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = +1/2 (C) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 2, 𝑠 = +1/2
22. Consider the following sets of quantum (D) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = +1/2
numbers : n l m s 29. Which of the following sets of quantum
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2 numbers is not allowed
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(iii) 4 3 –2 –1/2 (A) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2
(iv) 1 0 –1 –1/2 (B) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2 (C) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = +1/2
Which of the following sets of quantum (D) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
numbers is not possible ? 30. Which of the following set of quantum
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) numbers is permitted
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iv) and (v) (A) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = +1/2
24. Which of the following sets of the (B) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 1, s = 0
quantum numbers is not possible? (C) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – 1/2
(A) n = 2, l = 1, m = –1, s = +1/2 (D) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – ½
(B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2 31. What is the correct orbital
(C) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2 designation for the electron with the
(D) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –3, s = +1/2 quantum numbers,
n = 4, l = 3, m = – 2, s = +1/2
(A) 3 s (B) 4 f (C) 5 p. (D) 6 s
Daily Practice Paper-14 (energy of orbitals)
01. In hydrogen atom, which is incorrect order of their energies.
(A) 1s < 2p (B) 2p = 2s (C) 2p > 2s (D) 2p < 3s
02. Which of the following sets of orbitals may degenerate
(A) 2𝑠, 2𝑝. , 2𝑝0 (B) 3𝑠, 3𝑝. , 3𝑑.0 (C) 1𝑠, 2𝑠, 3𝑠 (D) 2𝑝. , 2𝑝0 , 2𝑝-
03. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be :
(A) ns ® (n – 2)f ® (n – 1)d ® np (B) ns ® (n – 1)d ® (n – 2)f ® np
(C) ns ® (n – 2)f ® np ® (n – 1)d (D) ns ® np(n – 1)d ® (n – 2)f
04. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is
(A) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p (B) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(C) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d (D) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
05. Which of the following has the least energy
(A) 2p (B) 3p (C) 2s (D) 4d
06. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is
(A) 5𝑝 < 4𝑓 < 6𝑠 < 5𝑑 (B) 5𝑝 < 6𝑠 < 4𝑓 < 5𝑑
(C) 4𝑓 < 5𝑝 < 5𝑑 < 6𝑠 (D) 5𝑝 < 5𝑑 < 4𝑓 < 6𝑠
07. The orbital with maximum energy is
(A) 3d (B) 5p (C) 4s (D) 6d
08. Which of the following sequence is correct as per Aufbau principle
(A) 3𝑠 < 3𝑑 < 4𝑠 < 4𝑝 (B) 1𝑠 < 2𝑝 < 4𝑠 < 3𝑑
(C) 2𝑠 < 5𝑠 < 4𝑝 < 5𝑑 (D) 2𝑠 < 2𝑝 < 3𝑑 < 3𝑝
09. Which of the following set of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom ?
! !
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +( (B) n = 3, l = 1, m =1, s = +(
! !
(C) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +( (D) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +(
10. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l :
(1) n = 4, l = 1 (2) n = 4, l = 0 (3) n = 3, l = 2 (4) n = 3, l = 1
can be placed in the order of increasing energy as :
(A) 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 (B) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 (C) 2 < 4 < 1 3 (D) 1 < 3 2 < 4
11. In any atom which sub-shell will have the highest energy in the following
(A) 3p (B) 3d (C) 4s (D) 3s
12. Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy
! !
(A) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + ( (B) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + (
! !
(C) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = + ( (D) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = + (
13. n and l for some electrons are given. Which of the following is expected to have least
energy?
(A) n = 3, l = 2 (B) n = 3, l = 0 (C) n = 2, l = 1 (D) n = 4, l = 0
14. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n and l
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n= 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest, as
(A) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (B) (ii) < (iv) < (v) < (iii)
(C) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (D) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
15. The atomic orbitals are progressively filled in order of increasing energy. This principle is
called as
(A) Hund’s rule (B) Aufbau principle (C) Exclusion principle (D) de-Broglie rule
16. The electron should be filled in the orbital in accordance with the increasing order of their
energy. This statement is related with –
(A) Aufbau principle (B) Pauli principle (C) Hund's principle (D) Plank's rules
17. According to Aufbau's principle, which of the three 4d, 5p and 5s will be filled with
electrons first
(A) 4d (B) 5p (C) 5s (D) 4d and 5s will be filled simultaneously
18. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be
(A) 3𝑑, 4𝑠, 4𝑝, 4𝑑, 5𝑠 (B) 4𝑠, 3𝑑, 4𝑝, 5𝑠, 4𝑑
(C) 5𝑠, 4𝑝, 3𝑑, 4𝑑, 5𝑠 (D) 3𝑑, 4𝑝, 4𝑠, 4𝑑, 5𝑠
19. Which of the following transition neither shows absorption nor emission of energy in case of
Hydrogen atom:
(A) 3px, 3s (B) 3dxy, 3dyz (C) 3s, 3dxy (D) All the above
20. When 3d orbital is complete, the new electron will enter the
(A) 4p-orbital (B) 4f-orbital (C) 4s-orbital (D) 4d-orbital
21. In a potassium atom, electronic energy levels are in the following order
(A) 4s > 3d (B) 4s > 4p (C) 4s < 3d (D) 4s < 3p
22. After np orbitals are filled, the next orbital filled will be :
(A) (n + 1) s (B) (n + 2) p (C) (n + 1) d (D) (n + 2) s
23. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum
members will have the same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields
(a) 𝑛 = 1, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0 (b) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0(c) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1
(d) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 0 (e) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 0
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (c) and (d) (D) (d) and (e)
Daily Practice Paper-15 (electronic configuration)
01. Aufbau principle is obeyed in which of 09. Fe (atomic number = 26) atom has the
the following electronic configurations electronic arrangement
(A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 (B) 1𝑠 ( 3𝑝# 3𝑠 ( (A) 2, 8, 8, 8 (B) 2, 8, 16
(C) 1𝑠 ( 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 (D) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 3𝑠 ( (C) 2, 8,14, 2 (D) 2, 8, 12, 4
02. The orbital diagram in which the 10. The electronic configuration of an
Aufbau’s principle is violated is element with atomic number 17 is
2s 2𝑝. 2𝑝0 2𝑝- (A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠! 3𝑝3
(A) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ (B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝& , 4𝑠!
(B) ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ (C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝$
(C) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ (D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠! 3𝑝& , 4𝑠 (
(D) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ 11. The total number of electrons present
03. Which electronic configuration is not in all the s-orbitals, all the p-orbitals and
observing the (n + 1) rule all the d-orbitals of cesium ion are
(A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑! , 4𝑠 ( respectively
(B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 𝑠𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 " , 4𝑠 ( (A) 8, 26, 10 (B) 10, 24, 20
(C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 $ , 4𝑠! (C) 8, 22, 24 (D) 12, 20, 22
(D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 % , 4𝑠 ( 12. Which element is represented by the
04. The 19th electron of chromium has following electronic configuration
which of the following sets of quantum 2𝑝
numbers? 2𝑠 ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑
n l m ms 1𝑠 ↑↓
(A) 3 0 0 –1/2 ↑↓
(B) 3 2 –2 –1/2
(C) 4 0 0 –1/2 (A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(D) 4 1 –1 – 1/2 (C) Fluorine (D) Neon
05. Electronic configuration of deuterium 13. Given is the electronic configuration of
atom is element X : K L M N
(A) 1s1 (B) 2s2 (C) 2s1 (D) 1s2 2 8 11 2
06. The configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4 is The number of electrons present with l = 2
similar to that of in an atom of element X is :
(A) boron (B) nitrogen (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
(C) Sulphur (D) aluminum 14. The four quantum numbers of the
07. The type of orbitals present in Fe is outermost orbital of K (atomic no. =19)
(A) s (B) s and p are
!
(C) s, p and d (D) s,p,d and f (A) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + (
08. Which of the following electronic (B) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + (
!
configuration is not possible
!
(A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( (B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 (C) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = + (
!
(C) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑!' , 4𝑠 ( 4𝑝( (D) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = + (
(D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝( , 3𝑠!
15. Azimuthal quantum number for last
electron of Na atom is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0 24. Be's 4th electron will have four
16. The number of electrons in the M-shell quantum numbers
of the element with atomic number 24 are : n l m s
(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 13 (A) 1 0 0 +1/2
17. Krypton (36Kr) has the electronic (B) 1 1 +1 +1/2
configuration (18Ar) 4𝑠 ( , 3𝑑!' , 4𝑝3 . The (C) 2 0 0 –½
37th electron will go into which one of the (D) 2 1 0 +1/2
following sub-levels 25. Electronic configuration of Sc21 is
(A) 4f (B) 4d (C) 3p (D)5s (A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑!
18. Electronic configuration of C is (B) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠! 3𝑑 (
(A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝( (B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝# (C) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ' 3𝑑 #
(C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( (D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 (D) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝( 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑 (
19. The correct electronic configuration of 26. Values of the four quantum numbers
𝑇𝑖(𝑍 = 22) atom is for the last electron in the atom are
(A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑 ( 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = +1 and 𝑠 = −1/2.
(B) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 & Atomic number of the atom can’t be
(C) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 & (A) 22 (B) 32
(D) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠! 3𝑑 # (C) 33 (D)36
20. Which of the following configuration 27. The correct set of quantum numbers
is correct for iron for the unpaired electron of Xenon
(A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 $ (single positive) ion is
(B) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑 $ n l m
(C) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑 " (A) 6 1 0
(D) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 4𝑠 ( 3𝑑 3 (B) 4 1 1
21. An atom has 2 electrons in K shell, 8 (C) 5 1 1
electrons in L shell and 6 electrons in M (D) 3 0 0
shell. The number of s-electrons present in 28. the species not having same number of
that element is d-electron in last possible filled d-subshell
(A) 6 (B)5 (C) 7 (D) 10 as in Zn.
22. The total number of electrons present (A) Ga (B) Pd (C) Cd (D) Pt
in all the p-orbitals of bromine are 29. Which of the following elements will
(A) 5 (B) 18 (C) 17 (D) 30 have the same total number of electrons in
's' as well as 'd' subshells in the ground
23. Which of the following electronic
state electronic configuration?
configurations is not possible.
(A) Zn (B) Ni (C) Cr (D) Cu
(A) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( (B) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3
(C) 3𝑑!' 4𝑠 ( 4𝑝( (D) 1𝑠 ( 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝( 3𝑠!
Daily Practice Paper-16 (Hund's and Pauli)
1. For sodium atom the number of 14.
electrons with m = 0 will be 15. Calculate the minimum and maximum
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 8 number of electrons which may have
2. Number of unpaired electrons in magnetic quantum number, m = +1 and
1s ( 2s ( 2p# is spin quantum number, s = –1/2 in
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 1 chromium (Cr) :
(A) 0, 1 (B) 1, 2 (C) 4, 6 (D) 2, 3
3. The number of unpaired electrons in
16. Which of the following has the
1s ( , 2s ( 2p& is
maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D)1
(A) Mn (B) Ti (C) V (D) Al
4. Number of unpaired electrons in the 17. The total spin resulting from a d7
ground state of beryllium atom is configuration is :
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) All the above (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5/2 (D) 3/2
5. The maximum number of unpaired 18. The electronic configuration
electron can be present in d subshell are 1s ( 2s ( 2p!4 2p!5 2p!6
(A) 1 (B)3 (C) 5 (D) 7
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen
6. The total number of unpaired electrons (C) Hydrogen (D) Fluorine
in d-orbitals of atoms of element of atomic
19. Which electronic configuration does
number 29 is
not follow the Pauli’s exclusion principle
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 5
(A) 1s2, 2s2 2p4 (B) 1s2, 2s2 2p4 3s2
7. The outer electronic structure 3s ( 3p$ is
possessed by (C) 1s2, 2p4 (D) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s3
(A) Cl (B) O (C) Ar (D) Br 20. The electronic configuration of an
element is 1s ( 2s ( 2p3 3s ( 3p3 3d3 4s ( . This
8. How many unpaired electrons are
represents its
present in cobalt [Co] metal
(A) Excited state (B) Ground state
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)7
(C) Cationic form. (D) Anionic form
9. The number of unpaired electrons in
21. Consider the ground state of (Z = 24).
nitrogen is
The numbers of electrons with the
(A) 1 (B)3 (C) 2. (D) None of these
azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2
10. For sodium atom the number of
are, respectively
electrons with m = 0 will be :
(A)16 and 4 (B)12 and 5
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 8
(C)12 and 4 (D)16 and 5
11. The total spin resulting from a d7
22. Which of the following explains the
configuration is :
sequence of filling the electrons in
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5/2 (D) 3/2
different shells
12. Number of electrons having l = 1 and
(A) Hund's rule (B) Octet rule
m=0 in P-atom in its ground state :
(C) Aufbau principle. (D) All of these
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
23. Nitrogen has the configuration
13. Which element contains six unpaired
1s ( 2s ( 2p!4 2p!5 2p!6 not 1s ( 2s ( 2p(4 2p!5 2p'6
electron
which is determined by
(A) Fe (B) Co (C) Ni (D) Cr
(A) Aufbau's principle
(B) Pauli's exclusion principle (A) Total number of s electrons - 8
(C) Hund's rule (B) Total number of p electrons - 12
(D) Uncertainty principle (C) Total number of d electrons -1
24. Which one of the following (D) Number of unpaired electrons in
configurations represents a noble gas element - 3
(A) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 31. The correct set of n, l, m for the
(B) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s! unpaired electron of chlorine atom is
(C) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 respectively
(D) 1s ( , 2s ( sp3 , 3s ( 3p3 , 4s ( (A)2,1,0 (B) 2,1,1 (C) 3,1,1 (D) 3,0,0
25. The two electrons in K sub-shell will 32.The electronic configuration of an
differ in element with atomic number 7 is
(A) Principal quantum number (A) 1s ( , 2s! , 2p#4 (B) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p!4 2p!5 2p!6
(B) Azimuthal quantum number (C) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p(4 2p!5 (D) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p!4 2p(5
(C) Magnetic quantum number 33. Pauli's exclusion principle states that
(D) Spin quantum number (A) Nucleus of an atom contains no
26. The explanation for the presence of negative charge
three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen (B) Electrons move in circular orbits
atom can be given by around the nucleus
(A) Pauli's exclusion principle (C) Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest
(B) Hund's rule energy
(C) Aufbau's principle (D) All the four quantum numbers of two
(D) Uncertainty principle electrons in an atom cannot be equal
27. Which of the following electronic 34. Which electronic configuration for
configuration is not possible according to oxygen is correct according to Hund's rule
Hund’s rule of multiplicity
(A) 1s ( 2s ( (B) 1s ( 2s! (A) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p(4 2p!5 2p!6
(C)1s ( 2s ( 2p!4 2p!5 2p!4 (D) 1s ( 2s ( 2p(4 (B) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p(4 2p(5 2p'6
28. The atom having atomic number 14 (C) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p#4 2p!5 2p'6
should have --------- unpaired electrons (D) None of these
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 35. The electrons would go to lower
29. Electron enters the sub-shell for which energy levels first and then to higher
(n + l) value is minimum. This is energy levels according to which of the
enunciated as following
(A) Hund’s rule (A) Aufbau principle
(B) Aufbau principle (B) Pauli's exclusion principle
(C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (C) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity
(D) Pauli’s exclusion principle (D) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
30. A neutral atom of an element has 2K,
8L, 9M and 2N electrons. Which of the
following is/are incorrectly matched :
Daily Practice Paper-17 (exceptions of electronic configuration)
1. The electronic configuration of silver atom in ground state is
(A) [Kr]3d!' 4s! (B) [Xe]4f !& 5d!' 6s!
(C) [Kr]4d!' 5s! (D) [Kr]4d7 5s (
2. The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is
(A) [Ar]3d$ 4s! (B) [Ar]3d& 4s ( (C) [Ar]3d3 4s ' (D) [Ar]4d$ 4s!
3. Chromium has the electronic configuration 4s! 3d$ rather than 4s ( 3d& because
(A) 4s and 3d have the same energy (B) 4s has a higher energy than 3d
1
(C) 4s is more stable than 4s 2
(D) 4s! 3d$ half-filled is more stable than
4s ( 3d&
4. The electronic configuration of copper ((7 Cu) is
(A) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d7 , 4s ( (B) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d!' , 4s!
(C) 1s ( . 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 , 4s ( 4p3 (D) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d!'
5. The electronic configuration of chromium is
(A) [Ne]3s ( 3p3 3d& , 4s ( (B) [Ne]3s ( 3p3 3d$ , 4s!
(C) [Ne]3s ( 3p3 , 4s ( 4p& (D) [Ne]3s ( 3p3 3d! , 4s ( 4p#
6. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (atomic no. 64) is
(A) [Xe]4s % 5d7 6s ( (B) [Xe]4f " 5d! 6s (
(C) [Xe]4s # 5d$ 6s ( (D) [Xe]4f 3 5d( 6s (
7. The electronic configuration of element with atomic number 24 is
(A) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d& , 4s ( (B) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d!'
(C) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d3 (D) 1s ( , 2s ( 2p3 , 3s ( 3p3 3d$ 4s!
8. Total number of unpaired electrons in an atom of atomic number 29 is
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2
9. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the
azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively :
10. Aufbau principle is not satisfied by
(A) Cr and Cl (B) Cu and Ag (C) Cr and Mg (D) Cu and Na
11. Correct statement is
(A) K = 4s! , Cr = 3d& 4s ( , Cu = 3d!' 4s ( (B) K = 4s ( , Cr = 3d& 4s ( , Cu = 3d!' 4s (
(C) K = 4s ( , Cr = 3d$ 4s! , Cu = 3d!' 4s ( (D) K = 4s! , Cr = 3d$ 4s! , Cu = 3d!' 4s!
Daily Practice Paper-18 (effective nuclear charge)
01. Effective nuclear charge of an atom depends on:
(A) The atomic number of the atom (B) The charge on the ion
(C) The shielding effect (D) Both the actual nuclear charge and the shielding effect
02.The screening effect of d-electrons is
(A) equal to the p-electrons (B) more than p-electrons
(C) same as f-electrons (D) less than p-electrons
03.In a given energy level, the order penetration effect of different orbitals is
(A) f < d s > d > f
04. Which statement is false:-
(A) screening constant increases in a period (B) Zeff decreases in a period
(C) Zeff. increases in a period (D) None
05. The formula for effective nuclear charge is (if s is screening constant)
(A) Z - s (B) Z + s (C) Z s -1 (D) Z s
06. Effective nuclear charge in group generally
(A) Increases down the group (B) Decreases down the group
(C) Remains constant (D) First increases than decreases
07. In sodium atom the screening is due to :-
(A) 3s2, 3p6 (B) 2s1 (C) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 (D) 1s2, 2s2
08.The screening effect of d- electrons is :-
(A) Equal to the p - electrons (B) Much more than p - electrons
(C) Same as f - electrons (D) Less than p – electrons
09.Which of the following is not different for an atom and its corresponding ion:-
(A) Number of electrons (B) Nuclear charge
(C) Ionization energy (D) Size
10.The screening effect of s orbital electron is :-
(A) Greater than p but lesser than d and f electrons (B) Less than p, d and f electrons
(C) Greater than p, d and f electrons (D) Is equal to p , d and f electrons
11.Which statement is false :
(A) Screening effect increases down the group (B) Zeff increases down the group
(C) Zeff. increases in a period (D) none
12. Which of the following is generally true regarding effective nuclear charge (Zeff) :
(A) It increases on moving left to right in a period.
(B) It remains almost constant on moving top to bottom in a group.
(C) For isoelectronic species, as Z increases, Zeff decreases.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
13. Among following species which of them have maximum Zeff.
(A) Sn (B) Sn4+ (C) In (D) In+
Daily Practice Paper-19 (configuration of ions)
01.Electronic configuration of H– is 10.Correct configuration of Fe+3 [26] is
(A) 1s0 (B)1s1 (C) 1s2 (D) 1s12s1 (A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 $
02.The electronic configuration of calcium (B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 𝑠𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 # , 4𝑠 (
ion (𝐶𝑎(8 ) is (C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 3 , 4𝑠 (
(A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 , 4𝑠 ( (D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 $ , 4𝑠!
(B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 𝑠𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 , 4𝑠! 11.Which one pair of atoms or ions will
(C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 ( have same configuration
(D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 , 4𝑠 ' (A) F+ and Ne (B) Li+ and He–
03.Which of the following ions is not (C) Cl– and Ar (D) Na and K
having the configuration of neon 12.The number of d electrons in Fe+2
(A) F– (B)Mg+2 (C) Na+ (D) Cl– (atomic number of Fe = 26) is not equal to
04.Ions which have the same electronic that of the
configuration are those of (A) p-electrons in Ne
(A) Li and Na (B) Na and K (B) s-electrons in Mg
(C) K and Ca (D) O and Cl (C) d-electrons in Fe
05.Cu2+ will have the following electronic (D) p-electrons in Cl–
configuration 13.The atomic number of metal X has a
(A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑!' configuration [Ar]3d4 in its +3 oxidation
(B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 7 , 4𝑠! state.
(C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 7 (A) 25 (B) 26. (C) 22 (D) 19
(D) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑!' , 4𝑠! 14.Which set has the same number of s-
electrons
06.Which one is the electronic
(A) C, Cu2+ , Zn (B) Cu2+ , Fe2+, Ni2+
configuration of Fe+2
(C) S2-, Ni2+ ,Zn (D) None of these
(A) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 3
15. Which of the following ion has inert
(B) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 & , 4𝑠 (
gas configuration and having complete
(C) 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝3 3𝑑 $ , 4𝑠! octet.
(D) None of these (A) B+3 (B) Al+3
07.The electronic configuration (C) Ga+3 (D) All of these
(outermost) of Mn+2 ion (atomic number of 16. Which one of the following ion have 2
Mn = 25) in its ground state is electrons in outermost shell and 18
(A) 3d5, 4s0 (B) 3𝑑 & , 4𝑠! electron in penultimate shell ?
(C) 3𝑑 # , 4𝑠 ( (D) 3𝑑 ( , 4𝑠 ( 4𝑝( (A) Fe2+ (B) Sn2+ (C) Zn2+. (D) Mg2+
08.An ion has 18 electrons in the 17. Which of the following is electronic
outermost shell, it is configuration of Cu2+ (Z = 29) ?
(A) Cu+ (B) Th4+ (C) Cs+ (D) K+ (A) [Ar]4s1 3d8 (B) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1
09. 3𝑑!' 4𝑠 ' exhibits by (C) [Ar]4s1 3d10 (D) [Ar] 3d9
(A) Zn++ (B) Cu++ (C) Cd++ (D) Hg++
Daily Practice Paper-20 (isoelectronic species)
01. Z/e ratio for N3–, O2– and F– respectively will be -
(A) 0.7, 0.8 and 0.9 (B) 0.9, 0.8 and 0.7 (C) 7, 8 and 9 (D) 9, 8 and 7
02.Among the following transition metal ions, the one set where all the metal ions have 3d2
electronic configuration is
(A) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+ (B) Ti4+, V4+, Cr6+ Mn7+
(C) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+ (D) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+
03. Which of the following set of species is not isoelectronic?
(A) Cu+, Zn2+, Ga3+ (B) N3–, Ne, Mg2+ (C) N3–, S2–, Cl– (D) He, Li+, H–
04.Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not isoelectronic?
(A) He, H–, Li+ (B) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+. (C) F–, O2–, N3– (D) K+, Ca2+,Ne
05. The size of isoelectronic species F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by :
(A) nuclear charge (Z)
(B) valence principal quantum number (n)
(C) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(D) none of the factors because their size is the same.
06. Screening effect is not observed in :
(A) He+ (B) Li+2 (C) Be+3 (D) In all cases
07. Which one of the following sets of ions are isoelectronic species?
(A) N-3 , O-2 , F- , S-2 (B) Li+ , Na+ , Mg+2, Ca+2
(C) K+, Cl-, Ca2+, Sc3+ (D) Ba+2 , Sr+2 , K+2 , Ca+2
08. K+, Ar, Ca+2 and S-2 contains _
(A) Same electronic configuration and atomic volume
(B) Different electronic configuration but same IP.
(C) Same electronic configuration but different atomic volume
(D) None
09.Which of the following is not isoelectronic series: -
(A) Cl- , P-3, Ar (B) N-3, Ne, Mg+2 (C) B+3, He, Li+ (D) N-3, S-2, Cl-
10. Which one of the following groups represent a collection of isoelectronic species?
(A) N-3, F-, Na+ (B) Be, Al+3, Cl- (C) Ca+2, Cs+, Br (D) Na+, Ca+2, Mg+2
11. The group having isoelectronic species is:
(A) O2–, F– , Na+ Mg2+ (B) O–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
(C) O2–, F , Na+, Mg2+ (D) O–, F–, Na+ Mg+2
Daily Practice Paper-21 (unpaired electrons)
01. How many unpaired electrons are 13. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given
present in Ni2+ cation by
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6 (A) Ti3+ (B) Cr2+ (C) Co2+ (D) Ni2+
02. The no. of unpaired electrons in a Cr3+ 14. A compound of metal ion MX+ ( Z=
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1 24) has a spin only magnetic moment of
03. Which of the following metal ions will √15 Bohr Magnetons. The number of
have maximum no. of unpaired electrons unpaired electrons in the compound are
(A) Fe+2 (B) Co+2 (C) Ni+2 (D) Mn+2 (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
04. Which of the metal ion will have 15. A gas metal in bivalent state have
highest number of unpaired electrons approximately 23e– what is spin magnetic
(A) Cu+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Fe3+ (D) Co2+ moment in elemental state
(A) 2.87 (B) 5.5 (C) 5.9. (D) 4.9
05. Which of the following has the
16. What is the total spin value in case of
maximum number of unpaired electrons 3+
26Fe ion.
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+
(A) +1 or –1 (B) +2 or –2
06. Which of the following has more
(C) + 2.5 or – 2.5 (D) +3 or –3
unpaired d-electrons
17. A compound of vanadium has a
(A) Zn+ (B) Fe2+ (C) N3+ (D) Cu+ magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. What will
07. The no. of unpaired electrons in Fe3+ be the electronic configurations:
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4 (A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1
08. No. of unpaired electrons in Mn4+ is (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 4 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3
09. Which of the following ions has the (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
maximum number of unpaired d-electrons? 18. Which of the following ions has the
2+ 2+ 3+ +
(A) Zn (B) Fe (C) Ni (D) Cu maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?
10. Ratio of number of unpaired electrons (A) Zn2+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Ni3+ (D) Cu+
in Fe2+ to that of Ti is 19. The possible value of l and m for the
(A) 1.2 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4 last electron in the Cl– ion are :
n+
11. Magnetic moment of X (Z = 26) is (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and +1
(C) 3 and –1 (D) 1 and –1
√24 B.M. Hence number of unpaired
20. Which of the following has maximum
electrons and value of n respectively are :
number of paired electrons.
(A) 4, 2 (B) 2, 4 (C) 3, 1 (D) 0, 2
(A) Cu+. (B) Fe2+ (C) Zn+2 (D) Sc+
12. A compound of Vanadium has a spin
21. A correct set of four quantum numbers
magnetic moment 1.73 BM. Work out the
for unpaired electron in Cl-atom :
electronic configuration of the Vanadium
n l m s
ion in the compound :
(A) 3 2 0 +½
(A)1s22s22p63s23p64s1 (B) 3 1 0 +½
(B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d2 (C) 3 1 +1 0
(C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d1 (D) 3 0 –1 +½
(D) nothing can be said with certainty
22. The value of the spin magnetic moment of a particular ion is 2.83 Bohr magneton. The
ion is :
(A) Fe2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Co3+
23. If element 25X+Y has spin magnetic moment 1.732 B.M then
(A) number of unpaired electron = 1
(B) number of unpaired electron = 2
(C) Y = 4
(D) Y = 6
24. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] (3d)5(4s)1. (Atomic number of Cr = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have negative values.
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type
(D) None of these
25. Number of unpaired electrons in Mn4+ is
(A) 3 (B)5 (C) 6 (D) 4
26. No. of unpaired electron in 1s2,2s2,2p4
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 1
27. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons :
(A) Fe2+ (B) Fe3+. (C) Sc3+ (D) Cu2+
Daily Practice Paper-22 (valence electron)
01. An element has the electronic configuration 1𝑠 ( , 2𝑠 ( 2𝑝3 , 3𝑠 ( 3𝑝( . Its valency electrons
are
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
02. The following has zero valency
(A) Sodium (B) Beryllium (C) Aluminum (D)
Krypton
03. The number of electrons in the valence shell of calcium is
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 4
04. The valence electron in the carbon atom are
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
05. The structure of external most shell of inert gases is
(A) 𝑠 ( 𝑝# (B)𝑠 ( 𝑝3 (C) 𝑠! 𝑝( (D) 𝑑!' 𝑠 (
06. The four-quantum number for the valence shell electron or last electron of sodium (Z =
11) is
! !
(A) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = −1, 𝑠 = − ( (B) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = + (
! !
(C) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = − ( (D) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 2, 𝑠 = + (
07. The magnetic quantum number for valency electrons of sodium is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
08. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are
! ! ! !
(A) 4, 1, 0 and ( (B) 4, 0, 1 and ( (C) 4, 0, 0 and +( (D) 4, 1, 1 and (
Answer Key (DPP - 1)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B C B D B C A B
11 12 13 14 15 16
D B B,D B A A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A B C C D D C B
11 12 13 14 15 16
B C A A D D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C A B A D D A B
11
C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B A C A A A B C C
11
A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B C C D C C A B
11 12 13 14 15
C C D B,C,D B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D C B D A D C C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
B D A C A B D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B B C A A B D A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B B C D B C B C
21 22 23
C D A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A B D A A A B A
11 12 13 14
B A A A,C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B D C B C B D A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B D B B A A A B B,D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
C B C C D A B D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A C C C D C D A A
11 12 13
C B C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A A B A C B A C
11
C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A C A B C B B D
11
D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D D C D D D C D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D C A A B C C D B
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
B D D A A D C B A B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D A B C B D B C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D C A B A C B D A
21 22 23
C A D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C C A C C D C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A B D D D A A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
A C D C A A C D B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B C C C A B B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A D D A D B D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C C C D B D B B D
31 32 33 34 35
C B D A A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A D B B B D A B B
11
D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D A B A A C D B C
11 12 13
B D B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D D C C A A A A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
C D A B B B D
Daily Practice Paper-1
(DEVELOPMENT OF PERIODIC TABLE)
Q.1 Atomic weight of an element X is 39, and that of element Z is 132. atomic weight of their
intermediate element Y, as per Dobereiner triad, will be.
(A) 88.5 (B) 93.0 (C) 171 (D) 85.5
Q.2 Which of the following is not a Dobereiner triad
(A) Li, Na, K (B) Mg, Ca,Sr (C) Cl, Br, I (D) S, Se, Te
Q.3 The law of triads is applicable to
(A) C, N, O (B) H, O, N (C) Na, K, Rb (D) Cl, Br, I
Q.4 The law of triads is not applicable on
(A) Cl, Br, I (B) Na, K, Rb (C) S, Se, Te (D) Ca Sr, Ba
Q.5 Which of the following set of elements obey Newland's octave rule-
(A) Na, K, Rb (B) F, Cl, Br (C) Be, Mg, Ca (D) B, AI, Ga
Q.6 For which of the pair Newland's octave rule is not applicable-
(A) Li, Na (B) C, Si (C) Mg, Ca (D) Cl, Br
Q.7 The elements P, Q and R are one of the Dobereiner's triad of elements in the increasing order of
their atomic masses. If the atomic masses of P, Q and R are x, y and z respectively, then
(A) x = 2y + z (B) z = x + y (C) z = 2x – y (D) x + y + z = 3y
Q.8 Which of the following element was present in Mendeleev's periodic table?
(A) Sc (B) Tc (C) Ge (D) None of these
Q.9 Mendeleev’s periodic law is based on –
(A) Atomic number (B) Atomic weight (C) Number of neutrons (D) None of these
Q.10 The first attempt to classify elements systematically was made by -
(A) Mendeleev (B) Newland (C) Lother Meyer (D) Dobereiner
Q.11 The telluric helix was given by
(A) De Chan Courtois (B) Newlands (C) L. Meyer (D) Mendeleev
Q.12 Lother Meyer obtained the curve for the known elements by plotting their atomic volumes against.
(A) atomic numbers (B) atomic masses (C) densities (D) ionization energies
Q.13 In Lother Meyer plot,the peaks are occupied by
(A) alkali metals (B) alkaline earth metal (C) halogens (D) noble gases
Q.14 In the Lother Meyer curve, which of the following option is incorrect :
(A) Alkali metals occupied peak position at curve.
(B) Halogens occupied ascending position at curve.
(C) Alkaline earth elements occupy descending position at curve.
(D) Alkali metals are in the lower curve of graph.
Q.15 In Mendleev table, the triad of VIII group is
(A) Ru, Rh, Pd (B) Cu, Ag, Au (C) N, O, F (D) Tl, Pb, Bi
Q.16 Number of short periods in Mendeleev table
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
Q.17 The number of elements known when Mendeleev presented periodic table is
(A) 50 (B) 90 (C) 63 (D) 102
Q.18 Zero group was introduced by
(A) Lother Meyer (B) Mendeleev (C) Ramsay (D) Lockyer
Q.19 Mendeleev corrected the atomic weight of:
(A) Be (B) In (C) Au (D) All of these
Q.20 Which are correct match -
(i) Eka silicon – Be (ii) Eka aluminium – Ga
(iii) Eka manganese – Tc (iv) Eka scandium – B
(A) (ii) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii) & (iv) (C) (i) & (iv) (D) All
Q.21 Select the pair of elements which are present in same group but in different sub group in Mendeleev's
periodic table.
(A) F, Ar (B) Cl, B (C) K, Cu (D) Be, Mg
Q.22 Which is not anomalous pair of elements in the Mendeleev’s periodic table -
(A) Ar and K (B) Co and Ni (C) Te and I (D) Al and Si
Q.23 Which of the following is not a bridge element of in Mendeleev's table?
(A) Mg (B) Al (C) Si (D) Ar
Q.24 Which of the following is known as the bridge element of 2nd group in Mendeleev’s table?
(A) Zn (B) Sr (C) Mg (D) Hg
Q.25 Mendeleev’s periodic law is based on
(A) Atomic weight (B) Atomic number
(C) Number of neutrons (D) None of the above
Q.26 In any period valency of an element with respect to oxygen
(A) Increases one by one from IA to VIIA
(B) Decreases one by one from IA to VIIA
(C) Increases one by one from IA to IVA and then decreases from VA to VIIA one by one
(D) Decreases one by one from IA to IVA and then increases from VA to VIIA one by one
Q.27 The atomic weights of “Be” and “In” were corrected by Mendeleev using The formula
(A)
(B)
(C) Atomic weight=Equivalent weight x valency
(D) Equivalent weight = Atomic weight x valency
Q.28 The plot of √𝑣 v/s z
(A) Straight line (B) exponential curve (C) hyperbolic (D) curve with -ve slope
Q.29 Modern periodic table is based on atomic no. experiments which proved importance of atomic
number was -
(A) Braggs work on X-ray diffraction
(B) Moseleys work on X-ray spectrum
(C) Mulliken’s oil drop experiment
(D) Lother meyer curve plotted between at vol. & at wt.
Q.30 On going left to right in a period, in transition metals, their atomic volumes
(A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) Remain same (D) None of these of correct
Q.31 Who developed the long form of periodic table
(A) Lothar Meyer (B) Niels Bohr (C) Mendeleev (D) Newland
(LONG FORM OF PERIODIC TABLE)
Q.1 The long form of periodic table is based on
(A) Shape of the atom (B) Mass of the atom
(C) Atomic number of the atom (D) Number of neutrons
Q.2 All the elements in a group in the periodic table have the same
(A) Atomic number
(B) Electronic configuration
(C) Atomic weight
(D) Number of electrons in the outermost shell or number of electrons for bonding
Q.3 The long form of periodic table has
(A) Eight horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
(B) Seven horizontal rows and eighteen vertical columns
(C) Seven horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
(D) Eight horizontal rows and eight vertical columns
Q.4 The electron configuration of the starting and ending elements of fourth period are
(A) 4s1 and 3d104s2 4p6 (B) 4s1 and 4s2 3d10
(C) 4s2 3d1 and 4s2 4p6 (D) 4s2 3d1 and 4s2 3d10
Q.5 The number of elements in 5th and 6th period of periodic table are respectively -
(A) 8, 18 (B) 18, 18 (C) 18, 32 (D) 18,28
Q.6 As applied to periodic table, which of the following sets include only magic numbers -
(A) 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82, 126 (B) 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32
(C) 2, 2, 8, 8, 18, 32 (D) 2, 8, 18, 18, 32, 32
Q.7 In which of the following period a maximum number of 32 elements are present
(A) 4th (B) 6th (C) 3rd (D) 5th
Q.8 In the sixth period, the orbitals being filled are
(A) 5s, 5p, 5d (B) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f (C) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p (D) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
Q.9 Which of the following contains same number of elements
(A) 1st period & 0 group (B) 6th period & III B group
(C) 5th period & III B group (D) 3rd period & VII A group
Q.10 An atom of element has 2K, 8L and 3M electrons. Then that element is placed in
(A) IA group (B) II A group (C) III A group (D) IV A group
Q.11 The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to :
(A) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(B) atomic number of any element of the period.
(C) maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(D) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
Q.12 The number of elements in each of the long periods in the periodic table is
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
Q.13 An element with atomic number 20 will be placed in which period of the periodic table
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
Q.14 Elements of atomic number 6 is placed in
(A) IV group (B) IV period (C) VI group (D) III group
Q.15 Which of the following pairs has both members from the same group of the periodic table
(A) Mg-Ba (B) Mg-Na (C) Mg-Cu (D) Mg-K
Q.16 Which of the following pairs has both members from the same period of the periodic table
(A) Na-Ca (B) Na-Cl (C) Ca-Cl (D) Cl-Br
2 2 6 2 6 3 2
Q.17 If an atom has electronic configuration 1s ,2s ,2p ,3s ,3p ,3d ,4s it will be placed in
(A) Second group (B)Third group (C) Fifth group (D) Sixth group
Q.18 The tenth elements in the periodic table resembles with the
(A) First period (B) Second period (C) Fourth group (D) Ninth group
Q.19 The element with quantum numbers n=2,l=1, m=1, s=-1/2 has the following position in the
periodic table
(A) Group VII-A, period II (B) Group II, period II
(C) Group VII-A, period III (D) Group 0, period III
Q.20 The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p3 . What is the atomic number of the
element which is just below the above element in the periodic table
(A) 33 (B) 34 (C) 31 (D) 49
Q.21 An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one of the
following is true regarding the outer electronic configuration of X?
(A) It has partially field d-orbitals and completely filled, s-orbitals.
(B) It has completely filled s-orbital and completely filled p-orbitals.
(C) It has completely filled s-orbital and half filled p-orbitals.
(D) It has half filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbitals.
Q.22 In the periodic table, the element with atomic number 16 will be placed in the group
(A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Sixth
Q.23 If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the
(A) First gp (B) Third gp (C) Fifth gp (D) Seventh gp
Q.24 The electronic configuration of an atom A is 1s ,2s ,2p ,3s ,3p3 . The chemistry of A
2 2 6 2
is therefore likely to be similar to that of

(A) Chlorine (B)Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Boron
Q.25 Element having atomic number 17 is placed in
(A) I-group (B) V-group (C) VIII-group (D) VII-group
Q.26 The number of elements in the 5th period of the periodic table are
(A) 8 (B)10 (C)18 (D) 32
Q.27 Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag in Long form of periodic table will be :
(A) 29, 65 (B) 39, 79 (C) 29, 79 (D) 39, 65
Q.28 Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of Group 16 ?
(A) 8, 16, 32, 54 (B) 16, 34, 54, 86 (C) 8, 16, 34, 52 (D) 10, 16, 32, 50
Q.29 From the list given below, elements which belongs to the same group or sub-group are
(A) Atomic number = 12, 20, 4, 88 (B) Atomic number = 8, 16, 34, 2
(C) Atomic number = 11, 18, 27, 5 (D) Atomic number = 24, 47, 42, 55
Q.30 If each orbital can hold a maximum of three electrons, the number of elements in 9th period of
periodic table (long form) are
(A) 48 (B) 162 (C) 50 (D) 75
Q.31 The electronic configuration of an element is1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p5. The atomic number of element
present just below the above element in periodic table is -
(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 36 (D) 30
Q.32 The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with atomic number 43
in the same periodic group is
(A) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d5,4s2 (B) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d10,4s2 4p5
(C) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d6,4s1 (D) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d6,4s1 4p6
Q.33 The elements indicating following atomic numbers belong to same group
(A) 11 and 37 (B) 19 and 15 (C) 39 and 88 (D) None of these
Q.34 The total numbers of elements in the Group 11 is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
3 2
Q.35 The general electronic configuration (n-1) d ns indicates that element belongs to
(A) VB (B) IVB (C) VIB (D) IIIB
10 0
Q.36 Pd has exceptional electronic configuration 4d 5s . It belongs to
(A) 4th group (B) 6th group (C) 10th group (D) None of these
Q.37 Atomic number 64 will have electronic configuration:
(A) [Xe] 6s2 4f8 (B) [Xe] 6s2 4f7 5d1 (C) [Xe] 4f10 (D) [Xe] 6s2 4f7 6p1
Q.38 The elements with given atomic numbers that belong to the group number 16 of the modern
periodic table is:
(A) 34, 52 (B) 15, 33 (C) 38, 56 (D) None of these
Q.39 Number of elements present in the group 3 of the modern periodic table is:
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
Q.40 In the modern periodic table the maximum number of elements are present in :
(A) Group I and period number 5 (B) Group III and period number 6
(C) Group V and period number 7 (D) Same for all
Q.41 In above figure if 'Z' is the atomic number then identify the period number of element 'X' in periodic
table-
(A) 5th (B) 4th (C) 6th (D) 7th

Q.42 In the Modern long form of periodic table, 4th period contains only 18 elements. It is due to filling of
electrons in the :
(A) 4s, 4p and 4d sub-shells (B) 4s, 3d and 4p sub-shells
(C) 4s, 4p, 4d and 4f sub-shells (D) 3s, 3p and 3d sub-shells
Q.43 If an orbital can have maximum 4 electrons, how may elements can be present in 8th period?
(A) 100 (B) 75 (C) 128 (D) 64
Q.44 Identify the group number of Tl element in periodic table.
(A) 13 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 7
Q.45 The element having the lowest atomic number and a ground state electronic configuration of (n-1)
d6ns2 is placed in
(A) Fifth period (B) Fourth period (C) Sixth period (D) Third period
Q.46 The electronic configuration of an element is ls 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s1. What is the atomic number
2 2 6 2 6 l0
of last elements of the same group which is recently discovered: -

