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XII CLASS

BOTANY
No. of Volumes - 2

Chapter Names :

SNO. TOPIC NAME VOL

1 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS VOL
3. PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATIONS 1
4. MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

5. STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION

6. MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
VOL
7. BIO-TECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
2
8. BIO-TECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
9. PLANT ECOSYSTEM

CBQ : CONCEPT BASED QUESTIONS

CRTQ : CLASS ROOM TEACHING QUESTIONS
SPQ : STUDENT PRACTICE QUESTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS SEPARATE BOOK-LET (2016-2022)
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CHAPTER

4
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

CONTENTS NEET SYLLABUS

 Introduction  Search for genetic material

and DNA as genetic material;
 The DNA
 Structure of DNA and RNA;
 The Search for Genetic Material
 DNA packaging;
 RNA World  DNA Replication;
 Replication  Central dogma;

 Transcription  Transcription,
 Genetic code,
 Genetic Code
 Translation;
 Translation
 Gene expression and
 Regulation of Gene Expression regulation- Lac Operon;

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 Molecular Biology is a relatively young branch of Biology.

 Warren Weaver recognised the importance of physical and chemical approach to Biology and
introduced the term Molecular Biology.
 Molecular Biology was developed due to convergence of Genetics, Physics and Biochemistry
 Molecular Biology began in 1953 with the proposal of double helix model of DNA by Watson & Crick
 FHC Crick prosposed a thesis on x-ray diffraction of polypeptides and proteins
THE DNA
* DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.
* The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to
as base pairs) present in it.
* This also is the characteristic of an organism. For example, a bacteriophage known as   174 has
5386 nucleotides. Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 base pairs (bp), Escherichia coli has
4.6 106 bp and haploid content of human DNA is 3.3  109 bp.
PURINES

NH2 O
C N C N
N1 6 5C 7 HN 1 6 5 C 7
8 CH 2 4
8 CH
2 4 9 9
HC 3 C C 3 C
N N H2N N N
H H
Adenine (A) Guanine (G)
PYRIMIDINES

O O NH2
C C C
HN 3 4 5 CH HN 3 4 5 C CH3 N 3 4 5 CH
C 2 1 6 CH C 2 1 6 CH C 2 1 6 CH
O N O N O N
H H H
Uracil(U) Thymine (T) Cytosine (C)
OH OH
OH OH
5 CH2 CH2
C 4 C 1 C 4 C
H H H H H H H H
C C C C
3 2
OH OH OH OH
ribose sugar deoxyribose sugar

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O OH

P phosphate group

HO O

H 2C 5 O OH

deoxyribose
sugar
HC 4 1 CH

3 2
CH CH2

OH
A deoxyribose sugar molecule linked with phosphate
group at 5 position

STRUCTURE OF POLYNUCLEOTIDE CHAIN

* The chemical structure of a polynucleotide chain (DNA or RNA).
* A nucleotide has three components - a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in case of RNA,
and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group.
* There are two types of nitrogenous bases -Purines (Adenine and Guanine) and Pyrimidines
(Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine). Cytosine, adenine, guanine are common for both DNA and RNA
and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
* A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a
nucleoside, such as adenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or deoxyguanosine, cytidine or
deoxycytidine and uridine or deoxythymidine.
* When a phosphate group is linked to 5’-OH of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage, a
corresponding nucleotide (or deoxynucleotide depending upon the type of sugar present) is formed.
Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.
* More nucleotides can be joined in such a manner to form a polynucleotide chain.
* A polymer thus formed has at one end a free phosphate moiety at 5’ phosphate 5’-end of ribose
sugar, which is referred to as 5’-end of polynucleotide chain.
* Similarly, at the other end of the polymer the ribose has a free 3’-OH group which is referred to
as 3’-end of the polynucleotide chain.
* The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed by sugar and phosphates. The nitrogenous bases
linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone
* In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional -OH group present at 2’-position in the ribose,
Also, in RNA the uracil is found at the place of thymine (5-methyl uracil, another chemical name
for thymine).
* DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Miescher in 1869.
* He named it as ‘Nuclein’ However, due to technical limitation in isolating such a long polymer intact,
the elucidation of structure of DNA remained elusive for a very long period of time.
* It was only in 1953 that James Watson and Francis Crick, based on the X-ray diffraction data
produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple but famous Double
Helix model for the structure of DNA.
* One of the hallmarks of their proposition was base pairing between the two strands of polynucleotide
chains.
* However, this proposition was also based on the observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a double
stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant
and equals one.

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CHARGAFF’S RULES
 E. Chargaff and his colleagues (1949) at Columbia analysed the composition of DNA from
various sources by quantitative chromatographic methods. Their observations are called Chargaff’s
rules which state:
 Purine and pyrimidine bases occur in equal amounts in a DNA molecule, i.e., A + G = T + C.
 Amount of adenine is equivalent to the amount of thymine (A/T = 1).
 Amount of cytosine is equivalent to that of guanine (C/G = 1).
 A/T =1
 G/C =1
 A + C = G + T (bases with 6 amino group equal to bases with 6 keto group)
 A + T / G + C ratio ( disymmetric ratio) is specific for a species and varies with species and
range between 0.4 to 1.9. It is low in microbes and high in higher animals eg. Human = 1.52 and
E.coli = 0.92). It is used to identify DNA from a particuar source.
Solved example :
DNA was extracted from Staphylococcus bacterium. The proportion of cytosine was found to
be 37% . calculate the amount of adenine?
Solution :
Staphylococcus has dsDNA.
So amount of C = G
A=T
If C is 37% , then G + C = 74%
So A+T = 100 – 74% = 26%
A = 26/2 = 13% Ans
iii) Linus Pauling’s proposal of hydrogen bonds by which 2 polynucleotide strands are held
together.
STRUCTURE OF RNA
Like DNA, it is a polynucleotide but a number of differences are found in their structure. In RNA,
the pentose sugar is ribose and not deoxyribose; also it contains uracil in place of thymine. Most
RNAs are usually single stranded with partial double-stranded regions due to folding back of and
pairing within its single chain.
RNA serves as the genetic material in many viruses, some of which have double stranded RNA.
The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows.
* The DNA has 2 polynucleotide strands coiled helically in clock wise direction around a common
axis
* The two polynucleotide strands are quite complementary and anti parallel
* The two strands are held up together by H-bonds
* Phosphate group is lined to 5-OH of the nucleoside through a phosphoester bonds
* Two nucleotides are linked through 3’  ’5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide and
these linkages are called phosphodiester bonds
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* Phosphodiester bonds are a type of covalent bonds

* The two chains have antiparallel polarity i.e., one chain has the polarity 5’  ’3’ and the other has
3’  ’5’.
* The plane of one base pair stacks over the other double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds confers
stability of the helical structure .
3
OH
Hydrogen
bond 5
P

H-C-H A T H-C-H
1nm
0.34 nm P

H-C-H H-C-H

5 P
3
P
3.4 nm
3
H-C-H H-C-H
5
P

H-C-H H-C-H
(a) Double helix P
5
OH
* Each polynucleotide strand is a polymer of nucleotides
* DNA has deoxyribose sugar which differs from ribose sugar in having one Oxygen atom less at
2nd carbon position
* There are 4 types of Nitrogen bases - Adenine, Guanine Thymine & Cytosine
* A denine and guanine are purines with two C-N rings (Dicyclic heterocyclic N2 bases)
* Sugar- phosphate chains formed by phosphodiester bonds acts as backbones of DNA
* N2 bases are held upto sugar molecules by glycosidic bonds and project inside
* Base pairing occurs between sugar molecules of opposide strands forming steps/rungs
* The nitrogen bases forming steps are called complementary base pair.
* Base pairing is highly specific, The purine, Adenine combines with pyrimidine thymine cytosine with
Guanine by 3 H- bond (G  C)
The length of one turn of DNA is 34A0 or 3.4nm
The distance between two consecutive base pair is 3.4A0 or 0.34nm
The angle of one turn or helix is 3600.
The angle between successive base pairs is 360
The diameter of DNA is 20A0 constant. One purine always combines with one pyrimidine.
3600
One coil of DNA has 10 base pairs,  10
360
Maximum no of H bonds in one turn = 30
Minimum no of H bonds in one turn = 20
* DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids
* DNA is found to be the genetic material in almost all organisms.
* RNA is the genetic material in some viruses (RNA viruses like retro viruses and HIV)

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5' phosphate
3' hydroxyl
H H H H
P c P c P c P c
H H OH
H H
Adenine Thymine Guanine
(A) (T) Cytosine
(G)
(C)

CENTRAL DOGMA OF MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

* The expression of the genetic material occurs generally through the production of proteins. This
involves two consecutive steps. These are transcription and translation.
* In transcription, the genetic information stored in DNA is transferred to an RNA, which in turn uses
this information to direct the synthesis of proteins during translation. This unidirectional flow of
information was described by F.H.C. Crick in 1958 as the ‘Central dogma’ of Molecular
Biology.
DNA Replication RNA Replication

DNA transcription RNA translation Protein

Reverse transcription
The flow of genetic information
 DNA is a self replicating molecule. In 1970, however, an important modification of this information
flow was brought to light by the work of H.M. Temin and D. Baltimore. Many tumor viruses
contain RNA as genetic material and replicate by first synthesising a complementary DNA. This
process is called Reverse transcription also called Teminism. It is carried out by an RNA-
dependent DNA polymerase called reverse transcriptase.
* These viruses are known as retroviruses and include Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) that
causes AIDS.
* Crick has propsed the concept of “Central dogma in molecular biology” to explain the flow of
genetic information from generation to generation. According to this, the flow of Genetic information
Transcription Translation

is DNA RNA Protein

PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX
* DNA length in the nucleus of human cell is extimated to be 2.2 meters. The diameter of typical
nucleus is 10-6m.
* In prokaryotes, such as E.coli the length of DNA is 1.36 mm
* In the nucleoid region, this DNA is packed along with some +vely charged proteins
* The DNA of prokaryotes is almost circular and lacks chomatin organisation. It is also called
Genophore.
* In Eukaryotes, DNA and histones together form Chromatin.
* The chromatin appears as a string of beads.
* Each bead like structure is nucleosome.Repeated units of chromatin are nucleosomes.
* Histones are basic proteins. There are 5 types of histones H1 H2AH2B,H3and H4

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* Two molecules of each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 together form histone octamer (+vely charged)
* The +vely charged histone octamer forms core which is wrapped by two coils of DNA forming a
nucleosome.
Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and Arginine which carry positive charges in
their side chains.
8 Molecules of Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called Histone octamer.
These are arranged in two rings i.e., outer and inner rings, 4 histone in each ring
* H1 is found out side the nuclesosome, in the linker DNA region to seal the DNA coilings.
* The Chromatin (string of beads) packed up to form Chromatin fibres.
* The Chromatin fibres are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage to form chromosomes
during cell division
* The packing of chromatin at higher level requires some other proteins called non histone proteins

* In Interphase nucleus, some chromatin is loosely packed & lightly stained (Euchromatin) and some
portion is tightly packed & darkly stained (Hetero chromatin)
* Eurchromatin is transcriptionally (genetically) active and heterochromatin is inactive.
DNA
DNA H1 histone

H2A H2B

Nucleosome
Histone H1
octamer

H4 H3

Core of histone molecules

Core of 8 Histones

3. DNA as an acidic substance present in

nucleus was first identified by
(1) Watson (2) Griffith
(3) Levene (4) Friedrich Meischer
1. The length of DNA usually depends on 4. The distance between two consecutive base
(1) position of nucleotides pairs in DNA is
(2) no of nucleotides (1) 0.34×10–9 m (2) 3.4×10–9 m
(3) both 1 and 2 (3) 34×10–9 m (4) 34×10–6 m
(4) None of the above 5. Thymine can also be designated as
2. Deoxyguanosine is a
(1) 3 - Methyl uracil (2) 2 - Methyl uracil
(1) nucleoside of DNA (2) nucleoside of RNA
(3) 4 - Methyl uracil (4) 5 - Methyl Uracil
(3) nucleotide of DNA (4) nucleotide RNA

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6. Name the histone proteins which together 12. In polynucleotide chain, nucleoside is
forms the histone octamer structure formed though a N-glycosidic linkage by
(1) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 joining
(2) H1, H2A , H2B and H4 (1) Phosphate group with nitrogeneous base
(2) Nitrogenous base with nitrogenous base
(3) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(3) Nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(4) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 and H1
(4) Pentose sugar with phosphate group
7. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit
13. The structures in chromatin seen as ‘beads-
of a structure in nucleus called
on string’ when viewed under electron
(1) chromatid (2) nucleolus microscope are called
(3) chromatin (4) telomere (1) nucleotides (2) nucleosides
8. Theoretically, how many nucleosomes do (3) histone octamers (4) nucleosomes
you imagine are present in a mammalian 14. Ratio of DNA : histone in prokaryotes is
cell? (1) 1:2 (2) 1:0 (3) 2:1 (4) 2:0
(1) equal to number of chromosomes 15. How far is each base pair from the next one
(2) equal to number of nucleotides in the DNA double helix model?
(1) 2 nm (2) 3.4 nm
(3) equal to number of histone molecules
(3) 34 nm (4) 0.34 nm
(4) equal to number of base pairs divided by 16. One turn of Z-DNA has
200
(1) 10 base pair (2) 12 base pair
9. Which of the following is not a salient (3) 9.33 base pair (4) 11 base pair
features of the Double-helix structure of
17. In a typical mammalian cell the length of
DNA
DNA is
(1) two chains have parallel polarity (1) 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10-9m
(2) a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine (2) approximately 2.2 metres
(3) approximately uniform distance between (3) 1.36 mm (4) both 1 and 2
the two strands of the helix 18. Uracil is associated with which sugar?
(1) Generally Deoxyribose
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed
fashion (2) Sometimes Ribose
(3) Only ribose (4) Hexose
10. Select an incorrect statement for prokar-
yotes, such as, E.coli. 19. Arginine and lysine are ......A....... amino
acids and found abundantly in ......B.......
(1) they do not have a defined nucleus
Choose the correct option for A and B.
(2) the DNA is scattered throughout the cell
(1) A-acidic; B-protamine
(3) DNA is held with some proteins having (2) A-basic; B-histone proteins
positive charges in a region termed as nucleoid’ (3) A-acidic; B-histone proteins
(4) The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large (4) A-neutral; B-histone proteins
loops held by proteins. 20. D.N. A. strands are anti - parallel
11. Haploid content of human DNA is because of
(1) 3.3 × 109 bp (2) 5386 nucleotides (1) H-bonds (2) Phosphate diester-bonds
(3) Di-sulphide-bonds
(3) 48502 base pairs (4) 4.6 × 106 bp
(4) Phosphate-bonds
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21. A DNA molecule contains 10,000 base (3) set of positively charged, basic proteins
pairs, then the length of this DNA (4) set of negatively charged, basic proteins
molecule is 29. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as
(1) 3.4 x10–5 meter (2) 0.34 x10–5 meter (1) ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed
under electron microscope
(3) 34 x10–5 meter (4) None of above (2) beads-on-string’ structure when viewed
22. Reverse transcriptase is under simple microscope
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) coiled structure when viewed under
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase electron microscope
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) polyhedral structure when viewed under
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase electron microscope
30. Uridine is a
(1) nucleoside of DNA
23. A nitrogenous base is linked to the
(2) nucleoside of RNA
_________ through a _________ linkage
to form a nucleoside (3) nucleotide of DNA
(1) phosphate group, phosphoester (4) nucleotide of RNA
(2) pentose sugar, N-glycosidic 31. Ribose sugar is present in
(3) phosphate group, N-glycosidic (1) RNA polymerase and ATP
(4) pentose sugar, hydrogen bonds (2) RNA and ATP
24. A phosphate group is linked to ____ of a (3) RNA polymerase, RNA and ATP
nucleoside through_________. (4) RNA only.
(1) 3'-OH, phosphoester linkage 32. No of base pairs is the characteristic of an
(2) 2'-OH, glycosidic linkage organism.A bacteriophage known
(3) 5'-OH group, phosphoester linkage as × 174 has
(4) 1'-OH, phosphoester linkage (1) 5386 nucleotides (2) 48502 base pairs
25. Nucleic acids are polymers of (3) 4.6 × 106 bp (4) 3.3 × 109 bp
(1) nucleotides (2) amino acids 33. Deoxycytidine is a
(3) nitrogen bases (4) sugars (1) nucleoside of DNA
(2) nucleoside of RNA
26. If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm,
calculate the number of base pairs in E.coli. (3) nucleotide of DNA
(4) nucleotide RNA
(1) 4.6 × 109 bp (2) 6.6 × 109 bp
34. Select the incorrect sentence for
(3) 4.6 × 106 bp (4) 6.6 × 106 bp
heterochromatin.
27. In a 3.2 Kbp long piece of DNA, 820
(1) It is densely packed (2) It stains dark
adenine bases were found. What would be
(3) It is transcriptionally active
the number of cytosine bases?
(4) It is late replicating
(1) 780 (2) 1560 (3) 740 (4) 1480
35. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a
28. Histones are
class of sugars called
(1) set of positively charged, acidic proteins
(1) trioses (2) hexoses
(2) set of negatively charged, acidic proteins
(3) pentoses (4) polysaccharides
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36. If the sequence of bases in one strand of

DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the
sequence of bases on complementary CRTQ: 01. (2) 02. (1) 03. (4)
strand? 04. (1) 05. (4) 06. (3) 07. (3)
08. (4) 09. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1)
(1) ATGCATGCA (2) AUGCAUGCA 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (4)
(3) TACGTACGT (4) UACGUACGU 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2)
37. In a DNA strand, the adjacent nucleotides 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (2)
SPQ: 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
are linked together by 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1)
(1) glycosidic bonds (2) phosphodiester bonds 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1)
34. (3) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (2)
(3) peptide bonds (4) hydrogen bonds
38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1)
38. Adenosine is a
42. (2) 43. (2)
(1) nitrogenous base (2) nucleotide
(3) ribonucleoside (4) ribonucleotide
39. Cytidine is a
2. (1) Deoxyribose sugar + Guanine
(1) nucleoside of DNA (2) nucleoside of RNA
8. (2) Uridine = Ribose sugar + Uracil. Uracil
(3) nucleotide of DNA (4) nucleotide RNA present in RNA
40. If the total amount of adenine and thymine 9. (1) Two chains have antiparallel polarity
in a ds DNA is 55%, the amount of guanine 10 (2) DNA is located at certain place which is
in this DNA will be held with positively charged proteins
(1) 45% (2) 27.5% (3) 25% (4) 22.5% 21 (2) No. of base pairs X distance between 2
41. Which of the following is not a salient features Consective base pairs
of the Double-helix structure of DNA 22 (2) Synthesis of DNA from RNA by the
enzyme reverse transcriphase catalysed by
(1) pitch of the helix is 10-9 m RNA dependent DNA polymerasel
(2) there are roughly 10 bp in each turn 26. (3) 1.36 mm= 1.36x10-3m
(3) the distance between a bp in a helix is 1m= 109 nm
approximately equal to 0.34 nm 1.36x109x10-3=1.36x106nm
(4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the
1.36  106
other in double helix No of turns =  0.4  106
3.4
42. The back bone of RNA is consists of
27. (1) 3.2 Kbp =3200 bp
which of the following sugar:
A=T A+T=1640
(1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose
820=820 G+C=3200-(A+T)
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose =3200-1640=1560
43. Euchromatin is transcriptionally .....A..... GC
chromatin and heterochromatin is 780  780
transcriptionally .....B..... chromatin. 28. (3) Positive charge is due to lysine and
Choose the correct option for A and B. arginine rich amino acids
(1) A-Active; B-neutral 31 (2) ATP is nucleotide : Adinine+ribose sugar+
phosphate
(2) A-Active; B-inactive
34 (3) Heterochromatin is transcriptionallyinactive
(3) A-lnactive; B-active
40 (4) (A+T) = 55% (G+C) = 45% G  C
(4) A-lnactive; B-neutral  G=22.5%
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SEARCH FOR GENETIC MATERIAL

* Frederick Meisher isolated phosphorus rich, weak organic acids from the nuclei of pus cells and
named as nuclein.
* Altmann changed the name “nuclein” to “nucleic acid”
* Nucleic acids are of 2 types -DNA & RNA
* Direct proof for DNA as the genetic material comes from Transformation experiments on
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hershey & Chase experiments on bacteriophages.
TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE (FREDERICK GRIFFITH’S EXPERIMENT)
* In 1928, Frederick Griffith, a British scientist working on the pathogenicity of a bacterial strain,
Diplococcus pneumoniae now called Streptococcus, discovered the process of transformation.
* This strain causes bacterial pneumonia in mammals including humans. The disease-causing or S-
strain has cells surrounded by a capsule, and forms smooth colonies when grown on agar medium.
Some mutant strains form rough colonies or R strains. This strain does not cause pneumonia.
* When S strains are heat-killed and injected into mouse, no disease symptom appears.
* Surprisingly, however, when a mixture of heat killed S type (inactivated) and live R bacteria (non
pathogenic) were mixed and then injected, disease reappeared. Live S type cells could be
recovered from the blood of dead mice.
* Griffith proposed that a ‘transforming principle’, a chemical substance was released by the killed
S cells which transformed the R bacteria into S type. This was a permanent genetic change as S
type bacteria continued to produce similar cells.
(a) Type R (b) Type S (c)Heat killed (d) Type R Heat
nonvirulent virulent Type S killed Type S

No bacteria virulent Type S No bacteria virulent Type S

recovered recovered recovered recovered

BIOCHEMICAL CHARACTERIZATION OF TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE

* Prior to the work of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be
protein.
* In 1944, Oswald T Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty revealed the chemical nature
of the transforming substance to be DNA. They showed that DNA isolated from heat killed S
bacteria could by itself confer the pathogenic properties to R cells. This fact suggested that DNA
has the genetic properties.
* They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes
(RNAse) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or RNA.