(A) 20 (B) 119 (C) 111 (D) None
Q.47 “The Chemical and Physical properties of the elements are periodic function of
their atomic numbers.” The statement was given by
(A) N. Bohr (B) J.W. Dobereiner (C) D.I. Mendeleev (D) H.G.J. Moseley
Q.48 According to the periodic law, the variation in properties of element is related to their
(A)Atomic masses (B) Nuclear masses
(C)Atomic numbers (D) Nuclear neutron-proton number
Q.49 Which of the following pair has elements containing same number of electrons in
the outermost orbit
(A) N,O (B) Na, Ca (C) As, Bi (D) Pb, Sb
Q.50 As per the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic
functions of their
(A) Atomic volume (B) Electronic configuration (C) Atomic weight (D) Atomic size
Q.51 The fundamental basis of the present-day Periodic Table is that elements are
(A) Arranged in the order of increasing atomic weights
(B) Grouped according to chemical properties
(C) Arranged in the order of increasing number of neutrons in the atomic nucleus
(D) Arranged in the order of increasing number of protons in the nucleus
Q.52 The cause of periodicity of properties is
(A) Increasing atomic radius
(B) Number of electrons in the valency orbit
(C) Increasing atomic weights
(D) The re-occurrence of similar outer electronic configuration
Q.53 The long form of periodic table is nothing but just a graphical representation of
(A) Aufbau principle (B) Hunds rule (C) Pauli’s Exclusion (D) Wave mechanical
Q.54 What will be the atomic number of yet undiscovered element directly below Fr in periodic table?
(A) 117 (B) 118 (C) 119 (D) 120
Q.55 The number of elements in 6th period of the modern periodic table are :
(A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 32 (D) None of these
Q.56 The atom having the valence shell electronic configuration 4s2p2 would be in -
(A) Group II A and period 3 (B) Group II B and period 4
(C) Group IV A and period 4 (D) Group IV A and period 3
Q.57 The statement that is true for the long form of the periodic table is
(A) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of sub-energy levels s,p,d and f
(B) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the elements
(C) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of the elements
(D) It helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bonds between any two elements
Q.58 The statement that is not true for the long form of the periodic table
(A) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of subenergy levels s,p,d and f.
(B) It helps to predict the stable valence states of the elements
(D) It helps to predict the relative ionic nature of the bond between any two elements
Q.59 The term periodicity in the properties of elements when arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic numbers similar elements
(A) reoccur after a fixed interval (B) reoccur after certain regular interval
(C) form vertical groups (D) form horizontal row
Q.60 Which of the following statements is not true about the long form of periodic table?
(A) It reflects the sequence of filling of electrons in order of sub-energy levels s, p, d and f.
(B) It helps to predict the stable valency stats of the elements
(D) It helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements
(BLOCKS)
Q.1 An element has electronic configuration1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p4 belongs to
(A) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 16 (B) Period = 5th, block = s, group = 1
rd
(C) Period = 3 , block = p, group = 10 (D) Period = 4th, block = d, group = 12
Q.2 Find the p-block element from the following electronic configuration. Which may be ground state or
excited state configuration.
(A) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s1,3p1 (B) 1s2,2s2,2p5,3s2
(C) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p54s1 (D) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p44s13d7
Q.3 An element of atomic number 29 belongs to
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
Q.4 An atom with atomic number 21 belongs to the category of
Q.5 The elements having the electronic configuration, [Kr] 4d10f14,5s2p6d2,6s2 belongs to
Q.6 The element with atomic number 36 belongs to …… block in the periodic table
(A) p (B) s (C) f (D) d
Q.7 An element has the electronic configuration 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,3d5,4s1. It is a
(A) s-block element (B) p-block element (C) d-block element (D) Inert gas
Q.8 The element with atomic number 55 belongs to
Q.9 Ce-58 is a member of
5 1
Q.10 Element with electronic configuration as [Ar] 3d 4s is placed in
(A) IA, s-block (B) IB, d-block (C) VIB, d-block (D) VIB, d-block
Q.11 Element of atomic number 23 is placed in the periodic table in
(A) s - block (B) p – block (C) d - block (D) f – block
Q.12 A pair of atomic numbers which belong to s - block are
(A) 7, 15 (B) 6, 12 (C) 9, 17 (D) 3, 12
Q.13 Which of the following element is not a 'p' block element.
(A) Bi (B) Ga (C) Sn (D) Cd
Q.14 An element having electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d3 4s2 belongs to
(A) sblock (B) pblock (C) dblock (D) fblock
Q.15 Which of the following is ‘d’ block element.
(A) Bi (B) Sn (C) Nb (D) In
Q.16 The electronic configuration of four elements are given below.
Which element does not belong to the same block as others -
(A) [Xe] 6s24f145d10 (B) [Ar] 4s23d5 (C) [Rn] 7s25d16s1 (D) [Kr] 4d65s2
Q.17 The number of groups in modern periodic table that belong to d-block are :
(A) 18 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 2
Q.18 Which of the following electronic configuration does not belong to same block as others
(A) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 (B) [Kr] 4d10 5s2 (C) [Kr] 5s2 (D) [Ar] 3d6 4s2
Q.19 Which one of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect ?
(A)The p-block has 6 columns, because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a p-
subshell.
(B) The d-block has 8 columns, because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d-
subshell.
(C) Each block contains a number of columns equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that
subshell.
(D) The block indicates value of azimuthal quantum number (l) for the last subshell that received
electrons in building up the electronic configuration.
Q.20 Certain regular intervals after which the outer electronic configuration the elements occur are called -
(A) Gold number (B) Atomic numbers (C) Magic numbers (D) Avogadro number
Q.21 Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of d-block elements
(A) (n-1)s2nd1-10 (B) (n-1)d1-10ns1-2 (C) (n-1)s2p6 ns1 (D) ns2p2 d1
Q.22 Which pair of atomic numbers represents s-block elements
(A) 7, 15 (B) 6, 12 (C) 9, 17 (D) 3, 12
Q.23 Select the configuration of neutral atom(s), which belongs to s-block?
(A) [Xe] 4f145d106s2 (B) [Xe] 5d16s2 (C) [Xe] 4f75d06s2 (D) [Xe] 6s2
(IMPORTANT TERMS)
Q.1 The electronic configuration of halogen is
(A) ns2np6 (B) ns2np5 (C) ns2np4 (D) ns2
Q.2 The first element of rare–earth metals is
(A) Cerium (B)Actinium (C) Uranium (D) Lanthanum
Q.3 Which of the following electronic configuration of the outermost shell is
characteristic of alkali metals :
(A) (n–1)s2 p6 ns2 p1 (B) (n –1)s2 p6 d10 ns1 (C) (n –1)s1 p6 ns1 (D) ns2 np6 (n–l)d10
Q.4 An element which is recently discovered is placed in 7th period and 10th
group. IUPAC name of the Elements will be-
(l) Unnilseptium (B) Ununnilium (C) Ununbium (D) None
Q.5 On moving from left to right across a period in the table the metallic character
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant (D) First increases and then decreases
Q.6 Which group of the periodic table contains only metals
(A) IIA (B) IB (C) IA (D) None of these
Q. 7 Which of the following is the atomic number of a metal
(A) 32 (B)34 (C) 36 (D)38
Q.8 Electronic configuration of chalcogens in their outermost orbit is
(A) s2p3 (B) s2p4 (C) s2p5 (D) s2p6
Q.9 Which configuration represents a noble gas
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2 (B) 1s22s22p63s23p6 (C) 1s22s22p63p6 (D) 1s22s22p63s2
Q.10 The element X, Y, Z and T have the indicated electronic configurations. Starting with the
innermost shell, which is the most metallic element
(A) X=2,8,4 (B) Y=2,8,8 (C) Z=2,8,8,1 (D) T=2,8,8,7
Q.11 Which pair of elements has same chemical properties
(A) 13, 22 (B) 3, 11 (C) 4, 24 (D) 2, 4
Q.12 Which one of the following combination represents a metallic element
(A) 2, 8, 7 (B) 2, 8, 8 (C) 2, 8, 4 (D)2, 8,
Q.13 Chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
(A)Atomic number (B)Mass number (C)Binding energy (D)Number of isotopes
Q.14 The lightest metal is
(A) Li (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Na
Q.15 Choose the typical element
(A) K (B) Na (C) Sc (D) He
Q.16 In the long form of the periodic table, all the non- metals are placed under
Q.17 The atomicity of a noble gas is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q.18 Which of the following is a inert element
(A) Na (B) Fe (C) Li (D) He
Q.19 Of the following pairs, the one containing example of metalloid elements in
the periodic table is
(A) Sodium and potassium (B) Fluorine and chlorine
(C) Calcium and magnesium (D) Germanium and Arsenic
Q.20 Elements with outer electronic configuration ns2np5 are
(A) Alkaline earth metals (B) Transition elements
(C) Chalcogenes (D) Noble gases
Q.21 The element or elements whose position is anomalous in the periodic table is
(A) Halogens (B) Fe , Co and Ni (C) Inert gases (D) Hydrogen
Q.22 Last element of group-IV is found to be
(A)Strong metallic (B)Weak metallic (C)Strong non-metallic (D)Weak non-metallic
Q.23 Elements of d group are called
(A) Transition elements (B)Transuranic elements
(C) Metals (D)Metalloids
Q.24 Which of the following is a normal element
(A) Ce (B)He (C)Li (D)Ar
Q.25 Which of the following is metalloid
(A) Pb (B) Zn (C) As (D) None of these
Q.26 Under normal condition which of the following electronic configuration is able to form
dipositive ion
(A) [Ar]4s1 (B) [Ne]3s23p6 (C) [Ne]3s2 (D)None of these
Q.27 Elements in which 4f orbitals are progressively filled are called as
(A)Transition elements (B)Lanthanides (C)Actinides (D)Inert gases
Q.28 Astatine is a
(A) Halogen (B) Rare earth element
(C) Alkaline earth metal (D) None of these
Q.29 Group comprising of all metals is
(A) IIIA (B) IVA (C) VIIA (D) IIA
Q.30 Elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53 are collectively known as
(A) chalcogens (B) halogens (C) lanthanides (D) rare gases
Q.31 Which of the following pairs of atoms have same number of electrons in the outermost orbit
(A) N - O (B) Na - Cl (C) Ca - Cl (D) Cl – Br
Q.32 At room temperature liquid metal and liquid non-metals are
(A) Hg & I2 (B) Cs & Cl2 (C)Hg & Br2 (D) Cd & S
Q.33 In a given transition series the elements differ generally in the number of electrons
(A) p (B) d (C) p, d & f (D) p and d
Q.34 Atomic number of the recently discovered element Nihonium (Nh) is?
(A) 118 (B) 114 (C) 113 (D)104
Q.35 Which of the following statement is wrong for the d-block elements :
(A) General electronic configuration for them is (n – 1)d1-2 ns0-2.
(B) They generally exhibit variable valency.
(C) Last electron enters in (n – 1)d subshell in them.
(D) They are placed from 3rd to 6th period in modern periodic table
Q.36 The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements is :
(A) In d-block elements, the last electron enters in (n – 1)d sub-shell.
(B) non–metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements.
(C) the third period contains 8 elements and not 18 as 4th period contains.
(D) for transition elements the d–subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in
atomic number.
Q.37 2nd period element having 60% of total e– in valence shell is typically a :
(A) Metal (B) Non Metal (C) Metalloid (D) Transition metal
Q.38 Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive
element
(A) [He] 2s1 (B) [Xe] 6s1 (C) [He] 2s2 (D) [Xe] 6s2
Q.39 The configuration will be (n – 2)f (n –1)d ns , if value of n = 7
1-14 0-1 2
(A) Lanthanoids (B) Actinoids (C) Transition elements (D) None

Q.40 Given atomic number 15, 33, 51 represents the following family -
(A) Carbon family (B) Nitrogen family (C) Oxygen family (D) None
Q.41 Which is not transition element.
(A) Cu (B) Ac (C) Zn (D) Pd
Q.42 Which of the following statement is correct for an element having atomic number (z) = 98?
(A) It is s-block element. (B) It is p-block element.
(C) It is transition element. (D) It is inner transition element.
Q.43 Which main group elements have a different number of outermost electrons than their group
number?
(A) Alkali metals (B) Noble gases (C) Halogens (D) None of these
Q.44 Which of the following is a transition element?
(A) Zn (B) Cd (C) Hg (D) Cu
Q.45 Which statement is incorrect, If an element has 15 fulfilled and one half filled orbitals,:
(A) Atomic number of element is 31 (B) It belongs to p-block
(C) It is a transition element (D) It belongs to 4th period.
Q.46 Which among the following species have the same number of electrons in its outermost as
well as penultimate shell ?
(A) Mg2+ (B) O-2 (C) F- (D) Ca2+
Q.47 Which option is correct ?
(A) All d-block elements are not transition elements
(B) The element having atomic number 50 is present in 5th period of periodic table
(C) Element with atomic number 58 exist in 3rd group
(D) All of these
Q.48 Find number of alkali metals present in first 100 elements in modern periodic table.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4
Q.49 Which of the following statement is wrong -
(A) All the actinides are synthetic (man-made) elements
(B) In the Lanthanides last electron enters in 4f orbitals
(C) 93Np onwards are transuranic elements
(D) Lanthanum is d-block element
Q.50 An element shows no change in group number ‘X’ on emitting an -particle. The element is -
(A) Lanthanum (B) Cerium (C) Lawrencium (D) Radium
Q.51 Among the Lanthanides the one obtained by synthetic method is
(A) Lu (B) Pm (C) Pr (D) Ce
Q.52 Which of the following electronic configurations in the outermost shell is characteristic of
alkali metals :-
(A) (n–1) s2p6ns2p1 (B) (n–1) s2p6d10ns1 (C) (n–1) s2p6ns1 (D) ns2p6 (n–1)d10
Q.53 The element having the electronic configuration [Ar] 3s1 is
(A) A transition element (B) A representative element
(C) An inert gas (D) An inner–transition element
Q.54 If the differentiating electron enters (n-1)d-sublevel. The element is
(A) a representative element (B) a noble gas
(C) an alkali metal (D) a transition element
Q.55 Atoms with three of their outer most orbits incompletely filled with electrons are present in
(A) Lanthanides (B) Representative elements (C) s- block elements (D) transitional elements
Q.56 Most of the radioactive elements are in
(A) Lanthanides (B) Actinides (C) Representative elements (D) Second transitional series
Q.57 Which of the following is not the electronic configuration of a representative element
(A) ns2 (B) ns2np5 (C) ns2np1 (D) ns2np6
Q.58 Element with IUPAC symbol “Uut” is :
(A) Crystalogen (B) Icosagen (C) Halogen (D) Chalcogen
Q.59 Which of the following elements belong to alkali metals?
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p2 (B) [Ar]4s2, 4p6, 5s1 (C) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5 (D) None of these
Q.60 Which of the following set of atomic numbers represent representative element?
(A) 5, 13, 30, 53 (B) 11, 33, 58, 84 (C) 5, 17, 31, 54 (D) 9,31, 53, 83
Q.61 Which one of the following belongs to representative group of elements in the periodic table
(A) Lanthanum (B) Argon (C) Chromium (D) Aluminium
Q.62 The element californium belongs to the family
(A) Actinide series (B) Alkali metal family
(C) Alkaline earth family (D) Lanthanide series
Q.63 The elements of groups, 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 17 and 18 are collectively called -
(A) Noble gases (B) Representative elements
(C) Transition elements (D) Inner transition elements
Q.64 Name of the recently discovered noble gas (atomic number 118) is?
(A) Octauium (Ov) (B) Oganesson (Og) (C) Moscovium (Me) (D)Tennesine (Ts)
Q.65 The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal similarities are :
(A) inert gas elements (B) representative elements
(C) transition element (D) none of these
Q.66 Which of them is an inner transition element ?
(A) La (B) Ac (C) Ce (D) Tl
Q.67 Select incorrect statement for Unbinilium (Ubn) :
(A) It’s outer electron present in s-orbital (B) It is an alkaline earth metals
(C) It is a representative element (D) It is a rare earth element.
Q.68 Which of the following general electronic configuration for transition elements is not correct
(A) (n +1) s1-2 nd1-10 (B) ns1-2 (n–1)d1-0 (Where n = 2, 3, 4 ........)
0-2 2 6 1-10
(C) ns (n-1) s p d (D) (n–1) d1-10 ns0-2
Q.69 True statement is -
(A) All the transuranic elements are synthetic elements
(B) Elements of third group are called bridge elements
(C) Element of 1s2 configuration is placed in IIA group
(D) Electronic configuration of elements of a group is same
Q.70 Transition elements are placed in the periodic table between the group
(A) IA and IIA (B) IIA and IIB (C) IIIA and IVA (D) VII and zero
Q.71 Which of the following matches are wrong -
(a) 96Cm – actinide element (b) 92U – 103Lw Transuranic elements
(c) 61Pm – Man made element (d) Ar – Kr Anomalous pair
(A) a, c (B) b, d (C) a, b (D) Only d
Q.72 The last member in each period of the periodic table is
(A) An inert gas element (B) A transition element
(C) A halogen (D) An alkali metal
Q.73 The number of completed transitional series in the periodic table is / are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
Q.74 The atomic numbers of elements of second inner transition elements lie in the range of
(A) 88 to 101 (B) 89 to 103 (C) 90 to 103 (D) 91 to 104
Q.75 First transitional series is present in
(A) Third period (B) Fifth period (C) Fourth period (D) Sixth period.
Q.76 The atomic numbers of Lanthanides are from
(A) 58 to 71 (B) 90 to 103 (C) 21 to 30 (D) 39 to 48
Q.77 The first lanthanide is
(A) La (B) Ce (C) Th (D) Lu
Q.78 The 4f level is successively filled up in
(A) Alkali metals (B) Rare gases (C) Lanthanides (D) Actinides
Q.79 Lanthanides are group of elements in which the differentiating electron enters
(A) s-sub level (B) d-sub level (C) p-sub level (D) f-sub level
Q.80 if value of n = 7 the configuration (n –2)f (n –1)d ns will be, :
1-14 0-2 2
(A) Lanthanides (B) Actinides (C) Transition elements (D) None

Q.81 The elements in which 5f-orbitals are progressively filled are called as
(A) Lanthanides (B) Actinides (C) Transition elements (D) None of these
Q.82 Hydrogen by donating one electron forms H+. In this property, it resembles with
(A) Transitional metals (B) Alkaline earth metals (C) Alkali metals (D) Halogens
Q.83 The electronic structure (n-1)d10ns2 is characteristic of
(A) Transition elements (B) Lanthanides (C) Actinides (D) Rare gases
Q.84 The elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all
(A) Light metals (B) Inert gases (C) Halogens (D) Rare–earths
Q.85 Which of the following elements is a lanthanide (Rare–earth element)
(A) Cadmium (B) Californium (C) Cerium (D) Cesium
Q.86 The elements in which s and p-orbitals are present
(A) normal elements (B) Inert gases (C) Halogens (D) Transitional elements
Q.87 The elements on the right side of the periodic table are
(A) Metals (B) Metalloids (C) Non-metals (D)Transition elements
Q.88 Cause of diagonal relationship is
(A) Similar electronic configuration of the elements
(B) Similar 𝑒/𝑟 ratio of the elements
(C) Same number of valency electrons in the elements
(D) Same atomic weights of the element
Q.89 Lithium shows diagonal relationship with
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Be (D) B
Q.90 Which statement is correct for elements P(Z = 4), Q(Z = 9) and R(Z = 17) ?
(A) P and R belongs to same group.
(B) Q and R belongs to same period.
(C) Q and R may from compound with each other.
(D) P has diagonal relationship with Magnesium
Q.91 The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in
different groups. Its reason is :-
(A) Both are found together in nature
(B) The ratio of their charge to size is nearly the same
(C) Both have similar electronic configurations
(D) Both have nearly the same size
Q.92 Diagonal relationship is shown by
(A) Elements of first period (B) Elements of second period
(C) Elements of third period (D) (B) and (C) both
Q.93 Chemical property of Li and Mg similar because
(A) These belong to same group (B) Both ionisation potential is same
(C) Shows diagonal relationship (D) Both electron affinity is same
Q.94 Aluminium is diagonally related to (in periodic table)
(A) Li (B) C (C) B (D) Be
Q.95 Which of the following show diagonal relationship
(A) B and Si (B) B and Al (C) B and Ga (D) B and C
Q.96 The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, 85 are all
(A) Noble gases (B) Halogens (C) Heavy metals (D) Light metal
Q.97 Which of the following element does not occur in liquid form
(A) Hg (B) Li (C) Ga (D) Br
Q.98 Atomic number of next inert gas to be discovered will be
(A) 87 (B) 104 (C) 118 (D) 132
Q.99 Elements which generally exhibit variable oxidation states and form coloured ions are
(A) Metalloids (B) Transition elements (C) Non-metals (D) Gases
Q.100 The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though the are placed in
different groups
(A) Both are found together in nature (B) Both have similar electronic configuration
(C) Both have nearly the same size (D) The ratio of their charge to size is nearly the same
Q.101 Beryllium resembles much with
(A) Zn (B) Al (C) Li (D)Ra
(ATOMIC RADIUS)
Q.1 Atomic radius depends upon
(A) anionic nature (B) nature of bonding (C) cation nature (D) metallic nature
Q.2 For the element X, student Mansi measured its radius as 102 nm, student Rohit as 203 nm. and
Ankur as 100 nm. using same apparatus. Element X is:
(A) metal (B) nonmetal(reactive) (C) nonmetal(noble) (D) all of these
Q.3 For an element, the covalent radius is xÅ, metallic radius is yÅ and theVander-Waal’s radius is zÅ.
Which of the following order is correct?
(A) x < y < z (B) y < x < z (C) z < y < x (D) x < z < y
Q.4 Select correct statement about radius of an atom.
(A)Values of Vander Waal's radii are larger than those of covalent radii because the Vander-Waal's
forces are much weaker than the forces operating between atoms in a covalently bonded molecule.
(B)The metallic radii are smaller than the Vander-Wall's radii, since the bonding forces in the
metallic crystal lattice are much stronger than the Vander-Wall’s forces.
(C) Both are correct. (D) None is correct.
Q.5 Incorrect statement is
(A) Atomic size ∝ Zeff (B) Atomic size ∝ negative charge
(C) Atomic size ∝ 1/ Zeff (D) Atomic size ∝ Screening effect
Q.6 The best reason to account for the general tendency of atomic diameters decrease as the atomic
numbers increase within a period of the periodic table is the fact that
(A) Outer electrons repel inner electrons
(B) Closer packing among the nuclear particles is achieved
(C) The number of neutrons increases
(D) increase in effective nuclear charge
Q.7 The atomic radius decreases in a period due to
(A) Increase in nuclear attraction (B) Decrease in nuclear attraction
(C) Increase in number of electrons (D) Increase in shielding constant
Q.8 The covalent and Vander-Waal’s radii of hydrogen in A0 respectively are :-
(A) 0.37, 0.8 (B) 0.37, 0.37 (C) 0.8, 0.8 (D) 0.8, 0.37
Q.9 In a period, atom with smaller radius is
(A) Chalcogen (B) Halogen (C) Aerogen (D) Pnicogen
Q.10 Atomic radius decreases in a period, but after halogens, the atomic radius suddenly increases, inert
gases has almost highest radius in a period. The explanation for such an increase is-
(A)Inert gases has most stable configuration (B)Inert gases do not take part in bonding
(C)Vander Wall’s radius is reported in case of inert gases (D) None of these
Q.11 Which of the following has largest radius -
(A) 1s2,2s22p6,3s2 (B) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p1 (C) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p3 (D) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5
Q.12 Atomic radii of F and Ne (in A0) are given by
(A) 0.72, 0.71 (B) 0.72, 1.6 (C) 1.6, 1.58 (D) 0.71, 0.7
Q.13 Which of the following elements have smaller size than carbon
(A) Lithium (B) Nitrogen (C) Neon (D) Sodium
Q.14 Which electronic configuration of an atom is smallest in size :-
(A) 3s2 (B) 3s23p3 (C) 3s1 (D) 3s23px1 py2pz
Q.15 Arrange the following in order of increasing atomic radii Na, Si, Al, Ar -
(A)Na<Si<Al<Ar (B)Si<Al<Na<Ar (C)Ar <Al<Si<Na (D)Na<Al<Si<Ar
Q.16 Which options are correct for atomic radii ?

(A) Ne > F (B) F > Cl (C) F > Ne (D) Cl > A
Q.17 Maximum size of first member of a period is due to
(A) Maximum number of shells (B) Maximum screening effect
(C) Minimum Zeff (D) All
Q.18 Select pair of species in which first element is bigger than second one
(A) Cl & Br (B) Be & Mg (C) Si & Ge (D) Al & Ga
Q.19 The atom of smallest radius among the following is
(A) Na (B) K (C) Br (D) Li
Q.20 The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 13 elements is
(A) Al<Ga<In<Tl (B) Ga<Al<In<Tl (C) Al<In<Ga<Tl (D) Al<Ga<Tl<In
Q.21 Arrange the elements in increasing order of atomic radius Na, Rb, K, Mg
(A) Na<K<Mg<Rb (B) K<Na<Mg<Rb (C) Mg<Na<K<Rb (D) Rb<K<Mg<Na
Q.22 If the difference in atomic size of : Na – Li = x , Rb – K = y, Fr – Cs = z
Then correct order will be:-
(A) x = y = z (B) x > y > z (C) x < y < z (D) x < y << z
Q.23 The order of increasing sizes of atomic radii among the elements O, S, Se and As is :
(A) As<S<O<Se (B) O<S<As<Se (C) Se<S<As<O (D) O<S<Se<As
Q.24 The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al and S is :
(A) S<C<Cs<Al (B) C<S<Al<C (C) C<S<Cs<Al (D) S<C<Al<Cs
Q.25 The correct order of atomic radii is :
(A) F>Cl>O>S (B) Li<Na<K<Rb (C) Be<B<N<C (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.26 In which of the following pairs, the first atom is larger than the second?
(A) Br, Cl (B) Na, Mg (C) Sr, Ca (D) N, P
Q.27 Arrange in the increasing order of atomic radii of the following elements O, C, F, Cl, Br
(A) F<O<C<Cl<Br (B) F<C<O<Cl<Br (C) F<Cl<Br<O<C (D) C<O<F<Cl<Br
Q.28 Atom which has largest atomic radii in following -
(A) Se (B) Br (C) Te (D) I
Q.29 The correct order of atomic size of C, N, P, S follows the order -
(A) N<C<S Ni > Pd (D) Pd > Pt > Ni
Q.31 Which of the following orders of radii is incorrect:
(a) Li<Be<Na (b) Ni<Cu<Zn (c) Ti>V>Cr (d) Ti>Zr ~ Hf
Q.32 Which of the following pair of species having nearly same atomic size
(A) Zr & Hf (B) Pd & Pt (C) Fe & Co (D) All of these
Q.33 Choose incorrect option regarding atomic size.
(A) Zr≈Hf (B) Fe ≈Co≈Ni (C) Y≈La (D) All of these
Q.34 Which of the following pairs of elements have almost similar atomic radius
(A) Zr, Hf (B) Mo, W (C) Co, Ni (D) Al
(IONIC & HYDATED RADIUS)
Q.1 When a neutral atom is converted into cation, there is
(A) a decrease in atomic number (B) an increase in atomic number
(C) a decrease in size (D) an increase in size
Q.2 When a neutral atom is converted to the anion its
(A) atomic number increases (B) atomic number decreases
(C) a decrease in size (D) an increase in size
Q.3 The radius of potassium atom is 0.203 nm. The radius of the potassium ion in nm will be :–
(A) 0.133 (B) 0.231 (C) 0.234 (D) 0.251
Q.4 Which one is correct order of the size of the Nitrogen species?
(A) N+1 < N < N-1 (B) N > N-1 > N+1 (C) N+1 > N-1 > N (D) N > N+1 > N-1
Q.5 Which one is correct order of the size of the iodine species?
` (A) I-1> I > I+1 (B) I > I-1> I+1 (C) I+1 > I-1> I (D) I > I+1 > I-1
Q.6 The ionic radii of Fe2+ and Fe3+ are x and y respectively the correct relationship is :
(A) x > y (B) x < y (C) x = y (D) can’t be predicted
+ –
Q.7 If the ionic radii of K and F are nearly the same (i.e., 1.34 Å), then the atomic radii of K and F
respectively are:
(A) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (B) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å (C) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å (D) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å
Q.8 Element Hg has two oxidation states Hg+1 & Hg+2. The right order of radii of these ions
(A) Hg+1 > Hg+2 (B) Hg+2> Hg+1 (C) Hg+1 = Hg+2 (D) Hg+2 Hg+1
Q.9 Correct order of ionic size of elements :-
(A) Mn+7 > Mn+6 > Mn+4 (B) C+1 > C > C-1
(C) Fe+3> Fe+2 > Fe (D) All are incorrect
+2 +4
Q.10 The size of the species, Pb, Pb , Pb decreases as -
(A) Pb+4>Pb+2 >Pb (B) Pb>Pb+2 >Pb+4 (C) Pb>Pb+4>Pb+2 (D) Pb+4>Pb>Pb+2
Q.11 Select the correct order of ionic radii.
(A) O-2 > S-2 > Se-2 > Te-2 (B) S-2 > O-2 > Se-2 > Te-2
-2 -2 -2 -2
(C) Te > Se > S > O (D) Se-2 > Te-2 > O-2 > S-2
Q.12 Identify the wrong statement in the following :
(A) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
radius.
(B) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the
ionic radius.
(C) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the
periodic table.
(D) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period
of the periodic table.
Q.13 The radius of isoelectronic species
(A) increases with increase in nuclear charge
(B) decreases with increase in nuclear charge
(C) same for all
(D) first increases and then decreases
Q.14 The size of isoelectronic species O–2, F– and Na+ is affected by:
(A) nuclear charge (Z)
(B) valence principal quantum number (n)
(C) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(D) none of the factors because their size is the same.
Q.15 The correct decreasing order of ionic radius is -
(A) C-4 > N-3 > O-2 > F-1 (B) F-1 > O-2 > N-3 > C-4
(C) O-2 > F-1> C-4 > N-3 (D) N-3 > O-2 > F-1> C-4
Q.16 Which is smallest in size

(A) O-2 (B) C-4 (C) F– (D) N-3
Q.17 Among the following species the highest radius is of
(A) Al3+ (B) F¯ (C) Na+ (D) N3–
+1 +2 +3 +4
Q.18 Na , Mg , Al and Si are isoelectronic. The order of their ionic size is -
(A) Na+1 > Mg+2 < Al+3 < Si+4 (C) Na+1 < Mg+2 > Al+3 > Si+4
(C) Na+1 > Mg+2 > Al+3 > Si+4 (D) Na+1 < Mg+2> Al+3 < Si+4
Q.19 The correct sequence of four anions are arranged in order of decreasing ionic radius, is:
(A) C1–, F–, I–, Br – (B) Cl–, Br–, I–, F– (C) F–, I–, Br–, Cl– (D) I–, Br–, Cl–, F–
Q.20 The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is
(A) K+, S2–, Ca2+ , Cl– (B) Cl–, Ca2+ K+, S2–
(C) S2–, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ (D) Ca2+, K+, Cl–, S2–
3– 2– –
Q.21 The ionic radii (in Å) of N , O and F are respectively
(A) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (B) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(C) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (D) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
+ 2+ – 2–
Q.22 For Na , Mg , F & O , the correct order of increasing ionic radii is :
(A) Na+ < Mg2+ < F– < O2– (B) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
–
+2 2–
(C) Mg < O < Na < F +
(D) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
Q.23 The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(A) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (B) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F–
(C) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+ (D) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
Q.24 Choose the correct ionic radius order:
(A) N–3 < N–2 (B) N–3 < P–3 (C) K+ < Ca+2 (D) O–2 < Mg+2
–1 3+ +1
Q.25 Correct order of radius among the following F , Al , Na are
(A) Al3+=Na+1=F–1 (B) Al3+>Na+1>F–1 (C) Al3+=Na+1>F–1 (D) Al3+<Na+1<F–1
Q.26 The ions O2–, F–1, Na+1, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show:
(A) an increase from O2– to F–1 and then decrease from Na+1 to Al3+
(B) a decrease from O2– to F–1 and then increase from Na+1 to Al3+
(C) a significant increase from O2– to Al3+
(D) a significant decrease from O2– to Al3+
Q.27 Which of the following has the largest size?
(A) K+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Ar (D) P3–
Q.28 Which of the following has the largest size ?
(A) Br- (B) I (C) I+ (D) I-
Q.29 Consider the isoelectronic series : K+, S2–, Cl–1 and Ca+2, the radii of the ions decrease as
(A) Ca+2 > K+ > Cl–1 > S2– (B) Cl–1 > S2– > K+ > Ca+2
(C) S2– > Cl–1 > K+ > Ca+2 (D) K+ > Ca+2 > S2– > Cl–
Q.30 Which of the following order of atomic/ionic radius is not correct :–
(A) I-1> I > I+1 (B) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– (C) P5+ < P3+ (D) Li > Be > B
Q.31 In the ions P , S and Cl the increasing order of size is –
3- 2- -1
(A) Cl-1<S2<P3- (B) P3-<S2-<Cl-1 (C) S2-<Cl-1<P3- (D) S2-<P3-<Cl-1

Q.32 Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increasing order as –
(A) La3+< Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (B) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(C) La3+= Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (D) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+< Ce3+
Q.33 The radius of La+3 (Z=57) is 1.06A0. Which of the following given values will be closest to
the radius of Lu3+ (Z=7(A)
(A) 1.60 A0
(B) 1.40A0
(C) 1.06A0
(D) 0.85 A0
Q.34 From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having highest Zeff
(A) O2–, F–, Na+
(B) Li, Be, Na
(C) He, Li+, H–
a b c a b c
(A) Na +
Be Li +
(B) O 2–
Li H–
(C) F– Na He (D) Na+ Be He
Q.35 An increase in both atomic and ionic radii with atomic number occurs in any group of the
periodic table and in accordance with this the ionic radii of Ti(IV) and Zr(IV) ions are and
respectively; but for Hf(IV) ion, the ionic radius is , which is almost the same as that for
Zr(IV) ion. This is due to
(A) greater degree of covalency in compounds of
(B) lanthanide contraction
(C) actinide contraction
(D) difference in co-ordination number of Zr4+ and in their compounds
Q.36 Maximum hydrated radius from the ions given below will be ?
(A) Mg+2 (B) A1+3 (C) S–2 (D) F–
Q.37 Hydration energy will be maximum for which of the following ion?
(A) Be+2 (B) Li+ (C) I– (D) Mg+2
Q.38 Order of energy released during hydration of K+, Rb+ and Cs+ is ?
(A) K+<Rb+<Cs+ (B) Rb+<K+<Cs+ (C) Cs+>Rb+>K+ (D) K+>Rb+>Cs+
Q.39 Choose the incorrect statement option from given below :
+ + + +
(A) Li (aq) > Na (aq) (Hydrated size) (B) Li (aq) < Na (aq) (Ionic mobility)
(C) Be+2 < Al+3 (hydration energy) (D) F–1 < C1–1 (no. of water in surrounding )
(IONIC RADIUS MIX)
Q.1 From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having least atomic radius:-
(A) O–2, F–, Na+ (B) Ni, Cu, Zn (C) Li, Be, Mg (D) He, Li+, H–
Correct answer is
(A) O–2, Cu, Li, H– (B) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
(C) F–, Zn, Mg, He (D) Na+, Cu, Be, He
Q.2 Which of the following ion has smallest size?
(A) Be+2 (B)Ba+2 (C) O–2 (D) Cl-
Q.3 Choose the incorrect option
(A) Na+ > Li+ > Mg+2 > Be+2 (ionic radius) (B) F– < Cl– < Br– In+ > Sn > In (Zeff) (D) Na+ > F– > O2– (atomic radius)
Q.4 The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is
(A) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (B) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
+ 2+ + 2+
(C) Li > Be > Na > Mg (D) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
Q.5 Which of the following order of atomic / ionic radius is not correct?
(A) F < Cl Sr2+ > Rb+ (C) Nb ≈ Ta (D) Li > Be > B
Q.6 When the following five anions are arranged in order of decreasing ionic radius, the correct sequence
is:
(A) Se2–, I–, Br–, O2–, F– (B) I–, Se2–, Br–, F–, O2–
2– – – –
(C) Se , I , Br , F , O 2–
(D) I–, Se2–, Br–, O2–, F–
Q.7 Ionic radii of :
(A) Ti4+ < Mn7+ (B) 35Cl– < 37Cl– (C) K+ > Cl– (D) P3+ > P5+
Q.8 The correct order of radii is :
(A) N < Be < B (B) F– < O2– < N3– (C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe+4
Q.9 Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius ?
(A) Li+ (B) B3+ (C) O2– (D) F–
Q.10 Which of the following arrangements represents the increasing order (smallest to largest) of ionic
radii of the given species O2–, S2–, N3–, P3– ?
(A) O2– < N3– < S2– < P3– (B) O2– < P3– < N3– < S2–
3– 2– 3– 2–
(C) N < O < P < S (D) N3– < S2– < O2– < P3–
Q.11 Which one of the following has largest ionic radius?
(A) Li+ (B) O2– (C) B3+ (D) F–
Q.12 In Which of the following case the size ratio is maximum:
(A) Cl–1 / Cl (B) I–1 / I (C) H–1 / H (D) F–1 / F
Q.13 Select the correct sequence of increasing radius (left to right)
(A) Se2–, O2–, F1– (B) Ca2+, Ar, K1+ (C) Se, As, Ge (D) Fe, Fe2+, Fe3+
Q.14 Choose the incorrect ionic radius order.
(A) Al3+ < Li1+ (B) O2– > C4– (C) Cl1– < S2– (D) Na1+ > Li1+ > H1+
Q.15 The smallest size cation and anion available are respectively.
(A) H1+ and H1– (B) H1+ and F1– (C) Li1+ and F1– (D) Li1+ and H1–
Q.16 Which of the following is smallest anion.
(A) F1– (B) H1– (C) Cl1– (D) O2–
Q.17 Which of the following is the correct increasing size?
(A) Cl1+< Ca2+ < S2– < Al3+ (B) Mg2+ < K+ < Li1+ < Al3+
2+ 1+ 1- 2– 3-
(C) Mg < Na < F < O < N (D) F1- < Na1+< Mg2+ < O2–
Q.18 Which of the following is incorrect order of ionic radii?
(A) N1- < N2– < C4- (B) O1- < N3- (C) Mg+ < Al3+ (D) Si4+< Al2+< Al+
Q.19 Choose the correct order of size.
3+
(I) Fe2+ > Fe (II) Cu < Zn (III) Cu2+ > Cu+ (IV) Hg1+ > Hg2+
(A) I, II & IV (B) I, II & III (C) I, III & IV (D) II & IV
Q.20 The correct order of ionic radii is :
(A) Te2– > I1- > Cl1-> Ar+ (B) I1-> Te2– > Cl1-> Ar+
1- 2– + 1-
(C) I > Te > Ar > Cl (D) I1- > Cl1-> Te2– > Ar+
Q.21 The correct order of ionic radii is :
(A) O2- > F1- > Li+1 > B3+ (B) F1- > O1- > Li+1> B3+
1- 3+ 1- +1
(C) F > B > O > Li (D) O1- > F1- > B3+ > Li+1
Q.22 Choose the correct order of atomic / ionic radii.
(A) Sc < Y < La (B) Fe < Co < Ni
2+ 2+ 3+
(C) Be < Mg < Al (D) Tl1+ < Pb2+ < Bi3+
Q.23 Which ion has the largest radius?
(A) Se2- (B) F (C) O2–(D) Rb
Q.24 The correct arrangement for the ions in the increasing order of their radius is
(A) Na1+, Cl1-, Ca2+ (B) Ca2+, K1+, S2– (C) Na1+, Al3+, Be2+ (D) Cl1-, F1- , S2–
Q.25 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
(A) H1- > H> H1+ (B) Na1+ > F1- > O2– (C) F1-> O2–>Na1+ (D) Al3+>Mg2+>N3-
Q.26 The radii of N, N3-, O and O2– are in the order :
(A) N3- > O2– > O > N (B) O2– > N3-> N > O
(C) N3-> O2– > N > O (D) N > O > O2– > N3-
Q.27 In which of the following compound, distance between two nuclei is maximum :–
(A) CsF (B) KI (C) CsI (D) LiI
Q.28 In which of the following pair radii of second species is smaller than that of first species :-
(A) Li, Na (B) Na1+, F-1 (C) N-3, Al3+ (D) Mn7+, Mn4+
Q.29 Decreasing order of size of ions is :-
(A) Br1-> S2– > Cl1- > N-3 (B) N-3> S2- > Cl-1 > Br1-
(C) Br1-> Cl1- > S2– > N-3 (D) N-3 > Cl-1 > S2– > Br1-
Q.30 In which of the following pairs, both the species have nearly the same size :-
(A) Al, Ga (B) Li1+, Mg2+Li+1, Mg+2 (C) Fe, Co (D) All the three
Q.31 Which of the following pairs has the same size?
(A) Fe+2, Ni+2 (B) Zr+4, Ti+4 (C) Zr+4, Hf +4 (D) Zn+2 , Cd+2
Q.32 The radii of F, F–, O and O2– are in the order
(A) O2– > F–>O>F (B) O2– > F–>F>O
(C) F–> O2– > F>O (D) O2– >O> F–>F
Q.33 Select the incorrect order of Ionic radii :
(A) Sc+1 > Sc+2 > Sc+3 (B) Se-2> Br– > Rb+3
+1 +1 +3
(C) Na > Li > Al (D) Li+1 > Be+2 > Mg+2
(SUCCESSIVE IONIZATION ENERGY)
Q.1 Compared to the first ionisation potential, the value of second ionisation potential of an element is
(A) Negligible (B) Smaller (C) Greater (D) Double
Q.2 The ionization energy of sodium is 495 kJ mol–1. How much energy is needed to convert atoms
present in 2.3 mg of sodium into sodium ions -
(A) 4.95 J (B) 49.5 J (C) 495 J (D) 0.495
Q.3 Which of the following isoelectronic species has the lowest ionisation energy ?
(A) S-2 (B) K+ (C) Cl-1 (D) Ca2+
Q.4 Least ionisation potential will be of :-
(A) Be2+ (B) H (C) Li2+ (D) He+
Q.6 The ionisation potential values 54.40 eV & 39.30 eV correspond to
(A) H+ & H (B) Li & Li+ (C) He & He+ (D) He+ & He
Q.7 For an element ‘A’. A⎯→A+⎯→ A+2 ⎯→ A+3 ⎯→ ...................
The IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ/mole and 51 kJ/mole respectively. Then the value of IE2 is _______
kJ/mole.
(A) 21 (B) 33 (C) 59 (D) 63
3+
Q.8 A neutral atom (Ar) is converted to (Ar )by the following process (g)
Ar ⎯→ Ar+ ⎯→ Ar2+ ⎯→Ar3+ The correct order of E1, E2 and E3 energies is:-
(A) E1 < E2 < E3 (B) E1 > E2 > E3 (C) E1 = E2 = E3 (D) E1 > E2 < E3
Q.9 Which of the following transitions involves maximum amount of energy.
(A) M1-(g) → M(g) (B) M(g) → M+(g)
(C) M+(g) → M2+(g) (D) M2+(g)→ M3+(g)
1- +
Q.10 Ionisation energies of Cl , Cl and Cl are respectively (in KJ/mol)
(A) 1251, 349, 2300 (B) 2300, 349,1251
(C) 349, 1251, 2300 (D) 349, 2300, 1251
Q.11 I and III ionisation energies of an element are 40 and 60 eV/atom respectively. II ionization energy
can be
(A) 51 eV/atom (B) 39 eV/atom (C) 65 eV/atom (D) 100 eV/atom
Q.12 From the given information of element M:
(1) M→M+3 + 3e– ΔH = x kJ/mole
(2) IE1 (M) = y kJ/mole
(3) IE1 (M+2 = z kJ/mole)
The value of IE2 (M) kJ/mole in will be
(A) (x + y + z) (B) (x–y–z) (C) (x–y+z) (D) z–(x + y)
nd st
Q.13 Which of the following has 2 IP < 1 IP -
(A) Mg (B) Ne (C) C (D) None
Q.14 Which of the following represent second ionization energy?
(A) O(g) ⎯→ O+2(g)+2e (B) O2(g) ⎯→ O2+2(g)+2e (C) O+(g) ⎯→ O+2(g)+e– (D) All of these
Q.15 IP2 for an element is invariably higher than IP1 because
(A) The size of cation is smaller than its atoms
(B) It is difficult to remove e from cation
(C) Effective nuclear charge is more for cation
(D) All the above
Q.16 The ionisation potential value for process M(g) —→ M+(g) is 'X'. Then choose the correct code if
ionisation potential value for M-1(g) —→ M(g) process is 'Y'.
(A) X = Y (B) X > Y (C) X < Y (D) Data Insufficient
Q.17 The second ionization energies of elements are always higher than their first ionization energies
because:
(A) the cation is smaller than its parent atom.
(B) it is easier to remove electron from cation.
(C) ionization is an endothermic process.
(D) cation formed always have stable half filled or completely filled valence shell electron
configuration.
Q.18 IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 Kcal/mole. The enthalpy required for the reaction
Mg → Mg+2 + 2e in Kcal/mole is -
(A) + 170 (B) + 526 (C) – 170 (D) – 526
Q.19 M(g) ⎯→ M (g) + e, H = 100 eV; M(g) ⎯→ M (g) + 2e, H = 250 eV
+ +2
Which is incorrect statement?