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Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, so DNA caused transformation.

* They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all biologists were convinced.

Homogenize
Centrifuge Heat-kill cells
Recover III S filtrate
IIIS cells spun to Extract carbohydrates,
bottom of tube lipids, and proteins
IIIS cells liquid
culture medium
Treat with Treat with Treat with
deoxyribonuclease ribonuclease protease

Assay for
Transformation

IIR cells IIR cells IIR cells IIR cells

+ + + +
DNase-treated RNase-treated Protease-treated IIIS filtrate
IIIS filtrate IIIS filtrate IIIS filtrate
No transformation Transformation Transformation Transformation
occurs occurs occurs occurs

IIR cells IIR cells IIR cells

Only IIR + + +
cells IIIS cells IIIS cells IIIS cells

Conclusion: Conclusion: Active Conclusion: Active Control: IIIS contains

Active factor is DNA factor is not RNA factor is not protein active factor
IIIS Cells

IIR Cells
THE GENETIC MATERIAL IS DNA
* The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred
Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) on T2 bacteriophage.
* They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages.
* The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic material as if it was its own and subsequently
manufactures more virus particles.
* Hershey and Chase worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses that
entered the bacteria.
* They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others
on medium that contained radioactive sulfur.
* Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but protein does not.
* Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive
DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur.
* Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E. coli bacteria. Then, as the infection
proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender.
* The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a centrifuge.
* Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating

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that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that were
infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive.
* This indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the
genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria.
Bacteriophage 32
Radioactive ( P)
35
Radioactive ( S) labelled DNA
labelled protein
capsule

1.Infection

2.Blending

3. Centrifugation
35 32
No Radioactive ( S)
Radioactive ( P)
detected in cells
detected in cells
+ +
RadioactiveNo Radioactivity
35
( S)detected indetected in
supernatant supernatant
Hershey and Chase’s experiment demonstrating that only phage DNA injected in the host cell
determines all the characteristics of the progeny phage.
PROPERTIES OF GENETIC MATERIAL (DNA VS RNA)
* DNA as the genetic material was unequivocally resolved from Hershey-chase experiment.
* It became an established fact that it is DNA that acts as genetic material. However, it subsequently
became clear that in some viruses, RNA is the genetic material (for example, Tobacco Mosaic
viruses, QB bacteriophage, etc).
* Answer to some of the questions such as, why DNA is the predominant genetic material, where
as RNA performs dynamic functions of messenger and adapter has to be found from the differences
between chemical structures of the two nucleic acid molecules.
* A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the following criteria:
* It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
* It should chemically and structurally be stable.
* It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
* It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.
* Because of rule of base pairing and complementarity, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have
the ability to direct their duplications. The other molecules in the living system, such as proteins fail
to fulfill first cirteria itself.
* The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of life cycle, age
or with change in physiology of the organism.
* Stability as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming
principle’ itself that heat, which killed the bacteria, at least did not destroy some of the properties
of genetic material.
* This now can easily be explained in light of the DNA that the two strands being complementary
if separated by heating come together, when appropriate conditions are provided.

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* Further, 2-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA labile
and therefore, DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to
RNA. Therefore, among the two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better genetic material.
* In fact, the presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers additional stability to DNA.
* Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate.
Consequently, viruses having RNA genome are having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
* RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins hence can easily express the characters. DNA,
however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising machinery has
evolved around RNA. The above discussion indicate that both RNA and DNA can function as
genetic material.
* DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. For the transmission of
genetic information, RNA is better

6. Role of DNA in heredity was discovered for

the first time through experiments
involving:
(1) Transformation using E. coli
(2) Transduction involving bacteriophage
(3) The use of enzymes protease and nuclease
1. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an (4) Transformation using heat killed virulent
additional –OH group present at____ when and living nonvirulent S. pneumoniae
compared to DNA 7. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin
(1) 1' -position in the ribose MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44),
(2) 2' -position in the ribose the genetic material was thought to be a
(3) 3' -position in the ribose (1) Protein (2) DNA (3) RNA (4) Sugar
(4) 5' -position in the ribose 8. DNA is a genetic material because
2. RNA is the genetic material (1) It has capacity to replicate
(1) in some viruses (2) in some monerans (2) It is chemically and structurally stable
(3) It provide scope for slow mutations
(3) in some protists (4) in some bacteria
(4) All of these
3. Which of the following radioisotopes is not
9. Avery, Mc Carty and Macleod fractionated
suitable for DNA labelling based studies ?
bacteria into
(1) H3 (2) P32 (3) N15 (4) S35 (1) DNA, RNA and proteins
4. A genetic material should be stable enough (2) DNA, lipid and proteins
not to change with (3) Carbohydrate, lipid and proteins
(1) different stages of life cycle (4) DNA, carbohydrate and lipid
(2) age of the cell / organism 10. A molecule that can act as a genetic material
(3) change in physiology of the organism must fulfill the following criteria except :
(4) all of these (1) It should be able to generate its replica
5. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) (2) It should chemically and structurally be
stable as compared to DNA. stable.
(1) (i) equally, (ii) equally (3) It should provide the scope for rapid changes
(2) (i) less, (ii) more that are required for evolution.
(3) (i) more, (ii) less (4) It should be able to express itself in the form
(4) (i) more, (ii) equally of ‘Mendelian Characters’.

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19. Bonding between deoxyribose and base in

a pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is
11. In RNA the uracil is found at the place of (1) glycosidic linkage (2) ester linkage
(1) adenine (2) cytosine (3) hydrogen bonds (4) peptide linkage
(3) guanine (4) thymine
12. Isotopes used by Hershey and Chase were
(1) 32P and 35S (2) 34P and 31S
(3) 34P and 31S (4) 30P and 32S CRTQ: 01. (2) 02. (1) 03.(4) 04. (4)
13. Which group present in RNA nucleotide is 05. (3) 06. (4) 07. (1) 08. (4)
very reactive and makes RNA liable and 09. (1) 10. (3)
easily degradable than DNA? SPQ: 11. (4) 12.(1) 13. (2) 14. (1)
(1) 2-OH’group on the purine base 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4)
(2) 2-OH’group on ribose sugar 19. (1)
(3) 3-OH’group on ribose sugar
(4) 4-OH’group on ribose sugar
14. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
genetic material came from the experi-
ments of 10 (3) It should provide the scope for slow
(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase changes that are required for evolution
(2) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and
Maclyn McCarty
(3) Walter Sutton
(4) Thomas Hunt Morgan
15. Molecular explanation for transformation
was given by: RNA WORLD
(l) Griffith (2) Avery, Mc Carty and Mc Leod * RNA was the first genetic material
(3) Lederberg and Tatum * Essential life processes ( metabolism, translation,
(4) Avery and Mc Carty splicing etc) are evolved around RNA
16. Bacterium in which transformation was first * RNA used to act as genetic material as well as
studied is catalyst.
(1) Salmonella typhi * Catalytic RNA or RNA enzymes are known
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae as Ribozymes.
(3) E. coli (4) Staphylococcus aureus * RNA being catalyst was reactive and hence
17. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the unstable.
genetic material proof by Hershey and * DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
Chase. They worked with modifications that made it more stable.
(1) Bacteriophages (2) Mycoplasma * DNA by having two complementary strands
(3) Fungi (4) Plant cell became stable and further resists changes by
18. Which of the following step shows evolving a process of repair
transformation w.r.t. Griffith Experiment.
(1) Mouse inoculated with encapsulated
REPLICATION
bacteria * The duplication of DNA molecules is called
(2) Mouse inoculated with non encapsulated replication
bacteria * The Primary function of DNA is to synthesizes
(3) Mouse inoculated with heat killed its own copy (Autocatalysis)
encapsulate bacteria * The possibility for replication of DNA based
(4) Heat killed encapsulated and non on the double helical model was suggesed by
encapsulated bacterial inoculation Watson and Crick

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* In each daughter DNA molecule, one strand is parental (i.e., template strand) and the other strand
is newly synthesised and this scheme of synthesis of DNA molecule is termed as semiconservative
method of DNA replication.
* Semiconservative method of DNA replication was proposed by JD Watson & FHC Crick
GC

AT
AT
GC
TA

CG
AT
GC
Template TA Template
strand strand
CG
A T
T A
G C
A
T
A T
5 C G
3
GC GC
TA TA
AT AT
CG
New New
strand AT AT strand
GC GC
TA TA
GC GC

THE EXPERIMENTAL PROOF

* The semiconservative DNA replication was confirmed by an elegant experiment conducted by M.
Meselson and F.W. Stahl in 1958. They grew E. coli cells in the presence of heavy isotope 15N
(in the form of 15NH4Cl) for several generations. This led to the incorporation of heavy isotope in
all nitrogen-containing compounds including bases. Such cells were then shifted to normal 14N for
one or two generations.
* DNA was isolated from the cells at each generation and the DNA molecules containing 15N and
14
N were separated on CsCl-equilibrium density gradient centrifugation.
* When a solution of Cesium chloride (CsCl) is spun in a centrifuge at a very high speed (50,000
revolutions per minute) for many hours, the salt tends to settle down in the centrifuge tube creating
a density gradient.In this gradient, the highest ion concentration will be encountered at the bottom.
* When DNA is mixed with CsCl, it will finally settle at some point in the tube where the centrifugal
force balances the buoyancy of DNA. DNA containing heavy isotope 15N has greater density and
is called heavy DNA. Such a DNA settles at the heavier range of the gradient.
* After one generation, in 14N medium, all DNA acquired an intermediate density whereas after
two generations two bands were seen, one at intermediate and the other at ‘light’ DNA density.
* After one generation in 14N medium, both the daughter DNAs will have 15N/14N composition
instead of 15N/15N of the original and thus will have an intermediate density. After two generations,
from a 15N/14N DNA two daughter helices formed will be 15N/14N and 14N/14N. This explains
the two corresponding bands.
* Just a year before Messelson and Stahl’s experiment, Taylor et al (1957) found semi conservative
replication at chromosome level in root tips of Broad Bean (Vicia faba) with radioactive 3H
containing thymidine instead of normal thymidine.

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DNA extracted and centrifuged

to equilibrium in CsCl
density gradient

“Heavy”
DNA(15N)
Original parent
molecule

“Hybrid”
DNA(15N/14N)
First-generation
daughter molecules

“Light”
DNA(14N)
“Hybrid” DNA

Second-generation
daughter molecules
Fig : Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment

Solved example
If hybrid DNA (N14 N15) is allowed to replicate thrice in a medium containing N14 then what
is the proportion of light heavy and hybrid DNA obtained respectively?
Solution
Hybrid DNA
st 14
1 replication in N containing medium
14 14 14 15
N N N N

nd
2 replication
14 14 14 14 14 14 14 15
N N N N N N N N

rd
3 replication
14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 15
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N

Light Hybrid
Light : Heavy : Hybrid
7 0 1
THE MACHINERY AND THE ENZYMES

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* In living cells, such as E coli the process of replication required a set of catalysts
(enzymes)
* The main enzyme required for DNA replication is “DNA dependent DNA
polymerase”
* It is estimated that, DNA polymerase adds deoxyribonuleotides to the newly
developing nuleotide strand at an aveage rate of polymerisation of approximately
2000 bp per second. E coli completes the replication of its 4.6x106 bp DNA in
18 minutes
* since the DNA molecule is very long, the two strands cannot be separated through
out the entire length in one stretch due to very high energy requirement.
therefore, replication occurs at a time with in a small opening of DNA helix
referred to as “Replication fork”
 In E.coli, the entire DNA acts as one unit of replication (one replicon)
 In eukaryotes, there are several replicons (units of replication).
* In each replicon, replication begins as ‘Ori’ region
 First of all, two polynucleotide strands of replicon are separated at ‘Ori’ region
catalysed by the enzyme, Helicase.
 Two replication forks are formed in each replication.
* In E.coli, the replication is unidirectional where as in eukaryotes, replication is
bidirectional
in each replicon. So that total time of replication can be reduced considerably.
* Both polynucleotide strands of DNA act as templates for replication (for the
synthesis of new strands)
* DNA polymerase catalyses the synthesis of new DNA strand in 51  31 direction.
* On 31  51 template, new DNA strand is synthesized continuously and is called
leading strand.
* On 51  31 template, new DNA strand, synthesis is discontinous in the form of
fragments in 51  31 direction, called Okazaki fragment
* The Okazaki fragments are joined by ligase to form a continuous strand called
Lagging strand
* To start polymerisation of DNA, a short segment of RNA primer is essential
which is later on removed
 During replication, tension is created in front of replication fork which can be
removed by the enzyme. Topoisomerase
* During genetic engineering (r DNA technology) the idea gene cloning vector
provided the ‘Ori’ region.
Replication of DNA generally occurs in ‘s’ phase of cell cycle
* Replication of DNA and cell division cycle should be rightly co-ordinated
* Any failure of cell division after DNA replication may result in polyploidy

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5 3
Template
strands

Replication fork
DNA
polymerase
3 5 DNA
polymerase
DNA
Okazaki ligase
fragments

Leading
3 5 Leading strand 3 5
strand
5. In the process of DNA replication
(1) One strand of DNA is conserved and another
newly synthesized
(2) Both the strands of DNA are newly
synthesized
1. The first genetic material was (3) Both the strand of DNA is conserved
(4) None of these
(1) RNA (2) DNA
6. Evidence of replication on Vicia faba root
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
tip was given by
2. Ribozymes are
(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Taylor
(1) RNA acting as enzymes (3) Koch (4) Watson and Crick
(2) DNA acting as enzymes
7. The replication of the lagging strand
(3) DNA acting as molecular scissors generates a small polynucleotide fragment
(4) RNA acting as molecular scissors called
3. Name the heavy isotope used by Meselson (1) RNA fragment (2) Okazaki fragment
and Stahl for proving the semiconservative
mode of DNA. (3) DNA fragment
(1) 15NH4CI (2) 14NH3CI2 (4) Hybrid (DNA-RNA) fragments
8. The isotope used by Meselson and Stahl in
(3) 13NH2CI2 (4) All of these
their experiment was
4. Okazaki fragments are (1) O18 (2) C14 (3) H3 (4) N15.
(1) large DNA segments having promoter, 9. During DNA replication in prokaryotes
initiation, coding and terminator regions DNA is attached to:
(2) short segments of replicated DNA formed (1) Chromosome (2) Mesosome
from DNA template with polarity 5' —> 3' (3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome
(3) additional nucleotides added to the ends of
RNA
(4) short segments of wrong bases introduced 10. Processes like metabolism, splicing and
during replication. translation are evolved around
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) protein (4) nucleus

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11. (-) sign and (+) sign for DNA strand stands for 18. Replication fork is–
(1) Non-coding strand and coding strand (1) Large opening of the DNA helix
(2) Template strand and non-template strand (2) Small opening of the DNA helix
(3) Antisense strand and sense strand (3) Tightly coiled part of DNA helix
(4) All of the above (4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix
12. DNA polymerase is the another name of
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase CRTQ: 01. (1) 02. (1) 03. (1) 04. (2) 05. (1)
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
06. (2) 07. (2) 08. (4) 09. (2)
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
SPQ: 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2)
13. Which of the following DNA polymerase of
prokaryotes have both 3'  5' and 5'  3' 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2)
exonuclease activity?
(1) DNA Pol II (2) DNA Pol I
(3) DNA Pol IV (4) DNA Pol III 2 (1) Ribozymes are non proteinaceous cata-
14. Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand is lysts present in RNA (23srRNA)
joined together by the enzyme
17 (3) One is parental & another strands is
(1) Primase (2) DNA ligase newly synthesised hence conservation both
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Polymerase the strands acts as templetes synthesised new
15. Sequence of enzyme acting in DNA strands in opposite directions
replication is
(1) Helicase, topoisomerase, DNA polymerase,
ligase
(2) Topoisomerase, helicase, DNA polymerase,
ligase
(3) DNA polymerase, helicase, ligase, TRANSCRIPTION
topoisomerase * The process of copying genetic information
(4) Ligase, helicase, topoisomerase, DNA from template strand of DNA into RNA is
polymerase called transcription.
16. J. H. Taylor’s experiment which proved that * During transcription, only a segment of DNA
DNA replication is semi-conservative, was and one of the two strands of DNA in that
done on segment is copied into RNA.
(1) salivary gland cells of Drosophila * The boundaries of the DNA segment and
melanogaster the strand to be transcribed must be defined
(2) root tip cells of Vicia faba * If both stands of DNA act as templates two
types of RNAs and 2 types of proteins
(3) oocyte of Periplaneta americana may be formed or both RNA strands may join
(4) cells of Neurospora crassa. to form ds RNA since the strands are
17. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is :- complementary
(1) Conservative and unidirectional * If ds RNA is formed, translation of RNA
would be prevented
(2) Semi conservative and unidirectional
* During transcription, the thymine present in
(3) Conservative and bidirectional
DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA.
(4) Semi conservative and bidirectional

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TRANSCRIPTION UNIT
* The unit of transcription of DNA primarily has
i) a promoter region
ii) a structural gene and
iii) a terminator
* Of the two strands of the structural gene in transcription unit, the strand with 51  31 polarity is
considered as coding strand/ sense strand since it has the genetic information regarding protein
synthesis
* The other strand of DNA with 31  51 polarity is called noncoding strand/Antisense strand. This
strand is considered as template DNA strand for mRNA synthesis
* 51 end of coding strand after the promoter is the starting point of transcription and 31 end after
terminator is the end point of transcription.
* The promoter and terminator flank the structutal gene in transcription unit
* The promoter is said to be located towards 5’ end (upstream) of the structural gene and it is
represented with respect to the polarity of coding strand
* The terminator is located towards ‘3’ end (down stream) of the coding strand and it usually defines
the end of the process of transcription
* There are some additional regulatory sequences that may be present further upstream or downstream
to the promoter.
Transcription start site
Structural Template
Promoter Terminator
gene strand
3 5

5 3
Coding strand
Schematic structure of a transcription unit
TRANSCRIPTION UNIT AND THE GENE
* A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance. Genes are the regions of DNA
* Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
* The structural gene in transcription unit is monocistronic in eukaryotes and polycistronic in
prokaryotes.
* Monocistronic genes in enkaryotes are split genes since they have interrupted coding sequences.
* In the split gene, coding sequence / expressed sequences are defined as exons. The exons are
interrupted by introns or intervening sequences
* From split gene, hn RNA ( hetrogenous nuclear RNA) is synthesized. After splicing (removal of
intron portions and joining of exon portions), functional m RNA is synthesized.
* Inheritance of a character is also affected by promoter and regulatory sequence of a structural gene.
Hence, sometime the regulatroy sequences are loosely defined as regulatory genes, even though
these sequences do not code for any RNA or protein.
TYPES OF RNA AND THE PROCESS OF TRANSCRIPTION
* In bacteria, there are 3 major types of RNA’s
i) mRNA ii) rRNA iii) tRNA
* All three types of non-genetic RNA’s are needed for synthesis of protein in the cell.