(A) IE1 of M(g) is 100 eV (B) IE1 of M+(g) is 150 eV
(C) IE2 of M(g) is 250 eV (D) IE2 of M(g) is 150 eV
Q.20 Choose the correct Ionization potential order:
(A) O-1 > O (B) N1- > N (C) H1- > H (D) None of these
Q.21 The IE values of Al(g) = Al + e is 577.5 kJ mol and H for Al(g) = Al+3 + 3e is 5140 kJ mol-1. If
+ -1
second and third IE values are in the ratio 2 : 3. find IE2 and IE3 in kJ/mole respectively
(A) 1825, 2737.5 (B) 1600, 1737.5 (C) 1925, 2037.5 (D) 1252, 1237.5
Q.22 (a) M1-(g) → M(g) (b) M(g) → M+(g) (c) M+(g) → M2+(g) (d) M2+(g)→ M3+(g)
Minimum and maximum I.P. would be of:-
(A) a, d (B) b, c (C) c, d (D) d, a
Q.23 Consider the following changes:
(1) M(s) → M(g) (2) M(s) → M2+(g) + 2e (3) M(g) → M+(g) + e
(4) M+(g) → M2+(g)+ e– (5) M(g) → M2+(g)+ 2e–
The second ionization energy of M could be calculated from the energy values associated with:
(A) 1 + 3 + 4 (B) 2 – 1 + 3 (C) 1 + 5 (D) 5 – 3
(nth ionization energy)
Q.1 If the graph is plotted between atomic numbers and ionisation potential. Which group of
element occupy the lowest position on the curve :–
(A) Alkaline earth metal (B) Inert gas (C) Actinides (D) Alkali metals
Q.2 In the plot of the IE1 against atomic number the peaks are occupied by :-
(A) Inert gases (B) Alkali metals (C) Halogens (D) Transition elements
12 14
Q.3 Ionization enthalpies of C6 and C6 are:
(A) same (B) Different
(C) Depends on atomic masses (D) Dependent on number of neutrons present
Q.4 Highest ionisation potential in a period is shown by
(A) Alkali metals (B) Noble gases (C) Halogens (D) Representative elements
Q.5 Ionization energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because
(A) Nucleus has more attraction for electrons (B) Half-filled p-orbitals are more stable
(C) Nitrogen atom is small (D) More penetration effect
Q.6 (First Ionisation Enthalpy) of Na, Mg and Si is 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1, respectively. What
will be the value of Al?
(A) 760 kJ mol–1 (B) 450 kJ mol–1 (C) 580 kJ mol–1 (D) 800 kJ mol–1
Q.7 The correct values of IE (in kJ/mol) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are -
(A) 786, 1012, 999, 1256 (B) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(C) 786, 1012, 1256, 999 (D) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
Q.8 The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B respectively are
(A) 8.29, 9.32 (B) 9.32, 9.32 (C) 8.29, 8.29 (D) 9.32, 8.29
Q.9 Correct order of 1st IP among following elements Be, B, C, N, O is
(A) B<Be<C<O<N (B) B<Be<C<N<O
(C) Be<B<C<N<O (D) Be<B<C<O<N
Q.10 Which of the following orders is correct for the first ionisation potential of B, C and
(A) B > C > N (B) N > C > B
(C) N > C O > F (B) N < O < F
(C) N > O < F (D) N < O > F
Q.12 The first ionisation potential (in eV) of N, O atoms are:
(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6 (C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
Q.13 Ionisation energy order is:
(A) Li < Be > B (B) Be < B < C (C) C < N < O (D) N < O < F
Q.14 Choose the correct ionisation energy order.
(A) Li Al (B) Mg > Al (C) Ga > Ca (D) Mg > Be
Q.16 Among the following elements (Whose electronic configuration is give below) the one having the
highest ionization energy is -
(A) [Ne] 3s23p3 (B) [Ne]3s23p4
2 5
(C) [Ne] 3s 3p (D) [Ne] 3s2
Q.17 The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al & Si are in the order
(A) Na<Mg>Al<Si (B) Na>Mg>Al>Si
(C) Na<Mg<Al>Si (D) Na>Mg>Al<Si
Q.18 Which of the following has the highest ionisation enthalpy?
(A) P (B) N (C) As (D) Sb
Q.19 Find the highest ratio of IP values of given pair of elements:
(A) He: Ne (B) Ne: Ar (C) He: Xe (D) Kr: Xe
Q.20 Ionisation potential of which element is highest?
(A) H (B) Cl (C) He (D) Fr
Q.21 Which of the following elements has the lowest ionisation potential?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Mg (D) Al
Q.22 Element X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the
following statements are true -
(A) Their ionization potential would increase with the increasing atomic number
(B) ‘Y’ would have an ionization potential in between those of ‘X’ and ‘Z’
(C) ‘Z’ would have the highest ionization potential
(D) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionization potential
(nth ionization energy )
Q.1 The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is
(A) Ca > K > Rb > Cs (B) Cs > Rb > K > Ca
(C) Ca > Cs > Rb > K (D) K > Rb > Cs > Ca
Q.2 With reference to ionisation potential which one of the following sets is correct: -
(A) Li > K > B (B) B > Li > K (C) Cs > Li > K (D) Cs < Li < K
Q.3 Which of the following atom has highest ionisation energy.
(A) N (B) O (C) P (D) S
Q.4 Select the correct increasing order of ionization enthalpy of S, P, As elements -
(A) S < P < As (B) P < S < As (C) As < S < P (D) As < P < S
Q.5 Which one of the following electronic configurations of an atom has the lowest ionisation energy
(A) 1s22s22p3 (B) 1s22s22p63s1 (C) 1s22s22p6 (D) 1s22s22p5
Q.6 Which of the following elements has the highest ionisation energy?
(A) [Ne] 3s23p1 (B) [Ne] 3s23p3 (C) [Ne] 3s23p2 (D) 3d10, 4s2 4p3
Q.7 Consider following electronic configuration of atoms and select correct code in order of increasing
ionization energy
[I] 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 [II] 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 [III] 1s2 2s2 2p4 [IV] 1s2 2s2 2p5
[V] 1s2 2s2 2p6
(A) [II] < [I] < [III] < [IV] < [V] (B) [II] < [III] < [IV] < [I] < [V]
(C) [II] < [IV] < [III] < [I] < [V] (D) [II] < [III] < [I] < [IV] < [V]
Q. 9 Element which has minimum first ionisation energy is -
(A) N (B) P (C) O (D) S
Q.10 The ionisation energies for B, Tl and in are X, Y and Z kcal/mol respectively, Choose the correct
relationship between them -
(A) Z > X = Y (B) X > Y > Z (C) X > Y = Z (D) X < Y > Z
Q. 11 Which of the following has maximum ionisation energy?
(A) Li+ (B) He (C) Ne (D) Na
Q.12 The first ionization energy is maximum for
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) K (D) Kr
Q.13 The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
Q.14 Which of the following orders are correct for the ionization energies?
(i) Ba < Sr < Ca (ii) S2– < S < S2+ (iii) C < O < N (iv) Mg < Al < Si
(A) i, ii and iv (B) i, iii and iv (C) i, ii and iii (D) i, ii, iii and iv
Q.15 The order of first ionization enthalpies of the elements Li, Be, B, Na is -
(A) Li > Be > B > Na (B) Be > B > Li > Na (C) Na > Li > B > Be (D) Be > Li > B > Na
Q.16 The correct order of first IE is-
(A) He > O > F > N (B) N > F > O > He (C) He > F > N > O (D) F > O > N > He
Q.17 The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is:
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
(nth ionization energy )
Q.1 Find the correct order of 2nd ionisation energy?
(A) A1 > Mg (B) Cr > Cr+ (C)P > S (D) S > C
Q.2 The IE2 in electron volts of oxygen and fluorine atoms are respectively given by
(A) 35.1, 38.3 (B) 38.3, 38.3 (C) 38.3, 35.1 (D) 35.1, 35.1
Q.3 Second ionization potential of Li, Be and B is in the order
(A) Li > Be > B (B) Li > B > Be (C) Li > Be Be > Li
Q.4 The correct order of second I.P.
(A) Na<Mg>Al<Si (B) Na>Mg<Al>Si (C) Na>Mg>Al<Si (D) Na>Mg>Al>Si
Q.5 The correct order of second ionization potential of C, N, O and F is -
(A) C > N > O > F (B) O > N > F > C (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N > C
Q.6 Which pair of elements has same order of 1st and IInd ionisation energy ?
(A) Li, Be (B) N, O (C) C, N (D) Be, B
Q.7 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) The second ionization energy of sulphur is greater than that of chlorine
(B) The second ionization energy of silicon is greater than that of aluminium
(C) The first ionization energy of aluminium is lower than galium
(D) The second ionization energy of boron is greater than that of carbon
Q.8 The third ionization energy is least for
(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorus (C) Aluminum (D) Boron
Q.9 The correct order of decreasing second ionization energy of Li, Be, Ne, C, B
(A) Ne > B > Li > C > Be (B) Li > Ne > C > B > Be
(C) Ne > C > B > Be > Li (D) Li > Ne > B > C > Be
Q.10 Among the following, third ionisation energy is highest for
(A) magnesium (B) boron (C) beryllium (D) aluminium
Q.11 nd
The 2 ionisation potential of Mg is less than that of Na because
(A) Atomic size of Mg is less than that of Na.
(B) Atomic size of Mg is greater than that of Na.
(C) 2nd electron removal from Na occur from inert gas configuration, while the same for Mg results
inert gas configuration.
(D) Both are having same Zeff value for 3s electron.
Q.12 Which configuration represents atom having highest second ionization energy?
(A) 1s22s22p4 (B) 1s22s22p6 (C) 1s22s22p63s1 (D) 1s22s22p63s2
Q.13 The incorrect statement among the following is
(A) the first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(B) the second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of Na
(C) the first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(D) the third ionization potential of Mg is greater than third ionization potential of Al
Q.14 Which of the following ionisation energy order is/are correct.
(A) Be+ > B+2 (B) C+3 < B+2 (C) N+4 < O+5 (D) F+6 < C+3
Q.15 Amongst the following, the incorrect order is
(A) IE1(Al)<IE1(Mg) (B) IE1(Na)<IE1(Mg)
(C) IE2(Mg)>IE1(Na) (D) IE1(Mg)>IE3(Al)
Q.16 IP2 of which of the element is maximum–
(A) Lithium (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Fluorine
Q.17 Highest difference between Ist & IInd ionisation energies will be observed in:
(A) Li (B) B (C) O (D) F
(TO FIND VALENCE ELECTRON)
Q.1 K forms K ion but it does not form K2+ because
+
(A) Very low value of IE1 and IE2 (B) low value of IE1 and low value of IE2
(C) Very high value of IE1 and IE2 (D) low value of IE1 and high value of IE2
Q.2 For an element 'A' belonging to alkaline earth metal family.
A → A+ → A2+ →A3+→ A4+ ..... are defined. If IE3 and IE4 are respectively 4.9 and 6.5 M J/ mol.
What will be the values of IE1 and IE2 respectively.
(A) 1, 4 (B) 0.6, 1.1 (C) 4, 4.5 (D) 1.5 , 5.2
Q.3 The first five ionization energies of an element are 9.1, 16.2, 24.5, 35 and 205.7 eV
respectively. Then number of valence electron in the atom is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.4 Ionisation energies of element X are given below (in kJ/mol)
IE1 IE2 IE3
520 7,340 11,000
If ‘X’ reacts with different elements which compounds are possible
(A) XF (B) X2O (C) X3N (D) All of above
Q.5 The successive ionisation energies of an element (in eV/atom) are :
The outer electronic configuration of the element may be :

(A) ns2 np0 (B) ns2np3 (C) ns2np0 (D) ns2np2
Q.6 Successive ionization enthalpies (in eV/atom) of an element are 5, 8, 9, 90, 100.
The number of valence electrons are :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.7 For element, A there is large energy difference between 5th and 6th ionisation energy. This element
is member of
(A) Pnictogen family (B) Chalcogen family (C) Halogen family (D) Noble gases
Q.8 For an element the successive ionisation energy value (in eV atom-1) are given below 12.32, 26.84,
44.56, 65.63, 203.9, 251.12, 308.4 The element that satisfies the above values is :
(A) Si (B) Ca (C) Al (D) S
Q.9 For an element having only one valence shell electron, then which of the following
ionisation energy difference will have the maximum value -
(A) IE2 – IE1 (B) IE3 – IE2 (C) IE3 – IE1 (D) can't predict
Q.10 The five successive ionisation energies of an element ‘X’ are 800, 1427, 2658, 4500
and 5024 KJ mole-1 respectively. The valency of ‘X’ is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.11 In which case the maximum energy is needed in the formation of mono-positive ion from 1 mole :-
(A) Li (B) Na (C) Cs (D) Be
Q.12 Successive ionization energies of an element ‘X’ are given below (in K Cal) :
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of the element ‘X’ is -
(A) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p2 (B) 1s2,2s1 (C) 1s2,2s22p2 (D) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s2
Q.13 First, second and third IP values are 100eV, 150eV and 1500eV. Element can be -
(A) Be (B) B (C) F (D) Na
Q.14 The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionization energies (kJ/mol) of a few elements
designated by Roman numerals are given below. Which of these would be an alkali metal ?
(IE1) (IE2) (IE1) (IE2)
(A) I 2372 5251 (B) II 520 7300
(C) III 900 1760 (D) IV 1680 3380
Q.15 The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP3 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV
respectively. The element is likely to be -
(A) Na (B) Si (C) F (D) Ca
Q.16 Which represents alkali metals based on (IE) 1 and (IE)2 values (in kJ/mol) ?
(IE1) (IE2) (IE1) (IE2)
(A) X 500 1000 (B) Y 600 2000
(C) Z 550 7500 (D) M 700 1400
Q.17 A sudden large jump between the values of 2nd and 3rd IP of an element would be
associated with the electronic configuration :-
(A) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s1. (B) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5 (C) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p2 (D) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s2
Q.18 Values of first four ionisation potential of an elements are 68, 370, 400, 485. It belongs
to which of the following electronic configuration:-
(A) 1s2,2s1 (B) 1s2,2s22p5 (C) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s1 (D) (A) and (C) both
Q.19 The value of an atom are respectively 7.5 eV, 25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV. The
electronic configuration of the atom will be
(A) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s1 (B) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p1 (C) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p3 (D) 1s2,2s22p6,3s2
Q.20 Which of the following ionization energy values for calcium show a sudden increase?
(A) Third (B) Second (C) First (D) Fourth
Q.21 Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy?
(A) Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron.
(B) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced on removal of electron from core
noble gas configuration.
(C) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
(D) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having higher
n value.
(Cation formation tendency)
Q.1 Which of the following set of elements are having strongest tendency to form cation?
(A) I, Cl, Br (B) C, Sn, Se (C) Na, K, Sr (D) Mn, Ti, Fe
Q.2 The element having maximum tendency to form ionic bonds is
(A) Cs (B) Rb (C) K (D) Li
Q.3 The strongest reducing agent in gaseous phase is
(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Cs
+1 +2 +3
Q.4 The correct order of stability of Al , Al , Al is-
(A) Al+3>Al+2>Al+1 (B) Al+3>Al+2>Al+1 (C) Al+2<Al+1>Al+3 (D) Al+3>Al+1>Al+2
Q.5 Fe3+ is more stable than Fe+2 the reason is :-
(A) IP is less than 11 eV (B) More stable core in Fe3+
(C) Inert pair effect (D) (A) & (B) both are correct
Q.6 Which of the following electronic configuration belongs to least and most metallic
character respectively:-
(a) 1s2,2s1 (b) 5s25p5 (c) 3s2 3p64s1 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5
(A) a, b (B) d, c (C) b, a (D) c, d
Q.7 In the given process which oxidation state is more stable.
M(g) ⎯→ M(g)+1 IE1 = 7.9 eV M(g)+1 ⎯→ M(g)+2 IE2 = 15.5 eV
(A) M+1 (B) M+2 (C) Both (D) None
Q.8 Inert pair effect is prominent character of
(A) p-block (B) d-block (C) s-block (D)f-block
Q.9. Which of the following is incorrect statement(s):
(A) Tl +3> Tl + (Stability order) (B) Pb+2 > Pb+4 (Stability order)
(C) Fe+ > Fe+2 > Fe+3 (Radius order) (D) O-2 > F-1 > Na+1 (radius order)
Q.10 Stability of ions of Ge, Sn and Pb will be in the order :
(A) Ge+2 > Sn+2 > Pb+2 (B) Ge+4 >Sn+4 >Pb+4 (C) Sn+4 < Sn+2 (D) Pb+2 < Pb+4
Q.11 Sodium forms Na+ ion but it does not form Na+2 because -
(A) Very low value of IE1 and IE2
(B) Very high value of IE1 and IE2
(C) High value of IE1 and low value of IE1
(D) Low value of IE1 and high value of IE2
Q.12 The maximum tendency to form unipositive ion is for the element with the electronic
configuration-
(A) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s2 (B) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p1 (C) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p2 (D) 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p3
Q.13 The strongest reducing agent among the following is :–
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) K
Q.14 Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive
element
(A) [He] 2s1 (B) [Xe] 6s1 (C) [He] 2s2 (D) [Xe] 6s2
Q.15 Mg forms Mg(II) because of :-
(A) The oxidation state of Mg is + 2
(B) Difference between I.P.1 and I.P.2 is greater than 16.0 eV
(C) There are only two electrons in the outermost energy level of Mg
(D) Difference between I.P.1 and I.P.2 is less than 11eV
Q.16 Which of the following statement is correct:-
(A) I.P. increases down the group
(B) IP of s–block elements is less than corresponding d– block elements
(C) If IP > 16 eV higher oxidation state is more stable
(D) IP of halogen elements is maximum in their respective period
Q.17 The electronic configuration of some neutral atoms are given below:-
(A) 1s2 2s1 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1In which of these
electronic configurations would you expect to have highest
(i) IE1 (ii) IE2
(A) C, A (B) B, A (C) C, B (D) B, D
Q.18 The sum of IE1 and IE2, IE3 and IE4 for element P and Q are given below:
IE1 + IE2 IE3 + IE4
(P) 2.45 8.82
(Q) 2.85 6.11
Then according to the given information the correct statement(s) is/are:
(A) p2+ is more stable than Q2+ (B) p2+ is less stable than Q2+
(C) p4+ is more stable than Q4+ (D) p4+ is less stable than Q4+
Q.19 1/4th of Avogadro number of atoms of an element absorb energy ‘X’ kJ, the ionisation energy of per
atom is,
(A) 2X/N0 (B) 4X/N0 (C) 4N0/X (D) N0/4X
(d-BLOCK IONIZATION ENERGY)
Q.1 The first ionisation energies of the elements of the first transition series (Ti → Cu)
(A) increase as the atomic number increases
(B) decrease as the atomic number increases
(C) do not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n –1) d-orbitals
(D) increase from Ti to Mn and then decrease from Mn to Cu
Q.2 Which of the following element has maximum, first ionisation potential
(A) V (B) Ti (C) Cr (D) Mn
Q.3 Which of the following has the lowest second ionisation energy?
(A) Sc (B) Ti (C) V (D) Ca
Q.4 The ionisation energy for ‘Sc’ , ‘Y’ and ‘La’ are x, y and z kcal/mol respectively.
Choose the correct relationship between them.
(A) z > x y (B) x > y > z (C) x > z  y (D) x < y > z
Q.6 Element which has maximum ionisation energy.
(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Cd (D) Fe
Q.7 The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti, V, Cr and Mn
(A) Cr > Mn > V > Ti (B) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(C) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (D) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
Q.8 The correct order of ionisation energy of Al, K, Fe, Mg is
(A) K<Al<Mg<Fe (B) K<Mg<Al<Fe (C) Mg<K<Al<Fe (D) Mg<Fe<Al<K
Q.9 Which ionisation potential in the following equations involves the greatest amount of energy?
(A) K+ → K+2 + e (B) Ca+ → Ca+2 + e (C) Fe → Fe+ + e (D) Li+ → Li+2 + e
Q.10 Which has the lowest IE :-
(A) 3d2 (B) 4s1 (C) 3p3 (D) 2p6
Q.11 The incorrect statement among the following is :
(A) The first ionisation energy of calcium is more than first ionisation energy of gallium
(B) The second ionisation energy of copper is greater than that of potassium
(C) The third ionisation energy of Mg is greater than the third ionisation energy of Al
(D) The IE1 of Mg+ is less than the IE1 of Na+
Q.12 Which of the following has the highest second ionisation energy?
(A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Co (D) Fe
Q.13 What is the correct order of ionisation energy :
(A) K<Cu<Cu+<K+ (B) K<Cu+<Cu<K+ (C) Cu+<K<Cu<K+ (D) K+<Cu+<Cu<K
Q.14 Which one of these is expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy?
(A) Cr (B) V (C) Fe (D) Ni
Q.15 Which of the following relation is correct with respect to first (I) and second (II) ionization
enthalpies of potassium and calcium ?
(A) ICa > IIK (B) IK > ICa (C) IICa > IIK (D) IIK > IICa
(ELECTRON AFFINITY INTRODUCTION)
Q.1 Electron affinity is a -
(A) Relative strength to attract the shared electron pair
(B) Necessary energy required to remove the electron from the ultimate orbit
(C) Energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell
(D) Energy released when an electron is added to the inner shell
Q.2 The energy released when a neutral gaseous atom, takes up an electron and forms a
uni-negative ion is called its
(A) effective nuclear charge (B) polarising power
(C) electron affinity (D) ionization potential
Q.3 Which of the following is as per the definition of electron-affinity of element ?
(A) X2(g) → 2X(g) -1 (B) X(g) → X-1(g)
(C) X-1(g) → X (g) (D) X-1(g) → X-1 (g)
Q.4 Energy is absorbed when a second electron is added to oxygen. This is because
(A) O- has stable configuration
(B) O- has repulsion with electron to be added
(C) O- has lower nuclear charge than O
(D) O2- has unstable configuration
Q.5 Second electron gain enthalpy ?
(A) is always negative (B) is always positive
(C) can be positive or negativ (D) is always zero
Q.6 Which of the following process is endothermic?
(A) Na(g) + 1e ⎯→ Na-1(g) (B) O+(g) + 1e ⎯→ O(g)
(C) O-1(g) + 1e ⎯→ O-2(g) (D) S + 1e ⎯→ S-1(g)
Q.7 Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) For A(g) + e ⎯→ A-1 (g), H may be positive
(B) For A(g) + e– ⎯→ A-1 (g), H may be negative
(C) For A-1 (g) + e– ⎯→ A-2 (g), H must be positive
(D) For A-1 (g) + e– ⎯→ A-2 (g), H must be negative
Q.8 If the amount of energy required in the process X to X-1 is –5 kJ/mole then calculate how many
energy is required in X to X+ process
(A) –5 kJ/mole (B) > 5 kJ/mole (C) < 5 kJ/mole (D) 5 kJ/mole
Q.9 Electron addition would be easier in -
(A) O (B) O+1 (C) O-1 (D) O+2
Q.10 O(g) + 2e– → Heg = 744.7 KJ/mole. The positive value of Heg is due to -
(A) Energy is released to add to 1 e to O-1
(B) Energy is required to add to 1 e to O-1
(C) Energy is needed to add on 1 e to O
(D) None of the above is correct
Q.11 Second electron affinity of an element is -
(A) Always exothermic (B) Endothermic for few elements
(C) Exothermic for few elements (D) Always endothermic
(I) (II)
Q.12 For the processes K+1(g) → K(g) → K(s)
(A) Energy is released in (I) and absorbed in (II)
(B) Energy is absorbed in (I) and released in (II)
(C) Energy is absorbed in both the processes
(D) Energy is released in both the processes
Q.13 The amount of energy which is released due to addition of extra electron to the outermost
orbit of gaseous atom is called
(A) Electron capacity (B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionisation potential (D) Electronegativity
Q.14 Which of the following has electron affinity less than zero (Heg = +ve) :-
(A) O-2 (B) S-2 (C) (A) & (B) both (D) O+
Q.15 Energy absorbed in second electron addition in an atom is called.
(A) 1st IP (B) 2nd EA (C) 1st EA (D) 2nd IP
Q.16 The formation of the oxide ion requries first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below:
This is because :
(A) ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(B) oxygen has high electron affinity
(C) ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron.
(D) Oxygen is more electronegative
Q.17 When the first electron gain enthalpy (ΔegH) of oxygen is – 141 kJ/mol, its second
electron gain enthalpy is :
(A) almost the same as that of the first
(B) a positive value
(C) a more negative value than the first
(D) negative but less negative than the first
Q.18 The process requiring the absorption of energy is -
(A) F → F-1 (B) Cl → Cl-1 (C) O → O-2 (D) H → H-1
(ELECTRON AFFINITY AND IONIZATION ENERGY)
Q.1 If electron gain enthalpy of X(g) is – 4.0 eV, then the ionisation enthalpy of X(g) at the same
temperature may be :
(A) 4.0 eV (B) 3.5 eV (C) 5.5 eV (D) any of these values
+
Q.2 What is the value of Electron gain enthalpy of Na if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV?
(A) +2.55 eV (B) +10.2eV (C) – 5.1 eV (D) – 10.2 eV
Q.3 Select correct relationship for Na atom.
(A) | I.E. of Na | < | E.A. of Na | (B) | I.E.of Na | > | I.E. of Na¯ |
(C) | I.E. of Na | > | I.E. of Na+ | (D) | E.A. of Na | = | I.E.of Na+ |
Q.4 For the process
X(g) + e ⎯→ X(g) -1 H = x and
X-1(g) ⎯→ X(g) + e, H = y
Select correct alternate :
(A) Ionization energy of X-1 (g) is y (B) Electron affinity of X(g) is – x
(C) Electron affinity of X(g) is +y (D) All are correct statements
Q.5 Ionization energy of an element is :
(A) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the electron gain enthalpy of the cation of the element
(B) Same as electron affinity of the element
(C) Energy required to remove one valence electron from an isolated gaseous atom in its ground state
(D) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the electron gain enthalpy of the
anion of the Element
Q.6 In the formation of a chloride ion, from an isolated gaseous chlorine atom, 3.8 eV energy
is released, which would be equal to
(A) Electron affinity of Cl-1 (B) Ionisation potential of Cl
(C) Electronegativity of Cl (D) Ionisation potential of Cl-1
(FACTORS AFFECTING ELECTRON AFFINITY)
Q.1 The magnitude of electron affinity depends upon
(A) electron affinity (B) Polarising power
(C) ionization potential (D) the nuclear charge
Q.2 The low electron affinity value of nitrogen is due to
(A) small size (B) high nuclear charge
(C) half-filled 2p sublevel (D) high metallic character
Q.3 EA1 values of the following element has positive value
(a) Be (b) Br (c) Mg (d) Cl
The correct answer is
(A) a and c (B) b and d (C) a , b and c (D) a, b and d
Q.4 Which of the following will have positive Heg
(A) Chlorine (B) Oxygen (C) Magnesium (D) Sulphur
Q.5 Adding electron a neutral gaseous atom usually leads to -
(a) Liberation of energy (b) Formation of anion
(c) Proton/electron ratio decrease (d) Proton/electron ratio increase
Code in -
(A) (a), (d) (B) (b), (c), (d) (C) (a), (b), (d) (D) (a), (b), (c)
Q.6 Which of the following configuration will have least electron affinity.
(A) ns2np5 (B) ns2np2 (C) ns2np3 (D) ns2np4
Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct.
(A) The Ist ionisation potential of N is greater than that of O+.
(B) The Ist ionisation potential of N is equal to that of O+.
(C) The Ist ionisation potential of N is less than that of O+.
(D) The electron affinity of ‘N’ is greater than that of ‘O’.
Q.8 The least stable anion is :
(A) Li-1 (B) Be-1 (C) B-1 (D) C-1
Q.9 Which of the following is exothermic:
(A) N(g) + 1e → N-1 (g) (B) P(g) + 1e → P-1 (g)
(C) Na(g) → Na+ (g) + 1e (D) 1e + Be(g) → Be-1 (g)
Q.10 Addition of an electron to a gas phase Silicon (Si) atom result in the release of more energy than
addition of an electron to a gas phase Phosphorus (P) atom. What is the best explanation for relative
electron affinities?
(A) The electron added to Si experiences less electron - electron repulsion than electron added to P
(B) The electron added to Si enters in lower energy subshell than the electron added to P
(C) Si is more electronegative than P
(D) Si is smaller than P
Q.11 Which of the following process energy is liberated -
(A) Cl → Cl+1 + e (B) HCl → H+ + Cl-1 (C) Cl + e → Cl-1 (D) O-1 + e → O-2
(ELECTRON AFFINITY IN A PERIOD)
Q.1 The correct order of electron affinity is :-
(A) Be<B<C<N (B) Be<N<B<C (C) N<Be<C B (C) Li > B (D) Li > C
Q.3 Which element has highest Electron Affinity?
(A) Be (B) B (C) Li (D) C
Q.4 Which of the following is incorrect order of electron affinity:
(A) Li < Na (B) Al > B (C) Si > C (D) Cl > F
Q.5 Which of the following would require least energy?
(A) Si-1 (g) ⎯⎯→ Si (g) + e (B) P-1 (g) ⎯⎯→ P (g) + e
(C) S-1 (g) ⎯⎯→ S (g) + e (D) Cl-1 (g) ⎯⎯→ Cl (g) + e
Q.6 Which of the following process is associated with the energy release.
(A) Li ⎯→ Li+1 (B) O-1 ⎯→ O-2 (C) Cl+ ⎯→ Cl (D) Be ⎯→ Be-1
Q.7 The electron affinity for inert gases is like to be
(A) High (B) Small (C) Zero (D) Positive
Q.8 The electron affinity of Be is almost similar to that of
(A) Li (B) B (C) Na (D) Ne
Q.9 Which of the following represents the correct order of electron affinities ?
(A) F>Cl>Br>I (B)C<N<O<F (C) N<C<O<F (D)C<Si<P<N
Q.10 In which case the energy released is minimum?
(A) Cl → Cl-1 (B) P → P-1 (C) N → N-1 (D) C → C-1
Q.11 In the process Cl (g) + e → Cl-1 (g) , H is :
(A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) none of these
Q.12 The correct order of electron affinity of B, C, N, O is -
(A) O>C>N>B (B) B>N>C>O (C) O>C>B>N (D) O>B>C>N
Q.13 The correct order of electron affinity for the different families is -
(A) Halogen>carbon>nitrogen>oxygen (B) Halogen>oxygen>nitrogen>carbon
(C) Halogen>nitrogen>carbon>oxygen (D) Halogen>oxygen>carbon>nitrogen
Q.14 The amount of energy released for the process X(g) + e → X-1 (g) is minimum and
maximum respectively for :–
(a) F (b) Cl (c) N (d) B
Correct answer is :–
(A) c & a (B) d & b (C) a & b (D) c & b
Q.15 Which of the following electronic configuration is expected to have highest electron
affinity:-
(A) 2s2 2p 0 (B) 2s2 2p2 (C) 2s2 2p3 (D) 2s2 2p1
Q.16 Which of the following pair has correct order of electron affinity
(A) F>Fe (B) Ne> Na (C) Ba>Br (D) F=Fe
Q.17 The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom would be highest if the
element belongs to
(A) VII A group (B) V A group (C) VI A group (D) II A group
(ELECTRON AFFINITY IN A GROUP)
Q.1 Fluorine has low electron affinity than chlorine because of -
(A) Smaller radius of fluorine, high electron density
(B) Smaller radius of chlorine, high electron density
(C) Bigger radius of fluorine, less electron density
(D) Smaller radius of chlorine, less electron density
Q.2 Among fluorine and chlorine, the electron affinity of the latter is high. This is due to
(A) high electronegativity of fluorine
(B) low dissociation energy of fluorine
(C) fluorine repels with the added electron due to its small size
(D) small size of Chlorine atom
Q.3 Electron affinity of chlorine is 348 kJ/mol. Then the electron affinity of Fluorine is
(A) 333 kJ/mol (B) 348 kJ/mol (C) 384 kJ/mol (D) 428 kJ/mol
Q.4 The electron affinity order for halogen is
(A) F<Cl<BrCl<BrBr>I (D) F>Cl>Br>I
Q.5 In which of the following process, maximum amount of energy involved.
(A) Cl → Cl-1 (B) Br-1 → Br (C) F-1 → F (D) I-1 → I
Q.6 Select the correct order of electron affinity :
(A) F-1 > Cl-1 (B) F > Cl (C) Cl > F (D) F-1 > F
Q.7 Select correct graph of first electon affinity values of oxygen family.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.8 Choose the incorrect statement.
(A) 2nd electron gain enthalpy for any element is (+) ve.
(B) E.A. of an element  Zeff
(C) The ionisation energy order : F-1 > Cl-1
(D) The ionisation energy order : F-1 < Cl-1
Q.9 Element of which atomic number has highest electron affinity:-
(A) 35 (B) 17 (C) 9 (D) 53
Q.10 The order of electron gain enthalpy (magnitude) of O, S, Se and Te is :
(A) O > S > Se > Te (B) S > Se > Te > O
(C) Se > S > Te > O (D) S > O > Se > Te
(ELECTRON AFFINITY MISCELLANEOUS)
Q.1 In which transition maximum amount of energy will be released.
(A) S(g) + 1e → S-1(g) (B) O(g) + 1e– → O-1 (g)
(C) N(g) → N+(g) + 1e– (D) He(g) + 1e– → He-1(g)
Q.2 Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity?
(A) O < S < F < Cl (B) O < F < S < Cl
(C) F > O > Cl > S (D) F > Cl > O > S
Q.3 Which of the following has the lowest electron affinity?
(A) O (B) S (C) F (D) Cl
Q.4 The incorrect order of electron affinity is :
(A) F < Cl (B) N > P (C) O < S (D) Cl > Br
Q.5 Select incorrect order of E. A.
(A) Cl > F (B) O < S (C) N > P (D) C < Si
Q.6 The correct order of electron affinity is
(A) N > P > S > Cl (B) P > N > S > Cl
(C) Cl > N > P > S (D) Cl> S > P > N
Q.7 The numerical value of energy involved in the given process ; S S– is less than, which of the
following process :
(A) S-1 → S (B) Se → Se-1 (C) S → S+ (D) (B) and (C) both
Q.8 Select the atom which has maximum electron affinity -
(A) C (B) Si (C) N (D) P
Q.9 Of the following elements, which possess the highest electron affinity?
(A) As (B) O (C) S (D) Se
Q.10 Increasing order of Electron affinity for following configuration.
(a) 1s2,2s22p3 (b) 1s2,2s22p4 (c) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p4 (d) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p3
(A) a < d < b < c (B) d < a < c < b (C) a < b < c < d (D) a < b < d < c
Q.11 Which of the following case is endothermic -
(A) Cl → Cl-1 (B) P → P-1 (C) N → N-1 (D) C → C-1
Q.12 Which of the following element is expected to have highest negative electron gain enthalpy -
(A) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5 (B) 1s2,2s22p3 (C) 1s2,2s22p4 (D) 1s2,2s22p5
Q.13 The electron affinity of -
(A) Carbon is greater than oxygen (B) Sulphur is less than oxygen
(C) Iodine is greater than bromine (D) Bromine is less than chlorine
Q.14 Process in which maximum energy is released:-
(A) O → O-2 (B) Mg+1 →Mg+2 (C) Cl →Cl-1 (D) F → F -1
Q.15 The element having highest electron affinity is
(A) Fluorine (B) Nitrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Oxygen
Q.16 Among the following electronic configurations which one will have highest electron affinity value
(A) 1s2 (B) 1s2 2s2 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Q.17 To which of the following atom, the attachment of electron is most difficult ?
(A) Neon (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Radium
Q.18 Which of the following order of electron affinity (E1) is correct ?
(A) S > O > Se (B) Cl > Br > F (C) N N > O
Q.19 Which of the following represent the correct order of electron affinity:
(a) Cl > Br > F > I (b) Cl > S > O > P (c) F > O > C > N (d) Cl > P > S > Si
(A) a,c,d (B) b,c,d (C) b,d (D) b,c
Q.20 Arrange N, O and S in order of increasing electron affinity
(A) S < O < N (B) N < S < O (C) N < O < S (D) O < N < S
Q.21 Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Electron gain enthalpy must be positive for all elements.
(B) Second electron gain enthalpy always remains negative for all the elements.
(C) ΔegH(K+) = –IE (Ar)
(D) None of these
Q.22 The increasing order of electron affinity is:
(A) N < O < Cl < A1 (B) O < N < A1 < Cl
(C) A1 < P < Si < Cl (D) Cl < N < O < A1
Q.23 Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which
the least negative ? F, P, S, Cl.
(A) P, Cl (B) Cl, F (C) Cl, S (D) Cl, P
Q.24 The correct order of electron affinity is :
(A) F > Cl > O (B) F > O > Cl (C) Cl > F > O (D) O > F > Cl
Q.25 Which of the following has the highest electron affinity ?
(A) F-1 (B) O-1 (C) O (D) Na
Q.26 Which of them is correct order of electron affinity ?
(A) F > I > Te > O (B) I > F > O > Te
(C) Te > I > F > O (D) F > O > I > Te
(BASICS OF ELECTRONEGATIVITY)
Q.1 Which of the following is affected by the stable electron configuration of an atom?
(a) Electronegativity (b) Ionisation enthalpy (c) Electron gain enthalpy
Correct answer is:
(A) only (a) (B) only (b) (C) both (b) and (c) (D) all of the above
Q.2 Which of these have no unit?
(A) Electronegativity (B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionisation energy (D) Excitation potential
Q.3 The property of attracting electrons by the halogen atoms in a molecule is called
(A) ionisation potential (B) electron affinity
(C) electronegativity (D) electron attraction
Q.4 Electronegativity is the property related to
(A) Isolated atom in gaseous state (B) Isolated atom in solid state
(C) Inert gas (D) bonded atoms in a molecule
Q.5 Electronegativity is a measure of the capacity of an atom to
(A) Attract electrons (B) Attract protons (C) Repel electrons (D) Repel protons
Q.6 Which of the following does not be considered as a fixed quantity
(A) electronegativity (B) first ionisation potential
(C) electron affinity (D) second ionisation potential
Q.7 The correct order regarding the electro-negativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is?
(A) sp < sp2 < sp3 (B) sp > sp2 < sp3
(C) sp > sp2 > sp3 (D) sp < sp2 > sp3
Q.8 The correct increasing order of electronegativity for species is
(A) Sn < Sn2+ < Sn4+ (B) Sn4+ < Sn2+ < Sn
(C) Sn = Sn2+ = Sn4 (D) Sn < Sn2+ = Sn4+
Q.9 A correct variation in the electronegativity value of atoms is
(A) F>N>O>C (B) F>O>N>C (C) F<N<O>C (D) F>N>O<C
Q.10 In a period from Alkali metal to Halogens, the Electronegativity
(A) gradually increases
(B) gradually decreases
(C) gradually increases except inIIA and VI group elements
(D) gradually decreases except in IIA and VI group elements.
Q.11 Which of the following elements have relatively high electronegativities
(A) alkali metals (B) Halogens
(C) alkaline earth metals (D) transition elements
Q.12 As we proceed across the period in periodic table, one finds there is a decrease in:-
(A) Ionization energy (B) Electron affinity
(C) Electronegativity (D) Atomic radii
Q.13 In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic
table, respectively, are
(A) atomic radius and electronegativity
(B) electronegativity and atomic radius
(C) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
(D) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
Q.14 Least electronegative element is: -
(A) I (B) Br (C) C (D) Fr
Q.15 In which of the following pairs of elements the electronegativity of first element is
less than that of second element: -
(A) Zr, Hf (B) K, Rb (C) Cl, S (D) None of the above
Q.16 Which of the following electronic configuration will have zero electronegativity-
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (C) 1s2 (D) 1s2 2s2
Q.17 The properties which are not common to both groups 1 and 17 elements in the periodic table are
(A) Electropositive character increases down the groups
(B) Reactivity decreases from top to bottom in these groups
(C) Atomic radii increase as the atomic number increases
(D) Electronegativity decreases on moving down a group
Q.18 Which of the following elements possess zero electron affinity and zero electronegativity values?
(A) halogens (B) alkali metals (C) chalcogens (D) rare gases
Q.19 The correct set of decreasing order of electronegativity is: -
(A) Li, H, Na (B) Na, H, Li (C) H, Li, Na (D) Li, Na, H
Q.20 Which of the following is most electronegative element among the following?
(A) H (B) Hg (C) Cr (D) Li
Q.21 Which of the following is correct order of electronegativity:
(A) Cs > Rb > Na (B) Li F > Br
Q.22 Select the group where electronegativity increases down the group
(A) Ca, Sr, Ba (B) Zn, Cd, Hg (C) F, Cl, Br (D) Li, Na, K
Q.23 Arrange F, C, O, N in the decreasing order of electronegativity -
(A) O > F > N > C (B) F > N > C > O (C) C > F > N > O (D) F > O > N > C
Q.24 Select the group where EN increases down the group: -
(A) Ca, Sr, Ba (B) Zn, Cd, Hg (C) F, Cl, Br (D) Li, Na, K
Q.25 Outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is: –
(A) ns2np3 (B) ns2np6 (C) ns2 (D) ns2np5
Q.26 The electronegativity values of C, N, O and F on Pauling scale:
(A) decrease from carbon to fluorine.
(B) increase from carbon to fluorine.
(C) increase up to oxygen and then decrease up to fluorine.
(D) decrease from carbon to nitrogen and then increase continuously.
Q.27 The correct order of electronegativities of the elements is
(A) P > Si > Al > Mg > Na (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si > P
(C) Al > Si > P > Mg > Na (D) Mg > Al > Si > Na > P
Q.28 What is the correct order of electronegativity
(A) M+1 < M+2 < M+3 < M+4 (B) M+1 > M+2 > M+3 > M+4
(C) M+1 < M+2 > M+3 < M+4 (D) M+4 < M+2 < M+3 < M+1
Q.29 Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among the ns2np5 group on the Pauling scale, but the
electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of chlorine because:
(A) the atomic number of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
(B) fluorine being the first member of the family behaves in an unusual manner.
(C) chlorine can accommodate an electron better than fluorine by utilizing its vacant 3d–orbital.
(D) small size, high electron density and an increased electron repulsion makes addition of
an electron to fluorine less favorable than that in the case of chlorine in isolated stage.
(SCALES OF ELECTRONEGATIVITY)
Q.1 Electronegativity scale of Pauling is based upon: -
(A) Bond length (B) Bond energy
(C) Atomic radius (D) Covalent radius
Q.2 The electronegativity of Be is same as that of
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Na (D) Li
Q.3 Which of the following elements have the differ value of electronegativity: -
(A) H (B) S (C) Te (D) P
Q.4 The element with high electronegativity is
(A) Chlorine (B) Sulphur (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
Q.5 The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is: -
(A) Te > Se (B) P > S (C) Si < Al (D) Ga < Ge
Q.6 Which of the following set of atoms is arranged in order of decreasing electronegativity
(A) F > O > Cl > S (B) F < O < Cl < S (C) O > F > Cl > S (D) Cl> F > O > S
Q.7 Which of the following would you expect to have highest electronegativity?
(A) Mg(Z=12) (B) S(Z=16) (C) B(Z=5) (D) Te(Z=52)
Q.8 Pauling’s values of electronegativities are dependent upon
(A) Ionization potentials (B) Bond energies
(C) Electron affinities (D) Atomic radii
Q.9 The reference element in Pauling’s scale of Electronegativity is
(A) H (B) O (C) N (D) Cl
Q.10 Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si on Pauling scale is:
(A) N > P > C > Si (B) C > Si > N > P (C) N C > P > Si
Q.11 The correct order of electronegativity on Pauling scale is:
(A) F > Cl > O > S (B) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
(C) Be < B < N < C (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.12 The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to:
(A) Lithium (B) Carbon (C) Boron (D) Beryllium
Q.13 The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order
(A) C, N, Si, P (B) N, Si, C, P (C) Si, P, C, N (D) P, Si, N, C
Q.14 Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order
(A) O, N, S, P (B) P, S, N, O (C) P, N, S, O (D) S, P, N, O
Q.15 Which is the correct order of electronegativity -
(A) Cl > S > P > Si (B) Si > Al > Mg > Na (C) F > Cl > Br > I (D) All
Q.16 Increasing order of electronegativity is -
(A) Bi < P < S < Cl (B) P < Bi < S < Cl (C) S < Bi < P < Cl (D) Cl< S < Bi < P
Q.17 The pair with minimum difference in electronegativity is: -
(A) F, Cl (B) C, H (C) P, H (D) Na, Cs
Q.18 If the ionisation potential is IP, electron affinity is EA and electronegativity is x then
which of the following relation is correct? -
(A) 2X – EA – IP = 0 (B) 2EA – X – IP = 0
(C) 2IP – X – EA = 0 (D) All of the above
Q.19 Let electronegativity, ionisation energy and electron affinity be represented as EN, IP and EA
respectively. Which one of the following equations is correct according to Mulliken?
(A) EN=IP x EA (B) EN=IP/EA
(C) EN=(IP+EA)/ 2 (D) EN=IP–EA
Q.20 Mulliken scale of electronegativity uses the concept of: -
(A) E. A. and EN of pauling (B) E. A. and atomic size
(C) E.A. and I.P. (D) E.A. and bond energy
Q.21 If x, y and z are electronegativity on Mulliken scale, ionisation potential (in V) and electron affinity
(+, in eV) respectively, then the electron affinity in the terms of electronegativity and ionisation
potential will be:
x+y x+z z−y
z=
(A) 2 (B) y = 2 (C) x = 2 (D) z = 2x – y
Q.22 For univalent elements, the average value of first ionization potential and first electron affinity is
equal to its
(A) Polarising power (B) Covalent radius
(C) electronegativity (D) dipole moment
Q.23 Electronegativity of an element can be measured using: -
(A) Pauling's scale (B) Mulliken's scale (C) Both (D) None
Q.24 Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic character is:
(A) B > Al > Mg > K (B) Al > Mg > B > K
(C) Mg > Al > K > B (D) K > Mg > Al > B
(APPLICATION OF ELECTRONEGATIVITY)
Q.1 In the following, the element with the highest electro-positivity is
(A) Cu (B) Cs (C) Ba (D) Cr
Q.2 Which of the following elements is most metallic
(A) P (B) As (C) Sb (D) Bi
Q.3 Increasing order of metallic characteristic is
(A) C, Si, As, Sb, Bi (B) C, Si, Bi, Sb, As
(C) C, Si, Sb, Bi, As (D) C, Si, As, Bi, Sb
Q.4 With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be
(A) Electropositive (B) Electronegative (C) Neutral (D) Highly reactive
Q.5 The nomenclature of ICl is iodine chloride because
(A) Size of I < Size of Cl (B) Atomic number of I > Atomic number of Cl
(C) E.N. of I < E.N. of Cl (D) E. A. of I < E. A. of Cl
Q.6 Polarity of a bond can be explained by: –
(A) Electron affinity (B) Ionisation potential (C) Electronegativity (D) All of the above
Q.7 Among the following least and most polar bonds are respectively -
(a) C – I (b) N – O (c) C – F (d) P – F
(A) d and c (B) a and d (C) b and d (D) b and c
Q.8 Electronegativity values of elements X and Y are 3.8 and 1.8 respectively Ionic percentage of
compound XY is: -
(A) 50 (B) 46 (C) 64 (D) 25
Q.9 If the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is exactly 1.7 the nature of bond
formed is
(A) >50% Ionic (B) <50% Ionic (C) 50% Ionic & 50% covalent (D) 100% Ionic
Q.10 Electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting: -
(A) Bond energy of a molecule (B) Polarity of a bond
(C) Nature of an oxide (D) All
Q.11 Maximum covalent character is associated with the compound
(A) NaI (B) MgI2 (C) AlCl3 (D) AlI3
Q.12 The electronegativity of K = 0.8 and Cl = 3.0. The type of bond formed between “K” and“Cl’
(A) pure covalent (B) hydrogen (C) metallic (D) electrovalent
Q.13 The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are a, a + 1 and a + 2, C is an alkali metal.
Which of the following statement for A, B and C is wrong -
(A) EN of A is maximum in the period
(B) IP of C is minimum in the period
(C) Nature of bonding between A & C is covalent
(D) B has zero valency
Q.14 Bond length of F2 = 1.44 A0, Bond length of H2 = 0.74 A0. Find out the bond length of H-F?
(EN of F is 4.0, EN of H is 2. (A) in A0
(A).919 (B) .960 (C) .840 (D) .560
Q.15 The X – X bond length is 1.00 Å and C – C bond length is 1.54 Å. If electronegativities of
'X' and 'C' are 3.0 and 2.0 respectively, the C – X bond length is likely to be in Å :-
(A) 1.27 (B) 1.18 (C) 1.08 (D) 1.28
Q.16 Pauling's electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting
(A) polarity of bonds in molecules
(B) positions of elements in electrochemical series
(C) co-ordination number of elements
(D) oxidation number of elements
(Nature Of Oxide, Hydroxide)
Q.1 In periodic table, the basic character of oxides
(A) increases from left to right and decrease from top to bottom
(B) decreases from right to left and increases from top to bottom
(C) decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom
(D) decreases from left to right and increases from bottom to top
Q.2 The strength of an oxyacid; where E is the central atom, depends upon
(A) electronegativity of E but not on atomic size
(B) atomic size of E but not on electronegativity of E
(C) not on oxidation state of E in oxyacid’s
(D) atomic size, electronegativity and oxidation state of E
Q.3 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) HClO4 is a weaker acid than HClO3
(B) HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2
(C) H3PO3 is a stronger acid than H2SO4
(D) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl
Q.4 Which of the following is the strongest acid -
(A) HClO (B) HClO2 (C) HClO3 (D) HClO4
Q.5 The increasing order of acidic nature of the following oxides is
(A) SiO2 < P2O5 < Cl2O7 < SO3 (B) SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3 < Cl2O7
(C) Cl2O7 < SO3 < P2O5< SiO2 (D) SO3 < Cl2O7 < SiO2 < P2O5
Q.6 The increasing order of acidic nature of Li2O, BeO, B2O3
(A) Li2O > BeO < B2O3 (B) Li2O < BeO < B2O3
(C) Li2O < BeO > B2O3 (D) Li2O > BeO > B2O3
Q.7 Consider the M(OH)3 formed by all the group 13 elements. The correct sequence of acidic
strength of hydroxides [M(OH)3] is -
(A) B(OH)3 < Al(OH) 3> Ga(OH) 3 > In(OH) 3 > Tl(OH) 3
(B) B(OH) 3 > Tl(OH) 3> Al(OH) 3> In(OH) 3 > Ga(OH) 3
(C) Al(OH) 3 > Ga(OH) 3 > B(OH) 3> In(OH) 3> Tl(OH) 3
(D) B(OH) 3 > Al(OH) 3> Ga(OH) 3> In(OH) 3> Tl(OH) 3
Q.8 Which of the following represent the correct order of basic strength?
(A) Li2O < Na2O < K2O < Rb2O (B) BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO
(C) K2O > CaO > Ga2O3 (D) All are correct
Q.9 Choose the correct order for acidic strength:
(A) Na2O < MgO (B) NO < N2O (C) SiO2 > P2O5 (D) HClO2 > HClO3
Q.10 The weakest base among NaOH, Ca (OH)2, KOH and Be (OH)2 is-
(A) NaOH (B) Ca (OH)2 (C) KOH (D) Be (OH)2
Q.11 The non-metal that does not exhibit positive oxidation state is:
(A) Oxygen (B) Fluorine (C) Iodine (D) Chlorine
Q.12 Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 and SO3, the correct order of acid strength is
(A) A12O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5 (B) SiO2 < SO3 < A12O3 < P2O5
(C) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < A12O3 (D) A12O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3
Q.13 Aqueous solutions of two compounds and are prepared in two different beakers. If the
electronegativity of M=3.4, N=1.2, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the nature of the two solutions
will be respectively.
(A) acidic, basic (B) acidic, acidic (C) basic, acidic (D) basic, basic
Q.14 The electronegativity of oxygen and an element A on Pauling's scale are 3.5 and 1.1
respectively. The nature of oxide of A will be
(A) acid or neutral (B) basic
(C) amphoteric (D) given information is not sufficient
Q.15 Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
(A) SnO2 (B) SiO2 (C) CO2 (D) CaO
Q.16 Which of the following oxide will give the amphoteric
(A) N2O (B) CO (C) As2O3 (D) BaO
Q.17 What is the nature of Al2O3 and B2O3
(A) Amphoteric, acidic (B) acidic, amphoteric
(C) acidic, acidic (D) amphoteric, amphoteric
Q.18 Which of the following oxides in neutral
(A) CO (B) K2O (C) ZnO (D) SiO2
Q.19 Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature
(A) CaO (B) CO2 (C) SiO2 (D) SnO2
Q.20 Amphoteric behavior is shown by the oxides of:
(A) Al and Ca (B) Pb and Ba (C) Cr and Mg (D) Ga and Al
Q.21 Which oxide is neutral:
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO (D) P2O5
Q.22 The order of basic character of given oxides is:
(A) Na2O > MgO > CuO > SiO2 (B) MgO > SiO2 > CuO > Na2O
(C) SiO2 > MgO > CuO > Na2O (D) CuO > Na2O > MgO > SiO2
Q.23 An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns2np1. The formula and nature of
its oxide is:
(A) XO3, basic (B) XO3, acidic (C) X2O3, amphoteric(D) X2O3, basic
Q.24 The basic character of MgO, SrO, K2O and NiO increases in the order -
(A) K2O < SrO < MgO < NiO (B) NiO < MgO < SrO < K2O
(C) MgO < NiO < SrO < K2O (D) K2O < MgO < NiO < SrO
Q.25 The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic
nature is-
(A) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > SiO2 (B) SiO2 > Al2O3 > MgO > Na2O
(C) Al2O3 > SiO2 > MgO > Na2O (D) SiO2 > MgO > Na2O > Al2O3
Q.26 In II period most acidic oxide is formed by?
(A) F (B) N (C) O (D) Li
Q.27 The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is -
(A) Al (OH)3, LiOH (B) Be (OH)2, Mg (OH)2
(C) B(OH)3, Be (OH)2 (D) Be (OH)2, Zn (OH)2
Q.28 Identify the incorrect order of acidic strengths of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O:
(A) CuO < CaO < H2O < CO2 (B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (D) All of these
Q.29 Amphoteric behaviour is shown by the oxides of:
(A) Al and Ca (B) Pb and N (C) Be and B (D) Sn and Zn
Q.30 Select the correct order(s) of acidic/basic strength:
(A) NaOH < Mg (OH)2 < Al (OH)3; basic strength
(B) H2S > H2Se > H2Te; acidic strength
(C) H2SO3 < H2SO4; acidic strength
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.31 Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide?
(A) Cr (B) Fe (C) Al (D) Ca
Q.32 The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is 1s , 2s , 2p6, 3s1 will be
2 2
(A) amphoteric (B) basic (C) acidic (D) neutral
Q.33 Elements A, B and C belong to the same period in the long form of the periodic table. The
nature of the oxides of A, B and C is amphoteric, basic and acidic respectively. The correct
order of the atomic number of these elements is
(A) C > B > A (B) C > A > B (C) A > B > C (D) B > A > C
Q.34 Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?
(A) MgO (B) BeO (C) BaO (D) CaO
Q.35 Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
(A) SeO2 (B) Al2O3 (C) Sb2O3 (D) Bi2O3
Q.36 Arrange in the order of increasing basicity -NO2, ZnO, K2O
(A) NO2 < ZnO < K2O (B) K2O < ZnO < NO2
(C) NO2 < K2O < ZnO (D) K2O < NO2 < ZnO
Q.37 Element P, Q, R and S belong to the same group. The oxide of P is acidic, oxide of Q
and R are amphoteric while the oxide of S is basic. Which of the following elements
is the most electropositive?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Q.38 Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(A) BeO (B) B2O3 (C) CaO (D) SiO2
Q.39 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
(A) CO2 (B) SnO2 (C) CaO (D) SiO2
Q.40 Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide -
(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) V2O5 (D) TiO
Q.41 Among (a) Na2O, (b) MgO, (c) Al2O3, (d) P2O5 (e) Cl2O7 the most basic, most acidic
and amphoteric oxide can be
(A) a, b, c (B) b, e, c (C) a, e, c (D) e, c, a
Q.42 The oxide of sodium is ....
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) amphoteric (D) neutral
Answer Key
DPP- 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B D B C D D D B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A D A A C C D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D D C A A A A B C
31
B
DPP- 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B A C D B D B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C A B A B C B A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D C B D C C C A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B A B A C B A D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B A A B C D C C B
51 52 53 54 55 56
D D A C C C
DPP- 3
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C C C A C A D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D D C C C D C B C
21 22
B D
DPP- 4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D C A B D D B B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D A A B B B D D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A B A C C B A D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C B C A D B B B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C D D D B D D B A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C B D A B D B D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A B B C C D B A B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B A C B C A B C D B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C A B C C C B B C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D C D A B B C,D B D
101
B
DPP- 5
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A C A D A A B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B B B B A C D C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B D B B D A C A A
31 32 33 34
A D C D
DPP- 6
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D A A A A C A D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B A A C D C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B D B D D D D C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
A B D A B B A D D
DPP- 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D D B D D B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C C B B A C C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A A B A C C C A D
31 32 33
C A D
DPP- 8
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B A B D B A D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B D C D B A B C D
21 22 23
A A D
DPP- 9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A A B B C C D A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A A D B C A B C C
21 22
B B
DPP- 10
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A C B B A D B A
11 12 13 14 15
D B C B C
DPP- 11
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C B B C C B C D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
C C B C D A A
DPP- 12
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C D D C A A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D A B B C D C B A
21
D
DPP- 13
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
C A D D D B B A A B D B D B
15 16 17 18 19
D B A D B
DPP- 14
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
A D D B A A A A D B B C A D
15
D
DPP- 15
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B B B C D B D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
D D B C B C B C
DPP- 16
1 2 3 4 5 6
C C B D C D
DPP- 17
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C B C D C C B B A
11
C
DPP- 18
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C D A B C C D C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
B C D D B A A
DPP- 19
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A C A C C C B B
DPP- 20
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A A B C D C B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D C C D A C D C
21 22 23 24 25 26
D C D C C A
DPP- 21
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A C D A A C A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D D D A C B D C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
C B D B D B A A D
DPP- 22
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B C D A B B A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D C B D A C A C C
21 22 23
D C C
DPP- 23
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D A A C C B B B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
D D C A B A D
DPP- 24
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B D B B D D A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D A B A C A A D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A C B A A D D D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B B B D A D C B B
41 42
C B
Introduction
1.The formation of a chemical bond is accompanied by
(1) Decrease in energy (2) Increase in energy
(3) Neither increase nor decrease in energy (4) None of these
2. Chemical bond implies
(1) Attraction (2) Repulsion
(3) Neither attraction nor repulsion (4) Both (1) and (2)
3.The major cause of an atom in entering into chemical combination is its
tendency
(1) to acquire electrons (2) to loss electrons
(3) to donate electron pair (4) to acquire octet configuration
4.Which of the following does not have a duet configuration?
(1) Fluoride (2) Lithium cation
(3) Helium atom (4) Dipositive beryllium cation.
5.Noble gases are generally unreactive because
(1) They are gases
(2) they have s2p6 configuration
(3) They have very high ionization potentials
(4) they have large Vander Waal’s radii.
6.Helium is monoatomic because
(1) It has very stable fulfilled configuration
(2) It is placed in zero group
(3) It has no vacant orbital
(4) Its ionization potential is highest among all elements
7.Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen molecules by
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Ionic bond
(3) Covalent bond (4) Dative bond
8.Hydrogen chloride molecule contains a
(1) Covalent bond (2) Double bond
(3) Coordinate bond (4) Electrovalent bond
9.The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons
(1) Unequally shared between the two atoms.
(2) Transferred fully from one atom to another
(3) With identical spins
(4) Equally shared between them.
10.A covalent bond is likely to be formed between two elements which
(1) Have similar electronegativities (2) Have low ionization energies
(3) Have low melting points (4) Form ions with a small charge
11.Octet configuration cannot be achieved through:
(1) Loss of electrons (2) gain of electrons
(3) sharing of electrons (4) exchange of electrons
12.Bond formed in crystal by anion and cation is
(1) Ionic (2) Metallic (3) Covalent (4) Dipole
13.Atoms or group of atoms which are electrically charged are known
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Ions (4) Atoms
14.A electrovalent compound is made up of
(1) Electrically charged molecules (2) Neutral molecules
(3) Neutral atoms
(4) Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms
15.When sodium and chlorine react then
(1) Energy is released, and ionic bond is formed
(2) Energy is released, and a covalent bond is formed
(3) Energy is absorbed, and ionic bond is formed
(4) Energy is absorbed, and covalent bond is formed
16.An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine atom accepts one
electron. This results the formation of sodium chloride molecule. This type of
molecule will be
(1) Coordinate (2) Covalent (3) Electrovalent (4) Metallic bond
17.An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to combine chemically with
the atom whose atomic number is
(1)11 (2) 14 (3)16 (4)10
18.Which of the following compound has electrovalent linkage
(1) CH3Cl (2) NaCl (3) CH4 (4) Cl2
19.Which one of the following compounds is ionic
(1) KCl (2) CH4 (3) Diamond (4) Cl2
20.A covalent bond between two atoms is formed by which of the following
(1) Electron nuclear attraction (2) Electron sharing
(3) Electron transfer (4) Electrostatic attraction
21. Atoms in the water molecule are linked by
(1) Electrovalent bond (2) Covalent bond
(3) Coordinate covalent bond (4) Odd electron bond
22. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In forming the bonds
(1) It loses electrons (2) It gains electrons
(3) It shares electrons (4) None of these
23. the electron pair which forms a bond between two similar non-metallic
atoms will be
(1) Dissimilar shared between the two
(2) by complete transfer from one atom to other
(3) in a similar spin condition
(4) Equally shared in between the two
24. Amongst the following covalent bonding is found in
(1) Magnesium chloride (2) Sodium chloride
(3) Water (4) Brass
25. Coordinate covalent compounds are formed by
(1) Transfer of electrons (2) equal sharing of electrons
(3) unequal sharing of electrons (4) none of these
26.Which of the following substances has giant covalent structure
(1) Iodine crystal (2) CO2
(3) Silica (4) White phosphorus
27.Which condition favours the bond formation: -
(1) maximum attraction and maximum potential energy
(2) minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) none of the above
28.When two atoms combine to form a molecule?
(1) Energy is released (2) Energy is absorbed
(3) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
(4) Energy may either released or absorbed
29.In the formation of a molecule by an atom
(1) Attractive forces dominants
(2) Repulsive forces dominants
(3) Both attractive and repulsive forces dominants
(4) None of these
30.Which of the following occurs when two hydrogen atoms bond with each
others
(1) Potential energy is lowered (2) Kinetic energy is lowered
(3) Electronic motion ceases (4) Energy is absorbed
31.The weakest bond of the following is:
(1) Ionic bond (2) Covalent bond
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) Metallic bond
32.Among the following the weakest one is
(1) Metallic bond (2) Ionic bond
(3) Van der Waal's force (4) Covalent bond
33.Strength of hydrogen bond is intermediate between
(1) Vander Waal and covalent (2) Ionic and covalent
(3) Ionic and metallic (4) Metallic and covalent
Condition of ionic bond