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* There is single DNA dependent RNA polymerase to catalyse the synthesis of all types of RNA
in bacteria
* RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription.
* Ribonucleoside triphosphates act as substances for the synthesis of RNA.
* RNA is synthesized as a complementary strand to template DNA
* After reaching the terminator region, RNA polymerase and the nascent RNA fall off making the
end of transcription
* RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing only process of elongation
* Initiation factor (sigma factor  ) associated with the enzyme, temporarily initiates the synthesis
of RNA and termination factor (Rho factor  ) associates with the enzyme helps for
temination.
* In bacteria, since the mRNA does not require any processing to become active, and also since
transcription and translation take place in the same compartment (there is no separation of cytosol
and nucleus in bacteria), many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully
transcribed.
* Consequently, the transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.
* In Eukaryotes, there are 3 types of RNA polymerases in the nucleus.
* RNA polymerase I transcribes r RNAs. (i.e., 28s, 18s, 5.8s)
* RNA polymerase II transcribes hn RNA (The mRNA)
* RNA polymerase III transcribes t RNAs. (5sr RNA, sn RNAs)
* In eukaryotes, there are two additional complexities-
* hn RNA is synthesized first. It undergoes splicing to form functional m RNA.
* During capping, unusual nucleotide, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 51end of
hnRNA.
* In tailing, adenylate residues, 200-300, are added at 31end of hn RNA (poly AAAAA-...)
* The fully processed hn RNA i.e., functional m RNA is trasnported out of the nucleus for translation
* The split gene arrangments represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.
* The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity.
* The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world.
3 3
Initiation
5 5
Promoter  DNA helix
sigma factor
RNA Polymerase

3
5
5 Elongation
3
 Terminator
RNA

3 5
Termination
5 3 RNA
Polymerase

RNA
Rho factor

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(2) 50S tRNA

(3) 30S tRNA (4) 40S tRNA
9. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
(1) lysosomes (2) nucleolus
1. The enzyme that catalyses transcription of (3) nucleoplasm (4) ribosomes.
RNA in bacteria 10. The terminator is located
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (1) towards 3' – end (downstream) of the coding
(2) RNA polymerase I strand
(3) DNA polymerase (2) towards 5' – end (downstream) of the coding
(4) RNA polymerase II strand
2. RNA polymerase binds to ________and (3) towards 5' – end (upstream) of the coding
initiates transcription. strand
(1) operator (2) promoter (4) towards 3' – end (upstream) of the coding
(3) regulator (4) terminator strand
3. The core enzyme requires a factor for
termination of RNA synthesis at some
sites. This is known as: 11. This enzyme present in retroviruses
(1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor converts single stranded RNA into a double
(3) Gamma factor (4) Alpha particle stranded viral DNA is
4. In an animal cell, the processes of (1) transcriptase (2) reverse transcriptase
transcription and translation occur in (3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase.
(1) nucleus only (2) cytoplasm only 12. The presence of which gene in a transcription
(3) nucleus and cytoplasm respectively unit that also defines the template and coding
strands
(4) endoplasmic reticulum
(1) structural (2) operator
5. With regard to mature mRNA in
eukaryotes, which statement is correct? (3) promoter (4) regulator
(1) both exons and introns are absent 13. Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA)
usually occurs in
(2) both exons and introns are present
(1) Bacteria (2) Prokaryotes
(3) exons present, introns absent
(3) Eukaryotes (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) introns present, exons absent
14. The enzyme DNA dependent RNA
6. Nucleus is the site for the synthesis of :- polymerase catalyses the polymerization
(1) DNA (2) m- RNA (3) t- RNA (4) All reaction in _______ direction.
7. Mature eucaryotic m–RNA is recognised by (1) only 5 – 3 (2) only 3 – 5
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end (3) both the 5 – 3 and 3 – 5 directions
(2) Methyl guanosine at 5' end and (4) none of these
polyadenine bases at 3' end 15. Part of a gene which codes for an enzyme is
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end called
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding (1) Cistron (2) Exon (3) Intron (4) Codon
sequence 16. Messenger RNA is produced in :
8. RNA polymerase II transcribes (1) Nucleus (2) Golgi apparatus
(1) hnRNA (heterogenous nuclear RNA) (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Ribosomes

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17. RNA polymerase binds to the * The Indian born American Scientist Har Gobind
(1) regulator gene (2) promoter gene Khorana synthesised artificial RNA molecules
(3) operator gene (4) structural gene with defined combinations of bases such as
18. Which of the following rRNAs acts as UUU homopolymers and UUC, CCA
structural RNA as well as ribozyme in (copolymers) and helped to understand genetic
bacteria? code
(1) 5S rRNA (2) 18S rRNA * Marshal Nirenberg’s cell free system for
(3) 23S rRNA (4) 5.8S rRNA protein synthesis finally helped the code to
19. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splic- be deciphered
ing and RNA capping take place inside the The enzyme polynucleotide phoshorylase was
(1) ribosomes (2) nucleus discovered by Ochoa and hence it is also
(3) dictyosomes (4) ER. known as Ochoa’s enzyme. Which is helpful in
20.RNA polymerase initiates its activity by polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
(1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor template independent manner
(3) UAG (4) AUG * The code is triplt code i.e., 3 nucleotides form
into one codon and one codon can specify one
amino acid
CRTQ: 01. (1) 02. (2) 03. (2) 04. (3) There are 64 triplet codons in codons
05. (3) 06. (4) 07. (2) 08. (1) dictio-nary out of which 61 are called sense
09. (2) 10. (1) codons and three are nonsense codons.
SPQ: 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1)
* The codons which code for amino acids are
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3)
19. (2) 20.(1) called sense codons and the codons not coding
for amino acids are called non-sense codons
or terminating codons (or) stop codons.
* One codon codes for one amino acid,
GENETIC CODE hence it is unambiguious and specific

* The set of all possible three nucleotide combi- * Some amino acids are coded by more than
nations in DNA/mRNA that determine the one codon. Hence this type of code is
specific amino acid sequence present in a poly- called degenerate code.
peptide chain is called “Genetic code” * The code is read on mRNA in a contiguous
* The process of translation requires transfer of fashion: There are no punctuations.
genetic information from a polymer of nucleo- * The code is universal, i.e., the same codon in
tides to a polymer of amino acids. both prokaryotes and eukaryotes codes for
* George Gamow, a physicist argued that, since the same amino acid. for example UUU code
here are only 4 types of nitrogen bases either in for phenyl alanine (phe) in both Bacteria
DNA or RNA and these 4 bases have to code (Porkaryote) and Humans (Eukaryote). Some
for 20 types of amino acids, the code should exceptions to this rule have been found in mito-
constitute a combination of bases and suggested chondrial codons and in some protozoans.
that in order to code for all 20 amino acids, the * Among the total number of 61 sense
code should be made up of three nucleotides codons, one codon acts starting codon or
(triplet code). By permutation and combination initiation codon and it is mostly AUG. It
of 4 different types nucleotides would generate codes for methionine.
64 codons i.e., 43(4x4x4=4)
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 24
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* Initiator codon is always present at 5’ prime end of mRNA. the terminating

codons[UAA(Ochre),UAG(Almber),UGA(Umber/opal)] are always present at 3’ prime end of
mRNA.

Second Base
U C A C
UUU UCU UAU UGU cys U
Phe
UUC UCC Ser UAC Tyr UGC C
U
UUA Leu UCA UAA Stop UGA Stop A
UUG UCG UAG Stop UGG Trp G
CUU CCU CAU CGU U
CUC CCC CAC His CGC Arg C
C leu Pro
CUA CCA CAA CGA A
CAG Gln

Third Base
CUG CCG CGG G
First Base

AUU ACU AAU AGU U

Asn
A AUC Ile ACC AAC AGC Ser C
Thr A
AUA ACA AAA Lys AGA Arg
AUG Met. ACG AAG AGG G
GUU GCU GAU Asp GGU U
GUC Val GCC GAC GGC C
G Ala
GUA GCA GAA Glu GGA Gly A
GUG GCG GAG GGG G

DEGENERACY OF THE GENETIC CODE

 Some amino acids are coded for by multiple codons. This is called degeneracy. There are
18 amino acids which are coded by more than one codons.

 Degeneracy is explained by Wobble hypothesis. It was discovered by Bernfield and

Nirenberg
No of codons
Number of Codons For Different Amino acids
each
Tryptophan UGG
Methionine AUG 1
Phenylalanine, tryrosine, histidine, glutamine,
asparagine lysine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid,
cysteine.

Phenylalanine --- UUU , UUC 2

Aspartic Acid ----- GAU ,GAC
Glutamic Acid -- GAG , GAA
Lysine -------------- AAA , AAG
Tyrosine ----------- UAU , UAC

Isoleusine ---- AUU, AUC, AUA 3

Valine, Proline, threonine, alanine, glycine. 4

Leucine, arginine, serine.
6

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WOBBLE HYPOTHESIS
 It was proposed by Crick (1966) to describe the lack of specificity in the third base of codon.
According to this hypothesis, only the first two positions of a triplet codon on mRNA have a
precise pairing with the bases of the tRNA anticodon. The pairing of the third position bases of
the codon may be ambiguous, and varies according to the nucleotide present in this position.
Thus, a single tRNA type is able to recognize two or more codons differing only in the third
base. Such interaction between the third bases is referred to as Wobble pairing.
ARCHETYPAL CODE / MITOCHONDRIAL CODE
 It is found in human mitochondria , yeast mitochondria , Paramecium , PPLO, ciliates etc
Difference between UNIVERSAL and ARCHETYPAL codes
CODONS NORMAL ARCHETYPAL CODE
/UNIVERSAL
CODE
UAA Termination Glutamine
UAG Glutamine
UGA Tryptophan
AGG Arginine Termination
AGA
AUA Isoleusine Methionine

CUA Leusine Threonine

AAA Lysine Asparagine
Termination 3 UAA UAG UGA 4 UAA UAG AGA AGG
codons

The Codons for the Various Amino Acids

MUTATIONS AND GENETIC CODE :
* DNA is the genetic material and portions of DNA of specific size are the genes.
* The relationship between genes and DNA can be best understood by mutation studies.
* Effects of large sized deletions, additions, inversions etc in chromosomal part (DNA segment)
may result in loss or gain or change in a gene and so in function
* A classical example of gene mutation/point mutation is sickle celled anaemia.
* Sickle celled anaemia is due to a change in aminoacid (glutamate to valine) in the 6th
position of  -polypeptide chain.
* This is due to a change in the 6th codon of mRNA of  -cistron from GAA to GUA ie. in
that codon A is mutated of U.
* Frame shift mutations from another example of point mutations.
* Addition or deletion of nucleotides in DNA coding strand/mRNA result in a change of
codons. It leads to a change in aminoacid sequence.
* Frame shift mutations from the genetic basis of proof for triple code and is read in a
contiguous fashion
Consider a statement that is made up of the following words each having three letters like
genetic code.
RAM HAS RED CAP
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If we insert a letter B in between HAS and RED and rearrange the statement, it would read
as follows:
RAM HAS BRE DCA P
Similarly, if we now insert two letters at the same place say BI’. Now it would read,
RAM HAS BIR EDC AP
Now we insert three letters together, say BIG, the statement would read
RAM HAS BIG RED CAP
The same exercise can be repeated, by deleting the letters R.E and D. one by one and
rearranging the statement to make a triplet world.
RAM HAS EDC AP
RAM HAS DCA P
RAM HAS CAP
 Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion
or deletion. However, such mutations are referred to as frameshift insertion or deletion
mutations.
* Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete in one or multiple codon
hence one or multiple amino acids, and reading frame remains unaltered from that point
onwards.
t RNA - THE ADAPTER MOLECULAR:
* The tRNA is called soluble RNA (or) SRNA (or) Adaptor RNA (or) transfer RNA (or)
translator RNA
* The clover leaf model of tRNA has been accepted and it was proposed by Holley
 In actual structure three dimensions,, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks
like inverted L. (tertiary structure). It is close to reality and was proposed for phenyl
alanine tRNA By Rich Kim Klug (1974).
 t RNA has 5 arms and 4 loops
 Acceptor arm
 DHU arm
 Anticodon arm
 Variable arm / lump / miniloop
 TC arm
FUNCTION
 Acceptor arm is Binding site of amino acid.
 DHU loop is Binding site of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme ( amino acid activating
enzyme).
 TC loop is Binding site of ribosome small subunit.
 Anticodon loop is Binding site of mRNA.
ACCEPTOR ARM
 The latter includes a constant 3' terminal - CCA sequence and fourth nucleotide, either A or
G. The amino acid molecule attaches to the 3' end of the base A, which is known a amino
acid binding site.

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TC ARM
 It consists of a stem having 5 base pairs and a loop of 7 nucleotides. The loop contains an
unusual base pseudouridine () and hence the name. The loop is involved in binding with
ribosome and hence it is sometimes referred to as ribosomal loop.
VARIABLE ARM
 It is of two types. In one type, there is a loop containing 4 to 5 bases and has no stem. In the
other type, the arm consists of 13-21 bases and is distinguishable into stem and loop both.
ANTICODON ARM
 It is distinguishable into a stem of 5 bp and a loop of 7 bases (unpaired nucleotides) of which
the middle three form the anticodon. It is binding site of mRNA.
DHU ARM
 It is also distinguishable into a stem and a loop. The loop contains an unusual base
dihydrouridine due to which it is called dihydrouridine (DHU) loop or the D loop. It is
binding site of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme.

54 64 1 Amino Acid Amino Acid

3OH 5 3
56 72
Acceptor
Stem
20 7 69
12
44
26 Anticodon
38 ASL: Stem
Loop
32 Anticodon
Anticodon

(2) There are 44 meaningless and 20

codons for amino acids
(3) There are 64 amino acids to be coded
(4) Genetic code is triplet
1. Which one of the following codons codes 3. What is the first anticodon in
for the same information as UGC? translation?
(1) UGU (2) UGA 1) GUU 2) UAC 3) UTC 4) GUA
(3) UAG (4) UGG 4. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20
2. There are 64 codons in genetic code amino acids. This property is called
dictionary because (1) Degeneracy of genetic code
(1) There are 64 types of tRNAs found in (2) Code is universal
the cell (3) Code is overlapping
(4) Code is ambiguous

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5. Who developed the technique of synthe- (1) Crick enzymes

sising RNA molecules with well defined (2) Servo Ochoa enzymes
combination of bases (homopolymers and (3) James Watson enzymes
copolymers) to develop genetic code? (4) Mendel enzymes
(1) Crick et.al 12. Firstly, who suggested that genetic codes
(2) Har Gobind Khorana are triplet.
(3) Matthaei (4) Nirenberg (1) George Gamow (2) Crick
6. Which of the following is not a salient (3) Ochoa (4) Nirenberg
features of genetic code 13. The three codons which result in the termi-
(1) The codon is triplet. nation of polypeptide chain synthesis are
(2) ambiguous and specific (1) UAA, UAG, GUA
(3) code is degenerate. (2) UAA, UAG, UGA
(4) The code is nearly universal (3) UAA, UGA, UUA
7. If the four bases of DNA have to code for (4) UGU, UAG, UGA
twenty amino acids, the code should 14. Starting codon in prokaryotes codes for
constitute a combination of bases. This was
(1) methyl methionine
proposed by
(2) ethyl methionine
(1) Rosalind
(3) propyle methionine
(2) Har Gobind Khorana
(4) formyl methionine
(3) George Gamow
15. The scientist who was awarded Nobel
(4) Marshall Nirenberg
prize in 1959 for invitro synthesis of
8. Sickle cell anemia is an example of polyribonucleotide:-
(1) point mutation (2) chromosomal disorder (1) Mendel (2) Calvin
(3) sex linked disease (4) frameshift mutation (3) Khorana (4) Ochoa

9. The genetic code is called a degenerate

code because: CRTQ: 01.(1) 02.(4) 03.(2) 04.(1)
(1) One codon has many meanings 05.(2) 06.(2) 07.(3) 08.(1)
(2) More than one codon has the same meaning SPQ: 09.(2) 10.(2) 11.(2) 12.(1)
(3) One codon has one meaning 13.(2) 14.(4) 15.(3)
(4) There are 64 codons present
10. The first code deciphered by Nirenberg
(1961) was
1.UGC & UGU codes for same amino acid cystein
(1) AAA (2) UUU
9. (2) UUU (homopolymer)
(3) GGG (4) CCC
13. (2) UAA, UAG, UGA are stop codons
11. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes are
also called 14. (2) code is unambiguous and specific

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TRANSLATION
* Translation is the RNA directed synthesis of polypeptides. This process requires all three
classes of RNA.
* The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code, and
rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during translation.
* The process of translation can be divided into three basic steps:
 Initiation
 Elongation
 Termination
* The translation of mRNA begins with the formation of initiation complex. For this, small subunit
of ribosome, a mRNA, a specifically charged initiator tRNA, GTP, Mg2+ and proteinaceous
initiation factors are assembled.
* These initiation factors are designated as IFs in prokaryotes and eIFs in eukaryotes.
* The initiation factors bind to the smaller ribosome subunit and then this complex binds
to a sequence of mRNA, preceding the initiator AUG codon.
* Later, when the large 50S subunit joins the initiation complex, the initiation factors are
released and complete 70S ribosome is formed.
ACTIVATION OR CHARGING OF AMINO ACIDS / AMINOACYLATION OF TRNA
 Amino acids are present in cytoplasm in dormant stage so they needs activation.
 Activation of amino acids requires energy in the form of ATP and occurs in a two step
reaction catalyzed by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. There are at least 20 different
aminoacyl tRNA synthetases.
 First the enzyme attaches the amino acid to the -phosphate of ATP with the concomitant
release of pyrophosphate. This is termed an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate.
 In the second step the enzyme catalyzes transfer of the amino acid to either the 2'– or 3'–OH
of the ribose portion of the 3'-terminal adenosine residue of the tRNA generating the activated
aminoacyl-tRNA.
Step 1
Amino acid* + ATP 
Aminoacyl tRNA Synthetase*
 AA.AMP enzyme complex+PPi
Step 2
AA.AMP enzymecomplex + tRNA* 
 Charged tRNA (tRNA - Amino acid*)+AMP+enzymes

 tRNA molecules are joined to their specific amino acid in a reaction known as charging. The
3' end of the tRNA molecule is covalently linked to the correct amino acid (High energy
covalent ester bond formation between amino acid and tRNA)
INITIATION
 Initiation of translation requires a specific initiator tRNA, tRNAmet, that is used to
incorporate the initial methionine residue into all proteins.

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 In E. coli a specific version of tRNA is required to initiate translation, [tRNAfmet]. The

methionine attached to this initiator tRNA is formylated.
 Although tRNA met is specific for initiation in eukaryotes it is not a formylated tRNAmet.
The initiation of translation requires recognition of an AUG codon.
 In the polycistronic prokaryotic RNAs this AUG codon is located adjacent to a Shine-
Dalgarno element in the mRNA.
E P A SITES IN RIBOSOMES
 The ribosome has binding sites for two charged tRNAs labelled as P (peptidyl site), and A
(aminoacyl site). There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids to
bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond.
 tRNA interact with mRNA in SSU of P and A sites whilst protein synthesis occurs in P and A
sites of LSU (Large Sub Unit).
If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of peptide bond
between them would be favoured energetically. The presence of a catalyst would
enhance the rate of peptide bond formation.
 From exit (E) site of ribosome unloaded/deacylated tRNA is expelled.
ELONGATION
 The process of elongation, like that of initiation requires specific non-ribosomal proteins called
elongation factor (EF).
 In E. coli these are EFs and in eukaryotes they are eEFs. In prokaryotes, elongation
factors are called EF-Tu, EF-Ts and EF-G.
 Each incoming aminoacyl-tRNA is brought to the ribosome by an EF—GTP complex.
 When the correct tRNA is deposited into the A site the GTP is hydrolysed and the EF—GDP
complex dissociates.
 The peptide attached to the tRNA in the P site is transferred to the amino group at the
aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site. This reaction is catalyzed by peptidyltransferase. 23SrRNA
and 28SrRNA perform this function therefore they act as ribozyme
 The elongated peptide now resides on a tRNA in the A site. The A site needs to be free
in order to accept the next aminoacyl-tRNA. The process of moving the peptidyl-tRNA from
the A site to the P site is termed, translocation.
 In the process of translocation the ribosome is moved along the mRNA such that the next codon
of the mRNA resides under the A site. The result of the shift is that the uncharged tRNA that
was in the P site is ejected, and the tRNA that was in the A site is now in the P site. The A site
is free to accept the tRNA molecule with the appropriate anticodon for the next codon in the
mRNA.
 The next tRNA base pairs with the next codon, and peptidyl transferase catalyzes the formation
of a peptide bond between the new amino acid and the growing peptide chain.
 The initiator tRNA now delinks, and the dipeptide so formed is translocated to the P site. The
movement of entire mRNA - tRNA dipeptide shifts by a codon exposing the next codon at A
site in a process called translocation.
 Eukaryotes require a more complex set of accessory factors.