34.When metals combine with non-metals, the metal atom tends to
(1) Lose electrons (2) Gain electrons
(3) Remain electrically neutral (4) None of these
35.Which does not favour the formation of ionic compound:
(1) the ionization energy of the metal atom should be low.
(2) the lattice energy of the compound formed must be low.
(3) the electron affinity of the non-metal should be high.
(4) the lattice energy of the compound formed must be high.
36.Electrovalent bond formation depends on
(1) Ionization energy (2) Electron affinity
(3) Lattice energy (4) All the three above
37.The lattice energy of sodium chloride crystal is the energy released when one
mole of NaCl(s) is formed from:
(1) Na(g) and Cl(g) atoms (2) Na+(g) and Cl–(g) ions
(3) Na(s) and Cl2(g)
(4) crystallization from aqueous solution of sodium chloride.
38.Lattice energy of BeCO3 (I), MgCO3 (II) and CaCO3 (III) are in the order
(1) I > II > III (2) I < II < III (3) I < III < II (4) II < I < III
39.Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon
(1) Charge on the ion only (2) Size of the ion only
(3) Packing of ions only (4) Charge on the ion and size of the ion
40.Which of the following substance has the largest negative lattice
enthalpy?
(1) NaCl (2) CaBr2 (3) NaBr (4) CaCl2
41.Indicate the nature of bonding in CCl4 and CaH2
(1) Covalent in CCl4 and electrovalent in CaH2
(2) Electrovalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
(3) Covalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
(4) Electrovalent in CCl4 and covalent in CaH2
42.Which forms a crystal of NaCl
(1) NaCl molecules (2) Na+ and Cl- ions
(3) Na and Cl atoms (4) None of the above
43.When sodium and chlorine react then
(1) Energy is released, and ionic bond is formed
(2) Energy is released, and a covalent bond is formed
(3) Energy is absorbed, and ionic bond is formed
(4) Energy is absorbed, and covalent bond is formed
44.Which of the following is an electrovalent linkage
(1) CH4 (2) MgCl2 (3) SiCl4 (4) BF3
45.From the following which group of elements easily forms cation
(1) F, Cl, Br (2) Li, Na, K (3) O, S, Se (4) N, P, As
46.Which of the following ionic compound has high lattice energy?
(1) NaF (2) NaCl (3) AlF3 (4) Al2O3
47.Which of the following has the highest lattice energy?
(1) NaF (2) MgF2 (3) AlF3 (4) CaF2
48.Compound having least lattice energy is:
(1) NaF (2) KF (3) RbF (4) CsF
49.The lattice energies of the oxides of Mg, Ca Sr and Ba follow the order
(1) BaO>SrO>CaO> MgO (2) CaO>BaO>SrO> MgO
(3) MgO >CaO>SrO>BaO (4) MgO >SrO>CaO>BaO
50.Which of the following has highest lattice energy?
(1) MgO (2) SrO (3) BaO (4) CaO
51.The order of increasing lattice energy of the following salt is:
(1) NaCl <CaO<NaBr<BaO (2) NaBr< NaCl <BaO<CaO
(3) NaCl <NaBr<BaO<CaO (4) NaBr< NaCl <CaO<BaO
52.Lattice energy of alkali metal chlorides follows the order
(1) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
(2) CsCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > LiCl
(3) LiCl > CsCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl
(4) NaCl > LiCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
Properties of ionic compound

53.If the electronic configuration of 𝑀 = 2,8,3 and that of 𝐴 = 2,8,7, the
formula of the compound is
(1) MA3 (2) MA (3) M2A3 (4) M3A2
54.The valency of 𝐴 = 3 and 𝐵 = 2, then the compound is
(1) AB2 (2) AB (3) AB3 (4) A2B3
55. Two elements X and Y have following electron configurations
X= 1𝑠2, 2𝑠2 2𝑝6, 3𝑠2 3𝑝6 , 4𝑠2 and Y = 1𝑠2 , 2𝑠2 2𝑝6 , 3𝑠2 3𝑝4
The compound formed by combination of X and Y is
(1) 𝑋𝑌 (2) 𝑋2𝑌 (3) 𝑋𝑌2 (4) X2Y3
56. An element X with the electronic configuration 1𝑠 , 2𝑠2 2𝑝6, 3𝑠2 would be
2
expected to form the chloride with the formula

(1) 𝑋Cl (2) 𝑋2Cl (3) 𝑋Cl2 (4) X2Cl3
57. The sulphate of a metal has the formula 𝑀2(𝑆𝑂4)3. The formula for its
phosphate will be
(1) 𝑀(𝐻𝑃𝑂4)2 (2) 𝑀3(𝑃𝑂4)2 (3) 𝑀2(𝑃𝑂4)3 (4) 𝑀𝑃𝑂4
58. Phosphate of a metal M has the formula 𝑀3(𝑃𝑂4)2. The formula for its
sulphate would be
(1) 𝑀(S𝑂4)2 (2) 𝑀3(S𝑂4)2 (3) 𝑀2(S𝑂4)3 (4) 𝑀S𝑂4
59. The molecular formula of chloride of a metal M is 𝑀𝐶𝑙.
The formula of its carbonate would be
(1) 𝑀(C𝑂3)2 (2) 𝑀2(C𝑂3) (3) 𝑀3(C𝑂3)2 (4) 𝑀C𝑂3
60. Chloride of metal is 𝑀𝐶𝑙. The formula of its phosphate will be
(1) 𝑀(𝐻𝑃𝑂4)2 (2) 𝑀3(𝑃𝑂4)2 (3) 𝑀2(𝑃𝑂4)3 (4) 𝑀3𝑃𝑂4
61. The phosphate of a metal has the formula 𝑀𝑃𝑂4. The formula of its nitrate
will
(1) 𝑀(N𝑂3)2 (2) 𝑀3(N𝑂3)2 (3) 𝑀(N𝑂3)3 (4) 𝑀N𝑂3
62. Formula of a metallic oxide is 𝑀𝑂. The formula of its phosphate will be
(1) 𝑀(𝐻𝑃𝑂4)2 (2) 𝑀3(𝑃𝑂4)2 (3) 𝑀2(𝑃𝑂4)3 (4) 𝑀𝑃𝑂4
63.Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of
(1) Free electrons (2) Free ions
(3) Free molecules (4) Atoms of sodium and chlorine
64.Ionic compounds do not have
(1) Hard and brittle nature (2) High melting and boiling point
(3) Directional properties (4) Soluble in polar solvents
65.Which of the following statements is wrong regarding ionic compounds -
(1) These are generally in solid state at room temperature
(2) The force of attraction between ions is non directional
(3) Ionic compounds are soluble in all solvents
(4) They conduct electricity in molten and solution state
66.Electrovalent compound's
(1) Melting points are low (2) Boiling points are low
(3) Conduct current in fused state (4) Insoluble in polar solvent
67.Element X is strongly electropositive, and Y is strongly electronegative.
Both elements are univalent, the compounds formed from their
combination will be
(1) X+Y- (2) X-Y+ (3) X-Y (4) X→Y
68.In the formation of NaCl from Na and Cl
(1) Sodium and chlorine both give electrons
(2) Sodium and chlorine both accept electrons
(3) Sodium loses electron and chlorine accepts electron
(4) Sodium accepts electron and chlorine loses electron
69.Electrovalent compounds do not have
(1) High M.P. and Low B.P. (2) High dielectric constant
(3) High M.P. and High B.P. (4) High polarity
70.Many ionic crystals dissolve in water because
(1) Water is an amphiprotic solvent
(1) Water is a high boiling liquid
(3) The process is accompanied by a positive heat of solution
(4) Water decreases the interionic attraction in the crystal lattice due to
salvation
71.The electronic structure of four elements A, B, C, D are
(A) 1s2 (B) 1s2,2s2,2p2 (C) 1s2,2s2,2p5 (D) 1s2,2s2,2p6
The tendency to form electrovalent bond is largest in
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
72.In the given bonds which one is most ionic
(1) Cs-Cl (2) Al-Cl (3) C-Cl (4) H-Cl
73.Sodium chloride easily dissolves in water. This is because
(1) It is a covalent compound (2) Salt reacts with water
(3) It is a white substance (4) Its ions are easily solvated
74.When NaCl is dissolved in water the sodium ion becomes
(1) Oxidized (2) Reduced (3) Hydrolysed (4) Hydrated
75.Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity since
(1) In solid NaCl there are no ions
(2) Solid NaCl is covalent
(3) In solid NaCl there is no motion of ions
(4) In solid NaCl there are no electrons
76.Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination of elements with
(1) High ionisation potential and low electron affinity
(2) Low ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(3) High ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(4) Low ionisation potential and low electron affinity
77.Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of
(1) Free electrons (2) Free ions
(3) Free molecules (4) Atoms of sodium and chlorine
78.A number of ionic compounds e.g., AgCl, CaF2, BaSO4 are insoluble in water.
This is because
(1) Ionic compounds do not dissolve in water
(2) Water has a high dielectric constant
(3) Water is not a good ionizing solvent
(4) These molecules have exceptionally high alternative forces in the
lattice
79.What is the nature of chemical bonding between Cs and F
(1) Covalent (2) Ionic (3) Coordinate (4) Metallic
80.Which one of the following compounds is ionic
(1) KCl (2) CH4 (3) Diamond (4) H2
81.Which of the following compound has electrovalent linkage
(1) CH3Cl (2) NaCl (3) CH4 (4) Cl2
82. An ionic compound is generally a
(1) Good electrolyte (2) Weak electrolyte
(3) Non-electrolyte (4) Neutral
83.What metals combine with non-metals, the metal atom tends to
(1) Lose electrons (2) Gain electrons
(3) Remain electrically neutral (4) None of these
84.Among the bonds formed by a chlorine atom with atoms of hydrogen,
chlorine, sodium and carbon, the strongest bond is formed between
(1) HCl (2) Cl-Cl (3) Na-Cl (4) C-Cl
85.Out of the following, which compound will have electrovalent bonding
(1) Ammonia (2) Water
(3) Calcium chloride (4) Chloromethane
86.The force which holds atoms together in an electrovalent bond is
(1) Vander Waal's force (2) Dipole attraction force
(3) Electrostatic force of attraction (4) All the above
87.The main reaction during electrovalent bond formation is
(1) Redox reaction (2) Substitution reaction
(3) Addition reaction (4) Elimination reaction
88.Electrovalent compounds are
(1) Good conductor of electricity (2) Contain ions
(3) Low M.P. and low B.P. (4) Easily available
89.Ionic compounds do not have
(1) Hard and brittle nature (2) High melting and boiling point
(3) Directional properties (4) Soluble in polar solvents
90.Which type of bonding exists in Li2O and CaF2 respectively
(1) Ionic, ionic (2) Ionic, covalent
(3) Covalent, ionic (4) Coordinate, ionic
91.An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to combine chemically with
the atom whose atomic number is
(1) 11 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 10
92.Bond formed in crystal by anion and cation is
(1) Ionic (2) Metallic (3) Covalent (4) Dipole
93.Atoms or group of atoms which are electrically charged are known
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Ions (4) Atoms
94.The interionic attraction depends on interaction of
(1) Solute-Solute (2) Solvent-Solvent
(3) The charges (4) Molecular properties
95.Which of the following compounds is ionic
(1) KI (2) CH4 (3) Diamond (4) H2
96.The energy that opposes dissolution of a ionic bond is
(1) Hydration energy (2) Lattice energy
(3) Internal energy (4) Bond energy
97.Which of the following statements is not true for ionic compounds
(1) High melting point (2) Least lattice energy
(3) Least solubility in organic compounds (4) Soluble in water
98.Electrolytes are compound containing
(1) Electrovalent bond (2) Covalent bond
(3) Coordinate bond (4) Hydrogen bond
100. The electronic configuration of a metal 𝑀 is 1s2,2s2 2p6,3s2.The formula of
its oxides will be
(1) MO2 (2) MO (3) M2O3 (4) M3O2
101. Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity because:
(1) In solid NaCl there are no ions
(2) Solid NaCl is covalent
(3) In solid NaCl there is no mobility of ions
(4) In solid NaCl there are no electrons
102.Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from:
(1) Na and Cl (2) Cs and F (3) Cs and I (4) Na and F
Polarization and Fazan’s Rule

103. Which of the following compound has maximum covalent character
(1) PbI2 (2) AgI (3) HgI2 (4) CsI
104.Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently
placed cation. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(2) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(3) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization
(4) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization
105. bond with maximum covalent character between non-metallic elements is
formed
(1) Between identical atoms
(2) Between chemically similar atoms
(3) between atoms of widely different electronegativities
(4) between atoms of the same size
106.Polarising power is estimated by
!"#!$ $&'()* !"#!$ $&'()* !"#!$ $&'()* (!"#!$ $&'()*)!

(1). (!"#!$ (',!-.)! (2). (!"#!$ (',!-.)" (3). !"#!$ (',!-.
(4). (!"#!$ (',!-.)!
107.Out of list I select the cation which has less polarizing power than Ca2+ and
from list II select the anion having more polarizability than S2–
List I : Mg2+, Sc3+, K+ List II: O2-, Cl-, P3-
(1) Mg2+, O2- (2) K+, P3- (3) Sc3+, P3- (4) Mg2+, Cl-
108.Which cationic species has more polarising power –
(1) Na+ (2) Mg+2 (3) Al+3 (4) all
109.According to Fajan’s rule covalent bond is favoured by –
(1) Large cation and small anion (2) Large cation and large anion
(3) Small cation and large anion (4) Small cation and small anion
110.Which option is correct for the following order
LiCl < NaCl <KCl<RbCl<CsCl
(1) Ionic character (2) Melting point order
(3) Solubility in water (4) Polarising power of their cations
111.Choose incorrect option:
(1) More distortion of anion, more will be polarisation then covalent character
increases.
(2) CsF is 100% ionic compound.
(3) Charge on cation α polarisation.
(4) Size of anion α polarisation
112.Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond characteristics follow
the order
(1) LiCl > BeCl2> BCl3> CCl4 (2) LiCl < BeCl2< BCl3< CCl4
(3) LiCl > BeCl2> BCl3> CCl4 (4) LiCl > BeCl2< BCl3> CCl4
113.Which among the following has maximum covalent character:
(1) NaCl (2) MgCl2 (3) AlCl3 (4) CaCl2
114.Among LiCl, BeCl2, NaCl, CsCl, the compounds with the greatest and the
least ionic character respectively are
(1) LiCl and CsCl (2) NaCl and LiCl
(3) CsCl and NaCl (4) CsCl and BeCl2
115.The correct order of increasing covalent character is:
(1) LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2 (2) BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl
(3) NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2 (4) BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl
116.Choose the compounds of maximum and minimum ionic character from
LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2:
(1) LiCl and RbCl (2) RbCl and BeCl2
(3) RbCl and MgCl2 (4) MgCl2 and BeCl2
117.Higher polarisation in case of AgCl compared to KCl is due to
(1) larger size of cation (2) smaller size of cation
(3) inert gas configuration of cation
(4) Pseudo inert gas configuration of cation.
118.Which of the following is most covalent.
(1) CuCl (2) NaCl (3) AgCl (4) AuCl
119.Out of the following which one has the highest values of covalent
character?
(1) ZnCl2 (2) CdCl2 (3) HgCl2 (4) CuCl
120.Which of the following has highest covalent character.
(1) CaCl2 (2) ZnCl2 (3) KCl (4) CuCl
121.Polarisation may be called as the distortion of the shape of an anion by an
adjacently placed cation. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Lesser polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(3) Larger polarisation is brought about by a cation of high charge
(4) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarisation
122.Out of following which one has maximum ionic character -
(1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) CaCl2 (4) MgCl2
123.Favourable conditions for electrovalence are
(1) Low charge on ions, large cation, small anion
(2) High charge on ions, small cation, large anion
(3) High charge on ions, large cation, small anion
(4) Low charge on ions, small cation, large anion
124.Which one is most ionic in the following compounds
(1) AgCl (2) KCl (3) BaCl2 (4) CaCl2
125.Which of the following does not conduct electricity in the fused state
(1) BeCl2 (2) MgCl2 (3) SrCl2 (4) BaCl2
126.If the electron pair forming a bond between two atoms A and B is not in the
centre, then the bond is
(1) Single bond (2) Polar bond (3) Non-polar bond (4) π-bond
127.Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently
placed cation. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(2) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(4) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization
128.The bonds between P atoms and Cl atoms in PCl5 are likely to be
(1) Ionic with no covalent character
(2) Covalent with some ionic character
(3) Covalent with no ionic character
(4) Ionic with some metallic character
129.Two electrons of one atom A and two electrons of another atom B are
utilized to form a compound AB. This is an example of
(1) Polar covalent bond (2) non-polar covalent bond
(3) Metallic bond (4) Dative bond
130.Which of the following has a high polarising power
(1) Mg+2 (2) Al+3 (3) Na+ (4) Ca+2
131.Maximum covalent character is associated with the compound
(1) NaI (2) MgI2 (3) AlCl3 (4) AlI3
132.Polarisibility of halide ions increases in the order
(1) F-, Cl-, Br-, I- (2) Cl-, F-, Br-, I-
(3) I-, Br-, Cl-, F- (4) I-, Br-, F-, Cl-
133.According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by
(1) Large cation and small anion (2) Large cation and large anion
(3) Small cation and large anion (4) Small cation and small anion
134.Choose the correct statement
(1) Anion polarisation is more pronounced by highly charged cation
(2) Small cation has minimum capacity to polarise an anion.
(3) Small anion has maximum polarizability
(4) None of these
135.Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest and
the least ionic character, respectively, are
(1) LiCl and RbCl (2) RbCl and BeCl2
(3) RbCl and MgCl2 (4) MgCl2 and BeCl2
136.Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from:
(1) Na and Cl (2) Cs and F (3) Cs and I (4) Na and F
137.Which compound is highest covalent
(1) LiCl (2) LiF (3) LiBr (4) LiI
138.Which among the following elements has the tendency to form covalent
compounds
(1) Ba (2) Be (3) Mg (4) Ca
139.A bond with maximum covalent character between non-metallic elements is
formed
(1) Between identical atoms
(2) Between chemically similar atoms
(3) Between atoms of widely different electronegativities
(4) Between atoms of the same size
140.The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by
(1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (2) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
(3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (4) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
141.Highest covalent character is found in
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (3) CaBr2 (4) Cal2
142.The following salt shows maximum covalent character
(1) AlCl3 (2) MgCl2 (3) CsCl (4) LaCl3
143.Which of the following has covalent bond
(1) Na2S (2) AlCl3 (3) NaH (4) MgCl2
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (1) (4) (1) (2) (1) (3) (1) (4) (1)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (3) (2) (1) (2)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(2) (3) (4) (3) (3) (1) (3) (1) (1) (1)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(3) (3) (1) (1) (2) (4) (2) (1) (4) (4)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(1) (2) (1) (2) (2) (4) (3) (4) (3) (1)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(2) (1) (1) (4) (1) (3) (4) (4) (2) (4)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(3) (2) (2) (3) (3) (3) (1) (3) (1) (4)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(3) (1) (4) (4) (3) (2) (2) (4) (2) (1)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(2) (1) (1) (3) (3) (3) (1) (2) (3) (1)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(3) (1) (3) (3) (1) (2) (2) (1) (2) (2)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(3) (2) (3) (1) (1) (3) (2) (3) (3) (1)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(2) (2) (3) (4) (3) (2) (4) (4) (3) (2)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(3) (2) (1) (2) (1) (2) (1) (2) (1) (2)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(4) (1) (3) (1) (2) (2) (4) (2) (1) (3)
141 142 143
(4) (1) (2)
Covalent Bond and Covalency
1. The maximum covalency for p-block elements is equal to -
(1) The number of unpaired p-electrons
(2) The number of paired d-electrons
(3) The number of unpaired s-and p-electrons
(4) The actual number of s-and p-electrons in the outermost shell
2. In a triple bond there is sharing of:
(1) 3 electrons (2) 4 electrons
(3) Several electrons (4) 6 electrons
3. Which of the following configuration shows second excitation state of Iodine: -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
4. Nitrogen does not form NF5 because:
(1) Nitrogen is member of V group
(2) It contains no empty d-orbital
(3) The bond energy of NºN is very high
(4) It's Inert due to presence of triple bond
5. The maximum covalency can be achieved by Br-atom is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7
6. When two atoms combine to form a molecule?
(1) Energy is released
(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
(4) Energy may either released or absorbed
7. Which of the following does not exist -
(1) PCl5 (2) NCl3 (3) NOCl3 (4) NCl5
8. Which of the following ions/ compounds does not exist?
(1) PCl6¯ (2) OF4 (3) NCl3 (4) ICl3
9. Which of the ions does not exist?
(1) PCl6¯ (2) NH4+ (3) PBr6¯ (4) I3¯
10. Which of the following molecule does not exist?
(1) PF5 (2) NOF3 (3) FCl3 (4) NO2Cl
11. The compound which does not exist is:
(1) IBr7 (2) IF7 (3) SF6 (4) PbF4
12. Which type of bond is can't beformed between similar atoms
(1) Ionic (2) Covalent (3) Coordinate (4) Metallic
13. Nonpolar covalent compounds are generally ...... in water
(1) Soluble (2) Insoluble(3) Dissociated (4) Hydrolysed
14. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In forming the bonds
(1) It gains electrons (2) It loses electrons
(3) It shares electrons (4) None of these
15. Which of the following occurs when two hydrogen atoms bond with each
others
(1) Potential energy is lowered (2) Kinetic energy is lowered
(3) Electronic motion ceases (4) Energy is absorbed
16. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons
(1) Unequally shared between the two
(2) Transferred fully from one atom to another
(3) With identical spins
(4) Equally shared between them
17. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed by which of the following
(1) Electron nuclear attraction (2) Electron sharing
(3) Electron transfer (4) Electrostatic attraction
18. Number of electrons in the valence orbit of nitrogen in an ammonia
molecules are
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
19. Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen molecules by
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Ionic bond
(3) Covalent bond (4) Dative bond
20. Which of the following statements is not correct for covalent bond
(1) Electrons are shared between two atoms
(2) It may be polar or non-polar
(3) non directional
(4) Valency electrons are attracted
21. Which of the following does not exist?
(1) SF4 (2) OF6 (3) OF2 (4) SF6
22. The compound which does not exist, is
(1) NCl3 (2) NCl5 (3) PCl5 (4) PH3
23. Only iodine forms hepta-fluoride IF7, but chlorine and bromine give
penta-fluorides. The reason for this is
(1) low electron affinity of iodine
(2) unusual pentagonal bipyramidal structure of IF7
(3) that the larger iodine atom can accommodate a greater number of smaller
fluorine atom around it
(4) low chemical reactivity of IF7
24. Choose the element which show maximum number of covalencies out of the
given elements.
(1) F (2) N (3) C (4) Cl
25. In which of the following molecules, bonding is not taking place in excited
state:
(1) CH4 (2) BF3 (3) ΙF7 (4) PCl3
26. In which species bonding takes place in ground state?
(1) XeF2 (2) SO2 (3) CH4 (4) PF3
27. What is the covalency of Carbon in CH4?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2
Octet Rule and Formal Charge

28. If the atomic number of element X is 7, the best electron dot symbol for
the element is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
29. The compound completing its octet by transfer of electrons is
(1) MgO (2) H2S (3) PH3 (4) CCl4
30. Octet configuration cannot be achieved through:
(1) loss of electrons (2) gains of electrons
(3) sharing of electrons (4) exchange of electrons
31. Which of the following is a covalent compound?
(1) Al2O3 (2) AlF3 (3) AlCl3 (4) Al2(SO4)3
32. Which of the following compounds does not follow the octet rule for
electron distribution
(1) PCl5 (2) PCl3 (3) H2O (4) PH3
33. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule
(1) CO (2) NH3 (3) H2O (4) PCl5
34. Which one is the electron deficient compound
(1) ICl (2) NH3 (3) BCl3 (4) PCl3
35. Which of the following species does not obey octet rule:
(1) SiF4 (2) SF6 (3) ICl (4) BF4–
36. Which can follow the octet rule?
(1) BeCl2 (2) BF3 (3) AlCl3 (4) NCl3
37. Octet rule cannot be followed by:
(1) SF2 (2) PCl3 (3) SF4 (4) CO2
38. Which molecule has odd electron.
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) ClO3 (4) All of these
39. The molecule without any lone pair around the central atom is :
(1) XeO3 (2) XeO4 (3) XeF6 (4) XeO2F2
40. Species not obeying octet rule is/are:
(1) CO32- (2) BF3 (3) NO2- (4) PCl3
41. The molecule with lone pair around the central atom is:
(1) XeO3 (2) XeO2F2 (3) XeF6 (4) all of these
42. In how many of the following species, the central atoms have two lone pairs of
electrons?
XeF4, XeF5–, F2SeO2, XeF3+, XeOF4 , ClOF3 , ICl4–, SCl2,
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4
43. Incorrect statement for SF4
(1) Hypervalent (2) Number of bond pair is four
(3) it forms in first excited state (4) lp at central sulphur atom are two
44. An ion without pseudo-inert gas configuration is:
(1) Ag+ (2) Cd2+ (3) Zn2+ (4) Fe3+
45. Which one is the electron deficient compound:
(1) ICl (2) NH3 (3) BCl3 (4) PCl3
46. The octet rule is not obeyed in:
(1) CO2 (2) BCl3 (3) PCl5 (4) (2) and (3) both
47. Pick out among the following species isoelectronic with CO2.
(1) N3– (2) (CNO)– (3) (NCN)2– (4) All of these
48. To which of the following species is the octet rule applicable?
(1) BrF5 (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) CO2
–
49. In NO3 ion, the number of bonds and lone pair of electrons present on Nitrogen
atom are:
(1) 2,2 (2) 3,1 (3) 1,3 (4) 4,0
50. How many bonded electron pairs are present in IF7 molecule?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) None of these
51. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?
(1) C2H6 (2) SiH4 (3) PH3 (4) BeCl2
52. Which is not an exception to the octet rule?
(1) BF3 (2) SnCl4 (3) XeF6 (4) ClO3
53. The combination of atoms occurs because they want -
(1) To decrease number of electrons in the outermost orbit
(2) To attain an inert gas configuration or to attain stability
(3) To increase number of electrons in the outermost orbit
(4) To attain 18 electrons in the outermost orbit
54. Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule?
(1) ClF3 (2) PCl5 (3) IF7 (4) All the three
55. The octet rule is not followed in
(1) F2 (2) NaF (3) CaF2 (4) BF3
56. Which of the molecule is not hypo-valent but completes its octet?
(1) AlCl3 (2) AlBr3 (3) AlF3 (4) none of these
57. In which of the following molecules central atom involve expansion of octet.
(1) PCl3 (2) NCl3 (3) ClF3 (4) None of these
58. The number of π-bonds and σ-bonds in the Lewis octet structure of SO3 is
(1) 3σ, 3π (2) 3σ, 2π (3) 3σ, 1π (4) None of these
59. Which of following molecule/specie is having maximum number of lone pairs
in Lewis - dot structure.
(1) BH4– (2) BF4– (3) CN¯ (4) COCl2
60. Which of the following ion has inert gas configuration and having complete
octet.
(1) B+3 (2) Al+3 (3) Ga+3 (4) All of these
61. The formal charges on three 'O' atoms in O3 molecule are.
(1) 0, 0, 0 (2) 0, 0, –1 (3) 0, 0, +1 (4) 0, +1, –1
62. Which of the following has incomplete octet?
(1) NH3 (2) BF3 (3) SiCl4 (4) CO2
63. Which of the following is hyper valent compound:
(1) PF5 (2) AlCl3 (3) AlF3 (4) CH3Cl
64. Which of the following obey's lewis octet rule?
(1) CO (2) NO (3) NO2 (4) BF3
65. Which does/do not follow Lewis’s octet rule?
(1) BCl3 (2) SF4 (3) XeF2 (4) All of these
66. In following structure if each atom has six valence electrons in their valence
shell, then identify the addition of formal charge of x, y, z and p elements
according to Lewis.
x
y
z p
(1) +1 (2) 0 (3) –1 (4) –2
67. Which of the following doesn't obey Lewis’s octet rule?
(1) CO (2) NO3– (3) O3 (4) NO
68. In SnCl3¯ ion calculate the formal charge on Sn.
(1) +1 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) –2
69. Octet is completed in which of the following?
(1) AlF3 (2) BF3 (3) PCl5 (4) SF6
2-
70. What is formal charge on 'S' in SO4 ? (Assuming Lewis Octet theory
applicable)
(1) 2+ (2) 1– (3) 2– (4) 4+
71. Which of the following are hypo-valent compound?
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 (3) BeCl2 (4) All the above
72. In following structure:
X
Y
Z P
If Y element belongs to group number 15 in periodic table and X, Z and P
elements belongs to group number 16 then calculate the addition of formal
charge of each element [Octet rule is followed]
(1) 0
(2) +1
(3) – 1
(4) – 2
73. In following figure:
X
Q
Y P
Z
If Q atom has five valence electron and X, Y, Z and P atom has six valence
electrons in their valence shell then calculate the sum of formal charge of P, X,
Y, Z and Q atoms.
(1) –4 (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) –2
74. What is the formal charge on nitrogen in NO3¯?
(1) + 3 (2) +1 (3) –1 (4) + 4
75. Which of the following compounds is covalent and in which the extension of
octet takes place during its formation?
(1) SF6 (2) NO (3) NH3 (4) HCl
76. Which of the following Lewis structure of N2O is least adopted to describe the
structure of N2O.
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these

77. Which of following molecule/specie is having maximum number of lone pairs
in Lewis - dot structure.
(1) BH4– (2) BF4– (3) CN¯ (4) COCl2
78. Which of the following has total 5 lone pair electron in molecule?
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) ClF3 (4) [XeF5]–
79. Select the molecule in which central atom uses its 25% electrons of its total
electrons in the bond formation.
(1) CO2 (2) XeF2 (3) SO2 (4) SiF4
80. Which of the following is correct Lewis Dot structure for N3¯.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