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 Once again, the ribosome shifts over, so that the uncharged tRNA is expelled, and the tRNA
with the peptide chain occupies the P site. The process of shifting and peptide bond
formation continues over and over until a termination codon is encountered.
 The elongation process is fairly rapid, with prokaryotic ribosomes able to add 15 amino
acids to the growing polypeptide every second.
TERMINATION
 The sequence of elongation continues till the whole of mRNA is translated and a signal in the
form of termination codon (UAG, UAA, or UGA) is reached. These do not code for any
amino acid and, therefore, the translation stops. They also signal a GTP-dependent
release factor (RFs in E. coli and eRFs in eukaryotes) .
 The termination codon is recognised and bound to by a release factor RF. The release
factor is a protein.
 The RF binds to the A site of the ribosome in conjunction with GTP.
 RF mimic tRNA in shape but are made up of protein not RNA
 RF interact with peptidyl transferase to cause hydrolysis of bond between tRNA and
polypeptide chain
 RF cause peptidyl transferase to transfer polypeptide to a H2O and not to another tRNA
 The resulting uncharged tRNA left in the P site is expelled with concomitant hydrolysis of
GTP.
 The inactive ribosome then releases its mRNA and the 70S complex dissociates into the 30S
and 50S subunits ready for another round of translation.
* In addition to start codon (AUG) and stop codon, mRNA also has some untranslated
regions (UTR) prior to start codon and after stop codon. They are essential for efficient
translation process.
* Ribosomes are the cell organelles concerned with translation phase of protein synthesis
* In prokaryotes, transcription and translation take place simultaneously as there is no
boundary between nucleoid & cytoplasm
* In Eukaryotes; transcription & translation occur successively. Transcription occurs in nucleus
and translation occurs in cytoplasm.
tRNA amino acid
peptide bond
H Gly Leu
Tyr

AUG Y GUG Growing Ser

polypeptide chain Leu
R G
Asn
Gly
anticodon
GCA CCA tRNA tRNA
G Ser
U

5 G
U

3 A
A

GGU
mRNA tRNA-leaving
Ala Val
Incoming
AUG UAC CGU CAC UAA
the ribosome tRNA tRNA amino-acyl-tRNA
ribosome
codon C GU C AA
C UC U U G G G U C C G C A GU U AAU U U C U AU C
5 3
direction of ribosome mRNA Ribosome
(53)

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7. In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact

molecule that looks like
(1) Nucleosome
(2) Inverted L-form suggested by klug
1. Charging (aminoacylation) of tRNA (3) Inverted omega
involves the attachment of (4) Clover leafsuggested by Holley
(1) amino acid to tRNA 8. Synthesis of polypeptide terminates when
(2) amino acid to mRNA a nonsense codon of mRNA reaches
(3) neutral amino acid to tRNA (1) A site (2) P site
(4) acidic amino acid to tRNA (3)B site (4) None
2. Non-proteinaceous enzyme that acts as a 9. Amino acid binding site of tRNA is
catalyst for the formation of peptide bond (1) 5¢ end (2) T  C loop
is
(3) DHU loop (4) 3 end.
(1) spliceosome (2) ribozyme
(3) RNA poly I (4) RNA poly III.
3. During translation initiation in
10. What is the purpose of untranslated
prokaryotes, GTP is required for
regions UTRs present on mRNA?
(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(1) To stop the process of translation
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with
mRNA (2) To start the process of translation
(3) Association of 30 S-mRNA with (3) For efficient translation
formylmet-tRNA (4) For DNA recognition
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome 11. Activation of an amino acid during
with initiation complex. protein synthesis requires a participation
4. During protein synthesis, amino acid gets of specific molecule of
attached to tRNA with the help of (1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(1) mRNA (2) Amino acyl tRNA synthetase (3) rRNA (4) All of these
(3) Ribosome (4) rRNA 12. During protein synthesis, a ribosome
5. At which end of mRNA translation always moves from 5 to 3 end of mRNA to
begins? recognize all codons. This movement of
(1) 3 end (2) 5 end ribosome is called
(3) Any where on mRNA (4) UUU end (1) Transformation (2) Translocation
6. Which types of nitrogen bases are (3) Transposition (4) Transduction
present in loops of t-RNA ? 13. The first amino acid in any polypeptide
(1) Only unusual nitrogen bases chain of prokaryotes is always:
(2) Only usual nitrogen bases (1) Formylated arginine (2) Lysine
(3) Both usual and unusual nitrogen bases (3) Formylated methionine
(4) None of the above (4) Methionine

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14. The process of translation requires

transfer of genetic information from a
polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of
(1) fatty acids (2) amino acids. REGULATIUON OF GENE EXPRESSION
(3) organic acids (4) nucleosides Polypeptide chain synthesis is under genetic
15. A group of three nitrogen bases on tRNA regulation
to recognise a codon on mRNA is called In eukaryotes, regulation of gene expression
(1) codon (2) Anticodon occurs in different stages during protein
(3) Genetic code (4) Triplet synthesis they are
16. During protein synthesis a. Transcription level (Formation of primary
(1) Code on mRNA is translated transcript)
(2) Coding is done by DNA strands b. Processing level (regulation of splicing)
c. Transport of mRNA from the nucleus to
(3) Code is transfered on tRNA
the cytoplasm
(4) all of these are correct
d. Translational level
17. Enzyme for peptide formation is located in * The genes in a cell are expressed to perform
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome a particular function or a set of functions. For
(2) Larger subunit of ribosome example, if an enzyme called beta-galacto-
(3) tRNA (4) Cytoplasm sidase is synthesised by E.coli, it is used to
18. Translation refers to the process of – catalyse the hydrolysis of a disaccharide,
(1) Polymerisation of nitrogen bases lactose into glucose and galactosidase.
* Therefore, in simple terms, it is the metabolic,
(2) Polymerisation of nucleotides
physiological or environmental conditions that
(3) Polymerisation of nucleosides
regulate the expression of genes.
(4) Polymerisation of amino acids * The development and differentiation of embryo
into adult organisms are also a result of the
coordinated regulation of expression of several
CRTQ: 01.(1) 02.(2) 03.(2) 04.(2)
sets of genes.
05.(2) 06.(3) 07.(2) 08.(1) * In prokaryotes, control of the rate of trans-
09.(4) criptional initiation is the predominant site for
SPQ: 10.(3) 11.(2) 12.(2) 13.(3) control of gene expression. In a transcription
14.(2) 15.(2) 16.(1) 17.(2) unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a
18.(4) given promoter is in turn regulated by
interaction with accessory proteins, which
affect its ability to recognise start sites. These
2. (2) ribozyme (23s sRNA) regulatory proteins can act both positively
(activators) and negatively (repressors).
9. (4) CCA end

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* The accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA is in many cases regulated by the
interaction of proteins with sequences termed operators.
* The operator region is adjacent to the promoter elements in most operons and in most cases
the sequences of the operator bind a repressor protein.
* Each operon has its specific operator and specific repressor.
* For example, lac operator is present only in the lac operon and it interacts specifically with lac
repressor only.

LAC OPERON
* To explain the mechainsm of regulation of gene action, Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod
proposed operon cencept for which they were awarded Nobel prize
* A unit of some structural genes (cistrons), operator gene and promoter gene together called
Operon.
* In operon, operator gene (0), and promoter gene (P) are adjacent to structural genes.
* Regulator gene(Gene i) is located closely but not adjacent to operon. It regulates the
expression of Operon.
* Lac operon was proposed by Francis Jacob and Jacque Monod
* Lac operon was proposed to understand the Genetic control of Lactose catabalism
* Lac operon catabolism (Metabolism) is regulated by a set genes known as regulatory gene
(i-gene) operator genes (O-gene) and three structural genes (z-gene, y-gene and a-gene). the
sequential arrangement of these genes constitute an operon
* Different operon system have their specific operators and specific repressor genes.
* In Lac operon of bacteria, lacose acts as an inducer and it regulates the “switching on” and “off”
and the regulatory proteins can act as negative repressor genes.
* When lactose is present in the bacteria cell, the operator of Lac operon is “Switched on” and
the regularoty proteins can act positively and Lac operon is under the control of Positive
regulation
* In the absense of Lactose, repressor gene sysnthesises repressor mRNA and in turn it
synthesises repressor protein which binds to operator gene, resulting in the repression (non
functioning) of structural genes.
* By inhibiting Lac mRNA (i.e., Polycistronic mRNA), the enzymes such as  Galactosidase,
permease and tranacetylase synthesis is inhibited (i.e., Lac operon switched off)
* When lactose is present in the cell, it binds to the repressor protein, thereby inactivates it and
structural genes leading to the synthesis of  Galactosidase by z gene, permease by y’gene,
and transacetylase by a’ gene. Thus Presence of lactose results in inducing activity of structural
genes; hence called as an inducer.
* Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

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Promoter Structural genes

p i p o z y a

Repressor binds to the Absence of

Repressor mRNA operator region and prevents Lactose
RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operator

Repressor Operator Structural genes

p i p o z y a
Transcription
Presence of
Repressor mRNA Iac mRNA (Polycistronic) Lactose
Translation
Repressor -galactosidase permease transacetylase
Lactose
(Inducer)

(Inactive
repressor)

3. Enzyme transacetylase produced by lac

operon in E. coli
(1) Split lactose into glucose and galactose
1. The sequence of structural genes in lac
(2) Is required for entry of lactose
operon is (3) Is coded by gene a
(1) Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y 4. In lac operon, gene synthesising a
(3) Lac Y, Lac Z, Lac A repressor protein is called
(4) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A (1) Operator gene (2) Structural gene
2. If tryptophan is externally supplied to E. (3) Promoter gene (4) Regulator gene
coli then
(1) Tryptophan operon is switched off
CRTQ: 01.(4) 02.(1)
(2) Tryphophan operon is switched on
SPQ: 03.(3) 04.(4)
(3) Lac operon is switched off
(4) Lac operon is switched on

2. (1) negative control

4 (4) Regulator gene (i)