81. Which of the following molecule / species is having minimum number of lone
pair(s).
(1) ICl3 (2) BF4¯ (3) SnCl2 (4) XeF4
82. Find out the molecule/ species which is not electron defficient.
(1) AlCl3 (2) BeH2 (3) BH4¯ (4) BF3
83. Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the
central atom.
(1) ClOF4¯ (2) ClOF2+ (3) BH4¯ (4) XeOF2
84. Which of the following Lewis structures is the most stable?
(1) (2) (3) (4) All are equally stable
85. Which of the following pair(s) represent(s) the isoelectronic species
(1) CH4 and NH4+ (2) O3 and NO3–
(3) NO and CN (4) SO2 and NH3
86. Which of the following has incomplete octet?
(1) NH3 (2) BF3 (3) SiCl4 (4) CO2
87. Which of the following ion has inert gas configuration and having complete
octet.
(1) B+3 (2) Al+3 (3) Ga+3 (4) All of these
88. In which of the following molecules central atom involve expansion of octet.
(1) PCl3 (2) NCl3 (3) ClF3 (4) None of these
89. Which of the following molecule / species is having minimum number of lone
pair on its central atom.
(1) BrF3 (2) BrF4¯ (3) XeF5+ (4) I3¯
90. If 2d orbital were possible, which of the following species would exist?
(1) NF5 (2) FH5 (3) BI63– (4) SiF6
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(4) (4) (3) (2) (4) (1) (4) (2) (3) (3)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(1) (1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (2) (2) (3) (3)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(2) (2) (3) (4) (4) (4) (2) (3) (1) (4)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(3) (1) (4) (3) (2) (4) (3) (4) (2) (2)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(4) (1) (4) (4) (3) (4) (4) (4) (4) (2)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(4) (2) (2) (4) (4) (3) (3) (3) (2) (2)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(4) (2) (1) (1) (4) (2) (4) (2) (1) (1)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(4) (3) (2) (2) (1) (3) (2) (2) (3) (3)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(3) (3) (4) (2) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (1)
s, p and d Bonds
1. In a sigma bond
(1) Sidewise as well as end to end overlap of orbitals take place
(2) Sidewise overlap of orbitals takes place
(3) End to end overlap of orbitals takes place
(4) None of the above
2. Π-bond is formed
(1) By overlapping of atomic orbitals on the axis of nuclei
(2) By mutual sharing of pi electron
(3) By sidewise overlapping of half-filled p-orbitals
(4) By overlapping of s-orbitals with p-orbitals
3. Two pz orbitals from two atoms can form a s-bond when they approach along.
(1) x-axis (2) z-axis (3) y-axis (4) None
4. If z - axis is the internuclear axis, p-bond is formed by overlap between:
(1) 𝑑! ! and 𝑑! ! (2) pz and pz (3) px and px (4) s and pz
5. If z-axis is internuclear axis then which of the following d-orbital used in a p-bond formation
(1) dxy & dxz (2) pz & pz (3) dxz & dxz (4) all of these
6. If z-axis be the internuclear axis, which of the following combination of orbitals would not
form p-bond?
(1) px + px (2) dxy + dxy (3) dxz + dzx (4) dyz + dyz
7. If 'y' is the internuclear axis then by which of the following combination p bond is formed.
(1) s + pz (2) px + py (3) dxy + dxy (4) py + py
8. If internuclear axis is y then p - bond is form by -
(1) px + px (2) s + px (3) py + py (4) px + py
9. Which of the following is the correct representation of orbital orientation diagram, if
internuclear axis is 'Y':
(1) + x
s bond (2) x + x s bond
s-orbital
y y
y
(3) (4) + p bond
+ s bond
s-orbital
10. If x-axis is the internuclear axis, π-bond is formed by overlap between:
(1) py and dxy (2) px and dxy
(3) px and 𝑑" ! #$ ! (4) None of these
11. Which of the following overlapping is correct [assuming X-axis to be the internuclear axis]:
(1) 2pz + 2pz → σ (2)2py + 2py → π
(3) 1s + 2py → π (4) 2py + 2pz → π
12. Which of the following overlaps is incorrect [assuming z-axis to be the internuclear axis]?
(1) 2py + 2py → π2py (2) 2pz + 2pz → σ2pz
(3) 2px + 2px → π2px (4) 1s + 2py → π (1s–2py)
(1) ‘a’ & ‘b’ (2) ‘b’ & ‘d’ (3) only ‘d’ (4) None of these
13. Which of the following overlaps of atomic orbitals does not form π-bond if z-axis is the
internuclear axis?
(1) dzx + px (2) py + py (3) dyz + py (4) 𝑑! ! + 𝑑! !
14. Which of the following set of orbitals cannot form π-bond between them.
(1) 2p & 3d (2) 2s & 2p (3) 3p & 3d (4) 2p – 3p
15. Which of the following overlaps of orbitals would lead to formation of
σ -bond?
(1) dyz + dzx (2) dxy + dxy (3) dyz +dzx (4) 𝑑! ! + 𝑑! !
16. Which of the following orbital cannot form p as well as d bond.
(1) dxy (2) 𝑑! ! (3) 𝑑" ! #$ ! (4) dyz
17. Assuming the bond direction to be z-axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two
atom (1) and (2) will result in bonding?
(I) s-orbital of A and px orbital of B
(II) s-orbital of A and pz orbital of B
(III) py-orbital of A and pz orbital of B
(IV) s-orbitals of both (1) and (2)
(1) I and IV (2) I and II (3) III and IV (4) II and IV
18. Which of them can form only one type of bond if INA (Inter nuclear axis) is perpendicular to
z-axis.
(1) d x 2 - y2 + d x 2 - y2 (2) dxz + dxz (3) px + px (4) dxz + px
19. Which of the following set of orbital overlap cannot form p- bond.
(1) 𝑑" ! #$ ! and py (2) dxy and py (3) px and px (4) 𝑑"$ & 𝑑"$
20. Which of the following set of overlap cannot provide π-bond formation.
(1) 3d and 2p (2) 2p and 3p (3) 2p and 2p (4) 3p and 1s
21. Which type of overlapping results the formation of a 𝜋 bond
(1) Axial overlapping of s-s orbitals
(2) Lateral overlapping of p-p orbitals
(3) Axial overlapping of p-p orbitals
(4) Axial overlapping of s-p orbitals
22. In a double bond connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of
(1) 2 electrons (2) 1 electron (3) 4 electrons (4) All electrons
23. Which combination(s) results in formation of p-bonds?
(1) ( 𝑑! ! + 𝑝! ) along x-axis (2) ( 𝑑"$ + 𝑑" ! #$ ! ) along z-axis
(3) (dxy + 𝑝$ ) along x-axis (4) ( 𝑑" ! #$ ! + Py) along y-axis
24. If the molecular axis is Z, then which of the following overlapping is not possible.
(1) pz + pz = s bond (2) px + py = p bond
(3) px + px = p bond (4) py + py = p bond
25. Which of the following is the correct representation of formation of σ bond?
(1) (2)
+ +
S P S P
(3) (4) +
+
d P
P P
26. If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals cannot
form the p bond between two atoms in general.
(1) pz – pz (2) px– px (3) px – py (4) None of these
27. The maximum number of bond and π-bond can be formed between two atoms are
respectively.
(1) 4, 2 (2) 3, 2 (3) 2, 3 (4) 3, 1
Strength of s, p and d Bonds
28. Which is correct order of bond strength?
(1) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p (2) 2pp–2pp< 2pp – 3dp
(3) 2pp – 3pp> 2pp – 3dp (4) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p
29. Choose the correct order of bond strength by overlapping of atomic orbitals
(1) 1s-1s > 1s-2s > 1s-2p (2) 2s-2s > 2s-2p > 2p-2p
(3) 2s-2p > 2s-2s > 2p-2p (4) 1s-1s > 1s-2p > 1s-2s
30. Choose the incorrect option for bond strength.
(1) 2pπ– 2pπ> 2pπ – 3pπ (2) 2pπ– 3pπ> 2pπ – 3dπ
(3) 1s– 2p > 2s – 2p (4) 2s– 2p > 3s – 3p
31. The strength of bonds by s-s, s-p, p-p overlap is generally in the order:
(1)p–p>s–p>s–s (2) s-s >s-p > p-p
(3) s-p > s-s > p-p (4) p-p > s-s > s-p
32. Indicate the correct statement according to VBT:
(1) A sigma bond has no free rotation about the inter-nuclear axis.
(2) p-orbitals always have only sidewise overlapping.
(3) s-orbitals never form π - bonds.
(4) There can be more than one sigma bond between two atoms.
33. Which statement is correct?
(1) one π bond contains four electrons.
(2) π bond is stronger than 𝜎 bond.
(3) shape of molecule is determined by sigma bond.
(4) 𝜎 bond is formed by sideways overlapping.
34. Indicate the wrong statement according to Valence bond theory:
(1) A sigma bond is stronger than π-bond
(2) p-orbitals always have only sidewise overlapping
(3) s-orbitals never form π-bonds
(4) There can be only one sigma bond between two atoms
35. Which of the following is not correct
(1) A sigma bond is weaker than π-bond
(2) A sigma bond is stronger than π-bond
(3) A double bond is stronger than a single bond
(4) A double bond is shorter than a single bond\
36. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi bond formed between two
carbon atoms?
(1) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma - bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(2) Sigma -bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi- bond has no
primary effect in this regard
(3) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(4) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol.
respectively.
37. Strongest bond formed when atomic orbitals
(1) Maximum overlap (2) Minimum overlap
(3) Overlapping not done (4) None of them
38. Which type of overlapping is not present in N2molecule?
(1) 2s + 2s (2) 2px + 2px (3) 2py + 2py (4) 2pz + 2pz
39. Which overlapping is involved in HCl molecule: –
(1) s–s overlap (2) p–p overlap (3) s–d overlap (4) s–p overlap
40. In which of the following pair of elements the p-bond formation tendency
is maximum.
(1) S and O (2) Si and O (3) P and O (4) Cl and O
41. Select the combination of orbitals having highest strength.
(1) 2px– 2px (2) 3py– 2py (3) 3pz – 3pz (4) 4s – 4s
42. Nodal planes are present in s, px, py, pz are respectively.
(1) 0, 1, 1, 1 (2) 0, 2, 1, 1 (3) 0, 2, 2, 2 (4) 0, 0, 0, 0
43. Which of the following is maximum thermal stable?
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI
44. Which of the following orbitals does not participate in the hybridisation in IF7?
(1) d x 2 - y2 (2) dxy (3) pz (4) dyz
45. Which of the molecule has p – p overlapping?
(1) Cl2 (2) HCl (3) H2O (4) NH3
46. Number of σ and π bonds present in: CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH
(1) 10σ, 3π (2) 10σ, 2π (3) 9σ, 2π (4) 8σ, 3π
47. The ratio of σ and π bond in benzene is:
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8
48. How many π bonds are present in SO2Cl2?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) π bond is absent
– 2–
49. The ratio of π - bonds in NO3 and CO3 respectively:
(1) 1: 1 (2) 2: 4 (3) 1: 2 (4) 2: 3
50. Which of the following has the least bond energy?
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI
51. Which of the following is maximum thermal stable compound?
(1) HF (2) HCl (3) HBr (4) HI
52. Which of the following gives correct arrangement of compounds
involved based on their bond strength
(1) HF> HCl > HBr > HI (2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(3) HF > HBr > HCl > HI (4) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
53. The ratio of number of σ-bond to π-bond in N2 and CO molecules are
(1) 2.0, 2.0 (2) 2, ½ (3) ½, ½ (4) ½ ,2
54. C34– has:
(1) two σ and two π-bond (2) three σ and one π-bond
(3) two σ and one π-bond (4) two σ and three π-bond
55. Which cannot be explained by VBT -
(1) Overlapping (2) Bond formation
(3) Paramagnetic nature of oxygen (4) Shapes of molecules
56. How many σ and π bonds are there in the molecule of tetracyanoethylene
(1) Nine σ and nine π (2) Five σ and nine π

(3) Nine σ and seven π (4) Five σ and eight π
57. Triple bond in ethyne is formed from
(1) Three sigma bonds (2) Three pi bonds
(3) One sigma and two pi bonds (4) Two sigma and one pi bond
58. The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be
(1) Due to s-s overlapping (2) Due to s-p overlapping
(3) Due to p-p overlapping (4) Due to hybridization
59. Strongest bond is
(1) C-C (2) C=C (3) C≡C (4) All are equally strong
60. The double bond between the two carbon atoms in ethylene consists of
(1) Two sigma bonds at right angles to each other
(2) One sigma bond and one pi bond
(3) Two pi bonds at right angles to each other
(4) Two pi bonds at an angle of 600 to each other
61. The p-p orbital overlapping is present in the following molecule
(1) Hydrogen (2) Hydrogen bromide
(3) Hydrogen chloride (4) Chlorine
62. In N2 molecule, the atoms are bonded by
(1) One s, Two p (2) One s, One p
(3) Two s, One p (4) Three p bonds
63. Number of bonds in SO2
(1) Two s and two p (2) Two s and one p
(3) Two s, two p and one lone pair (4) None of these
64. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond energy
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) I2
65. The strength order of p- bond is
(1) 2p–2p > 2p–3d > 2p–3p > 3p–3p
(2) 2p–2p < 2p–3d < 2p–3p < 3p–3p
(3) 2p–2p < 2p–3d < 2p–3p > 3p–3p
(4) 2p–2p < 2p–3d > 2p–3p < 3p–3p
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(3) (3) (2) (3) (3) (2) (3) (1) (3) (1)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(2) (3) (4) (2) (4) (2) (4) (1) (1) (4)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(2) (3) (3) (2) (1) (3) (1) (1) (4) (2)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(1) (3) (3) (2) (1) (4) (1) (1) (4) (4)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(3) (1) (1) (4) (1) (1) (3) (2) (1) (4)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(1) (1) (3) (1) (3) (1) (3) (3) (3) (2)
61 62 63 64 65
(4) (1) (1) (2) (1)
Hybridization (Intro)
1.In which of the hybridisation sate different quantum No. are used -
(A) sp3d3 (B) sp3d (C) d2sp3 (D) sp
2.The d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridisation in trigonal bipyramidal geometry:
(A) 𝑑" ! #$ ! (B) 𝑑! ! (C) 𝑑"$ (D) 𝑑$!
3 2
3.The orbital involved in case of sp d hybridisation is
(A) s + px + py + dxy + pz + 𝑑! ! (B) s + px + py + 𝑑"$ + pz + dyz
(C) s + px + py + pz + 𝑑" ! #$ ! + 𝑑! ! (D) s + px + py + pz + dyz + dxz
4.The d-orbital which is not involved in sp3d3 hybridisation in pentagonal bipyramidal
geometry is:
(A) dxy (B) 𝑑" ! #$ ! (C) 𝑑! ! (D) dyz
5.Trigonal bi pyramidal geometry has
(A) 90°, 120° (B) 90°, 72° (C) 90° only (D) 72° only
6.Statement-1: All adjacent bond angles are equal in sp3d2 hybridisation.
Statement-2: All bond angles are equal in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is correct explanation for
statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation
for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
7. A sp3 hybrid orbital contains: -
(A) ¾ s- character (B) ¼ p - character (C) ¾ p - character (D) ½ s - character
8. 𝑑! ! orbital is present in which of the following hybridisation.
(A) dsp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp3d2 (D) None of these
3
9.Which of the following d-orbitals is involved in dsp hybridisation leading to square
pyramidal geometry?
(A) 𝑑! ! (B) 𝑑" ! #$ ! (C) dxy (D) dyz
10.The trigonal bipyramidal geometry results from the hybridisation
(A) dsp3 or sp3d (B) dsp2 or sp2d (C) d2sp3 or sp3d2 (D) d3sp3 or sp3d3
11.In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridization is
(A) dxy, 𝑑" ! #$ ! (B) dxz , 𝑑! ! (C) 𝑑" ! #$ ! , 𝑑! ! (D) dyz, dxz
12.A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which atomic orbitals
(A) s,px,py, dxz (B) s,px,py, 𝑑" ! #$ ! (C) s,px,py, 𝑑! ! (D) s,px,py, dxy
3 2
13. sp d hybrid orbitals are
(A) Linear bipyramidal (B) Pentagonal
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal (D) Octahedral
3 2
14.The geometry of the molecule with sp d hybridised central atom is
(A) Square planar (B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Octahedral (D) Square pyramidal
15.In sp hybridisation, shape is
(A) Angular (B) Tetrahedral (C) Bipyramidal (D) Linear
16.The bond angle in sp2 hybridisation is
(A) 1800 (B) 1200 (C) 900 (D) 109028’
17.sp3 hybridization leads to which shape of the molecule
(A) Tetrahedron (B) Octahedron (C) Linear (D) Plane triangle
18.Out of the following hybrid orbitals, the one which forms the bond at angle, 1800 is
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3 (C) sp2 (D) sp
19.Octahedral molecular shape exists in .......... hybridisation
(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3d3 (D) None of these
20.Which of the following hybridisation results in non-planar orbitals
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) sp2 (D) sp
21.Which of the following statement is not correct
(A) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular
orbitals
(B) sp2 hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one’s atomic orbital
(C) sp3d2 hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular octahedron
(D) dsp3 hybrid orbitals are all at 900 to one another
22.Compound formed by hybridization sp3d2 will have structure
(A) trigonal Planar (B) square pyramidal (C) Angular (D) Trigonal bipyramidal
23.The central atom in a molecule is in sp2 hybrid state. The shape of
molecule will be
(A) Pyramidal (B) Tetrahedral (C) Octahedral (D) Trigonal planar
3
24.sp d hybridization is considered to be a combination of two hybridization. They are
(A) p3 + sd (B) sp2 + pd (C) spd + p2 (D) none of these
25.If the equatorial plane is x–y plane in sp3d hybridisation then the orbital used in pd
hybridisation are -
(A) pz and 𝑑! ! (B) px and dxy (C) py and dyz (D) none of these
26.Match List-Ι (Hybridisation) with List-ΙΙ (shapes) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists -
List-I List-II
(A) dsp2 (A) Square planar
3
(B) sp (B) Tetrahedral
(C) d2sp3 (C) Octahedral
3
(D) sp d (D) Trigonal bipyramidal
(A) a → 1; b → 2; c → 3; d → 4 (B) a → 4; b → 2; c → 3; d → 1
(C) a → 1; b → 3; c → 2; d → 4 (D) a → 1; b → 4; c → 3; d → 3
27.Which of the following hybridisation results in non-planar orbitals
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) sp2 (D) sp
28.Octahedral molecular shape exists in .......... hybridisation
(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3d3 (D) None of these
3
29. sp hybridization leads to which shape of the molecule
(A) Tetrahedron (B) Octahedron (C) Linear (D) Plane triangle
30.The geometry of the molecule with sp3d2 hybridised central atom is
(A) Square planar (B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Octahedral (D) Square pyramidal
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B C D A C C C B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B D C D B A D B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B D B A A A B A C
Hybridization Of Molecules
1. Which of the following hybridisation results in non-planar orbitals
(1) sp3 (2) dsp2 (3) sp2 (4) sp
2. Octahedral molecular shape exists in .......... hybridisation
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 (3) sp3d3 (4) None of these
3. sp3 hybridization leads to which shape of the molecule
(1) Tetrahedron (2) Octahedron
(3) Linear (4) Plane triangle
4. The electron geometry of the molecule with sp3d2 hybridised central atom is
(1) Square planar (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Octahedral (4) Square pyramidal
5. The mode of hybridisation of carbon in CO2is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) None of these
6. The hybridisation in BF3 molecule is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d
7. The nature of hybridization in the NH3 molecule is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d
8. The electronic structure of molecule OF2 is a hybrid of
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sd3
9. The state of hybridisation of B in BCl3 is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp2d2
10. The hybrid state of sulphur in SO3 molecule is
(1) sp3d (2) sp3 (3) sp3d2 (4) sp2
11. In XeF4 hybridization is
(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4) sp2d
12. The hybridization in PF3 is
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) dsp3 (4) d2sp3
13. CCl4 has the hybridisation
(1) sp3d (2) dsp2 (3) sp (4) sp3
14. The PCl5 molecule is a result of the hybridisation of
(1) sp2d2 (2) sp3d (3) spd3 (4) sp2d3
15. The structure of Br3- involves hybridisation of the type -
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 (3) dsp3 (4) d2sp3
16. What is the hybridisation of central atom of perxenate XeO64- ion.
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 (3) sp3 (4) No hybridisation
17. What is the hybridisation of XeO3.
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d (3) sp3d2 (4) sp2
18. Hybridisation of central atom in NF3 is
(1) sp3 (2) sp (3) sp2 (4) dsp2
19. The hybridization of IF7 is
(1) sp3d3 (2) sp2d (3) d2sp3 (4) sp3
20. The hybridisation of Xe in XeF5– is
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d2 (3) sp3d3 (4) sp2
21. Hybridisation of sulphur in SF4 is:
(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4) sp3d3
22. In SOCl2 hybridisation of central atom is
(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3d (3) sp3 (4) None of these
23. What is the hybridization of Te in TeCl6
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3d (4) sp3d2
24. What is the hybridiation state of B in BF3 and BF4–:
(1) sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp3 (3) sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp3d
25. In which of the following the central atom does not use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its
bonding
(1) BF3- (2) OH3+ (3) NH2- (4) NF3
3
26. Which species do not have sp hybridization
(1) Ammonia (2) Methane (3) Water (4) Carbon dioxide
27. The species in which the central atom uses sp hybrid orbitals in its bonding is
(1) PH3 (2) NH3 (3) H3C+ (4) BeCl0
3
28. Which has sp hybridization of central atom
(1) PCl3 (2) SO3 (3) BF3 (4) NO3-
29. Which one has sp2- hybridisation
(1) CO2 (2) N2O (3) SO2 (4) CO
30. Which set hydridisation is correct for the following compounds NO2, SF4 , PF6-
(1) sp, sp2, sp3 (2) sp, sp3d, sp3d2
(3) sp2, sp3, d2sp3 (4) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d2S
31. In which of the following cases d-orbital is involved in their hybridisation.
(1) NO2+ (2) SnCl3¯ (3) XeF5+ (4) SO3Cl¯
2 2
32. In which of the following cases dx y orbital is involved in their hybridisation.
(1) NO2+ (2) I3¯ (3) XeF5+ (4) PCl3F2
33. In which of the following 𝑑1 ! orbitals will take part in hybridisation?
(1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) All the above
34. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species:
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
(1) sp3, sp3, sp3d, sp (2) sp3, sp3d, sp3d, sp
(3) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d, sp2 (4) sp2, sp3d, sp3d2, sp
35. What is the correct mode of hybridization of the central atom in the
following compounds: NO2+, SF4, PF6-
(1) sp2, sp3, d2sp3 (2) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d2
(3) sp, sp3d, sp3d2 (4) sp, sp2, sp3
— —
36. Which option is correct for hybridisation in ClO3 , ClO4 & NH3.
(1) sp2, sp3, sp3 (2) sp2, sp2, sp3
(3) sp3, sp2, sp3 (4) sp3, sp3, sp3
37. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 has hybridisation
(1) sp, sp, sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp
(3) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp
38. Consider the compound given below
H2C = CH – CH = CH – CH2 – OH
The number of sp2 hybridised atoms is
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
2 2
39. In which of the following dx y orbital has not participated in its hybridisation?
(1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) XeF4 (4) IF7
40. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3– and NH4+ are:
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
41. Which one of the following specie is sp2 hybridised?
(1) BF3 (2) PCl3 (3) NH3 (4) H3O+
42. Which of the following molecule has sp3d2 hybridisation.
(1) ClF3 (2) SF4 (3) XeF5+ (4) IF7
3
43. Which of the following molecule has sp d hybridisation
(1) SOF4 (2) SF4 (3) XeF+3 (4) All
2–
44. The hybridization of S in SO4 is same as in
(1) Xe in XeF4 (2) S in SO32– (3) C is CO32– (4) As in AsF4-
45. Which of the following compound in which central atom assumes sp3
hybridization?
(1) NH4+ (2) SO4–2 (3) CCl4 (4) All of these
46. The hybridization of phosphorous in POCl3 is the same as in:
(1) P in PCl3 (2) S in SF4 (3) Cl in CIF3 (4) B in BCl3
47. sp3 hybridisation is found in:
(A) CH3+ (B) CH3— (C) ClO3— (D) SO3
(1) A & C (2) B & C (3) B & D (4) C & D
48. In which of the following compounds carbon atom undergoes hybridization of
more than one type
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (ii) CH3—CH=CH–CH3
(iii) CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 (iv) H–C≡C–H
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (ii)
49. The type of hybridization of Xe in XeF6 will be the same as that of the
central atom in the following molecule:
(1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) CCl4
50. In the compound
, the C2 —C3 bond is formed by the overlapping of: -

(1) sp – sp2 (2) sp3 – sp3 (3) sp – sp3 (4) sp2 – sp3
51. Which of the following elements cannot exhibit sp3d hybridisation state: -
(a) C (b) P (c) Cl (d) B
Correct answer is: -
(1) a, c (2) a, d (3) b, c (4) b, d
3
52. Which among the following molecules have sp d hybridisation with one lone pair
of electrons on the central atom?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4] + (iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (iii) and (iv) only.
+ 3 3
53. S1: [XeF7] has sp d hybridisation
S2: [PCl4] + has sp3d2 hybridisation
S3: [SF6] has sp3d2 hybridisation
S4: [PF4] + has sp3 hybridisation
(1) T F F T (2) T T F T (3) T F T T (4) F F F T
3
54. sp hybridisation is found in
(1) 𝐶𝑂203 (2) BF3 (3) NO3- (4) NH3
3–
55. The hybridisation of P in phosphate ion (PO4 ) is the same as:
(1) Ι in ΙCl4– (2) S in SO3 (3) N in NO3– (4) S in SO32–
56. Molecule in which central atom has sp3d2 hybridization is present.
(1) IF7 (2) IO6–5 (3) XeF2 (4) XeO4
57. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3– and NH4+ are:
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
58. The hybrid orbitals used by central atoms in BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4 molecules are
respectively
(1) sp2,sp3 and sp (2) sp,sp2 and sp3
(3) sp3,sp and sp2 (4) sp2,sp and sp3
59. The structural formula of a compound is CH3 – CH = C = CH2 The type
of hybridization at the four carbons from left to right are
(1) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3 (2) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp
(3) sp3, sp2, sp, sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2
60.The hybridization of carbon atoms in C2 – C3 single bond of is:

(1) sp3 – sp3 (2) sp2 – sp (3) sp – sp2 (4) sp3 – sp
61. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound,
N≡C(1)-C (2)= CH2 involves the hybrid as-
(1) sp and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3 (3) sp and sp3 (4) sp and sp
62. Specify the hybridisations of central atom in the following species
respectively {N3–, NOCl, N2O}
(1) sp, sp2, sp (2) sp, sp, sp3 (3) sp2, sp, sp (4) sp2, sp2, sp.
63. In which of the following, ‘N’ atom is sp2 hybridised:
(1) NH3 (2) NH4+ (3) NH2– (4) NOCl
64. Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state -
Among the compounds, BF3, NCl3, F2S, SF4 and BeCl2, identify the ones
in which the central atom has the same type of hybridisation
(1) BF3 and NCl3 (2) F2S and BeCl2
(3) NCl3 and F2S (4) SF4 and BeCl2
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (2) (1) (3) (1) (2) (3) (3) (2) (4)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(1) (1) (4) (2) (1) (2) (1) (1) (1) (3)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(3) (3) (4) (1) (1) (4) (3) (1) (3) (2)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(3) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (3) (3) (1) (2)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(1) (3) (4) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (3) (4)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(2) (2) (3) (4) (4) (2) (2) (2) (3) (2)
61 62 63 64
(1) (1) (4) (3)
Shape Of Molecules
3
1. Percentage of s-character in sp hybrid orbital is
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 66 (4) 75
2. s-character in sp hybridised orbitals is
4 4 4 0
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 5 (4) 2
3.Which of the following hybridisation has maximum s-characters
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) sp (4) None of these
4. For which of the following hybridisation the bond angle is maximum
(1) sp2 (2) sp (3) sp3 (4) dsp3
5. Hybrid orbitals, the one which forms the bond at angle1200, is
(1) d2sp3 (2) sp3 (3) sp2 (4) sp
6. The minimum number of 90° angles between hybrid orbitals is observed in
(1) sp3d2 (2) d2sp3 (3) dsp2 (4) sp3d
7. A sp3 hybrid orbital contains:
(1) 1/4 s-character (2) 1/2 s-character
(3) 2/3 s-character (4) 3/4 s-character
8. For which of the hybridisation the given statement is true for maximum number of
angles and the statement is "hybrid orbitals are at the angle of x° to one another".
(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3 (3) sp2 (4) sp3d
9. Which one of the following molecular geometries (i.e., shapes) is not possible for the
sp3d2 hybridisation?
(1) See-saw (2) Octahedral
(3) Square planar (4) Square pyramidal
10. The central atom in a molecule is in sp2 hybrid state. The shape of molecule will
be
(1) Pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Octahedral (4) Trigonal planar
3
11. Compound formed by sp d hybridization will have structure
(1) Planar (2) Pyramidal
(3) Angular (4) Trigonal bipyramidal
12. Shape of methane molecule is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Pyramidal
(3) Octahedral (4) Square planer
13. The structure of PF5 molecule is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square planar (4) Pentagonal bipyramidal
14. The bent or V–shape of the molecule can be resulted from which of the following
hybridization.
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
15. Structure of ammonia is
(1) Trigonal (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Pyramidal (4) Trigonal pyramidal
+
16. The shape of CH3 species is:
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Square planar
(3) Trigonal planar (4) Linear
2-
17. The shape of SO4 ion is:
(1) Square planar (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Hexagonal
18. XeF2 molecule is:
(1) Linear (2) Triangular planar
(3) Pyramidal (4) Square planar
19. Which is the right structure of XeF4?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
20. The structure of ICl2¯ is -

(1) Trigonal (2) Octahedral (3) Square planar (4) Linear
21. The geometry of sulphur trioxide molecule is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Trigonal planar (3) Pyramidal (4) Square planar
22. The ammonium ion is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral (3) Square planar (4) Linear
23. Which of the following molecule is linear
(1) SO2 (2) NO2+ (3) NO2- (4) SCl2
24. Pyramidal shape would be of
(1) NO3- (2) H2O (3) H3O+ (4) NH4+
25. Which of the following molecule does not show tetrahedral shape
(1) CCl4 (2) SiCl4 (3) SF4 (4) CF4
26. Which of the following compounds is not linear
(1) SnCl2 (2) HCl (3) CO2 (4) HgCl2
27. The shape of IF7 molecule is
(1) Octahedral (2) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Tetrahedral
28. Be in BeCl2 undergoes
(1) Diagonal hybridization (2) Trigonal hybridization
(3) Tetrahedral hybridization (4) No hybridization
29. Which of the following molecules has pyramidal shape
(1) PCl3 (2) SO3 (3) CO32- (4) NO3-
30. Geometry of ammonia and the hybridization of nitrogen involved in it are
(1) sp3 -hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
(2) sp3 -hybridization and distorted tetrahedral geometry
(3) sp2 -hybridization and triangular geometry
(4) sp3 -hybridization and triangular tetrahedral geometry
31. Which of the following is non-linear molecule
(1) 𝐶𝑂203 (2) CO2 (3) CS2 (4) BeCl2
32. The regular geometry of XeO2F2 is: –
(1) Plane triangular (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
33. Which of the following has symmetrical structure:
(1) PCl3 (2) CH2Cl2 (3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4
+
34. The shape of H3O ion is
(1) Linear (2) Angular (3) Trigonal planar (4) Triangular pyramidal
-
35. The geometry of ClO3 according to valence shell electron pair
repulsion (VSEPR) theory will be
(1) Planar triangle (2) Pyramidal (3) Tetrahedral (4) Square planar
–3
36. The geometry of AlF6 is as follows:
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Hexagonal (3) Pyramidal (4) Octahedral
37. Which of the following two are isostructural?
(1) XeF2 IF2– (2) NH3, BF3 (3) CO32–, SO32– (4) PCl5, ICl5
38. Amongst the following the molecule that is linear, is:
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) SiO2
39. Which of the following is that molecule whose shape is pyramidal?
(1) PCl3 (2) SO2 (3) CO3–2 (4) NO3–
40. Which molecule has linear structure?
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) SO2 (4) SiO2
41. CO2 is iso structural with:
(1) HgCl2 (2) SnCl2 (3) SO2 (4) NO2–
42. The bonding and lone pairs of electrons present in CIF3 are arranged in the
following shape:
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Trigonal planar
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Octahedral
43. Ammonia molecule is formed by the following type of hybrid orbitals:
(1) dsp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4) d2sp
44. XeF6 is:
(1) Octahedral (2) distorted octahedral (3) Planar (4) Tetrahedral
45. Mark out the correct match of shape?
(1) XeOF2 - Trigonal planar (2) ICl4- - Square planar
(3) [SbF5]2– - Pentagonal (4) NH2Q - Pyramidal
46. Shape of a molecule having 4 bond pairs and two lone pairs of electrons, will be
(3) Linear (4) Octahedral
47. Hybridisation in XeOF2, XeO2F2 is sp3d. But shape will be respectively: -
(1) T, 'V' shape (2) T shape, (See-Saw)
(3) Both have T shape (4) T shape, irregular octahedral
48. Which of the following has pyramidal shape?
(1) BF3 (2) H3O+ (3) NO3— (4) CO32—
49. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize (1) Lone
pair- lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion
(2) Lone pair- lone pair repulsion only
(3) Lone pair- bond pair repulsion only
(4) Bond pair- bond pair repulsion only
50. Which of the following having a square planar structure is
(1) NH4+ (2) BF4– (3) XeF4 (4) CCl4
-
51. The shape of I3 is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Linear (3) T-shape (4) Trigonal
52. I3+ and I3– have same:
(1) Geometry (2) Number of lone pair (s)
(3) Bond angle (4) None of these
53. Which of the following does not have regular tetrahedral geometry?
(1) CH4 (2) BF4– (3) PCl4+ (4) CH2F2
54. Which of the following will be octahedral?
(1) SF6 (2) BF4— (3) PCl5 (4) XeF6
55. The electronic geometrical arrangement and shape of I3- are respectively
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry, linear shape
(2) Hexagonal geometry, T-shape
(3) Triangular planar geometry, triangular shape
(4) Tetrahedral geometry, pyramidal shape
56. The shapes of XeF4, XeF5– and SnCl2 are -
(1) octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and bent
(2) Sq. pyramidal, pentagonal planar and linear
(3) Sq. Planar, pentagonal planar and angular
(4) See-saw, T-shaped and linear
57. Which of the following pairs are iso-structural?
(1) CH3– and CH3+ (2) NH4+ and BH4–
(3) SO42- and BF3 (4) NH2– and BeF2
58. Molecular shape of ClF3, I3– and XeO3 respectively are
(1) T-shape, Linear, Pyramidal
(2) Planar, Linear, Tetrahedral
(3) T-shape, Planar, Pyramidal
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal, Linear, Tetrahedral
59.The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom in ClO2– is
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) sp (4) sp3d
60. In case of XeO2F2 and XeF6, Xe is with
(1) Same hybridization but with different geometry
(2) Different hybridization with same geometry
(3) Different hybridization and different geometry
(4) Same geometry and same hybridization
61. Which of the following molecule is of T shape?
(1) I3– (2) ClF3 (3) SF4 (4) XeF4
62. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is
(1) SO3 (2) NO3– (3) CO3–2 (4) PF3
63. Molecules with see-saw shape is
(1) SF6 (2) XeOF4 (3) XeO2F2 (4) HgCl2
64. Geometry of the molecule is distorted according to VSEPR theory for -
(I) H2O (II) NH3 (III) XeF6
(1) I, III, (2) II, III, (3) I, II, III (4) I, II
65. The structure of IF5 (ideal case) can be best described as :-
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
66. The shapes of PCl4+, PCl4– and AsCl5 are respectively: -

(1) square planar, tetrahedral and see-saw
(2) tetrahedral, see-saw and trigonal bipyramidal
(3) tetrahedral, square planar and pentagonal bipyramidal
(4) trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and square pyramidal
67. The shapes of IF5 and IF7 are respectively: -
(1) tetragonal pyramidal and pentagonal bipyramidal
(2) octahedral and pyramidal
(3) trigonal bipyramidal and square antiprismatic
(4) distorted square planar and distorted octahedral
68. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3
(1) Linear, sp (2) Trigonal planar, sp2
(3) Tetrahedral, sp3 (4) Pyramidal, sp3
69. Shape of NH3 is very similar to:
(1) BF3 (2) CH3– (3) SO3 (4) CH3Å
70. The number of 90° angle in SF6 are:
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
71. Which of the following statement is/are not correct -
(1) CH3+ shows sp2-hybridisation whereas CH3¯ shows sp3-hybridisation
(2) NH4+ has a regular tetrahedral geometry
(3) sp2-hybridised orbitals have equal s and p character.
(4) Hybridised orbitals always form σ-bonds
72. In sp hybridisation, shape is
(1) Angular (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Bipyramidal (4) Linear
73. The structure and hybridisation of Si(CH3)4 is
(1) Bent, sp (2) Trigonal, sp2
(3) Octahedral, sp3d (4) Tetrahedral, sp3
74. Which of the following statement is true for IO2F2–:
(1) The electrons are located at the corners of a trigonal bipyramidal but one of the
equatorial pairs is unshared.
(2) It has sp3d hybridisation and is T-shaped.
(3) Its structure is analogous to SF4
(4) (1) and (3) both
75. Which of the following structure is most expected for molecule XeOF4?
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Square pyramidal
(3) Square planar (4) Octahedral
76. Which of the following is not correctly match?
(1) ICl30 – Linear (2) XeF6 –Distorted Octahedral
(3) ICl3 –Trigonal bipyramidal (4) SF4 – See-Saw
77. How many bond angles of 90° are present in trigonal bipyramidal shape of PCl
(1) 9 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) None of these
78. Which of the following has square pyramidal geometry.
(1) XeF5– (2) PF6–
(3) IF5 (4) All are having square pyramidal geometry
79. Select pair of compounds in which both have different hybridization
but have same molecular geometry: -
(1) BF3, BrF3 (2) ICl2Q , BeCl2 (3) BeCl3, PCl3 (4) PCl3, NCl3
80. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The hybrid orbitals used by the as
atoms for bonding are: -
(1) dx2 – y2, dz2, s, px, py (2) dxy, s, px, py, pz
2
(3) s, px, py, pz, dz (4) dx2 – y2, s, px, py
81. The pair of compounds having similar geometry.
(1) BF3, NF3 (2) BeF2, H2O (3) BCl3, PCl3 (4) BF3, CH3+
82. The shape of IF4- will be: -
(3) Pentagonal bipyramidal (4) Distorted tetrahedral
83. XeOF4 contains: -
(1) six electron pairs forming an octahedron with two positions occupied by lone pairs.
(2) two π-bonds and the remaining six electron pairs, forming an octahedron.
(3) three π-bonds and the remaining four electron pairs forming an tetrahedron.
(4) one π-bonds and the remaining six electron pairs forming an octahedron with one
position occupied by a lone pair.
84. Which of the following does not have exact (regular) tetrahedral shape?
(1) CH4 (2) CH2Cl2 (3) SiF4 (4) BF4–
85. H2O is:
(1) A linear triatomic molecule (2) A bent (angular) triatomic molecule
(3) Both of these (4) None of these
86. According to VSEPR theory, the most probable shape of the
molecule having 4 electron pairs in the outer shell of the central atom is:
(1) Linear (2) Tetrahedral (3) Hexahedral (4) Octahedral
87. Which molecule is not linear
(1) BeF2 (2) BeH2 (3) CO2 (4) H2O
88. Which molecule is linear
(1) NO2– (2) CIO2– (3) CO2 (4) H2S
89. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planer geometry
(1) IF3 (2) PCl3 (3) NH3 (4) BF3
90. Which of the following will be octahedral
(1) SF6 (2) BF4– (3) PCl5 (4) BO33-
91. The shapes of BCl3, PCl3 and ICl3 molecules are all
(1) Triangular (2) Pyramidal
(3) T-shaped (4) All above are incorrect
92.Which of the following pairs has same structure
(1) PH3 and BCl3 (2) SO2 and NH3
(3) PCl5 and SF6 (4) NH4+ and SO42-
93. Which of the following compounds doesn’t have linear structure
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) BeCl2 (4) C2H2
94. The molecule which is pyramid shape is
(1) PCl3 (2) CO32- (3) SO3 (4) NO3-
95. The species which is not tetrahedral in shape is
(1) NF4Å (2) AlH4- (3) BF4- (4) ICl4-
96. The orbitals occupy more space will have more “s” character and accordingly
which is incorrect statement.
(1) l.p. will go to the axial position of PBP geometry.
(2) l.p. will go to the equitorial position of TBP geometry.
(3) Axial orbital of PBP geometry is longer than equatorial.
(4) Equatorial orbital of TBP geometry is shorter than axial.
97. Which of the following species given below have shape similar to XeOF4?
(1) XeO3 (2) ΙOF4+ (3) PCl5 (4) XeF5Å
98. Which of the following pair of species is not isostructural?
(1) KrF2, ICl2- (2) SO3, SO32- (3) CO32-, BO33- (4) SiO4- , IO4-
99. Find the pair of species having same shape but different hybridisation.
(1) SO3, CO32– (2) NO2¯, ClO2¯
(3) BeCl2, HCN (4) XeF2, SnCl2
+ –
100. Shape of NH4 and BF4 are:
(1) Tetrahedral & Tetrahedral (2) Pyramidal & Tetrahedral
(3) Square planar & Tetrahedral (4) Tetrahedral & Trigonal planar
101. Which of the following is T-shaped?
(1) PCl3 (2) BCl3 (3) NH3 (4) ClF3
102. Which of the following is linear?
(1) CO2 (2) BeCl2 (3) NO2+ (4) All of these
103. The pair of compounds having similar geometry.
(1) BF3, NF3 (2) BeF2, H2O (3) BCl3, PCl3 (4) BF3, CH3+
104. TeF5¯, XeF2, I3+, XeF4, PCl3
Which of the following shape does not describe to any of the above species?
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Square planar
(3) Trigonal planar (4) Linear
105. The hybridisation and shape of XeO3F2 molecule is
(1) sp3 and tetrahedral (2) sp3d and see-saw
(3) sp3d and TBP (4) sp3d2 and octahedral
106. The pyramidal species / molecule is
(1) SnCl3¯ (2) CO32– (3) NO3¯ (4) SO3
107. Choose the correct set from the following options regarding the hybridisation of
central atom and shape.
(1) SnCl2, sp2, linear (2) AlCl4¯, sp3, square planar
(3) SOCl2, sp2, planar (4) COF2, sp2, planar
108. The species which is not tetrahedral in shape is
(1) NF4 Å (2) AlH4- (3) BF4- (4) ICl4-
109. Molecules with See-Saw shape is
(1) CH2F2 (2) XeOF4 (3) XeO2F2 (4) HgCl2
110. Find the pair of species having same shape but different hybridisation.
(1) SO3, CO32– (2) NO2¯, ClO2¯ (3) BeCl2, HCN (4) XeF2, SnCl2
111. Which of the following molecule is not having regular geometrical.
(1) PCl3F2 (2) CF4 (3) BF2Cl (4) [SiF6]2–
112. Which of the following is linear shape?
(1) SO2 (2) NO2+ (3) O3 (4) NO2–
113. Which of the following has linear shape?
(1) NO2– (2) CO2 (3) H2O (4) OF2
114. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is:
(1) CF4, SF4 (2) XeF2, CO2 (3) BF3, PCl3 (4) PF5, IF3
3 3
115.The structure of O2 and N2 are
(1) both linear (2) Linear and bent respectively.
(3) both bent (4) Bent and linear respectively.
116. Choose the correct set from the following options regarding the
hybridisation of central atom and Shape.
(i) SnCl2 → sp2, Linear (ii) SnCl3– → sp3, Pyramidal
(iii) COF2 → sp2, Planar (iv) SOCl2 → sp3, Pyramidal
(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (ii)
117. The geometry of ammonia molecule can be best described as
(1) nitrogen at one vertex of a regular tetrahedron, the other three vertices being
occupied by the three hydrogens
(2) nitrogen at the centre of the tetrahedron, three of the vertices being occupied by
three hydrogens
(3) nitrogen at the centre of an equilateral triangle, three corners being occupied by
three hydrogens
(4) nitrogen at the junction of a T, three open ends being occupied by three hydrogens
118. Which molecular geometry is least likely to result from a trigonal bipyramidal
electron geometry?
(1) trigonal planar (2) see–saw (3) linear (4) T–shaped
119. Select pair of compounds in which both have different hybridisation but have
same molecular geometry.
(1) BF3, BrF3 (2) BeCl2 (3) BCl3, PCl3 (4) PCl3, NCl3
120. Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron
geometry?
(I) square planar (II) square pyramidal (III) linear (IV) V–shaped
Choose the correct code:
(1) I & II (2) I, II & III (3) I, III & IV (4) All
121. What is the shape of SF2 molecule.
(1) Linear (2) Bent (3) T.B. P (4) See-Saw
122. Which is not correctly matched?
(1) XeO3 ; Trigonal bipyramidal (2) ClF3 ; bent T-shape
(3) XeOF4 ; Square pyramidal (4) XeF2 ; Linear shape
123. Which of the following pairs of species have identical shapes?
(1) NO2+ and NO2- (2) PCl5 and BrF5
-
(3) XeF4 and ICl4 (4) TeCl4 and XeO4
124. Among the following the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is:
(1) BH4- and NH4+ (2) PF6- and SF6
(3) SiF4 and SF4 (4) IO3- and XeO3
3 2
125. Which of the following shape cannot be obtained from sp d hybridisation.
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Octahedral
126. Which is not correctly matched?
(1) IOF4+ ; Trigonal bipyramidal
3
(2) IO0 F0 ; T–shape
4-
(3) XeO6 ; Square bipyramidal
(4) XeF2 ; Linear
+
127. S1: Ι3 is a linear molecule with two lone pairs of electrons on central atom.
S2: Ι3– is a linear molecule with three lone pair of electrons on central atom.
S3: Br3+ is a bent molecule with two lone pair of electrons on central atom.
S4: ICl4– is a pyramidal molecule with one lone pair of electrons on central atom.
(1) T F T F (2) F T F T (3) T F F T (4) F T T F
128. Which one of the following is the correct set with respect to molecule,
hybridization, and shape?
(1) BeCl2, sp2, linear (2) BeCl2, sp2, triangular planar
(3) BCl3, sp2, triangular planar (4) BCl3, sp3, tetrahedral
129. Of the following species the one having a square planar structure is
(1) NH4+ (2) BF4- (3) XeF4 (4) SCl4
130. T-type of shape is exhibited by the molecule
(1) ICl3 (2) CHCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) PCl5
131. Which of the following molecular geometry is not possible from an octahedron
electron geometry.
(3) Octahedron (4) Linear
132. Which of the following geometry the molecule is not possible when the central
atom is having sp3d hybridisation:
(1) TBP (2) Trigonal planer (3) Linear (4) T-shaped
133. Which of the following set of molecules are having square pyramidal and
pyramidal shape respectively.
(1) ICl ¯ and SiF
4 4
(2) NF and IF (3) XeOF and H O+
3 5 4 3
(4) BrF and NF +
5 4
134. Select the correct statement.
(1) SF4, CH4, SiCl4 and CCl4 have tetrahedral structure.
(2) BF3, ClF3 and ICl3 have trigonal planar structure.
(3) XeF2, BeCl2 and ICl2- have linear structure.
(4) All are correct
135. Which of the following pair has same geometry but different hybridisation?
(1) BeCl2, C2H2 (2) SnCl2, XeF2 (3) ICl2¯, CO2 (4) CCl4, NH4+
136. Which of the following compounds or ions have bent shape?
(1) I3+, I3- , H2O, O3 (2) H2O, O3, H2F+
(3) I3+, H2O, N3- , O3 (4) H2F+, H2O, N3- , I3+
137. Shape of XeF4 is:
(1) tetrahedral (2) square planar
(3) See-saw (4) trigonal pyramidal
138. The correct structure of XeO2F2 is
F
O O F
F O F O
Xe
(1) (2) Xe (3) Xe (4) Xe
O
F F O F F
O O
139. Which of the following has T-shape structure?
(1) ClF3 (2) SF4 (3) PCl5 (4) SF6
140. Indicate for ClF3 molecule, the shape & the type of hybridisation of the
Cl-atom respectively are
F
F
F
F Cl 2
(1) , sp (2) Cl , sp3d
F
F
F
F
(3) Cl F, sp3d (4) Cl F , sp3 one lone pair in 'd' orbital
F F
141. Which of the following pair of species having different hybridisation but similar
in shape?
(1) CO2 & XeF2 (2) SO3 & SO2 (3) CF4 & XeF4 (4) N2O & CO2
142. Which of the following is 'T' shaped?
(1) IOF4+ (2) IOF2¯ (3) XeO64– (4) XeF2
143. Which of the following is isoelectronic and isostructural with CO2?
(1) NO2 (2) NO3¯ (3) NO2¯ (4) N2O
144. Which of the following is sp2 hybridised and bent in shape?
(1) H2O (2) NO3– (3) BF3 (4) NO2–
145. Which of the following is linear?
(1) XeF2 (2) XeF5– (3) C2O22– (4) both (1) and (3)
146. How many molecules are linear in following compounds but does not have any
lone pair on central atom.
CO2, XeF2, [I(CN) 2] ¯, [ I2 (CN)] +, I3¯, C2H2, SnCl2, OF2, HgCl2
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 3
147. Which of the following is V-shaped:
(1) S32- (2) I3- (3) N3- (4) none of these
148. Select the molecule which has Seen-Saw shape.
(1) XeOF4 (2) [O2IF2] ¯ (3) SOF4 (4) POCl3
149. The xenon compound that are iso-structural with IBr2– and BrO3 respectively
(1) linear XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
(2) bent XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
(3) bent XeF2 and planar XeO3
(4) linear XeF2 and tetrahedral XeO3
150. Which of the following molecules have perfect octahedral structure?
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeF6 (3) BrF6¯ (4) SbF63–
151.Which of the following ClF3 geometry has maximum 90° lone pair - bond pair
repulsion? F
F F F
F
(1) (2) F Cl (3) Cl
(4) Cl
Cl F F F F
F
F
152. What is the shape of [F2IO2]– ion?
(1) trigonal bipyramidal (2) See-Saw (3) T- shape (4) square planar
153. The shape of a molecule of NH3, in which central atoms contains
lone pair of electrons, is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Planar trigonal
(3) Square planar (4) Pyramidal
154. Which one has a pyramidal structure
(1) CH4 (2) NH3 (3) H2O (4) CO2
155. BCl3 is a planar molecule while NCl3 is pyramidal, because
(1) BCl3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl3 has a lone pair of electrons
(2) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bond
(3) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(4) N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bond
156. Among the triatomic molecules / ions BeCl2, XeF2, ICl2+, I3+, I3–, Which of the
following set is sp3d hybridised and linear. Choose the correct pairs.
(1) BeCl2 and XeF2 (2) XeF2 and I3–
(3) XeF2 and ICl2+ (4) BeCl2 and I3+
157. Which of the following is sp2 hybridised and bent in shape?
(1) NO2– (2) NO3– (3) BF3 (4) H2O
158. What is the correct structure of K3IO5?
(1) Pyramidal (2) Trigonal bipyramidal (T.B.P.)
(3) Square pyramidal (4) Square bipyramidal
159. Select the molecule which has Seen-Saw shape.
(1) XeOF4 (2) [O2IF2] ¯ (3) SOF4 (4) POCl3
160. Match the items under list (1) with items under list (2) select the correct answers
from the sets (1), (2), (3) and (4) -
List (1) molecule List (2) shape
(1) PCl5 (i) V-shaped
(2) F2O (ii) Triangular planar
(3) BCl3 (iii) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) NH3 (iv) Trigonal pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral
(1) a - i, b - v, c - iv, d – iii (2) a -ii, b -iii, c - i , d - ii
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d – v (4) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d – iv
161. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists -
List I List II (shape)
(1) CS2 1. Bent
(2) SO2 2. Linear
(3) BF3 3. Trigonal planar
(4) NH3 4. Tetrahedral
5. Trigonal pyramidal
(1) a → 2; b → 1; c → 3; d → 5 (2) a → 1; b → 2; c → 3; d → 5
(3) a → 2; b → 1; c → 5; d → 4 (4) a → 1; b → 2; c → 5; d → 4
162. Which of the following molecule has regular geometry –
(1) H2O (2) PF3 (3) SF6 (4) XeF6
163. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6, the number X-M-X bonds at 180° is
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Three (4) Two
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (3) (1) (1) (1) (4)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (2) (1) (3) (4)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(2) (1) (2) (3) (3) (1) (2) (1) (1) (4)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(1) (2) (4) (4) (2) (4) (1) (1) (1) (1)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(1) (3) (2) (2) (2) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(2) (4) (4) (1) (1) (3) (2) (1) (1) (3)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(2) (4) (3) (3) (4) (2) (1) (2) (2) (3)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(3) (4) (4) (4) (2) (3) (2) (3) (2) (3)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(4) (1) (4) (2) (2) (2) (4) (3) (4) (1)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(4) (4) (2) (1) (4) (3) (4) (2) (2) (1)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(4) (4) (4) (3) (3) (1) (4) (4) (3) (2)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(3) (2) (2) (2) (4) (1) (2) (1) (2) (1)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(2) (1) (3) (3) (3) (2) (4) (3) (3) (1)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(4) (2) (3) (3) (3) (2) (2) (1) (1) (3)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
(1) (2) (4) (4) (4) (4) (1) (2) (1) (3)
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
(2) (2) (4) (2) (1) (2) (1) (3) (2) (4)
161 162 163 164
(1) (3) (3) (4)
Planar And Nonplanar
1. Which of the following is planar?
(1) BCl3 (2) SOCl2 (3) NH3 (4) NF3
2. Which of the following has not planar structure?
(1) CH3+ (2) I3+ (3) XeF4 (4) XeF6
3. maximum numbers of atoms are present in single plane of Al(CH3)3 molecule.
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 10 (4) 6
4. The molecule which is planar.
(1) SF4 (2) BrF5 (3) ICl4¯ (4) NH4+
5. Which of the following molecule is planar.
(1) [I(CN)2]- (2) PCl3F2 (3) PCl5 (4) SF4
6.Which of the following molecules is planar?
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) PH3 (4) BF3
7. The non-planar shape is possessed by
(1) ClF3 (2) BF4¯ (3) SnCl2 (4) NO2¯
8. Which of the hexa-atomic species contains two lone pair on central atom and planar?
(1) XeF5+ (2) XeF4 (3) XeF5¯ (4) XeF6
9. Amongst CO3 , AsO3 , XeO3, ClO3 , BO3 and SO32– the non-planar species are:
2– 3– — 3–
(1) XeO3, ClO3–, SO32–, AsO33– (2) AsO33–, XeO3, CO3–2

(3) BO33–, CO32–, SO32– (4) AsO33–, BO33–, CO32–
10. The maximum number of atoms in a single plane in the compound B(CH3)3 is :
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7
11. Element A and B has 3,7 electrons in valence shell and 2,3 principal quantum
number for last electron respectively. Which is true for compound of element A & B?
(1) Compound is AB3 type (2) Compound is nonplanar
(3) Compound has 107° bond angle. (4) All are correct
12. Which of the following species are expected to be planar: -
(a) NH3 (b) CH3+ (c) NH2– (d) PCl3
the correct answer is: -
(1) b and c (2) c and d (3) b and d (4) a and d
13. In which molecule are all atoms coplanar
(1) CH4 (2) BF3 (3) PF3 (4) NH3
14. Maximum number of atoms lie in a plane in PF2(CF3)(CH3)2 molecule are
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4
15. Maximum number of atoms lie in a plane in PF2Cl3 molecule are
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 7
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (4) (1) (3) (1) (4) (2) (3) (1) (4)
11 12 13 14 15
(1) (1) (2) (3) (3)
Polar and Nonpolar Molecules
1. The electronegativity of C, H, O, N and S are 2.5, 2.1, 3.5, 3.0 and 2.5
respectively. Which of the following bond is most polar?
(1) O-H (2) S-H (3) N-H (4) C-H
2. Which of the following bond has the most polar character?
(1) C-O (2) C-Br (3) C-S (4) C-F
3. Select the correct statement for H2 molecule
(1) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it may
act as a dipole which is equally probable in all directions
(2) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not
act as a dipole.
(3) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it does
not act as dipole.
(4) All are incorrect
4. Which of the following are incorrect for dipole moment?
(1) Lone pair of elements present on central atom can give rise to dipole moment
(2) Dipole moment is vector quantity
(3) PF5 (g) molecule has nonzero dipole moment
(4) Difference in electronegativities of combining atom can lead to dipole
moment
5. Which of the following bond is more polar.
(1) H–F (2) H–Cl (3) H–Br (4) H–I
6. Which of the following molecule / ion has zero dipole moment.
(1) ClF3 (2) ICl2- (3) SF4 (4) None of these
7. Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?
(1) CCl4 (2) C2H6 (3) CO2 (4) SO2
8. Which of the following compounds are non planar as well as polar.
(1) XeF4 (2) XeF2 (3) XeF5- (4) XeF5+
9. Which of the following molecule have nonzero dipole moment?
(1) P(CH3)3(CF3)2 (2) PF3Cl2 (3) BF3, (4) CCl4
10. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(1) NH3 (2) H2O (3) BCl3 (4) SO2
11. BF3 and NF3 both molecules are covalent, but BF3 is non-polar and NF3 is polar.
Its reason is:
(1) in uncombine state boron is metal and nitrogen is gas
(2) B–F bond has no dipole moment whereas N–F bond has dipole
moment
(3) the size of boron atom is smaller than nitrogen
(4) BF3 is planar whereas NF3 is pyramidal
12. Which of the following compound has zero dipole moment?
(1) BF3 (2) SnCl2 (3) H2O (4) NH3
13. Which molecules has zero dipole moment
(1) H2O (2) CO2 (3) HF (4) HBr
14. In the following which one has zero dipole moment
(1) BF3 (2) CCl4 (3) BeCl2 (4) All of these
15. Pick out the molecule which has zero dipole moment
(1) NH3 (2) H2O (3) BCl3 (4) SO2
16. Which one of the following is having zero dipole moment
(1) CCl4 (2) CH3Cl (3) CH3F (4) CHCl3
17. Which of the following has zero dipole moment
(1) CH2Cl2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) PH3
18. Which molecule does not show zero dipole moment
(1) BF3 (2) NH3 (3) CCl4 (4) CH4
(1) CO2 (2) NH3 (3) NF3 (4) H2O
20. PCl5 is nonpolar because: -
(1) P – Cl bond is non-polar (2) Its dipole moment is zero
(3) P – Cl bond is polar (4) P & Cl have equal electronegativity
21. Dipole moment of CO2 is zero which implies that:
(1) Carbon and oxygen have equal electronegativities
(2) Carbon has no polar bond
(3) CO2 is a linear molecule
(4) Carbon has bond moments of zero value
22. Species having zero dipole moment:
(1) XeF4 (2) SO2 (3) SF4 (4) CH2Cl2
23. If the molecule AX4 is having zero dipole moment value, then the probable
geometry is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Square planar (3) (1) & (2) both (4) None
24. What may be the geometry of molecule if AX3 molecule has non-zero dipole
moment.
(1) Trigonal planar (2) Bent T-shape (3) Pyramidal (4) Both (2) and (3)
25. If the measured dipole moment for the molecule is zero then for which of given
formula the shape of the molecule cannot predicted.
(1) AX3 (2) AX4 (3) AX5 (4) None of these
26. If the measured dipole moment for the molecule is zero then for which of given
formula the shape of the molecule can be predicted.
(1) AX3 (2) AX4 (3) AX5 (4) AX2
27. BeF2 has zero dipole moment whereas H2O has dipole moment because:
(1) Water is linear (2) H2O is bent
(3) F is more electronegative than O
(4) Hydrogen bonding is present in H2O
28. Which of the following molecule have zero dipole moment:
(1) BF3 (2) CH2Cl2 (3) NF3 (4) SO2
29. Which of the following pair of molecules have same shape but different in
polarity (Polar or nonpolar)
(1) H2O & NH3 (2) SnCl2 & SO2 (3) CO2 & N2O (4) SO2 & SO3
30. The dipole moment is zero for the molecule
(1) Ammonia (2) Boron trifluoride
(3) Sulphur dioxide (4) Water
31. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are -
(1) angular and non-zero (2) angle and zero
(3) linear and non-zero (4) linear and zero
32. Which of the following is non-polar
(1) PCl5 (2) PCl3 (3) SF6 (4) IF7
33. Which of the following is nonpolar and pentagonal planar species?
(1) XeF6 (2) XeOF4 (3) XeF5¯ (4) XeF4
34. Which of the following is non-polar molecule?
(1) BF3 (2) ClF3 (3) PCl3 (4) SO2
35. Which set of molecules is polar:
(1) XeF4, IF7, SO3 (2) PCl5, C6H6, SF6
(3) SnCl2, SO2, NO2 (4) CO2, CS2, C2H6
36. Which statement is correct
(1) All the compounds having polar bond, have dipole moment
(2) SO2 is non-polar
(3) H2O molecule is nonpolar, having polar bonds
(4) PH3 is polar molecule having almost nonpolar bonds
37. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?
(1) NH4Cl (2) HCN (3) H2O2 (4) CH4
38. Which of the following species are polar:
(A) C6H6 (B) XeF2 (C) SO2 (D) SF4 (E) SF6
correct answer is:
(1) (B) & (D) (2) (A), (B) & (E) (3) (A) & (E) (4) (C) & (D)
39. Which of the following molecules has polar character
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) PF5 (4) NH3
40. The polarity of a covalent bond between two atoms depends upon
(1) Atomic size (2) Electronegativity
(3) Ionic size (4) None of the above
41. Which of the following is the most polar
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3 (3) CH3OH (4) CH3Cl
42. Non-polar solvent is
(1) Dimethyl sulphoxide (2) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Ammonia (4) Ethyl alcohol
43. Which of the following is a non-polar compound
(1) HCl (2) H2Se (3) CH4 (4) Hl
44. Which of the following molecule/ion is planar and polar both; -
(1) NO3Θ (2) NO2Θ (3) PF5 (4) NH3
45. Which of the following molecules does not possess a permanent dipole mome
(1) H2S (2) SO2 (3) CS2 (4) SO2
46. What conclusion can be draw from the fact that BF3 has no dipole moment but
PF3 is does:
(1) BF3 is not symmetrical but PF3 is symmetrical
(2) BF3 molecule must be linear
(3) Atomic radius of P is larger than that of B
(4) BF3 molecule must be planar triangular
47. PBr2Cl3 can exhibit geometrical isomerism, Geometrical isomers are as follows:
I. II. III.
Which of the above-mentioned geometrical isomer(s) has/have no
dipole(s)?
(1) Only II and III (2) Only III (3) Only I and III (4) Only I
48. Which of the possible molecule / species is having maximum values for dipole
moment. (where “A” is the central atom).
(1) AX3 (having one lone pair on central atom)
(2) AX4 (Tetrahedral)
(3) AX4Y (having no lone pair on central atom)
(4) Can't be predicted
49. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of
(1) Its planar structure
(2) Its regular tetrahedral structure
(3) Similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms
(4) Similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine
50. Which of the following has no dipole moment
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) O3 (4) H2O
51. Of the following molecules, the one, which has permanent dipole moment,
is -
(1) SiF4 (2) BF3 (3) PF3 (4) PF5
52. Dipole moment is highest in:
(1) CH2 Cl (2) CH4 (3) CH2 F (4) CCl4
53. The polar and planar compound is :
(1) SF4 (2) BF2Cl (3) CH2F2 (4) O2F2
54. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Electronegativity of Cl is less than F
(2) Electron affinity of Cl is greater than F
(3) Bond energy of σ-bond is greater than π bond.
(4) The net dipole moment direction of NF3 is towards l.p. of N-atom.
55. The correct order of dipole moment is:
(1) CH3Cl < CH3F < CH3Br < CH3I
(2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(4) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
56. In which of the following pairs of compounds, the first one is more polar than
the second one?
(1) SO3, SO2 (2) NF3, NH3 (3) CH3Cl, CH3F (4) PF2Cl3, PF3Cl2
57. Increasing order of dipole moment in H2O, NH3, NF3 and CCl4 is
(1) CCl4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (2) CCl4 > NF3 > NH3 > H2O
(3) NF3 > H2O > CCl4 > H2O
(4) all the four have equal dipole moments
58. The dipole moment of given molecules is such that -
(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3 (2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > NF3 > BF3 (4) NH3 > BF3 > NF3
59. The correct order of dipole moment is:
(1) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (2) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(3) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (4) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
60. The dipole moment of NH3 is:
(1) Less than dipole moment of NCl3
(2) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3
(3) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3 (4) None of these
61. Which of the following order of polarity of molecules is correct -
(1) HF > NH3 > PH3 (2) CH4 > NH3 > H2O
(3) CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 (4) BF3 > BeF2 > F2
62. Dipole moment is highest in -
(1) CHCl3 (2) CH4 (3) CHF3 (4) CCl4
63. The compound which has maximum dipole moment is:
(1) CH4 (2) CHCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) CO2
64. In the compounds CH3OH, CH4, CF4, CO2, which has maximum dipole
moment: -
(1) CH3OH (2) CF4 (3) CH4 (4) CF4 and CO2 have equally more
65. The order of increasing polarity in HCl, CO2, H2O and HF molecules is:
(1) CO2, HCl, H2O, HF (2) HF, H2O, HCl, CO2
(3) CO2, HCl, HF, H2O (4) CO2, HF, H2O, HCl
66. In terms of polar character, which of the following order is correct?
(1) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S (2) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF
(3) H < NH3 < H2S < HF (4) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
67. Which molecule has the largest dipole moment
(1) HCl (2) Hl (3) HBr (4) HF
68. Find out the incorrect order of the dipole moment among the following pair of
compounds
(1) NH3 > NF3 (2) p-dichloro benzene > o-dichloro benzene
(3) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 (4) SiF4 < SF4
69. Which of the following molecules shows maximum dipole moment -
(1) (2) (3) (4) All have the same

70. Which one has minimum (nearly zero) dipole moment
(1) Butene-1 (2) cis butene-2
(3) trans butene-2 (4) 2-methyl-1-propene
71. Which has maximum dipole moment?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. Which of the following molecule will be most polar: -
(1) 1, 3, 5 trichloro benzene (2) Trans 1, 2 - dichloro ethene
(3) Cis - 1 - fluoro propene (4) Trans 1- fluoro propene
73. Species having zero dipole moment: -
(1) XeF4 (2) 1,2,4 trichloro benzene (3) SF4 (4) CH2Cl2
74. Decreasing order of dipole moment of the following compounds is -
(1) A > B > C (2) C > A > B (3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B
75. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment m-
dichlorobenzene (I), o-dichlorobenzene (II), p-dichlorobenzene (III)
(1) I < II < III (2) II < III < I (3) I < III < II (4) III (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (v) > (vi) (2) (iii) > (i) > (ii) = (vi) > (iv) > (v)
(3) (ii) > (i) = (iii) = (iv) > (v) = (vi) (4) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (v) > (ii) > (vi)
78. Which of the following would be non-polar?
(1) (2) (3) (4) All of these
79. Which of the following molecule is polar as well as planar.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) None of these

80. Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical
bonding
(1) non-planar (2) μ ≠ 0 (3) A & B both (4) μ = 0

81. The dipole moment of the ammonia molecule is 1.48D. The length of the dipole
is:
(1) 3.08 × 10–11 m (2) 5 × 102 m (3) 308 m (4) None
82. The dipole moment of LiH is 1.964 × 10–29C × m and the interatomic distance
between Li and H in this molecule is 1.596Å. Calculate the percent ionic
character in LiH:
(1) 76.8 (2) 70 (3) 65.5 (4) 72
83. The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.73 D. The dipole moment of P-
dichlorobenzene is expected to be
(1) 3.46 D (2) 0.00 D (3) 1.73 D (4) 1.00 D
-30
84. The dipole moment of HBr is 1.6 x 10 cm and interatomic spacing is 1Å.
The % ionic character of HBr is
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 27
85. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the dipole moment
measurement of the compound.
(1) It helps to predict the percentage ionic character in a bond.
(2) It helps to predict the shape of the molecule.
(3) It helps to predict the particular cis trans isomer.
(4) It helps to predict the bond energies of all bonds within the molecule.
86. Statement-1: Dipole moment of H2O is more than that of OF2.
Statement-2: In H2O, the resultant bond dipole of O – H bond and the resultant
lone pair moment are in opposite direction.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is correct explanation
for statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is NOT the correct
explanation for statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
87. Statement-1: Allene is a non-polar molecule.
Statement-2: Allene is nonplanar molecule.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is correct explanation
for statement 1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, and statement-2 is NOT the correct
explanation for statement 1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (4) (1) (3) (1) (2) (4) (4) (2) (3)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(4) (1) (2) (4) (3) (1) (2) (1) (1) (2)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (1) (2) (1) (3) (2)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(1) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (4) (2)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(3) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (4) (4) (2) (1)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(3) (1) (2) (4) (2) (3) (1) (3) (1) (2)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(1) (1) (2) (1) (1) (2) (4) (2) (1) (3)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87
(1) (1) (2) (2) (4) (3) (2)
pπ – pπ and pπ – dπ Bonds
1. How many π bonds are present in SO2Cl2?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) π bond is absent
2. In SO2 molecule, there are two σ-bonds and two π-bonds. The two π-bonds are formed
by:
(1) pπ – pπ overlap between S and O atoms
(2) sp2 – p overlaps between S and O atoms
(3) one by pπ – pπ overlap and other by pπ – dπ overlap
(4) both by pπ – dπ overlap
3. Example of pπ-pπ bonding is -
(1) BF3 (2) SO2 (3) SO3 (4) All of these
–
4. The nature of π-bond in perchlorate (ClO 4) ion is: -
(1) O(dπ) — Cl(pπ) (2) O(pπ) — Cl(pπ) (3) O(pπ) — Cl(dπ) (4) O(dπ) —
Cl(dπ)
5. Which of the following compound having number of pπ-pπ bond is equal to pπ-dπ
bonds?
(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (3) O3 (4) POCl3
6. The structure of the SO3 molecule in the gaseous phase contains: -
(1) only σ-bonds between sulphur and oxygen
(2) σ-bonds and a (pπ-pπ) bonds between sulphur and oxygen
(3) σ-bonds and a (dπ-pπ) bonds between sulphur and oxygen
(4) σ-bonds, and a (pπ-pπ) and two (pπ-dπ) bonds between sulphur and oxygen
7. Which of the following statements regarding the structure of SOCl2 is not correct?
(1) The sulphur is sp3 hybridised and it has a tetrahedral shape.
(2) The sulphur is sp3 hybridised and it has a trigonal pyramid shape.
(3) The oxygen-sulphur bond is pπ-dπ bond.
(4) It contains one lone pair of electrons in the sp3 hybrid orbital of sulphur.
8. In XeO3F2, which of the following d-orbital is not participating in overlapping?
(1) d6! 37! (2) dz 0 (3) dxy (4) dyz
9. The total number of pπ-dπ bonds in SO3 molecule is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
10. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of the allene molecule,
C3H4?
(1) The central carbon is sp hybridized
(2) The terminal carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized
(3) The planes containing the CH2 groups are mutually perpendicular to permit the
formation of two separate p-bonds.
(4) All correct
11. Which of the following molecule is planar?
(1) F2C = C = C = C = CF2 (2) H2C = C = CH2
(3) C2H2 (4) All of these
12. Which of the following statements are correct:
The number of sigma bonds in CH2 = C = C = CH2 is 7.
All the hydrogen atoms in CH2 = C = C = CH2 lie in the same plane.
(1) Only (1) (2) Only (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
13. The nodal plane in the π-bond of ethene is located in
(1) the molecular plane
(2) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(3) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon- carbon
σ bond at right angle.
(4) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-
carbon bond.
14. Nodal planes of π-bonds (s) in CH2 = C = C = CH2 are located in:
(1) all are in molecular plane
(2) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane
which
contains C – C σ-bond
(3) one in molecular plane and two in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane
which
contains C – C σ-bonds
(4) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane
which
bisects C – C σ-bonds at right angle
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (3) (4) (3) (1) (4) (1) (1) (3) (4)
11 12 13 14
(3) (3) (1) (2)
Dragos’s Rule
1. Which one of the following compounds has bond angle as nearly
(1) NH3 (2) H2S (3) H2O (4) CH4
2. Which of the following has maximum angular volume of orbital containing lone
pair?
(1) NF3 (2) NH3 (3) PH3 (4) PCl3
3. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are
respectively
(1) 25, 33, 50 (2) 25, 50, 75 (3) 50, 75, 100 (4) 10, 20, 40
4. Which of the following molecule has higher p-character in X–H bond.
(1) NH3 (2) PH3 (3) SbH3 (4) AsH3
5. For which of the following molecule s-character is found to be maximum in lone
pair present at central atom.
(1) NH3 (2) H2O (3) SF2 (4) AsH3
6. Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120º. The percentage of s- character in the
hybrid orbital is nearly:
(1) 25% (2) 33% (3) 50% (4) 66%
7. % s-character of bonding orbital of sulphur in H2S is -
(Bond angle H–S–H = 92°; cos 92° = –0.035)
(1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 3.38% (4) 33.33%
8. Choose the correct statement:
(1) NH3 is having bond angle of 109°28'.
(2) The direction of the dipole moment of NF3 is as shown in the diagram
(3) In the Lewis structure of SO32–, there is no π-bond.

(4) sp2 hybrid orbital is consisting of 33.33 % 'p' character.
9. In AsH3, H – As – H bond angle is 91.8º, % s and % p character respectively in as–
H bond approximately will be:
(1) 33% & 66% (2) 25% & 75% (3) 33.3% & 66.6% (4) 3% & 97%
10. Calculate the % p character in the orbital occupied by the lone pairs in water
molecule.
(1) 80% (2) 20% (3) 70 % (4) 75%
11. It has been observed that % 's' character in Sb–H bond in SbH3 is 0.5%. Predict the
% 's' character in the orbital occupied by the lone pair is
(1) 99.5 % (2) 99.0 % (3) 98.5 % (4) 98.0 %
12. Average bond order of C–C bond in C6H6 is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.33
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (3) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3)
Bond Order and Bond Length
1. Which set of average charge on oxygen and bond order is correct for SO4–2
(1) 0.5 and 1.5 (2) 1.5 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1.5 and 1.5
2. In PO43–, the average charge on each oxygen atom and the P–O bond order
respectively are:
(1) - 0.75, 0.6 (2) - 0.75, 1.0 (3) - 0.75, 1.25 (4) - 3, 1.253
3. Choose the correct option for following statements:
(I) sp3 hybrid orbitals are at 90° to one another
(II) sp3d2 adjacent hybrid orbitals are at 90° to one another
(III) sp2 hybrid orbitals are at 120° to one another
5
(IV) Bond order of N–O bond in NO3¯ is 2
(1) T F T F (2) T T F F (3) F T T T (4) F T F T
4. The average charge on each O atom and average bond order of I–O bond
in IO65– is:
(1) –1 and 1.67 (2) – 5/6 and 1.67
(3) –5/6 and 1.33 (4) –5/6 and 1.167
5. The relation between x, y and z in bicarbonate ion with respect

to bond length is -
(1) x > y > z (2) x > z > y (3) z = y > x (4) x > y = z
6. Choose the correct code for incorrect statements.
I: All S – O distance in SO42– are not equal
II: All S – O distance in H2SO4 is equal
III: All B – O distance in H3BO3 is not equal
IV: All B – O distance in BO33– are equal
(1) I, II, IV (2) II, III & IV (3) I, II, III (4) I, II, III, IV
7. Which of the following molecule is having shortest bond length of C–O bond.
(1) CH3OH (2) H2CO (3) CO (4) Na2CO3
8. In benzene molecule all bond lengths are equal because
(1) All carbon atoms are equivalent
(2) All carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised
(3) All bonds in benzene, have same order
(4) All bonds are single covalent bond
9. The correct order of bond length is
(1) C — C < C C<C C (2) C C < C C < C — C
(3) C C < C C < C — C (4) C C < C — C < C C
10. Which has the shortest C-C bond length
(1) C2H5OH (2) C2H6 (3) C2H2 (4) C2H4
11. The single, double, and triple bond lengths of carbon in carbon dioxide are
respectively
(1) 1.15, 1.22 and 1.10 Å (2) 1.22, 1.15 and 1.10 Å
(3) 1.10, 1.15 and 1.22 Å (4) 1.15, 1.10 and 1.22 Å
12. The correct order of bond length (C – O) is
(1) CO2 < CO < CO32– (2) CO32– < CO < CO2
(3) CO < CO2 < CO32– (4) CO < CO32– < CO2
13. Bond length of C – O is minimum in –
(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) CO3–2 (4) HCOO–
14. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) In PF5, all the five P–F bonds have equal bond length.
F
Cl
(2) In, H2 C = S S–F bond is longer than S–Cl bond length.
Cl
F
(3) XeF6 has perfect octahedron shape and hybridisation of Xe is p3d3.
(4) All of these
15. The correct order in which the O – O bond length increases in the following is
(1) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (2) O2 < H2O2 < O3
(3) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (4) O3 < H2O2 < O2
16. Which of the following is correct order of bond length?
(1) BF4– < BF3 (2) NO2+ < NO2–
(3) CCl4 < CF4 (4) +CH3 > CH4
17. O–O bond length in H–O–O–H and F–O–O–F respectively are -
(1) 1.22 Å, 1.48 Å (2) 1.48 Å, 1.22 Å
(3) 1.22 Å, 1.22 Å (4) 1.48 Å, 1.48 Å
18. Which of the following statement is correct for F3C – CF2 – CF3?
(1) All C–F bond lengths are identical.
(2) Two C–F bond attached to middle carbon atom are longer as compared
to the other C–F bond at the terminal carbon.
(3) Two C–F bonds attached to the middle carbon atom are shorter as compared
to the other C–F bond at the terminal carbon.
(4) None of these
19. The correct order of dC–H in the following option is
(1) CHF3 = CH2F2 = CH3F (2) CHF3 > CH2F2 > CH3F
(3) CH2F2 > CH3F > CHF3 (4) CH3F > CH2F2 > CHF3
20. The strongest P–O bond is found in the molecule
(1) F3PO (2) Cl3PO (3) Br3PO (4) (CH3)3PO
21. Out of C2H6, C2H4 and C2H2. Compound which has highest C-C bond
length is: -
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2 (3) C2H6 (4) All have equal C-C bond length
22. Correct order of bond length is
(1) SO32– > SO42– > SO3 (2) SO42– > SO32– > SO3
(3) SO3 > SO32– > SO42– (4) None of these.
23. N2H4 reacts with conc. H2SO4 to produce a salt [NH3 –NH3] +2SO4–2 in
which.
(1) dN–N (salt) > dN–N (N2H4) (2) dN–N (salt) < dN–N (N2H4)
(3) dN–N (salt) = dN–N (N2H4) (4) Cannot be predicted
24. What is correct order of bond order of Cl–O bond.
(1) ClO4– > ClO3– > ClO2– > ClO– (2) ClO– < ClO2– > ClO3– < ClO4–
(3) ClO3– < ClO2– < ClO4– < ClO– (4) ClO2– < ClP3– < ClO4– < ClO–
25. Incorrect order of N–N bond length is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26. In which of the following option, all bond lengths are not equal.
(1) BF3 (2) NF3 (3) XeF4 (4) ClF3
27. The compound is having shortest S–O bond length is
(1) SO3F¯ (2) SO42– (3) SOF4 (4) SOCl2
28. Which of the following has the shortest N–H bond length?
(1) H2N – NH2 (2) H–N = N–H (3) NH3 (4) CH3—NH2
29. In which of following cases C–C bond length will be highest.
(1) CH3–CF3 (2) FCH2–CH2F (3) F2CH–CHF2 (4) CF3–CF3
30. The bond length of the S–O bond is maximum in which of the following
compound.
SOBr2, SOCl2, SOF2
(1) SOCl2 (2) SOBr2
(3) SOF2 (4) All have same length
31. Which of the following molecules or ions has different bond lengths?
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4¯ (3) SF4 (4) SiF4
32. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding SF2Cl2 molecule?
(1) Two axial bond lengths are longer compared to two equilateral bond lengths.
(2) Two S–F bond lengths are identical.
(3) Two S–Cl bond lengths are identical.
(4) Lone pair is not changing its position.
33. Select the correct statement(s) regarding ICl4 (-) () ion.
(1) It is isostructural with (2) All bond lengths are equal
(3) All adjacent angles are equal (4) All of these
34. Maximum bond length is shown in
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) H2O
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (3) (3) (4) (4) (3) (3) (3) (3) (3)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(2) (3) (1) (4) (3) (2) (2) (2) (4) (1)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(3) (1) (2) (1) (3) (4) (3) (2) (2) (2)
31 32 33 34
(3) (1) (4) (2)
BOND ANGLE
1. The correct order towards bond angle is:
(1) sp3 < sp2 < sp (2) sp < sp2 < sp3
(3) sp2 < sp < sp3 (4) sp2 < sp3 < sp
2. The bond angle in water molecule is nearly
(1) 1200 (2) 1800 (3) 109028’ (4) 104030’
3. In methane the bond angle is
(1) 1800 (2) 900 (3) 1200 (4) 1090
4. The bond angle in carbon tetrachloride is approximately
(1) 900 (2) 1090 (3) 1200 (4) 1800
5. The angle between sp2 orbitals in ethylene are
(1) 900 (2) 1200 (3) 1800 (4) 1090
6. which of the following is not characteristics of CO32-
(1) Bonds of unequal length (2) sp2 hybridization of C atom
(3) Resonance stabilization (4) Same bond angles
2
7. The bond angle in sp hybridisation is
(1) 1800 (2) 1200 (3) 900 (4) 10902’
8. When the hybridisation state of carbon atom changes from sp3 to sp2 to sp the angle
between the hybridised orbitals
(1) Decreases gradually (2) Increases gradually
(3) Decreases considerably (4) All of these
9. The bond angle in PH3 is
(1) Much less than NH3 (2) Equal to that of NH3
(3) Much greater than NH3 (4) Slightly greater than NH3
10. The bond angle is minimum in
(1) H2Te (2) H2Se (3) H2O (4) H2S
11. The smallest bond angle is found in
(1) IF7 (2) CH4 (3) BeF2 (4) BF3
12. As the s-character of hybridisation orbital increases, the bond angle
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Becomes zero (4) Does not change
13. In which of the following species is the interatomic bond angle is 1090 28’
(1) NH3, (BF4)-1 (2) (NH4) +, BF3 (3) (NH4) +, BF4 (4) (NH2)-1, BF3
14. The molecule of CO2 has 180° bond angle. It can be explained on the basis of
(1) sp3 hybridisation (2) sp2 hybridisation
(3) sp hybridisation (4) d2 sp3 hybridisation
15. Among the following orbital/bonds, the angle is minimum between:
(1) sp3 bonds (2) px and py orbitals
(3) H—O—H in water (4) sp bonds
16. The compound MX4 is tetrahedral. The number of < XMX angles in the compound
is
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
17. Select the correct order of bond angle in SeOCl2
(1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x = y (4) Can’t predict

18. Which compound has the smallest bond angle is each series.
(i) (P) OSF2 (Q) OSCl2 (R) OSBr2
(ii) (P) SbCl3 (Q) SbBr3 (R) SbI3
(iii) (P) PI3 (Q) AsI3 (R) SbI3
(1) P, P, R (2) P, R, R (3) P, P, P (4) P, R, P
19. Which of the following statement is correct about PCl3?
(1) P–Clax is longer than P–Cleq.
(2) All the hybrid orbitals of P–atom having bond pairs are identical to each
other
(3) P–Clax is shorter than P–Cleq.
(4) Maximum 4 atoms in a plane and 4 such planes are present
20. The total right angled ∠ ClPCl are present in PCl5, PCl4+, PCl6¯ _ , _ , _
respectively.
(A) 0, 1, 4 (B) 6, 0, 4 (C) 2, 4, 0 (D) 6, 0, 12
21. The element A has 3 electrons in valence shell and its principal quantum number
for last electron is 2 and element B has 7 electrons in valence shell and its
principal quantum number for last electron is 3. Which option is true for
compound of element A and B.?
(1) Compound is AB3 type (2) Compound is nonplanar
(3) Compound has 107° bond angle. (4) All are correct
22. Select the correct statement regarding XeO4 and IO4–.
(1) both are isoelectronic.
(2) both have equal number of pp-dp bonds.
(3) both have different shapes.
(4) ∠OXeO and ∠OIO are different bond angles.
23. The correct statement for the reaction –
NH3 + H+ → NH4+
(1) Hybridisation state is changed (2) Bond angle increases
(3) NH3 act as a Lewis acid (4) Regular geometry is changed
24. In compounds X, all the bond angles are exactly 109°28'. X is:
(1) Chloromethane (2) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Iodoform (4) Chloroform
25. When p-character of hybridised orbital (formed by s and p orbitals) increases.
Then the bond angle
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Becomes twice (4) Remains unaltered
26. Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs and bond angle
(need not be all bond angles) < 109.5°?
(1) SF2 (2) KrF4 (3) ΙCl4– (4) All of these
27. The correct order of bond angle is:
(1) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < CH4 (2) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3
(3) H2S < NH3 < CH4 < BF3 (4) H2S < CH4 < NH3 < BF3
28. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?
(1) NF3 (2) ClF3 (3) BF3 (4) AlF3
29. Which of the following order of bond angle is CORRECT.
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 (2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O (4) SiF4 < SiCl4 < SiBr4 < SiI4
30. Consider the following compounds:
(I) ClF3 (II) BrF3
The order of the angles between axial and equatorial bond pairs is
(1) I > II (2) I < II (3) I = II (4) none
31. In which of the following is the angle between the two covalent bonds greatest:
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) H2O
32. The bond angle in PH3 would be expected to be close to
(1) 90º (2) 105º (3) 109º (4) 120º
33. Which of the following is the correct order of bond-angle
(1) NH3 < CH4 < C2H2 < H2O (2) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < C2H2
(3) C2H2 < CH4 < H2O < NH3 (4) NH3 < H2O <CH4 < C2H2
34. Maximum bond angle is present in
(1) BCl3 (2) BBr3 (3) BF3 (4) Same for all
35. Select the correct order for bond angle.
(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3 (2) F2O < H2O < Cl2O
(3) SbI3 < SbBr3 < SbCl3 (4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
2–
36. CO3 anion does not have which of the following characteristics
(1) Bonds of unequal length (2) sp2 hybridisation of C atom
(3) Resonance stabilization (4) Same bond angles.
37. Which order of decreasing bond angle is correct: -
(1) CCl4 > BF3 > BeF2 (2) NH3 > NCl3 > NBr3
(3) Br2O > Cl2O > OF2 (4) PCl3 > PBr3 > PI3
38. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is
(1) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 (2) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
(3) H2S < SIH4 < NH3 < BF3 (4) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4
+ -
39. The bond angles of NH3, NH4 and NH2 are in the order -
(1) NH2- > NH3 > NH4+ (2) NH4+ > NH3 > NH2-
(3) NH3 > NH2- > NH4+ (4) NH3 > NH4+ > NH2-
40. Bond angle in H2O is 104.5°; then bond in Cl2O should be -
(1) 104.5° (2) 101° (3) 109°28' (4) 110.8°
41. Correct order of bond angles is -
(1) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3 (2) PF3 < PBr3 < PI3 < PCl3
(3) PCl3 < PF3 < PBr3 < PI3 (4) PCl3 < PBr3 < PF3 < PI3
42. Correct order of bond angle is -
(1) PF3 < PH3 (2) PH3<PF3
(3) PF3 = PH3 (4) Cannot be predicted
–
43. Which statement is correct for N3 ion.
(1) It is bent molecule (2) Bond angle is < 120°
2
(3) Central atom is sp hybridized (4) None of these
44. Consider the following molecules.
H2O H2S H2Se H2Te
Ι ΙΙ ΙΙΙ ΙV
Arrange these molecules in increasing order of bond angles.
(1) Ι < ΙΙ < ΙΙΙ < ΙV (2) ΙV < ΙΙΙ < ΙΙ < Ι
(3) Ι < ΙΙ < ΙV < ΙΙΙ (4) ΙΙ < ΙV < ΙΙΙ < Ι
45. In which of the following bond angle is maximum
(1) NH3 (2) NH4+ (3) PCl3 (4) SCl2
46. In which of the following central atom is unhybridized?
(1) H2S (2) SO2 (3) SiH4 (4) PCl3
47. The order of bond angle in NH3, PH3 and AsH3 is:
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (2) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3
(3) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) PH3 = NH3 < AsH3
48. A molecule is formed by sp3d2 hybridisation. Bond angle in it is:
(1) 90º (2) 109º28’ (3) 90º and 120º (4) 120º
49. In which of the following species the angle around the central atom is exactly
equal to 109°28’:
(1) SF4 (2) NH3 (3) NH4+ (4) None
50. Which of the following set contains species having same angle around the central
atom:
(1) SF4, CH4, NH3 (2) NF3, BCl3, NH3
(3) BF3, NF3, AlCl3 (4) BF3 BCl3, BBr3
51. The order of increasing bond angle in the molecules BeCl2, BCl3, CCl4 and SF6 is:
(1) SF6 < CCl4 < BCl3 < BeCl2 (2) BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 < SF6
(3) SF6 < CCl4 < BeCl2 < BCl3 (4) BCl3 < BeCl2 < SF6 < CCl4
52.Which is not correct:
(1) Bond angle H–S–H < H–OH (2) Bond angle F–O–F < Cl–O–Cl
(3) Bond angle H–P–H < H–N–H (4) Bond angle Cl–Sn–Cl > Cl–Hg–Cl
53.When NH3 is treated with HCl, H–N–H bond angle
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) Depends upon temperature
54.The correct order of the bond angles is: -
(1) NH3 > H2O > PH3 > H2S (2) NH3 > PH3 > H2O > H2S
(3) NH3 > H2S > PH3 > H2O (4) PH3 > H2S > NH3 > H2O
55. The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follows the order: -
(1) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3 (2) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
(3) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3 (4) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3
56. Among the following orbital bonds, the angle is minimum between: -
(1) sp3 bonds (2) px and py orbitals
(3) H–O–H in water (4) sp bonds
57. The correct order of increasing X – O – X bond angle is (X = H, F or Cl)
(1) H2O > Cl2O > F2O (2) Cl2O > H2O > F2O
(3) F2O > Cl2O > H2O (4) F2O > H2O > Cl2O
58. Compare S – O bond angle for the following molecules:
(1) y > x (2) x > y (3) x = y (4) cannot be predicted

59.Which of the following angle is correct with respect to bond angle -
(1) The Fe–S–Fe angle in SF4 is more than 120°
(2) The F–Kr–F angle in KrF4 is 90°.
(3) In CH2 – SF4 molecule H–C–H bond angle less than as compared to Fe–S–
Fe bond angle
(4) The Cl – N – O angle in NOCl is more than 120°.
60. Which of the following has maximum bond energy?
(1) H – O – H (2) H – S – H (3) H – Te – H (4) H – Se – H
61. Which of the following hypothesis justifies that the bond angle of H2S is 92°?
(1) Lewis’s structure (2) Valence bond theory
(3) Valance bond concept of hybrid orbitals (4) Octet rule
62. If s character decreases in hybrid orbital, then bond angle
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains uncertain (4) all are wrong
63. Incorrect information about Cl2O is
(1) angular structure (2) 110° bond angle
(3) four lone pairs (4) two σ bonds
64. Select the correct order of bond angle of the following species.
(1) BrO3¯ > IO3¯ > ClO3¯ (2) ClO3¯ > BrO3¯ > IO3¯
(3) IO3¯ > BrO3¯> ClO3¯ (4) IO3¯ < BrO3¯ > ClO3¯
65. If hybridisation is absent in NH3 and pure orbitals involved in bonding then select
the incorrect statement.
(1) All bonds have equal strength (2) Shape of NH3 will be pyramidal
(3) All ∠HNH angles are 90° (4) All ∠HNH angles are 107°
66. Which of the following has 90° bond angle in its structure?
(1) IF7 (2) SF6 (3) PCl5 (4) All
67. The correct order of OPX bond angle is (X = F, Cl, Br):
(1) POF3 > POCl3 > POBr3 (2) POF3 < POCl3 < POBr3
(3) POF3 = POCl3 = POBr3 (4) POCl3 > POF3 > POBr3
68. Which of the following has maximum bond angle?
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) PCl3 (4) OF2
69. Which of the following has minimum bond angle about oxygen?
(1) OF2 (2) OCl2 (3) (CH3)2O (4) H2O
70. The correct order of bond angle is
(1) PF3 < PCl3 < PI3 < PBr3 (2) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3
(3) PF3 > PCl3 > PBr3 > PI3 (4) PCl3 > PF3 > PBr3 > PI3
71. Which of the following has all equal bond angles?
(1) CH3Cl (2) CH2F2 (3) NH3 (4) NH2–OH
72. In which of the following O–N–O bond angle is highest?
(1) NO2+ (2) NO3– (3) NO2– (4) None
73. Which of the following tri-atomic planar species have bond angle greater than
104° and less than bond angle in perfectly tetrahedral species?
(1) OCl2 (2) NH3 (3) OF2 (4) OH2
74. ∠ HBH is BH4¯ is almost
(1) 180° (2) 120° (3) 109° (4) 90°
75. Arrange the following species according to their bond angle order.
(I) O3 (II) NO2– (III) FNO
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I
76. Which of following statements is/are correct regarding IF5 molecule.
(I) There is only one lone pair present in equatorial position.
(II) All ∠ FIF angles are identical.
(III) There are eight faces in this molecule.
(IV) The number ∠ FIF angles less than 90° is 8.
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV (3) III and IV (4) III only
77. Select the correct order with respect to bond angle.
(A) NH3 < NF3 < NCl3 (B) OH2 < OF2 < OCl2
(C) BH3 < BF3 < BCl3 (D) SH2 < SF2 < SCl2
78. The number of 90° angle in SF6 are:
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
79. Select the property which do(es) not follow the following order for NX3 (X =
halogen).
NF3 < NCl3 < NBr3 < NI3
(1) XNX bond angle (2) NX bond length
(3) N–X bond polarity (4) All of these
80. Which has the least bond angle
(1) NH3 (2) BeF2 (3) H2O (4) CH4
81. Which has maximum bond angle
(1) CHF3 (2) CHCl3
(3) CHBr3 (4) All have maximum bond angle
82. Consider the compound given below:
The correct order of bond angles indicated would be :

(1) a < g g > b (3) a b > g
83. The bond angle between H-O-H in ice is closest to
(1) 120028’ (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 1050
84. Which compound has bond angle nearly to 900
(1) H2O (2) H2S (3) NH3 (4) CH4
0
85. The bond angle of water is 1045 due to
(1) Repulsion between lone pair and bond pair (2) SP3 hybridization of O
(3) Bonding of H2O (4) Higher electronegativity of O
86. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angle of the following hybrids are
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
87. True order of bond angle is
(1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te (2) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(3) H2S > H2O > H2Se > H2Te (4) H2O > H2S > H2Te > H2Se
88. The largest bond angle is in
(1) AsH3 (2) NH3 (3) H2O (4) PH3
89. The bond angle in ammonia molecule is
(1) 9108’ (2) 9303’ (3) 106045’ (4) 109028’
90. The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons are
observed in
(1) dsp2 hybridization (2) sp3d hybridization
(3) dsp3 hybridization (4) sp3d2 hybridization
91. Among the following molecules which one have smallest bond angle
(1) NH3 (2) PH3 (3) H2O (4) H2S
92. In the hypothetical molecule AX2Ln (where : 'A' central atom, 'X' is surrounding
atom, 'L' is lone pair, 'n' is the number of lone pair) for which possible value of 'n' the
bond angle of the molecule will be maximum?
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
93. Which of the following triatomic species containing two lone pair on central atom
has lowest bond angle?
(1) H2O (2) OCl2 (3) H2S (4) OF2
(1) I3+ > IBr2+ > ICl2+ (2) I3+ < IBr2+ < ICl2+
(3) I3+ > ICl2+ > IBr2+ (4) IBr2+ > I3+ > ICl2+
95. The correct order of bond angles in AsF3 (I); AsCl3 (II); AsBr3(III) and PI3(IV)
is :
(1) I < II < IV < III (2) III < II < I < IV
(3) I < II < III < IV (4) II < I < III < IV
96. The molecule / ion in which bond angle is less than 109°.
(1) NH58 (2) CCl4 (3) ClO4¯ (4) None of these
97. The correct order of bond angle in the given molecules is
(1) PH3 < NH3 < H2O < NH4+ (2) PH3 < H2O < NH3 < NH4+
(3) NH3 < PH3 < H2O < NH4+ (4) NH4+ < NH3 < H2O < PH3
98. In CH3 – Cº º CH molecule, the Ð HCH angle is approximately
(A) Less than 109°28'. (B) Greater than 109°28'
(C) Equal to 109°28' (D) Can not be predicted.
(A) H2O > OF2 > SF2 > H2S (B) H2O > SF2 > OF2 > H2S
(C) H2O > OF2 > H2S > SF2 (D) H2O > H2S > OF2 > SF2
100. Select from each set the molecule or ion having the smallest bond angle.
(i) NH3, PH3 or AsH3 (ii) O8
2 , O3
3
(iii) NO0 or O3 (iv) X–S–X angle in SOCl2 & SOF2
8
(A) NH3 , O2 , O3 , SOCl2 (B) PH3, O8 3
2 , NO0 , SOF2
(C) AsH3, O3 , NO3 0 , SOF2 (D) AsH3 , O8 2 , O3 , SOF2
101. Correct order of bond angle in CH2F2
(A) HCH ˆ > HCF ˆ > FCF ˆ (B) FCFˆ > HCF ˆ > HCHˆ
(C) HCH ˆ > FCFˆ > HCF ˆ (D) HCF ˆ > FCF ˆ > HCH
ˆ
102. Which is the correct order between below three bond angles
(A) q1 < q2 < q3 (B) q1 < q3 < q2

(C) q3 < q1 < q2 (D) q1 = q2 = q3
103. Which of the angle is most influenced by the presence of lone pair in SF4.
(A) Equatorial angle (B) axial angle
(C) Angle between axial and equatorial (D) None
104. In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its
number) there exists a bond between element A and X. The Ð X A X bond angle.
(A) Always decreases if n increases (B) Always increases if n increases
(C) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0 (D) Generally decreases if n decreases
105. In the given molecule choose the correct order of their angle.
(A) x > y > z (B) x < y < z

(C) x = y > z (D) Can't be predicted.
106. For which of the hybridisation the given statement is true for maximum number
of angles and the statement is "hybrid orbitals are at the angle of x° to one another".
(A) sp3d2 (B) sp3 (C) sp2 (D) sp3d
107. In (a) SOCl2 & (b) SOF2 halogen–S–halogen bond angle in example (a) & (b)
are
(A) a > b (B) b > a (C) a = b (D) None
108. Consider the following species.
The correct order of bond angles would be

(A) a2 < a4 < a1 < a3 (B) a1 < a2 < a4 < a3
(C) a2 < a1 < a4 < a3 (D) a3 < a4 < a1 < a2
109. The correct order of bond angle in O3, and would be
(A) O3
2 < O2 < O2
8
(B) O3 8
2 < O2 < O2
(C) O82 < O2 < O2
3
(D) O2 < O8 2 < O2
3
110. Consider the structure given below.
The correct order of bond angle is

(A) x > y > z (B) y > x > z (C) x = y > z (D) y > x = z
111. The species having all equal bond angles of 109°28' is/are:
(A) SO42– (B) ClO4– (C) XeO4 (D) All of these
112. If a, b and g are the bond angles (FAF where A is the central atom) in CF4 ,
POF3 and SO2F2 respectively, the correct order is :
(A) a > b > g (B) a g > b
113. Consider the molecule given below.
The correct order of bond angles is

(A) a > b > g (B) b > a > g (C) a g
114. The correct order of bond angle is :
(A) OF2 < OBr2 < OCl2 < OI2 (B) OBr2 < OF2 < OCl2 < OI2
(C) OF2 < OCl2 < OBr2 < OI2 (D) OF2 < OCl2 < OBr2 = OI2
115. The correct order of HAH bond angle (where 'A' is the central atom) is :
(A) NH2– < H2O < H2F+ (B) H2O < NH2– < H2F+
(C) NH2– < H2F+ < H2O (D) H2F+ < H2O < NH2–
116. The correct order of ONOˆ bond angle in :
(i) NO2+ (ii) NO3– (iii) NO2–
(A) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (B) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(C) (i) = (ii) = (iii) (D) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
117. Which of the following is correct for bond angle?
(A) NH3 > PH3 (B) PH3 < H2O
(C) NH3 > H2O > PH3 (D) All the above
118. How many total number of 109°28' bond angle are present in CCl4 molecule -
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) (4) (4) (2) (2) (1) (2) (2) (1) (1)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(1) (1) (3) (3) (2) (4) (2) (1) (2) (4)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(1) (1) (2) (2) (1) (4) (3) (2) (3) (1)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(1) (1) (2) (4) (2) (1) (3) (1) (2) (4)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(1) (2) (4) (2) (2) (1) (1) (1) (3) (4)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(1) (4) (1) (1) (3) (2) (2) (2) (2) (1)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(2) (2) (3) (2) (4) (4) (1) (2) (1) (2)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(3) (1) (4) (3) (1) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(3) (1) (4) (2) (1) (1) (1) (2) (3) (4)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(4) (1) (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (2) (1) (3)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(1) (3) (1) (3) (1) (1) (1) (1) (1) (2)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(4) (1) (1) (3) (1) (1) (4) (3) (3) (4)
121
(1)
Solid State Hybridization
1. What is the hybridisation of Xe in cationic part of solid XeF6.
(1) sp3d3 (2) sp3d (3) sp3d2 (4) sp3
2. What will be the hybridisation of anionic part of solid PCl5?
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d2 (3) sp3d (4) sp2
3. Which of the compounds doesn't have polyatomic anion in the solid state?
(1) I Cl (2) I (CN) (3) PCl5 (4) PBr5
4. Which of the following compounds in solid state has both cation and anion with
same hybridisation of central atom?
(1) PCl5 (2) N2O5 (3) (NH4)2SO4 (4) NH4NO3
5. Polyatomic anion in solid state is present in:
(1) PBr5 (2) PCl5 (3) PI5 (4) XeF6
6. What is the state of hybridisation of anionic part of solid N2O5
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) Not applicable
7. What is the state of hybridisation for the anionic part of solid Cl2O6.
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4)sp3d
8. The hybridisation of the central atom of anionic and cationic part of solid N2O5
are _____ and ____ respectively.
(1) sp and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3 (3) sp2 and sp2 (4) sp2 and sp
9. In which of the following molecule, the number of possible ∠XAX angles
is maximum in the anionic part of their solid state.
(1) PBr5 (2) N2O5 (3) PCl5 (4) Cl2O6
10. All possible bond angles in anionic part of PCl5 are.
(1) 109° 28′ only (2) 90°, 180° (3) 90°, 120° , 180° (4) 72°, 90°, 180°
11. Difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state.
(1) 60° (2) 109°28′ (3) 0° (4) 90°
12. Which of the following compounds in the solid state has linear shape of anion?
(1) PCl5 (2) PBr5 (3) ICN (4) N2O5
13. Which of the following has tetrahedral in shape?
(1) PCl5 (solid) (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) IF3
14. Identify the correct match.
(i) XeF2 (1) Central atom has sp3 hybridisation and bent geometry.
(ii) N3– (2) Central atom has sp3d2 hybridisation and octahedral.
(iii) PCl5(s) anion) (3) Central atom has sp hybridisation and linear geometry.
(iv) (I2Cl6 () cation) (4) Central atom has sp3d hybridisation and linear geometry.
(1) (i – a), (ii – b), (iii – c), (iv – d) (2) (i – d), (ii – b), (iii – d), (iv – c)
(3) (i – b), (ii – c), (iii – a), (iv – d) (4) (i – d), (ii – c), (iii – b), (iv – a)
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(3) (2) (4) (3) (2) (2) (2) (4) (3) (2)
11 12 13 14
(3) (3) (1) (4)
INTRODUCTION
1. The intermolecular potential energy for the molecules A, B, C and D given
below suggests that:
(1) D is more electronegative than other atoms (2) A-D has the shortest bond length
(3) A-B has the stiffest bond (4) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy
2.. Number of elements from the following that CANNOT form compounds with
valencies which match with their respective group valencies is ______.
B, C, N, S, O, F, P, Al, Si
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
3. The covalency and oxidation state respectively of boron in [BF! ]" , are
(a) 4 and 3 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 4
4. Among NH3, BCl3, Cl2 and N2, the compound that does not satisfy the octet rule is
(A) NH3 (B) BCl3 (C) Cl2 (D) N2
5. The number of molecules or ions from the following, which do not have odd
number of electrons are ______.
(A) NO2 (B) ICl4- (C) BrF3 (D) ClO2 (E) NO2+ (F) NO
6. Lewis dot structures of compounds of representative elements normally follow the
octet rule. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule ?
(A) CO32– (B) O3 (C) SO2 (D) 3–
7. Assuming a Lewis structure for SO2 in which all the atoms obey the octet rule, the
formal charge on S is:
(A) +1 (B) 0 (C) +2 (D) 2
8. In which of the following species the octet rule is NOT obeyed?
I. I3– II. N2O III. OF2 IV. NO+
(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) I only (D) IV only
9. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an
expanded octet molecule?
(A) BCl# and SF$ (B) NO and H% SO!
(C) SF$ and H% SO! (D) BCl# and NO
10. Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons
around central atom in its outer most shell, is
NH3, AlCl3, BeCl2, CCl4, PCl5 :
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3
11. Number of molecules from the following which are exceptions to octet rule is
CO% , NO% , H% SO! , BF# , CH! , SiF! , ClO% , PCl& , BeF% , C% H$ , CHCl# , CBr!
12. In the lewis dot structure for NO–% , total number of valence electrons around
nitrogen is _______
13. The formal changes on the atoms underlined are
C6H5 – CºN–O
(A) C = 0, N = –1, O = +1 (B) C = –1, N = +1, O = –1
(C) C = 0, N = +1, O = –1 (D) C = +1, N = 0, O = –1
14.. Which one of the following is not a valid structure for dinitrogen oxide ?
.. ..
..N N O
..
(I) (II)
(IV)
(III) (IV)
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
15. In the Lewis structure of ozone, the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is
(A) +1 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) –2
16. The most stable Lewis structure of N2O is
•• • •• • ••
• •• •• ••• • • •
• N–NºO •
•
• O–NºN •
(A) • O=N=N• (B) • N=O=N•(C) •• (D) ••
17. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy
for SO3 ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. The most likely representation of resonance structure of p–nitrophenoxide is:
(A). (B) (C) (D)
19. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no covalent bond(s)?

KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
(1) KCl (2) KCl, B2H6 (3) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (4) KCl, H2SO4
20. Resonance in carbonate ion (CO32-) is
O O O
C C C
O O O O O O
Which of the following is true?

(1) Each structure exists for equal amount of time.
(2) All these structures are in dynamic equilibrium with each other.
(3) CO%" # has a single structure i.e., resonance hybrid of the above three structures.
(4) It is possible to identify each structure individually by some physical or chemical
method
21. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground
state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this
compound is :
(A) Mg2X3 (B) Mg3X2 (C) Mg2X (D) MgX2
22. Choose the incorrect formula out of the four compounds for an element X below:
(1) X2(SO4)3 (2) X2O3 (3) X2Cl3 (4) XPO4
23. Which of the alkaline earth metal halides given below is essentially covalent in
nature?
(1) CaCl2 (2) BeCl2 (3) SrCl2 (4) MgCl2
24. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the
following sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the
cationic species, K+, Ca+2, Mg+2, Be+2
(1) Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 (2) K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Be+2
(3) Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+ (4) Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2
25. The most polarizable ion among the following is
(A) F- (B) I- (C) Na+ (D) Cl-
26. The covalent Characters of CaCl2,BaCl2, SrCl2, MgCl2 follow the order:
(A)CaCl2 < BaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2 (B)BaCl2 < SrCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2
(C)CaCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < SrCl2 (D) SrCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
27. Identify the molecule that has more covalent bond character.
(A) Na2S (B) MgCI2 (C) NaH (D) SnCI4
28. The compound that has highest ionic character associated with the X-Cl bond is
(A) PCl5 (B) BCl3 (C) CCl4 (D) SiCl4
29. The molecule that has maximum covalent character :
(A) NaH (B) Na2S (C) CaCl2 (D) SnCl4
30. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest and the
least ionic character, respectively are:
(1) MgCl2 and BeCl2 (2) LiCl and RbCl (3) RbCl and MgCl2 (4) RbCl and BeCl2
31. Arrange the following in increasing order of their covalent character.
A. CaF% B. CaCl% C. CaBr% D. Cal%
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) B < A < C < D (B) A < B < C < D
(C) A < B < D < C (D) A < C < B < D
32. Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Lithium halides are somewhat covalent in nature.
Reason R: Lithium possess high polarisation capability.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
33. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order
(A) MCI > MI > MBr > MF (B) MF > MCI > MBr > MI
(C) MF > MCI > MI > MBr (D) MI > MBr > MCI > MF
34.Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:
(a) LiCl (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) CsCl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (a) > (c) > (b) > (d) (B) (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
(C) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) (D) (a) > (b) > (d) > (c)
35. The covalent Characters of CaCl2,BaCl2, SrCl2, MgCl2 follow the order:
(A) CaCl2 < BaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2 (B) BaCl2 < SrCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2
(C) CaCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < SrCl2 (D) SrCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
36. Order of Covalent bond ;
(A) KF > KI ; LiF > KF (B) KF < KI ; LiF > KF
(C) SnCl4 > SnCl2 ; CuCl > NaCl (D) KF < KI ; CuCl > NaCl
Choose the correct answer form the options given below :
(1) B, C only (2) C, E only (3) B, C, E only (4) A, B only
STRUCTURE DRAWING (SINGLE CENTRAL ATOM)
1. Which of the following molecular structures is NOT possible ?
(A) OF2 (B) SF2 (C) OF4 (D) SF4
2. PCl5 is well known. but NCl5 is not. Because.
(A) nitrogen is less reactive than phosphorous.
(B) nitrogen doesn't have d-orbitals in its valence shell.
(C) catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen than phosphorous.
(D) size of phosphorous is larger than nitrogen.
3. The species that cannot exist is
(A) SiF62– (B) BF63– (C) SF6 (D) AlF63–
4. Two elements, X and Y, have atomic numbers 33 and 17, respectively. The
molecular formula of a stable compound formed between them is
(A) XY (B) XY2 (C) XY3 (D) XY4
5. The numbers of lone pairs of electrons in XeF2 and XeF4 respectively, are -
6. The numbers of lone pair(s) on Xe in XeF2 and XeF4 are, respectively,
7. Which of the following species has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(A) CIF3 (B) I3– (C) I3+ (D) SF4
8. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around
the central atom ?
(A) H2O (B) BF3 (C) NH2– (D) PCl3
9. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is
(A) one (B) Three (C) four (D) two
10. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3¯ ion is:
(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 3 (4) 6
11. In XeO3F2, the number of bond pair(s), p-bond(s) and lone pair(s) on Xe atom
respectively are:
(1) 5, 2, 0 (2) 4, 2, 2 (3) 4, 4, 0 (4) 5, 3, 0
12. The type of hybridisation and number of lone pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF4
respectively, are:
(1) sp3d and 1 (2) sp3d2 and 1 (3) sp3d2 and 2 (4) sp3d and 2
13. The number of species below that have two lone pairs of electrons in their
central atom is (Round off to the Nearest integer)
SF4, BF4 –, CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6
14. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central I atom in I3- I is
15. Amongst SF4, XeF4, CF4 and H2O, the number of species with two lone pairs of
electrons _____
16. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons present on the central atoms of
XeO# , XeOF! and XeF$ , is _______.
13. Match List–I with List–II:
List–I List–II
(Species) (Number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom)
(a) XeF2 (i) 0
(b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1
(c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2
(d) XeF4 (iv) 3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
18. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl% , O# , CIF# and SF$ ,
respectively are:
(A) 0,1,2 and 2 (B) 2,1,2 and 0
(C) 1,2, 2 and 0 (D) 2,1,0 and 2
19. The total number of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen atoms of ozone is _______.
Q.11 Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
(molecules/ion) (No. of lone pairs of e- on central
atom)
A. IF7 I. Three
B. ICI4- II. One
C. XeF6 III. Two
D. XeF2 IV. Zero
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(2) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
20. Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst
following is
O# , H% O, SF! , ClF# , NH# , BrF& , XeF!
21. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central
atom?
(A) ClO3– (B) XeF4 (C) SF4 (D) I3–
22. The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the
following species is
[TeBr6]2–, [BrF2] +, SNF3, and [XeF3]–
(Atomic numbers: N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52, Xe = 54)
23. Bond dissociation energy of “E-H” bond of the “H2E” hydrides of group 16
elements (given below), follows order.
(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) Te
(1) A > B > C > D (2) D > C > B > A
(3) A > B > D > C (4) B > A > C > D
24. Which of the following species contains equal number of s-and p-bonds ?
(A) XeO4 (B) (CN)2 (C) CH2(CN)2 (D) HCO3–
25. The element that shows greater ability to form pp – pp multiple bonds, is:
(1) Sn (2) Si (3) Ge (4) C
26. Which one of the following molecules contains no p bond ?
(A) H2O (B) SO2 (C) NO2 (D) CO2
27. The compound that does not have a p bond is :
(A) SO2 (B) SF6 (C) O2 (D) SO3
28. Considering z-axis to be the internuclear axis, the combination of orbitals on Li
and CI atoms respectively, that can lead to a stable sigma bond
(A) 2s and 3py (B) 1s and 3py
(C) 1s and 3pz (D) 2s and 3pz.
29. Overlapping of the atomic orbitals results in the formation of a covalent bond of
the type
(A) sigma (s) (B) pi (p) (C) sigma or pi (D) sigma and pi.
30. The order of pp-dp interaction in the compounds containing bond between
Si/P/S/Cl and oxygen is in the order
(A) P > Si > Cl > S (B) Si P > S > Cl
HYRIDIZATION
1. The hybrid orbital of the central atom in AIF4– is :
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp3d
2. The hybrid orbitals used by chlorine in CIF3 molecule are of the type
(A) sp3 (B) sp2 (C) sp2d (D) sp3d.
3. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals is
(A) PH3 (B) NH3 (C) CH3+ (D) SbH3
4. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3, NO2 , NH2- and H2O, the central
-
atom is sp2 hybridised ?

(A) NO2- and NH2- (B) NH2- and H2O (C) NO2- and H2O (D) BF3and NO2-
5. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3-, and H3O+ are described below.
Which one of them is correct ?
(A) Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures
(B) Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom
(C) Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom
(D) Similar in hybridisation for the central atom with different structures
6. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having
sp3-hybridisation?
(1) CH3–COOH (2) CH3CH2OH (3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH2=CH–CH3
7. A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which atomic orbital?
(1) s, px, py, dyz (2) s, px, py, dxy
(3) s, px, py, 𝑑(! ")! (4) s, px py, 𝑑* !
8. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridization of the carbon atoms is (are):
(1) sp2 and sp3 (2) only sp2 (3)sp2 and sp (4) sp and sp3
9. The number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene is
(1) 24 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 18
10. The hybridisations of the atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2- , NO2+ and NH4+
respectively are.
(1) sp3, sp2 and sp (2) sp, sp2 and sp3
(3) sp3, sp and sp2 (4) sp2, sp and sp3
11. Consider, PF& , BrF& , PCl# , SF$ , [ICl! ]" , ClF# and IF& . Amongst the above
molecule(s) / ion(s), the number of molecule(s) / ion(s) having sp# d% hybridisation is
________
12. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)
(A) sp and sp3 (B) sp and sp2 (C) only sp2 (D) sp2 and sp3
13. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(Species) (Hybrid Orbitals)
(a) SF4 (i) sp3d2
(b) IF5 (ii) d2sp3
(c) NO2 (iii) sp3d
(d) NH4+ (iv) sp3
(v) sp
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-( i), (b)-( ii), (c)-(v) and (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-( i), (c)-( v) and (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(v)
14. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2
hybridization?
(A) NO2– and NH3 (B) BF3 and NO2–
(C) NH2– and H2O (D) BF3 and NH2–
15. In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not have sp3
hybridization?
– +
(A) CH4 (B) SF4 (C) BF4 (D) NH4
16. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is
explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO2–, NO3–, NH2–, NH4+, SCN–
(A) NO2– and NO3– (B) NH4+ and NO3–
(C) SCN– and NH2– (D) NO2– and NH2–
17. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+ , NO2- and NH4+
respectively are
(A) sp2, sp and sp3 (B) sp, sp3 and sp2
(C) sp2, sp3 and sp (D) sp, sp2 and sp3
18. sp3d2 hybridization is not displayed by:
(1) BrF5 (2) SF6 (3) [CrF6]3– (4) PF5
19. In molecule, the hybridization of carbon 1,2,3 and 4

respectively are
(1) sp3, sp, sp3, sp3 (2) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3
(3) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3
20. The hybridization of P exhibited in PF5 is spxdy. The value of y is .
+ - +
21. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in, NO2 ,NO2 and NH4 are
(A) sp2, sp3 and sp2 respectively (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
22. In which of the following ion/molecule, the 'S' atom does not assume sp3
hybridization ?
(A) SO42– (B) SF4 (C) SF2 (D) S8
23. The hybridization of of sulphur in SO3, SO42– and SF4 are respectively:
(A) sp, sp3, sp2 (B) sp, sp2, sp3d (C) sp2, sp, sp3 (D) sp2, sp3, sp3d
24. Among the following transformations, the hybridization of the central atom
remains unchanged in
(A) CO2→ HCOOH (B) BF3→ BF4̶
(C) NH3→NH4+ (D) PCl3→PCl5
25. The hybridization of xenon atom in XeF4 is
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) sp3d2 (D) d2sp3
26. The hybridization of N,C,O shown in the following compound respectively, are
(A) sp2, sp, sp2 (B) sp2, sp2, sp2 (C) sp2, sp, sp (D) sp, sp, sp2
27. In solid state, PCl5 exists as [PCl4] +[PCl6] –.
The hybridization of P atoms in this solid is/are
(A) sp3d (d= dX2 ̶ Y2) (B) sp3d (d= dZ2)
(C) sp3 and sp3d2 (d= dX2 ̶ Y2 + dZ2) (D) sp3d and dsp3 (d= dZ2)
28. The number of species from the following in which the central atom uses sp#
hybrid orbitals in its bonding is ___NH# , SO% , SiO% , BeCl% , CO% , H% O, CH! , BF#
29. SF6 molecule has ..........geometry.
(A) pyramidal (B) bi-pyramidal (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral
30. Number of molecules/ions from the following in which the central atom is
involved in sp# hybridization is _______.NO" "
# , BCl# , ClO% , ClO#
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
31. Total number of species from the following with central atom utilising sp2 hybrid
orbitals for bonding is…………...
NH# , SO% , SiO% , BeCl% , C% H% , C% H! , BCl# , HCHO, C$ H$ , BF# , C% H! Cl%
32. In which one of the following pairs the central atoms exhibit sp% hybridization?
(1) BF# and NO" % (2) NH%" and H% O
(3) H% O and NO% (4) NH%" and BF#
VSEPRT
1. Predict the correct order among the following :
(A) Ione pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
(B) lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
(C) lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
(D) bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
2. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair-lone pair’ electron
repulsions?
1) CIF3 2) IF5 3) SF4 4) XeF2
3. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90-degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is
4. A molecule with a trigonal pyramidal structure is -
(A) H3O+ (B) NH4+ (C) BF3 (D) CO32–
5. Consider the species CH4, NH4+ and BH4– . Choose the correct option with
respect to the there species:
(A) They are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
(B) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(C) Only two are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures
(D) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures
6. Amongst the following, the linear species is:
(1) NO2 (2) Cl2O (3) O3 (4)N3 –
7. Which of the following are isostructural pairs?
A. SO42- and CrO42- B. SiCl4 and TiCl4
-
C. NH3 and NO3 D. BCl3 and BrCl3
(1) C and D only (2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) B and C only
8. The structure of IF7 is
(1) square pyramid (2) trigonal bipyramid (3) octahedral (4) pentagonal bipyramid
9. Trigonal bipyramid geometry is shown by:
(1) [XeF8]2– (2) XeOF2 (3) XeO3F2 (4) FXeOSO2F
10. In which of the following sets, all the given species are isostructural?
(1) BF3, NF3, PF3, AlF3 (2) BF4¯, CCl4, NH4+, PCl4+
(3) CO2, NO2, ClO2, SiO2 (4) PCl3, AlCl3, BCl3, SbCl3
11. In which of the followng pairs the two species are not isostructural?
(1) PF5 and BrF5 (2) AlF63– and SF6 (3) CO32– and NO3– (4) PCl4+ and SiCl4
12. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural ?
(A) ClO3- , SO32- (B) NO3-, CO32- (C) CIO3- , CO32- (D) SO3-2, CO32-
13. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?
(A) I3–has bent geometry. (B) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist.
(C) pp-dp bonds are present in SO2 (D) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape.
15. XeF2 is isostructural with :
(A) ICl2– (B) SbCl3 (C) BaCl2 (D) TeF2
16. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?
(A) CIO3- , CO32- (B) SO32-, NO3- (C) SO3-2, CO32- (D) ClO3- , SO32-
17. In which of the following pairs, the two species are isostructural ?
(A) SF4 and XeF4 (B) SO32– and NO3– (C) BF3 and NF3 (D) BrO3– and XeO3
18. Which among the following is nonlinear ?
(A) N3– (B) ClF2– (C) Br3– (D) BrCl2+
19. The non-linear molecule is
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) HCN (D) C2H2.
20. In the ammonium ion,
(A) the four hydrogens are at the corners of a square
(B) all bonds are ionic
(C) the nitrogen atom carries a formal charge
(D) all bonds are co-ordinate ones.
21.Isosteres are compounds having similar geometry and isoelectronic species are
species having the same number of electrons. The pair of species CO2 and NO2+ is
(A) isosteric and isoelectronic (B) isosteric, but not isoelectronic
(C) isoelectronic, but not isosteric (D) neither isosteric nor isoelectronic.
22. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
molecule hybridization;shape
A.XeO# I. sp# d; linear
B.XeF% II. sp# ; pyramidal
C. XeOF! III. sp# d% ; distorted octahedral
D. XeF$ IV. sp# d% ; square pyramidal
(A) A- II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (B) A- II, B- IV, C-III, D-I
(C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
23. Among the triatomic molecules / ions, BeCl2, N3–, N2O, NO2+, O3, SCl2, ICl2–,
24. The pair that is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization) is
(A) NF3 and BF3 (B) BF4– and NH4+ (C) BCl3 and BrCl3 (D) NH3 and NO3–
25. For SF4, the molecular geometry and hybridization of the central atom respectively
are:
(A) Square planar, dsp2 (B) Tetrahedral, sp3
(C) Seesaw, sp3d (D) Square pyramid, sp3d
I3– and XeF2 the total number of linear molecule(s) / ion(s) where the hybridization
of the central atom does not have contribution form the d-orbital(s) is:
[Atomic number: S = 16, Cl = 17, I = 53 and Xe = 54]
23.Match List I with List II
List I (Compound) List (Shape)
(A) BrF& (I) bent
(B) [CrF$ ]#" (II) Square pyramidal
(C) O# (III) Trigonal bipyramidal
(D) PCl& (IV) octahedral
(A) (A) −(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III),(D)-(IV) (B) (A) − (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)27.
Specify hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1: 1 complex of BF3 and NH3
(A) N: tetrahedral, sp3; B: tetrahedral, sp3 (B) N: pyramidal, sp3; B: pyramidal, sp3
(C) N: pyramidal, sp3; B: planar, sp2 (D) N: pyramidal, sp3; B: tetrahedral, sp3
28. The hybridization of the central atom and the shape of [IO2F5]2– ion respectively,
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
29. The structure of XeO3 is
(A) linear (B) planar (C) pyramidal (D) T-shaped
30. The species having pyramidal shape is
(A) SO3 (B) BrF3 (C) SiO32– (D) OSF2
31. Match List-I with List II
List List II
(A) XeF4 (I) See-saw
(B) SF4 (II) Square planar
+
(C) NH4 (III) Bent T-shaped
(D) BrF3 (IV) Tetrahedral
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
32. Given below are two statements.
Statement I ∶ SO% and H% O both posses V-shaped structure.
Statement II : The bond angle of SO% is less than that of H% O.
options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
33. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Species) (Geometry/Shape)
A. H# O+ I. Tetrahedral
B. Acetylide anion II. Linear
C. NH!+ III. Pyramidal

D. ClO"
% IV. Bent
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
34. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is:
(A) trigonal bipyramidal (B) square planar (C) tetrahedral (D) see-saw
35. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of
electrons around the central atom, respectively are:
(1) sp3 and 4 (2) sp3 and 6 (3) sp2 and 6 (4) sp2 and 8
36. The shape of SCl4 is best described as a
(A) square (B) tetrahedron (C) square pyramid (D) see-saw
37. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I (Molecule) List – II (Shape)
(A) BrF& (I) T-shape
(B) H% O (II) See saw
(C) ClF# (III) Bent
(D) SF! (IV) Square pyramidal
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
38. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is:
(1) XeF2, CO2 (2) BF3, PCl3 (3) PF5, IF5 (4) CF4, SF4
39. The shape of IF6– is:
(1) Pyramidal (2) Octahedral
(3) Trigonally distorted octahedron (4) Square antiprism
40. Which has trigonal bipyramidal shape?
(1) XeOF2 (2) XeO3F2 (3) XeO3 (4) XeOF4
41. Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are stated below. Which one of them is
not correctly stated? \
(1) ICl3: planar dimeric (2) IF7: pentagonal bipyramid
(3) BrF3 Planar T-shaped (4) BrF5: trigonal bipyramid
42. The shape of the molecule CIF3 is
(A) triangular (B) pyramidal (C) T-shape (D) linear
43. The shape of the molecule CIF3is :
(A) trigonal planar (B) T-shaped (C) pyramidal (D) Y-shaped
44. The correct structure of PCl3F2 is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

45. According to VSEPR theory the shape of SF4 molecule
(A) squashed tetrahedral (B) square pyramidal (C) tetrahedral (D) square planar.
46. According to VSEPR theory the shape of IF5 molecule will be
(A) tetrahedral (B) trigonal bipyramid (C) square pyramid (D) trigonal planar
47. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and
hybridization) ?
(A) [BCl3 & BrCl3] (B) [NH3 & NO3–] (C) [NF3 & BF3] (D) [BF4– & NH4+]
48. The geometry of XeOF4 by VSEPR theory is:
(1) square pyramidal (2) octahedral (3) pentagonal planar (4) trigonal bipyramidal
49. Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ?
(A) N3– (B) NO3– (C) NO2 (D) CO2
50. Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in
column II and mark the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(b) XeO3 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(d) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
51., The group of molecules having identical shape is: [
(1) SF4, XeF4, CCl4 (2) ClF3, XeOF2, XeF3+
(3) BF3, PCl3, XeO3 (4) PCl5, IF5, XeO2F2
52. Identify the pair in which the geometry of the species is a T-shape and square
pyramidal, respectively:
(1) IO3– and IO2F2– (2) ClF3 and IO4– (3) XeOF2 and XeOF4 (4) ICl2– and ICl5
53. Which of the following conversions involves change in both shape and
hybridisation?
(1) NH3 ® NH4+ (2) CH4 ® C2H6 (3) H2O ® H3O+ (4) BF3 ® BF4¯
54. The shape/structure of [XeF5]– and XeO3F2, respectively, are:
(1) pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
(2) trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar
(3) octahedral and square pyramidal
(4) trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
55. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single
bonds. The shape of this molecule is:
(1) see-saw (2) planar triangular (3) T-shaped (4) trigonal pyramidal
56. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape (geometry) of the molecules in List-I
with the molecules in List-II and select the most appropriate option
List-I List-II
(Shape) (Molecules)
(a) T-shaped (I) XeF4
(b) Trigonal planar (II) SF4
(c) Square planar (III) ClF3
(d) See-saw (IV) BF3
(A) (a) –( I), (b)–(II), (c)–(III), (d)–(IV) (B) (a)–(III), (b)–(IV), (c)–(I), (d)–(II)
(C) (a)–(III), (b)–(IV), (c)–(II), (d)–(I) (D) (a)–(IV), (b)–(III), (d)–(I), (d)–(II)
57. Number of lone pair(s) of electrons on central atom and the shape of BrF3
molecule respectively, are :
(A) 0, triangular planar. (B) 1, pyramidal. (C) 2, bent T-shape. (D) 1, bent T-shape
58. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of
(A) 1 sigma and 2 p bonds (B) 2 sigma and 1 p bonds
59. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?
(A) I3–has bent geometry. (B) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist.
(C) pp-dp bonds are present in SO2 (D) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape.
60. For OF2 molecule consider the following :
(A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.
(B) FOF angle is less than 104.5º.
(C) Oxidation state of O is -2.
(D) Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped.
(E) Molecular geometry is linear.
Correct options are :
(1) B , E, A only (2) A, B, D only (3) C, D, E only (4) A, C, D only
61. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are:
(1) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atom, respectively
(2) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
(3) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
(4) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
62. The correct shape and I–I–I bond angles respectively in I3- ion are: -
(1) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90° (2) T-shaped; 180° and 90°
(3) Trigonal planar; 120° (4) Linear; 180°
61. The number of species having non–pyramidal shape among the following is
(A) SO3 (B) NO3- (C) PCl3 (D) CO32-
62. AB3 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The number of lone pairs of electrons
on A is _______. (Integer answer)
63. The structures of AICI3 and PCI3 can be described as
(A) both planar (B) both pyramidal
(C) planar and pyramidal respectively (D) pyramidal and planar respectively.
64. The molecular geometry for ammonia is –
(A) saw horse (B) trigonal planar (C) tetrahedral (D) pyramidal
65. The structure of SF4 is
(A) Trigonal bipyramidal (B) Square planar
(C) Squashed Tetrahedral (D) Octahedral
66. The species which has triangular planar geometry is
(A) NF3 (B) NO3– (C) AlCl3 (D) SbH3
67. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are -

(A) square planar, sp3d2 (B) Octahedral, sp3d2
(C) trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d (D) planar triangle, sp3d3
List-I List-II
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
69. The group having triangular planar structures is:
(1) BF3, NF3, CO32– (2) CO32–, NO3¯, SO3
(3) NH3, SO3, CO32– (4) NCl3, BCl3, SO3
70. The incorrect geometry is represented by:
(1) BF3 - trigonal planar (2) H2O - bent
(3) NF3 - trigonal planar (4) AsF5 - trigonal bipyramidal
71. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. What is the geometry of SF4
(including lone pair(s) of electrons, if any)?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) Square planar (3) Tetrahedral (4) Pyramidal
72. The structure of PCl5 in the solid state is
(1) square pyramidal
(2) tetrahedral [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(3) square planar [PCl4]+ and octahedral [PCl6]–
(4) trigonal bipyramidal
73. The geometry & the type of hybrid orbitals present about the central atom in
BF3 is:
(A) linear, sp (B) trigonal planar, sp2
(C) tetrahedra sp3 (D) pyramidal, sp3
74. The number of interhalogens from the following having square pyramidal structure
is: ClF# , IF, , BrF& , BrF# , I% Cl$ , IF& , ClF, ClF&
75. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural?
SO3 , CO32- , NO3- ClO3-
(A) CO32- , NO3- (B) SO3 , NO3- (C) CO32-, ClO3- (D) SO3-, CO32-
List - I List - II
(A) ICI (I) T -Shape
(B) ICI3 (II) Square pyramidal
(C) CIF5 (III) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) IF7 (IV) Linear
(1) (A)–(I), (B)–(IV), C–(III), D–(II) (2) (A)–(I), (B)–(III), C–(II), D–(IV)
(3) (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), C–(II), D–(III) (4) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), C–(II), D–(I)
77. Match List I with List II :
List I (Molecule / Species) List II (Property / Shape)

A. SO% Cl% I. Paramagnetic
B. NO II. Diamagnetic
C. NO"
% III. Tetrahedral
D. I#" IV. Linear

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
List I (Hybridization) List II (Orientation in Space)

A. sp# I. Trigonal bipyramidal
B. dsp% II. Octahedral
C. sp# d III. Tetrahedral
D. sp# d% IV. Square planar

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
List I (Compound / Species) List II (Shape / Geometry)
A. SF! I. Tetrahedral
B. BrF# II. Pyramidal

C. BrO"
# III. See saw
D. NH!+ IV. Bent T-shape

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
80. Match List I and with List II
List-I (Molecule) List-II(Shape)
A NH# I. Square pyramid
B. BrF& II. Tetrahedral
C. PCl& III Trigonal pyramidal
D. CH! IV Trigonal bipyramidal
81. Choose the correct answer from the option below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
BOND PARAMETERS
1. The F-B-F bond angels in BrF5 and Cl-P-Cl bond angles in PCl5, respectively
(A) identical in BrF5 but non-identical in PCl5
(B) identical in BrF5 and identical in PCl5
(C) non-identical in BrF5 but identical in PCl5
(D) non-identical in BrF5 and non-identical in PCl5
2. Among CH4, CO2, H2O and SO2, the bond angle is the highest in
(A) CH4 (B) CO2 (C) H2O (D) SO2
3. The C–O bond length in CO, CO2 and CO32– follows the order :
(A) CO < CO2< CO32– (B) CO2< CO32–< CO
(C) CO > CO2> CO32– (D) CO32–< CO2< CO
4. The H–C–H, H–N–H, and H–O–H bond angles (in degrees) in methane, ammonia
and water are respectively, closest to
(A) 109.5, 104.5,107.1 (B) 109.5,107.1,104.5
(C) 104.5,107.1,104.5 (D) 107.1, 104.5,109.5
5. Among the following species, the H–X–H angle (X = B, N or P) follows the order
(A) PH3< NH3< NH4+< BF3 (B) NH3< PH3< NH4+< BF3
(C) BF3< PH3< NH4+< NH3 (D) BF3< NH4+< NH3< PH3
6. In ammonia H-N-H bond angle is
(A) 106.7oC (B) 104.5oC (C) 109.5oC (D) 120oC
7. The C–O–C bond angle in dimethyl ether is
(A) 109°28' (B) 110° (C) 120° (D) 180°
8. In ammonia the bond angle is 107º 48' while in SbH3 the bond angle is about 91º18'.
The correct explanation among the following is/are
(A) The orbitals of Sb used for the formation of Sb-H bond are almost pure p-orbitals.
(B) Sb has larger size compared to N.
(C) Sb has more metallic character than N.
(D) All the statements are correct.
9. In which of the following, all the bond lengths are not the same ?
I. IF4+ II. BF4- III. SF4 IV. TeCl4
(A) I, II, IV (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III
10. The F – X – F bond angle is the smallest in (X is the central atom)
(A) CF4 (B) NF3 (C) OF2 (D) XeF5 –
11. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32– and CO2 is :
(A) CO2 < CO32– < CO (B) CO < CO32– < CO2
(C) CO32– < CO2 < CO (D) CO < CO2 < CO32–
12. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is
(A) NO2– < NO2+ < NO2 (B) NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
(C) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2– (D) NO2+ < NO2– < NO2
13. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species are :
(A) Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2– (B) ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO2–
(C) Cl2O < ClO2– < ClO2 (D) ClO2– < Cl2O < ClO
14. The correct order of increasing bond length of C–H, C–O, C–C and C=C is :
(A) C–H < C=C < C–O < C–C (B) C–C < C=C < C–O < C–H
(C) C–O < C–H < C–C < C=C (D) C–H < C–O < C–C < C=C
15. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following ?
(A) NO2- (B) NO2+ (C) NO3- (D) NO2
16. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O.
Which of the given statement is false ?
(A) The bond angle is CH4 is larger than the bond angle is NH3
(B) The bond angle is CH4 the bond angle in NH3 and the bond angle in H2O are all
greater than 90º.
(C) Then bond angle in H2O is larger than the bond angle in CH4
(D) The bond angle in H2O is smaller than the bond angle in NH3
17. The correct increasing order for bond angles among BF# , PF# and CℓF# is
(1) PF# < BF# < CℓF # (2) BF# < PF# < CℓF #
(3) CℓF# < PF# < BF# (4) BF# = PF# < CℓF#
84. The incorrect statement regarding ethyne is
18. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is:
(1) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 (2) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
(3) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 (4) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4
19. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal?
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4- (3) SF4 (4) SiF4
20. The molecule having smallest bond angle is
(1) SbCl3 (2) PCl3 (3) NCl3 (4) AsCl3
21. The decreasing value of bond angles from NH3 (106)° to Sb H3 (101)° down
group-15 of the periodic table is due to:
(1) decreasing lp – bp repulsion (2) increasing electronegativity
(3) increasing bp – bp repulsion (4) increasing p–orbital character in sp3
22. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having:
(1) Four pp–dp bonds (2) One pp–dp bond
(3) Three pp–dp bonds (4) Two pp-dp bonds
23. For the compounds CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I and CH3F, the correct order of
increasing C-halogen bond length is:
(1) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I (2) CH3F < CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl
(3) CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3I (4) CH3F < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3I
24. The bond angle H-X-H is the greatest in the compound:
(1) CH4 (2) NH3 (3) H2O (4) PH3
( I) ( II )
25. H — N - - - -N-- - -N
----
In hydrogen azide (above) the bond orders of bonds (I) and (II) are
(I) (II)
(1) > 2 >2
(2) < 2 >2
(3) < 2 <2
(4) > 2 <2
26. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF3, NH3, PF3 and I3– is:
(1) BF3 > NH3 > PF3 > I3– (2) BF3 > I3– > PF3 > NH3
(3) I3– > BF3 > NH3 > PF3 (4) I3– > NH3 > PF3 > BF3
27. The compound that has the largest H-M-H bond angle (M=N, O, S, C), is:
(1) H2O (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) H2S
28. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in
descending order C – Cl, C – Br, C – F, C – I
(1) C – F > C – Cl > C – Br > C – I (2) C – Br > C – I > C – Cl > C – F
(3) C – I > C – Br > C – Cl > C – F (4) C – Cl > C – Br > C – I > C – F
29. The compound that has the largest H-M-H bond angle ( M=N,O,S,C), is:
30. Which among the following species has unequal bond lengths?
(1) BF4- (2) XeF4 (3) SF4 (4) SiF4
31. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens is:
(1) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (2) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
32. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The H–O–H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5⁰.
Reason R: The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the
bond pair –bond pair repulsion.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
33. Identify the species having one s-bond and maximum number of canonical forms
from the following:
(1) SO3 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO32-
34. In the structure of SF4, the lone pair of electrons on S is in.
(A) equatorial position and there are two lone pair- bond pair repulsions at 90°
(B) equatorial position and there are three lone pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(C) axial position and there are three lone pair–bond pair repulsion at 90°.
(D) axial position and there are two lone pair–bond pair repulsion at 90°.
35. O–O bond length in H2O2 is X than the O–O bond length in F2O2. The O – H bond
length in H2O2 is Y than that of the O–F bond in F2O2
Choose the correct option for X and Y from the given below.
(1) X – shorter, Y – shorter (2) X – shorter, Y – longer
(3) X – longer, Y – longer (4) X – longer, Y - shorter
36. The bond dissociation energy in highest for
(1) I2 (2) Cl2 (3) F2 (4) Br2
37. In compounds type ECl3, where E = B, P, As or Bi, the angles Cl - E - Cl for
different E are in the order
(A) B > P = As = Bi (B) B > P > As > Bi (C) B < P = As = Bi (D) B < P < As < Bi
38. The nodal plane in the p-bond of ethene is located in
(A) the molecular plane
(B) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(C) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects, the carbon-carbon s
bond at right angle.
(D) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains, the carbon-carbon
bond
39. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming P–P bonds in P4 is
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 50 (D) 75
40. Number of s and p bonds present in ethylene molecule is respectively :
(1) 3 and 1 (2) 5 and 2
(3) 4 and 1 (4) 5 and 1
(1) The C–C bonds in ethyne is shorter than that in ethene
(2) Both carbons are sp hybridised
(3) Ethyne is linear
(4) The carbon-carbon bonds in ethyne is weaker than that in ethene
41. The resonance structures of SCN ̅ are given below along with the S-C and C-N
bond lengths
Among the following, the incorrect statement/s is/ are

(a) The contribution from resonance structures (i) and (ii) is more important than that
from structure (iii)
(b) The formal charge on S in structure (iii) is zero
(c) The degree of contribution of these structures is in the order: i > ii > iii (d)
The formal charge on N in structure (ii) is zero
42. For the given compound, % s character of phosphorous hybrid orbitals which
contribute to various bonds are given in the table below.
This difference in % ‘s’ character of various phosphorous bonds could be due to

(a) The large size of bromine atom
(b) The large electronegativity difference between P and O
(c) Increased overlap of s-orbitals of terminal P-O bond
(d) Stronger covalent character of P-O in cyclic oxygen atoms
DIPOLE
1. Among the following, the most polar molecule is
(A) AlCl3 (B) CCl4 (C) SeCl6 (D) AsCl3
2. Which of the following molecule is non-polar ?
(A) CO (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) H2O
3. The number of non-polar molecules from the following is ______.
HF, H% O, SO% , H% , CO% , CH! , NH# , HCl, CHCl# , BF#
4. Which of the following molecule is non-polar ?
(A) CO (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) H2O
5. In which of the following pairs are both molecules polar ?
(A) O2 and H2O (B) BF3 and PCl3 (C) SO2 and SCl2 (D) CS2 and NO2
6. The pair which contains both molecules polar is
(A) O2 & H2O (B) CO2 & PCI3 (C) SO2 & SC!2 (D) CS2 & NO2
7. Among the following sets, the one in which all the molecules are nonpolar is
(A) XeF4, XeO3, XeO4 (C) XeF2, XeO4, XeOF4
(B) XeF2, XeF4, XeO4 (D) XeF2, XeO3, XeOF4
8. Which of the following is a polar molecule ?
(A) SF4 (B) SiF4 (C) XeF4 (D) BF3
9. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature ?
(1) POCl3 (2) CH2O (3) SbCl5 (4) NO2
10. Among the following, the most polar molecule is
(A) AlCl3 (B) CCl4 (C) SeCl6 (D) AsCl3
11. Which one of the following molecules is polar?
(1) CF4 (2) IF5 (3) XeF4 (4) SbF5
12. If AB4 molecule is a polar molecule, a possible geometry of AB4 is:
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Square planar (4) Rectangular planar
13. The number of molecule(s) or ion(s) from the following having non-polar structure
is _______NO" +
# , H% O% , BF# , PCl# , XeF! , SF! , XeO# , PH! , SO# , [Al(OH)! ]
"
14. Choose the polar molecule from the following :

(a) CH% = CH% (b) CHCl# (c) CCl! (d) CO%
15. Which of the following molecules has no dipole moment ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CHCl3 (C) CH2Cl2 (D) CCl4
16. The dipole moment of BeF2 is -
(A) 1.5 D (B) 1.0 D (C) 0.0 D (D) 1.8 D
17. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4 are in the order
(1) CHCl3 < CH4 = CCl4 (2) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3
(3) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3 (4) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3
18. The molecule with non-zero dipole moment is :
(A) BCl3 (B) BeCl2 (C) CCl4 (D) NCl3
19. The molecule with the highest dipole moment among the following is
(A) NH3 (B) NF3 (C) CO (D) HF
20. The molecule with non -zero dipole moment is
(A) BF3 (B) PCI3 (C) SiCI4 (D) XeF4
(A) NH3 (B) NF3 (C) BF3 (D) CHCl3
22. The molecule which does not have a net dipole moment is –
(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) BF3 (D) BrF5
23. Which of the following compounds has zero dipole moment ?
(A) NH3 (B) NF3 (C) BF3 (D) CHCl3
24. The molecule having the highest dipole moment is
(A) CO2 (B) CH4 (C) NH3 (D) NF3
25. Which of the following represents the correct order of dipole moment?
(A) NH3 > NF3 > H3O (B) NH3 > H2O > NF3
(C) H2O > NH3 > NF3 (D) H2O > NF3 > NH3
26. Amongst BeF2, BF3, H2O, NH3, CCl4 and HCl, the number of molecules with non-
zero net dipole moment is .
27. Statement I : Dipole moment is a vector quantity and by convention it is depicted
by a small arrow with tail on the negative centre and head pointing towards the
positive centre.
Statement II : The crossed arrow of the dipole moment symbolizes the direction
of the shift of charges in the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
28. The total number of molecules with zero dipole moment among
CH! , BF# , H% O, HF, NH# , CO% and SO% is ________.
Statement - I: Since Fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole
moment of NF# is greater than NH# .
Statement - II: In NH# , the orbital dipole due to lone pair and the dipole moment of
NH bonds are in opposite direction, but in NF# the orbital dipole due to lone pair and
dipole moments of N-F bonds are in same direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options
given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
30. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) HF is less polar than HBr
(2) Water does not contain any ions
(3) Chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the
forces of repulsion
(4) In covalent bond, transfer of electrons takes place
31.The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are
(A) angular & nonzero (B) angular & zero
(C) linear & nonzero (D) linear & zero
32. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?
(A) CO2 (B) CH4 (C) NH3 (D) NF3
33. The correct order of dipole moment is
(A) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (B) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(C) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (D) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
34. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment
(A) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(B) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3dichlorobenzene
(C) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenze
(D) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
35. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole
moments for both members:
(1) NO2 and CO2 (2) NO2 and O3 (3) SiF4 and CO2 (4) SiF4 and NO2
36. Which one of the following molecules has maximum dipole moment?
(1) NF# (2) CH! (3) NH# (4) PF&
37. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules. Identify the
option(s) where all four molecules possess permanent dipole moment at room
temperature.
(1) BF3, O3, SF6, XeF6 (2) BeCl2, CO2, BCl3, CHCl3
(3) NO2, NH3, POCl3, CH3Cl (4) SO2, C6H5Cl, H2Se, BrF5
38. For which of the following molecule significant µ¹ 0?
(a) Cl (b) CN (c) OH (d) SH
Cl CN OH SH
(1) (a) and (b) (2) only (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) only (a)
39. Consider the following compounds in the liquid form:
O2, HF, H2O, NH3, H2O2, CCl4, CHCl3, C6H6, C6H5Cl.
When a charged comb is brought near their flowing stream, how many of them
show deflection as per the following figure?
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cis form of alkene is found to be more polar than the trans form
Reason (R): Dipole moment of trans isomer of 2-butene is zero. In the light of the
above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
41. Number of compounds from the following with zero dipole moment is
HF, H% , H% S, CO% , NH# , BF# , CH! , CHCl# , SiF! , H% O, BeF%
MOT
1. The bond order and magnetic property of acetylide ion are same as that of
(a) O+% (b) N%+ (c) O"% (d) NO+
2. The total number of anti bonding molecular orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic
orbitals in a diatomic molecule is ______.
3. The bond order in O22– is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1.5 (D) 1
4. Among the following, the species with the highest bond order is :
(A) O2 (B) F2 (C) O2+ (D) F2–
5. The diamagnetic species among the following is
(A) O2+ (B) O2- (C) O2 (D) O22-
6. If an extra electron is added to hypothetical molecule C2, this extra electrons will
occupy the molecular orbital
(A) p2p* (B) p2p (C) s2p* (C) s2p
7. The interatomic distance in O2+, O2– and O22– follow the order
(A) O2+> O2–> O22– (B) O22– > O2–> O2+
(C) O2– > O22–> O2+ (D) O2+ > O22–> O2–
8. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is
(A) O2+ (B) O2– (C) CN– (D) N2+
9. Among the following atomic orbital overlap, the non-bonding overlap is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. Which of the following has maximum bond energy ?
(A) O2– (B) O2+ (C) O2 (D) O22–
11. The Para-magnetism of oxygen is best explained by
(A) MO theory (B) Valence Bond Theory
(C) VSEPR theory (D) Lewis dot structure
+
12. Bond orders of NO and NO are respectively
(A) 2.5 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 3.5 and 2.5 (D) 4 and 2
13. The molecular orbital with highest energy in a nitrogen molecule is
(A) s2p (B) p2p (C) s*2p (D) p*2p
14. Which of the following contain maximum number of electrons in the antibonding
molecular orbital?
(A) O22- (B) O2 (C) O2– (D) O2+.
15. Which of the following has the highest bond order ?
(A) O2 (B) O2+ (C) O2 (D) O22–
16. The sequence of molecular orbitals for the carbide ion (C22–) is –
(A) s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 p2p4
(B) s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 p2p4 s2p2
(C) s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 p2p4 s2p2 p*2p2
(D) s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 p2p4 s2p2 p*2p4
17. The species that contains maximum number of electrons in the antibonding
molecular orbitals is :
(A) O22– (B) O2 (C) O2– (D) O2+
18. The bond order for a species with the configuration s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 s pX1
will be
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) Zero (D) 3/2
19. Which of the following contain maximum number of electrons in the antibonding
molecular orbitals
(A) O22– (B) O2 (C) O2–1 (D) O2+
20. The bond order of NO+ ion is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
21. The correct order of stability for the following species is
(A) Li2 < He2+ < O2+ < C2 (B) C2 < O2+ < Li2 < He2+
(C) He2+< Li2 < C2 < O2+ (D) O2+< C2 < Li2 < He2+
22. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated by the diatomic molecule B2, its bond order
and magnetic nature will be respectively
(A) 1, diamagnetic (B) 1, paramagnetic (C) 2, diamagnetic (D) 2, paramagnetic
23. Which of the following has the shortest bond length ?
(A) O2 (B) O2- (C) O2+ (D) O2-2
24. Which of the following is not paramagnetic?
(A) S2- (B) N2- (C) O2- (D) NO
25. Which of the following option/s is /are correct?
(A) C2 is paramagnetic
(B) He2+ has the same energy as that of two isolated He atoms
(C) S2 is paramagnetic and S22- is diamagnetic
(D) N2+ and N2- have the same bond order
26. Four diatomic species are listed below in different sequences. Which of these
presents the correct order of their increasing bond order ?
(A) O2– < NO < C22– < He2+ (B) NO < C22– < O2– < He2+
(C) C22– < He2+ < NO < O2– (D) He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–
27. According to MO theory which of the following lists rank the nitrogen species in
terms of increasing bond order ?
(A) N2– < N2 < N22– (B) N22– < N2– < N2
(C) N2 < N22– < N2– (D) N2– < N22– < N2
28. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
(A) Be2+ (B) Be2 (C) B2 (D) Li2
29. Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?
(A) O2+ (B) O2– (C) O22– (D) O2
30. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below.
Which of the following presents the correct description ?
(A) O2–, O22– – Both diamagnetic (B) O2+, O22– –Both paramagnetic
(C) O2+,O2 – Both paramagnetic (D) O2, O22–– Both paramagnetic
31. The pair of species with the same bond order is :
(A) O22– , B2 (B) O2+ , NO+ (C) NO, CO (D) N2, O2
32. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following
orbitals?
(A) p* orbital (B) p orbital (C) s* orbital (D) s orbital
33. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the
bond order is increasing in them:
(A) NO < O2- < C22- < He2+ (B) O2- < NO < C22- < He2+
(C) C22- < He2+ < O2- < NO (D) He2+ < O2- < NO < C22-
34. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by :
(A) O2+ (B) O2– (C) O22– (D) O2
35. The correct bond order in the following species is :
(A) O22+ < O2 < O2+ (B) O2+ < O2 < O22+
(C) O2+ < O2+ < O22+ (D) O2+2 < O2+ < O2
36. Consider the following species :CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond order?
(A) NO (B) CN (C) CN+ (D) CN–
37. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) H2 (D) Li2
38. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to
molecular orbital theory?
(A) Be2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) C2
39. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(A) He2 (B) Li2 (C) C2 (D) O2
40. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
(1) The bond orders of O2+, O2, O2-1, O2-2 are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
(2) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate p molecular orbitals
(3) H2+ ion has one electron
(4) O2+ ion is diamagnetic
41. The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 molecule, is
(1) s1s < s*1s < s2s < s*2s < s2pz < (p2px = p2py) < (p*2px = p*2py) < s2pz
(2) s1s < s*1s < s2s < s*2s < s2pz < s2pz < (p2px = p2py) < (p*2px = p*2py)
(3) s1s < s*1s < s2s < s*2s < (p2px = p2py) < (p*2px = p*2py) < s2pz < s2pz
(4) s1s < s*1s < s2s < s*2s < (p2px = p2py) < s2pz < (p*2px = p*2py) < s2pz
42. If an extra electron is added to hypothetical molecule C2, this extra electrons will
occupy the molecular orbital
(A) s2p (B) p2p (C) s*2p (D) p*2p
43. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following
statements is true for these two species?
(1) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
(2) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(3) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
(4) Bond length is unpredictable
44. Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?
(1) He2+ (2) H2 (3) H2+ (4) H2-
45. The number and type of bond between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are:
(1) One sigma, one pi bond (2) One sigma, two pi bond
(3) Two sigma, one pi bond (4) Two sigma, two pi bond
46. Which of the following molecules\ions does not contain unpaired electrons?
(1) N2+ (2) O2 (3) O22- (4) B2
47. In which of the following ionizing processes, the bond order has increased and the
magnetic behaviour has changed
(1) NO ® NO+ (2) O2 ® O2+ (3) N2 ® N2+ (4) C2 ® C2+
48. Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour:
(1) O2+ (2) O2 (3) NO (4) O22–
49. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order:
(1) CN– and NO+ (2) CN– and CN+ (3) O2– and CN– (4) NO+ and CN+
50. Using molecule orbital theory predict which of the following species has the
shortest bond length-
(1) O22+ (2) O2+ (3) O2– (4) O22–
51. Stability of the species Li2, Li2¯ and Li2+ increases in the order of:
(1) Li2¯ < Li2+ < Li2 (2) Li2 < Li2¯ < Li2+
(3) Li2¯ < Li2 < Li2+ (4) Li2 < Li2+ < Li2¯
52. Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic
behaviour?
(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) S2 (4) C2
53. In which of the following pairs of molecules / ions, both the species are not likely
to exist?
(1) H2¯, He22– (2) H22+, He2 (3) H2¯, He22+ (4) H2+, He22–
54. Bond order normally gives idea of stability of a molecular species. All the
molecules viz. H2, Li2 and B2 have the same bond order yet they are not equally
stable. Their stability order is:
(1) Li2 > H2 > Br2 (2) Li2 > B2 > H2
(3) H2 > B2 > Li2 (4) B2 > H2 > Li2
55. Among the following, the species with identical bond order are
(A) CO and O22– (B) O2– and CO (C) O22– and B2 (D) CO and N2+
56. The internuclear distances in O–O bonds for O2+, O2, O2¯ and O22– respectively
are:
(1) 1.30 Å, 1.49 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å (2) 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å, 1.30Å, 1.49Å
(3) 1.21Å, 1.12Å, 1.49Å, 1.30 Å (4) 1.49Å, 1.21Å, 1.12Å, 1.30Å
57. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy has increased and
also the magnetic behaviour has changed from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
(1) N2 ® N2+ (2) O2 ® O2+ (3) C2 ® C2+ (4) NO ® NO+
58. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO?
(1) It is a neutral oxide
(2) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(3) Its bond order is 2.5
(4) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
59. The number and type of bonds in C22-ion in CaC2 are:
(1) Two s bonds and one p-bond (2) Two s bonds and two p-bonds
(3) One s bond and one p -bond (4) One s bond and two p -bonds
60. Which of the following has unpaired electron(s)?
(1) N2 (2) O2– (3) O22– (4) N22+
61. The correct order of bond dissociation energy among N2, O2, O2– is shown in
which of the following arrangements?
(1) O2– > O2 > N2 (2) N2 > O2 > O2–
(3) N2 > O2– > O2 (4) O2 > O2– > N2
62. Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?
(1) CO (2) N2 (3) O3 (4) NO
63. After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of H2, electron density is increased
between the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is YA + YB, which shows destructive interference of the
combining electron waves.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(2) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
64. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?
(A) CO (B) O2 (C) B2 (D) NO
65.Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(1) NO+ (2) CO (3) O22– (4) B2
66. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following will not be viable
molecule?
(1) H2- (2) H22- (3) He22+ (4) He2+
67. Which of the following best describes the diagram below of a molecular orbital?
(1) An antibonding s orbital + –
(2) A non-bonding orbital
(3) A bonding p orbital – +
(4) An antibonding p orbital
68. In the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, N2+, the number of
electrons in the s2p molecular orbital is:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0
69. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following is true with
respect to Li2+ and Li2¯?
(1) Both are stable (2) Li2+ is unstable and Li2¯ is stable
(3) Both are unstable (4) Li2+ is stable and Li2¯ is unstable
70. In which of the following processes, the bond order has increased, and
paramagnetic character has changed to diamagnetic.
(1) O2 ® O22– (2) O2 ® O2+ (3) N2 ® N2+ (4) NO ® NO+
71. Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in:
(1) N2+ (2) O2+ (3) O2 (4) N2
72. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics and CN– are
(1) 3, paramagnetic (2) 2.5 , diamagnetic
(3) 3, diamagnetic (4) 2.5, paramagnetic
73. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be
(1) O2 or O2+ (2) O2– or O2+
(3) O2 or O2– (4) O2, O2–, O2+
74. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+ and NO–, the one with minimum bond strength
is:
(1) NO2+ (2) NO+ (3) NO (4) NO–
75. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second row elements of
periodic Table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 25. The
total number of electrons in AX is ______.
76. Number of paramagnetic oxides among the following given oxides is
Li2O, CaO, Na2O2, KO2, MgO and K2O
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0
77. The spin-only magnetic moment value of B2 species is ________×10–2 BM.
+
(Nearest Integer)
78. According to molecular orbital theory, the number of unpaired electron(s) in
O22- is:
78. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Molecule) (Bond order)
(a) Ne2 (i) 1
(b) N2 (ii) 2
(c) F2 (iii) 0
(d) O2 (iv) 3
(1) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (ii)
(2) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (ii), (c) ® (iii), (d) ® (iv)
(3) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (iii)
(4) (a) ® (iv), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (ii), (d) ® (i)
79. The correct order of bond orders of C%%" , N%%" and O%" % is, respectively
(A) C%%" < N%%" < O%" % (B) O%" %"
% < N% < C%
%"
(C) C%%" < O%" % < N%

%"
(D) N%%" < C%%" < O%" %
80. Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on
the basis of MO Theory, by removal of an electron ?
(a) NO (b) N2 (c) O2 (d) C2 (e) B2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-
(A) (a), (b), (c) only (B) (b), (c), (e) only
(C) (a), (c) only (D) (d) only
81. Consider the ions/molecule O+ " %"
% , O% , O% , O% For increasing bond order the correct
option is
(A) O%" "
% < O% < O% < O%
+
(B) O" %"
% < O% < O% < O%
+
(C) O" %" +

% < O% < O% < O% (D) O" + %"
% < O% < O% < O%
82. Among the following species
N% , N%+ , N%" , N%%" , O% , O+ " %"
% , O% , O%
The number of species showing diamagnetism is _____.
83. Amongst the following, the number of oxide(s) which are paramagnetic in nature
is Na% O, KO% , NO% , N% O, ClO% , NO, SO% , Cl% O (Nearest Integer)
84. According to MO theory, number of species / ions from the following having
identical bond order is
CN " , NO+ , O% , O+ % , O%
%+
85. The number of paramagnetic species among the following is

B% , Li% , C% , C%" , O"% +
% , O% and He% .
+
86. What is the number of unpaired electrons in the highest occupied molecular orbital
of the following species : N% : N%+ ; O% ; O+ % ?
(1) 0, 1, 0, 1 (2) 2, 1, 2, 1 (3) 0, 1, 2, 1 (4) 2, 1, 0, 1
87. According to MO theory the bond order for O2 , CO and NO+ respectively, are
-2
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1, 3 and 2 (3) 1, 3 and 3 (4) 2, 3 and 3

88. Consider the following statements.
A. NF# molecule has a trigonal planar structure.
B. Bond length of N% is shorter than O% .
C. Isoelectronic molecules or ions have identical bond order.
D. Dipole moment of H% S is higher than that of water molecule.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A and B are correct (b) C and D are correct
(c) A and D are correct (d) B and C are correct
89. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is _____.
90. The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond
order equal to one is
H% , He+ + %"
% , O% , N% , O%
%" , F , Ne+ , B
% % %
91. The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a
diatomic molecule is_______.
92. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : A 𝜋 bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-
nuclear axis.
Statement (II) : The 𝜋 ∗ antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei.
options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
93. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s)?
(A) N2 (B) F2 (C) O2- (D) O22-
94. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the
magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O2+
(A) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O2
(B) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2
(C) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O2
(D) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
95. The species having bond order different from that in CO is
(A) NO– (B) NO+ (C) CN– (D) N
2
96. Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its property / properties in
Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) B2 (P) Paramagnetic
(B) N2 (Q) undergoes oxidation
(C) O 2¯ (R) Undergoes reduction
(D) O2 (S) Bond order ³ 2
(T) Mixing of ‘s’ and ‘p’ orbitals
97. According to Molecular Orbital Theory, the oxygen molecule is-
(A) Diamagnetic (B) Paramagnetic (C) Ferromagnetic (D) non magnetic
98. The species that contains maximum number of electrons in the antibonding
molecular orbitals is :
(A) O22– (B) O2 (C) O2– (D) O2+
99. The species having highest bond energy is
(A) O2 (B) O2+ (C) O2– (D) O22–
100. The set in which all the species are diamagnetic is
(A) B2, O2, NO (B) O2 , O22+, CO
(C) N2 , O2– , CN22– (D) C2 , O22- , NO+
101. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(A) O2– (B) CN– (C) NO+ (D) CO
102. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?
(A) CO (B) O2 (C) B2 (D) NO
-
103. The bond order and magnetic behaviour of O2 ion are, respectively:
(1) 1.5 and paramagnetic (2) 1.5 and diamagnetic
(3) 2 and diamagnetic (4) 1 and paramagnetic
104. The diamagnetic species is
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) O2 (D) CO2
105. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the
diatomic molecule B2 is
(A) 1 and diamagnetic (B) 0 and diamagnetic
(C) 1 and paramagnetic (D) 0 and paramagnetic
106. Assuming 2s-2p mixing in NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the
following is
(A) Be2 (B) B2 (C) C2 (D) N2
107. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in
List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I List-II
P. 1. p – d p antibonding
Q. 2. d – d s bonding
R. 3. p – d p bonding
S. 4. d – d s antibonding
Code:
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 1 3 2
108. According to Molecular Orbital Theory,
(A) C22– is expected to be diamagnetic
(B) O22+ is expected to have a longer bond length than O2
(C) N2+ and N2– have the same bond order
(D) He2+ has the same energy as two isolated He atoms
109. The colour of the X2 molecules of group 17 elements changes gradually from
yellow to violet down the group. This is due to
(A) the physical state of X2 at room temperature changes from gas to solid down the
group
(B) decrease in HOMO-LUMO gap down the group
(C) decrease in p*–s* gap down the group
(D) decrease in ionization energy down the group
110. Among H2, He2+, Li2, Be2, B2, C2, N2, O2¯, and F2, the number of
diamagnetic species is
111. For diatomic molecules, the correct statement(s) about the molecular orbitals
formed by the overlap of two 2𝑝* orbitals is(are)
(A) 𝜎 orbital has a total of two nodal planes.
(B) 𝜎 ∗ orbital has one node in the 𝑥𝑧-plane containing the molecular axis.
(C) 𝜋 orbital has one node in the plane which is perpendicular to the molecular axis
and goes through the center of the molecule.
(D) 𝜋 ∗ orbital has one node in the 𝑥𝑦-plane containing the molecular axis.
112. The correct molecular orbital diagram for F2 molecule in the ground state is
113. Number of molecules/species from the following having one unpaired electron is
________. O% , O". ". %"
% , NO, CN , O%
114.When Ψ/ and Ψ0 are the wave functions of atomic orbitals, then σ∗ is represented
by:
(1) ψ/ − 2ψ0 (2) ψ/ − ψ0 (3) ψ/ + 2ψ0 (4) ψ/ + ψ0
115. The total number of species from the following in which one unpaired electron is
present, is ____. N% , O% , C%" , O" %" + "
% , O% , H% , CN , He%
+
116. Total number of electron present in (π∗ ) molecular orbitals of O% , O+ "

% and O% is
117. Number of molecules having bond order 2 from the following molecule is
________
C% , O% , Be% , Li% , Ne% , N% , He%
STRUCTURE DRAWING
(MULTI CENTRAL ATOM)
1. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv)
HClO4, is(are)
(A) The number of Cl = O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two
(B) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three
(C) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp3
(D) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)
2. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N2O3 is:
3. The total number of Mn = O bonds in Mn% O, is ______
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3
4. Number of P–S single bonds and P–S double bonds (P=S) in P4S10 are respectively
(A) 10, 6 (B) 16, 0 (C) 14, 2 (D) 12, 4
5. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
6. Which of the following compounds has a P–P bond?
(1) H4P2O7 (2) H4P2O7 (3) (HPO3)3 (4) H4P2O6
7. Among the oxides of nitrogen: N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5;
the molecule(s) having nitrogen-nitrogen bond is / are:
(1) Only N2O5 (2) N2O3 and N2O5 (3) N2O4 and N2O5 (4) N2O3 and N2O4
8. The number of P – O bonds in P4O6 is:
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 18
9. The number of Cl = O bonds in perchloric acid is, “__________”
10. The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is:
(1) N2O (2) N2O4 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
11. The oxidation states of 'P' in H4P2O7, H4P2O5 and H4P2O6, respectively, are:
(1) 7, 5 and 6 (2) 5, 4 and 3 (3) 5, 3 and 4 (4) 6, 4 and 5
12. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O and NO3– are in the order
of:
(1) NO3-> NO2> NO> N2O (2) NO2 > NO3-> NO > N2O
(3) N2O > NO2 > NO NO3- (4) NO > NO2 >N2O > NO3-
13. In polythionic acid, H2SxO6 (x = 3 to 5) the oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are: (1)
+ 5 only (2) + 6 only (3) + 3 and + 5 only (4) 0 and + 5 only
14. Consider the following sulphur based oxoacids.
H% SO# , H% SO! , H% S% O1 and H% S% O, .
Amongst these oxoacids, the number of those with peroxo (O − O) bond is
15. Among the given oxides of nitrogen; N2O, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5, the number of
compound/(s) having N–N bond is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
16. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur contains “S” in two different
oxidation states?
(A) H2S2O3 (B) H2S2O6 (C) H2S2O7 (D) H2S2O8
17. The number of P − O − P bonds in H! P% O, , (HPO# )# and P! O.2 are respectively
(a) 1,2,4 (b) 0,3,4 (c) 0,3,6 (d) 1,3,6
18. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N–N bond(s) is (are)
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
19. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in
Na2S4O6 is
20. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N2O3 is:
21. The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the
molecules given below is ____.
N2O3, N2O5, P4O6, P4O7, H4P2O5, H5P3O10, H2S2O3, H2S2O5]
22. Among B2H6, B3N3H6, N2O, N2O4, H2S2O3 and H2S2O8, the total number of
molecules containing covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is
23. Consider the following molecules: Br3O8, F2O, H2S4O6, H2S5O6, and C3O2.
Count the number of atoms existing in their zero oxidation state in each molecule.
Their sum is____.
24. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the nitrogen atom is
(A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) N2O3 (D) N2O5
25. Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is
(A) Na2O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2
26. In thiosulphuric acid H2S2O3, the oxidation states of sulphur atoms are
(A) + II ,+ II (B) 0, + IV (C) + I , + III (D) –II , + VI.
27. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3PO2, H3PO4,
H3PO3 and H4P2O6 is
(A) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6
(B) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6
(C) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4
(D) H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
28. The number of species from the following that have pyramidal geometry around
the central atom is________
S% O%" %" %" %"
# , SO! , SO# , S% O,
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
29. The compound(s) having peroxide linkage is(are)
(A) H% S% O, (B) H% S% O1 (C) H% S% O& (D) H% SO&
30. In the dichromate anion
(A) 4 Cr - O bonds are equivalent (B) 6 Cr - O bonds are equivalent
(C) all Cr - O bonds are equivalent (D) all Cr - O bonds are non-equivalent
31. In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number of P–OH, P = O and P–O–P
bonds/moiety(ies) respectively are:
(1) 3, 3 and 3 (2) 2, 4 and 1 (3) 4, 2 and 0 (4) 4, 2 and 1
32. The number of S = O and S – OH bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid and
pyrosulphuric acid respectively are:
(1) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2) (2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
(3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4) (4) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)
33. The number of S=O bonds present in sulphurous acid, per-oxo-disulphuric
acid and Pyro sulphuric acid, respectively are:
(1) 2, 3 and 4 (2) 1, 4 and 3 (3) 2, 4 and 3 (4) 1, 4 and 4
34. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a:
(1) linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(2) non-linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(3) linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(4)non-linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
35. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus ?
(A) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate
(B) Hypo-phosphorous acid is a diprotic acid
(C) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus
(D) All oxoacids contain at-least one P=O unit and one P–OH group
36. Which oxoacid of phosphorous has the highest number of oxygen atoms present in
its chemical formula?
(A) Pyrophosphorus acid (B) Hypophosphoric acid
(C) Phosphoric acid (D) Pyrophosphoric acid
37. Which one of the following information about the compounds is correct ?
Oxidation No. of No. of P–H No. of

Compounds
state of P P–OH bonds bonds P=O bonds
[I] H3PO2 Hypophosphorous acid

1+ 2 1 0
[II] H4P2O5 pyropophosphorous acid

3+ 2 2 2
[III] H4P2O6 Hypophosphoric acid

4+ 2 2 2
[IV] H4P2O7 pyrophosphoric acid 5+ 3 1 4

(A) I (B) III (C) IV (D) II
38. The oxidation state of phosphorus in hypophosphoric acid is + ________.
39. A suboxide of carbon, C3O2, has a linear structure.
Which of the following is correct about C3O2?
I. Oxidation state of all three C atoms is +2
II. Oxidation state of the central C atom is zero
III. The molecule contains 4 s and 4 p bonds
IV. Hybridization of the central carbon atom is sp2
(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) II and IV (D) III only
40. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P'
(a) Hypophosphorous (i) +5 acid
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
(v) +1
(1) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
41. The numbers of lone pairs and bond pairs in hydrazine are, respectively
42. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
H3PO4 H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO3 H 2S2O 7
H3BO3 H3PO2 H2CrO4 H2SO3
WEAK FORCE
1. Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting
particles that will include:
A. dipole - dipole forces.
B. dipole - induced dipole forces
C. hydrogen bonding
D. covalent bonding
E. dispersion forces
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A,B,C,D are correct (2) A,B,C,E are correct
(3) A,C,D,E are correct (4) B,C,D,E are correct
2. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance
between the molecules is:
(1) London force (2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Ion -ion interaction (4) Ion -dipole interaction
3.Which intermolecular force is most responsible in allowing xenon gas to liquefy?
(1) Dipole - dipole (2) Ion - dipole
(3) Instantaneous dipole - induced dipole (4) Ionic
4. The relative strength of interionic/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is
(1) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole (2) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion
(3) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole (4) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole >ion-ion
5. Match the type of interaction in Column A with the distance dependence of their
interaction energy in Column B:
A B 1
(I) ion - ion (a) r
1
(II) dipole - dipole (b) r 2
1
(III) London dispersion (c) r 3
1
(d) r6
(1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c) (2) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)

(3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d) (4) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)
one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions,
resulting in hydrogen bond formation.
Reason R: Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds
in HF are symmetrical.
the options given below.
(3) A is true R is false
(4) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
7. With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the statement(s) given below is
(are) correct?
(A) Graphite is harder than diamond
(B) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond.
(C) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond.
(D) Graphite has higher C–C bond order than diamond.
8. Among the following pairs, the one in which both the compounds as pure liquids
can show significant auto ionization is
(A) H2O and H2S (B) BrF3 and ICl3 (C) PF5 and PCl5 (D) HF and HCl
9. What is the dominant intermolecular force on bond that must be overcome in
converting liquid CH3OH to a gas ?
(A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Dipole-dipole interaction
(C) Covalent bonds (D) London dispersion force
10. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs
(A) Cl2 and CCl4 (B) HCl and He atoms
(C) SiF4 and He atoms (D) H2O and alcohol
11. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of:
(1) dipole-dipole interaction (2) hydrogen bonding
(3) electrostatic attraction (4) vander Wall’s forces
12. The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are
(1) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
(2) hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
(3) dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
(4) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
14. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present
in:
(1) KCI and water (2) benzene and carbon tetrachloride
(3) benzene and ethanol (4) acetonitrile and acetone
15. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of:
(1) Hydrogen bonding (2) Electrostatic attractions
(3) Dipole-Dipole interactions (4) van der Waals forces
16. Give below are two statements:
Statement - I: Noble gases have very high boiling points.
Statement - II: Noble gases are monoatomic gases. They are held together by strong
dispersion forces. Because of this they are liquefied at very low temperature. Hence,
they have very high boiling points.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
17. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
18. Hydrogen fluoride is liquid at room temperature because of
(A) covalent nature (B) hydrogen bonding
(C) van der Waals force (D) strong ionic bond.
19. Which of the following pairs has the strongest hydrogen bonding between
themselves
(A) SiH4 and SiF4 (B) CH4 and CH3OH
(C) CH3COCH3 and CHCI3 (D) HCO2H and CH3CO2H
20. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
21. Which of the following compounds has the least tendency to form hydrogen bonds
between molecules?
(A) NH3 (B) H2NOH (C) HF (D) CH3F
22. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular
hydrogen bond ?
(A) Concentrated acetic acid (B) H2O2 (C) HCN (D) Cellulose
23. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest
(1) F – H .... F (2) O – H .... O (3) O – H .... F (4) O – H .... N
24. Out of the following, which type of interaction is responsible for the
stabilisation of a-helix structure of proteins?
(1) Ionic bonding (2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Covalent bonding (4) Vander Waals forces
25. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with
stoichiometry CuSO4 .5H2O is_______.
Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen
bonding.
Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting due to hydrogen bonding.
the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
27. Boric acid is solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room temperature because of
(1) Strong van der Waal’s interaction in Boric acid
(2) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid
(3) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
(4) Strong covalent bond in BF3
28. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
(A) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
(B) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
(C) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
(D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
29. Statement-1: p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than
o-hydroxybenzoic acid because
Statement-2: o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
.
30. Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in the following phenomena:
(A) Ice floats in water.
(B) Higher Lewis basicity of primary amines than tertiary amines in aqueous solutions
(C) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.
(D) Dimerization of acetic acid in benzene.
31. The number of hydrogen bonds formed by each H2O molecule in an ice crystal
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3
32. The correct order of increasing intermolecular hydrogen bond strength is
(A) HCN < H2O < NH3 (B) HCN < CH4 < NH3
(C) CH4 < HCN < NH3 (D) CH4 < NH3 < HCN
33. The molecule which does not exhibit strong hydrogen bonding is
(A) methyl amine (B) acetic acid (C) diethyl ether (D) glucose
34. Among the compounds I-IV, the compound having the lowest boiling point is
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

35. Among i-iii
the boiling point follows the order

(A) ii <i< iii (B) iii < ii <I (C) i< ii < iii (D) ii < iii <i
36. In which of the following cases, does breaking of the covalent bond take place?
(A) boiling of water (B) melting of KCN
(C) boiling of CF4 (D) melting of SiO2.
37. In solid CuSO4. 5H2O, copper is coordinated to
(A) one water molecule (B) three water molecules
(C) five water molecules (D) four water molecules.
38. If the boiling point of H2O is 373 K, the boiling point of H2S will be:
(1) greater than 300 K but less than 373 K (2) less than 300 K
(3) equal to 373 K (4) more than 373 K
Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements
increases in
the order- H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase in molar mass.
options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
40. The expected order of boiling points of I - IV would be -
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(A) I < II < IV < III (B) III < IV < II < I
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) IV < II < III < I
41. ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than p- and m-Nitrophenols because:
(1) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular H-bonding
(2) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than those of m-and p-isomers.
(3) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile in steam than those of m-and p-isomers.
(4) o-Nitrophenol shows intramolecular H-bonding
42. The compound/s which will show significant intermolecular H–bonding is/are:
(a) (b) (c)

(1) (b) only (2) (c) only (3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
43. The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements is :
(A) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O (B) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(C) H2S < H2Te < H2Se < H2O (D) H2Se < H2S < H2Te < H2O
44. The correct statement/s about Hydrogen bonding is/are :
A. Hydrogen bonding exists when H is covalently bonded to the highly electro
negative atom.
B. Intermolecular H bonding is present in o-nitro phenol
C. Intramolecular H bonding is present in HF.
D. The magnitude of H bonding depends on the physical state of the compound.
E. H-bonding has powerful effect on the structure and properties of compounds.
(1) A only (2) A, D, E only
(3) A, B, D only (4) A, B, C only
Ans. (2)
45. For the compounds:
The increasing order of boiling point is :

(1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) (2) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
(3) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B) (4) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
46.Number of molecules from the following which can exhibit hydrogen bonding is
______. (nearest integer)
Allotropes
1. A solid is hard and brittle. It is an insulator in solid state but conducts electricity in
molten state. The solid is a
(A) molecular solid (B) ionic solid
(C) metallic solid (D) covalent solid
2. Allotrope of carbon which exhibits only two types of C-C bond distance of 143.5
pm and 138.3 pm is
(A) Charcoal (B) graphite (C) diamond (D) fullerene
3. Choose the correct statement:
(1) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network
(2) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic
(3) Diamond is sp3 hybridized and graphite is sp3 hybridized
(4) both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
4. In graphite and diamond, the percentage of p-characters of the hybrid orbitals in
hybridisations are respectively:
(1) 50 and 75 (2) 33 and 25 (3) 67 and 75 (4) 33 and 75
5. The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure of C60 is:
(1) The six-membered rings are fused to both six and five-membered rings.
(2) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
(3) The five-membered rings are fused only to six-membered rings.
(4) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings
6.Which one of the following is formed (mainly) when red phosphorus is heated in a
sealed tube at 803 K?
(1) White phosphorus (2) Yellow phosphorus
(3) b-Black phosphorus (4) a-Black phosphorus
8. Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the number of allotropic
forms, which will show Para magnetism is ________.
(A) a-sulphur (B) b-sulphur (C) S2-form
9. A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid
and in molten state. This solid is most likely to be a / an:
(1) Ionic solid (2) Molecular solid
(3) Metallic solid (4) Covalent solid
Back Bond And Bridge Bond
1. Which type of bond exists between the two boron atoms in a diborane molecule?
(A) 2-Center-2electron (B) 3-Center-2-electron
(C) 3-Center-3-electron (D) 4-Center-4-electron
2.Trisilylamine is
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) amphoteric.
3. Which of the following pairs is a Lewis acid & a Lewis base ?
(A) CI & Ag+ (B) NH3 & BF3 (C) SO42– & HSO4– (D)H+&OH
4. The relative basics strengths of NH3, CH3NH2 and NF3 are in the order :
(A) CH3NH2 > NH3 > NF3 (B) NH3 > CH3NH2 > NF3
(C) NF3 > CH3NH2 > NH3 (D) CH3NH2 > NF3 > NH3
5. The hybridization of boron in the stable borane having the lowest molecular weight
is –
(A) sp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp (D) sp3d
6. The structure of a molecule of N(SiMe3)3 is
(A) Pyramidal with angle close to 110°
(B) T-shaped with angle 90°
(C) Bent T-shaped with angle close to 89°
(D) Trigonal planar with bond angle close to 120°
7. Which of the following compounds contain 3-centered 2-electron bonding ?
(i) [BeF2]n (ii) [Be(CH3)3]n (iii) [BeCl2]n (iv) [BeH2]n
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
8. Reaction of ammonia with diborane gives an ionic product (B2H6.2NH3).
The hybridization of boron in the cation and anion of this product are respectively
(A) sp3 in both (b) sp3 and sp2 (c) sp2 and sp3 (d) sp2 in both
9. The number of ‘two-center-two electron’ and ‘three-center-two electron’ bonds in
[Al(BH4)3] are respectively
(A) twelve and zero (B) twelve and three (C) six and six (D) nine and three
10. Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid ?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) B2H6 (D) CH4
11. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the
sequence :
(A) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 (B) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3 (D) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
12. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base ?
(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) BF3 (D) OH–
13. Which of the following is electron-deficient ?
(A) (SiH3)2 (B) (BH3)2 (C) PH3 (D) (CH3)2
14. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively (2) Linear in both
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively (4) Chain in both
15. Which of the following statements is not correct about diborane? [NEET 2022]
1) There are two 3-centre -2-electron bonds
2) The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds
3) The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two boron atoms lie in one plane
4) Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised
16. Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ion acts as a Lewis
acid?
(1) H2O (2) BF3 (3) OH– (4) NH3
17. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are
respectively:
(1) sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3 (3) sp2 and sp2 (4) sp3 and sp3
18. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two
elements differ in:
(1) Forming covalent halides
(2) Forming polymeric hydrides
(3) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compound
(4) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
19. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of the proton
affinity of the given species:
(1) NH2¯ < HS¯ < I¯ < F¯ (2) I¯ < F¯ < HS¯ < NH2¯
(3) HS¯ < NH2¯ < F¯ < I¯ (4) F¯ < I¯ < NH2¯ < HS¯
20.Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?
(1) CHI3 (2) CH(CN)3 (3) CHCl3 (4) CHBr3
21. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6,
respectively, are:
(1) 2 and 2 (2) 4 and 2 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 1
22. The hydride that is NOT electron deficient is:
(1) SiH4 (2) B2H6 (3) GaH3 (4) AlH3
23. Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base?
(1) NF3 (2) PCl5 (3) SF4 (4) ClF3
24. The correct statement about B2H6 is:
(1) Terminal B–H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridging bonds.
(2) The two B–H–B bonds are not of same length
(3) All B–H–B angles are of 120°
(4) Its fragment, BH3, behaves as a Lewis base
25. In which one of the following molecules strongest back donations of an electron
pair from halide to boron is expected?
(1) BCl3 (2) BF3 (3) BBr3 (4) BI3
26. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
(1) NF3 (2) PH3 (3) NaH (4) B(CH3)3
27. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
(1) PH3 and SiCl4 (2) BCl3 and AlCl3
(3) PH3 and BCl3 (4) AlCl3 and SiCl4
28. Based on the compounds of group 15 elements, the correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) Bi2O5 is more basic than N2O5
(B) NF3 is more covalent than BiF3
(C) PH3 boils at lower temperature than NH3
(D) The N-N single bond is stronger than the P-P single bond

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Daily Practice Paper-1 (Fundamental Particles)

1. Where are protons located in an atom?

Answer Key (DPP - 2)

Answer Key (DPP - 3)

Answer Key (DPP - 6)

Answer Key (DPP - 7)

Answer Key (DPP - 8)

Answer Key (DPP - 9)

Answer Key (DPP - 10)

Answer Key (DPP - 13)

Answer Key (DPP - 14)

Answer Key (DPP - 16)

Answer Key (DPP - 17)

Answer Key (DPP - 19)

is therefore likely to be similar to that of

(A) 5th (B) 4th (C) 6th (D) 7th

of last elements of the same group which is recently discovered: -

(A) Lanthanoids (B) Actinoids (C) Transition elements (D) None

(A) Lanthanides (B) Actinides (C) Transition elements (D) None

Q.16 Which options are correct for atomic radii ?

Q.16 Which is smallest in size

(A) Cl-1<S2<P3- (B) P3-<S2-<Cl-1 (C) S2-<Cl-1<P3- (D) S2-<P3-<Cl-1

Which is incorrect statement?

The outer electronic configuration of the element may be :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Condition of ionic bond

Properties of ionic compound

expected to form the chloride with the formula

Polarization and Fazan’s Rule

!"#!$ $&'()* !"#!$ $&'()* !"#!$ $&'()* (!"#!$ $&'()*)!

Octet Rule and Formal Charge

(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) Nine σ and nine π (2) Five σ and nine π

, the C2 —C3 bond is formed by the overlapping of: -

60.The hybridization of carbon atoms in C2 – C3 single bond of is:

20. The structure of ICl2¯ is -

(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these

66. The shapes of PCl4+, PCl4– and AsCl5 are respectively: -

(1) XeO3, ClO3–, SO32–, AsO33– (2) AsO33–, XeO3, CO3–2

(1) (2) (3) (4) All have the same

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

77. Write order of dipole moment of following compounds: -

(i) (ii) (iii)

(iv) (v) (vi)

(1) (2) (3) (4) All of these

79. Which of the following molecule is polar as well as planar.

(3) (4) None of these

(1) non-planar (2) μ ≠ 0 (3) A & B both (4) μ = 0

(3) In the Lewis structure of SO32–, there is no π-bond.

5. The relation between x, y and z in bicarbonate ion with respect

(1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x = y (4) Can’t predict

(1) y > x (2) x > y (3) x = y (4) cannot be predicted

The correct order of bond angles indicated would be :

(A) q1 < q2 < q3 (B) q1 < q3 < q2

(A) x > y > z (B) x < y < z

The correct order of bond angles would be