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4. What does A and B represent in the given

representation?
Phosphoric + Sugar + Nitrogenous base
1. Arginine and lysine carries .....(1).... acid
charge in their side chains. Histones are A
organised to form a unit of eight molecules B
called ......(2)...... The negatively charged (1) A – Ribonucleoside,
DNA is wrapped around the positively
B – Deoxyribonucleoside
charged histone octamer to form a structure
called .....(3)..... (2) A – Ribonucleotide, B –
Here A, B and C refers to Deoxyribonucleotide
(1) A-positive, B-histone octamer, C- (3) A – Nucleoside, B – Nucleotide
nucleosome (4) A – Nucleotide, B – Nucleoside
(2) A-negative, B-nucleosome. C-histone
5. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly
octamer
matched?
(3) A-neutral, B-nucleosome, C-histone
octamer (1) Purines – Adenine and Guanine
(4) A-neutral, B-octamer, C-histone tetramer (2) Pyrimidines – Cytosine and Uracil
2. One of the hallmarks of famous Double (3) Nucleosides – Adenosine and Thymidine
Helix model of DNA was (4) DNA – chemically biomolecule
(1) base pairing between the two strands of
6. RNA being a catalyst was reactive and
polynucleotide chains
hence ......A..... Therefore, DNA has evolved
(2) two chains have anti-parallel polarity
(3) two chains are coiled in a right-handed from RNA with .....B.... modification that
fashion makes it more .....C....
(4) uniform distance between the two strands Choose the correct option for A, B and C
of the helix (1) A-stable, B-physical, C-stable
3. Refer to the given figure of nucleosome and select
(2) A-stable, B-chemical, C-stable
the option that correctly identify the parts A, B
and C (3) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-stable
B C (4) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-unstable
7. Select an incorrect statement for Hershey
and Chase experiments
A (1) They grew some viruses on a medium that
contained radioactive phosphorus and some
others on medium that contained radioactive
sulfur
(1) A-DNA, B-Histone octamer, C-H1 histone
(2) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
(2) A-Histone octamer, B-H1 histone, C-DNA
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but
(3) A-Histone octamer, B-DNA, C-H1 histone
not radioactive protein
(4) A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Histone octamer

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8. Select an incorrect statement 11. The given flowchart represents the flow of
(1) Both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) genetic information between biomolecules.
have the ability to direct their duplications Identify the processes A, B, C and D and
(2) proteins have no ability to direct their select the correct option.
duplications B D
A DNA mRNA Proteins
(3) DNA chemically is less reactive and C
structurally more stable when compared to (1) A-Translation, B-Transcription,
RNA C-Replication, D-Reverse Transcription
(4) 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in (2) A-Replication, B-Transcription,
DNA is a unreactive group and makes DNA C-Translation,
stable D-Reverse Transcription
(3) Viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained (3) A-Replication, B-Transcription,
radioactiveDNA but not radioactive protein C-Reverse Transcription, D-Translation
(4) The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic (4) A-Replication, B-Reverse Transcription,
material as if it was its own and subsequently C-Transcription, D-Translation
manufactures more virus particles. 12. Select an incorrect statement
9. The steps involved in Hershy and Chase (1) RNA was the first genetic material.
experiment. (2) Essential life processes evolved around
I. Infection II. Blending DNA
III. Centrifugation IV. Filtration (3) RNA used to act as a genetic material as
(1) I, II & III (2) I & II well as a catalyst in the past
(3) II & III (4) All (4) Some biochemical reactions in living
systems are catalysed by RNA catalysts
10. Match the list of items of Column I with
13. DNA being double strand and having ...A...
Column II and select the correct option from
strand, ...B... changes by evolving repair.
the codes given below.
Choose the correct option for A and B.
Column I Column II
(1) A-supplementary; B-resists
A. F. Meischer (i) DNA double helix
(2) A-complementary ; B-resists
B. Griffith (ii) Nuclein
(3) A-complementary; B-accept
C. Hershey and Chase (iii) S. pneumoniae
(4) A-supplementary; B-accept
D. Watson and Crick (iv) Bacteriophages
14. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, equal
amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was
E. Wilkins and Franklin (v) X-ray diffraction
observed in E.coli culture after
studies
I. Two generation II. 40 minutes
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v) III. 80 minutes IV. three generation
(2) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii) Choose the correct option for given
statement of question.
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v)
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v) (3) III and IV (4) I and IV

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15. Select the incorrect statement regarding I. RNA polymerase associates

DNA replication. transiently with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate
(1) Leading strand is formed in 5 – 3 transcription.
direction II. In bacteria, transcription and
(2) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5 – 3 translation takes place in the same
direction compartment.
(3) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization
III.RNA polymerase II is responsible for
in 5 – 3 direction
transcription of rRNA.
(4) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization
IV. When hnRNA undergoes capping
in 3 – 5 direction
process, adenylate residues are added
16. During transcription of RNA
at 3' end in a template independent
(1) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase manner.
catalyse the polymerisation in direction 5'’
V. hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA.
 3'
(1) II only is correct
(2) The DNA strand that has the polarity 5'’
 3' acts as a template (2) II, III and V only are correct
(3) The strand which does not code for (3) III and IV only are correct
anything is referred to as noncoding strand (4) II and V only are correct
(4) The genetic information from both strands 19. A hypothetical sequence from a
of the DNA is copied into RNA. There is transcription unit is represented below:
single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 3'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-
that catalyses transcription of all types of 5' Template Strand
RNA in bacteria. 5'-TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG-
17. Sometimes the regulatory sequences are 3' Coding Strand
loosely defined as regulatory genes even Write the sequence of RNA transcribed
though these sequences do not code for any from above DNA ?
RNA or protein because
(1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-5'
(1) inheritance of a character is affected by
(2) 5'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3'
promoter and regulatory sequences of
structural genes (3) 3'-UACGUACGUACGUACGUACGUACG-5'

(2) inheritance of character is not affected by (4) 5'-UACGUACGUACGUACGUACGUACG-3'

promoter and regulatory sequences of 20. Select an incorrect statement
structural genes 1) In bacteria, there are three major types of
(3) regulatory sequences can’t be defined as RNAs
regulatory genes because they don’t exist
2) All three RNAs are needed to synthesise a
in eukaryotes genome
protein in a cell.
(4) regulatory sequences can’t be defined as
regulatory genes because they don’t exist 3) tRNAs play structural and catalytic role
in prokaryotic genome during translation.
18. Read the following statements and choose 4) The mRNA provides the template during
the correct option. protein synthesis

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21. Read the following statements carefully Column 1 Column II

and choose the correct statements. A. AUG (1) Phenylalanine
A. In a transcription unit, the promoter B. UAA (2) Methionine
located at the 5' end of coding strand C. UUU (3) Tryptophan
B. The single strand DNA having the D. UGG (4) Termination
polarity 5'  3' is the template strand A B C D A B C D
C. RNA polymerase binds to the operator (1) 1 4 2 3 (2) 2 4 1 3
during transcription. (3) 4 3 2 1 (4) 4 1 3 2
D. Single base DNA differences occur in 25. Which of the following is not a salient
humans are called Single Nucleotide features of genetic code
Polymorphism (SNPs). (1) 3 codons function as stop codons
(1) Statements B and D (2) codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
(2) Statements A and B fashion.
(3) Statements A and D (3) there are no punctuations.
(4) The code is nearly universal except in
(4) Statements B and C
mitochondrial codons, and in some insects
22. What would be the base sequence of RNA
26. Which out of the following statements is
transcript obtained from the given DNA
incorrect?
segment?
(1) Genetic code is ambiguous
5 – G C A T T C G G C T A G T A A C – 3
Coding strand of DNA (2) Genetic code is degenerate
(3) Genetic code is universal
3 – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T T G – 5
Non-coding strand of DNA (4) Genetic code is non-overlapping
27. Match the following columns.
(1) 5–GCAUUCGGCUAGUAAC – 3
Column 1 Column II
(2) 5–CGUAAGCCGAUCAUUG – 3
(A) Termination (1) Aminoacyl
(3) 5–GCATTCGGCTAGTAAC – 3
tRNA synthatase
(4) 3–CGTAAGCCGATCATTG– 5
(B) Translation(2) Okazaki
23. Which one of the following is correct?
fragments
(1) Introns are present in mRNA and exons are
(C) Transcription (3) release factor
present in rRNA
(D) DNA replication (4) RNA polymerase
(2) Codons are present in mRNA and
A B C D A B C D
anticodons in tRNA
(1) 3 1 4 2 (2) 4 1 3 2
(3) Every intron is a set of three terminator
(3) 4 3 1 2 (4) 2 3 1 4
codons.
28. The ribosome moves from codon to codon
(4) Exons are present in eukaryotes while
along the .....A..... At the end a .....B.... factor
introns are present in prokaryotes.
binds to .....C..... codon, terminating
GENETIC CODE translation and releasing the complete
24. Identify the correct match between the polypeptide from the ribosome.
codons and coding functions. Choose the correct option for A, B and C.

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(1) A-mRNA, B-stop, C-release D. Structural gene (iv) Codes for repressor
(2) A-mRNA, B-release, C-stop molecule
(3) A-tRNA, B-release, C-stop (1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-tRNA, B-stop, C-release (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
29. Match the following columns. (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Column 1 Column II
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(A) tRNA (1) Linking of amino acids
32. In E. coli as per lac operon concept, the
(B) mRNA (2) Transfer of genetic product of “I” gene combines with
information (1) Inducer gene to “Switch off” structural
(C) rRNA (3) Nucleolar genes
organising region (2) Operator gene to “Switch off” structural
(D) Peptidyl (4) Transfer of amino genes
transferase acid from cytoplasm (3) Operator gene to “Switch on” structural
to ribosome genes
(4) Regulator protein to “Switch off”
A B C D A B C D
structural genes
(1) 4 2 3 1 (2) 1 4 3 2
33. Gene regulation occurs at
(3) 1 2 3 4 (4) 1 3 2 4
I. translational level.
30. In mRNA, AUG is the initiation and UAA, II. transcriptional level.
UAG and UGA are termination codons, III. post transcriptional level.
therefore, the polypeptide cannot be IV. post translation level.
synthesized beyond any of these triplets to Choose the correct combination.
the end of mRNA. Then which of the (1) l and II (2) III and IV
following will be translated completely? (3) I and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
(1) AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA 34. The cost required for sequencing the one
base pair is ...A... than the total cost for
(2) AUG AUA UAG CCC UCA
sequencing the entire human genome is
(3) AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA ...B... . Here A and B refers to
(4) AUG UAC AGU ACC UAG (1) A-US $=2; B-6 billion US$
Regulation of Gene Expression (2) A-US $=3; B-9 billion US$
31. Match the list of items Column I with (3) A-US $=1; B-3 billion US$
Column II and select the correct option
(4) A-US $=6; B-18 billion US$
from the codes given below.
Column I Column II 35. Major countries who contributed or
A. Operator site (i) Binding site for RNA participated in human genome project
polymerase were
B. Promoter site (ii) Binding site for I. Japan II. France
repressor molecule III. Germany IV. China
C. Regulator gene (iii) Codes for protein Choose the correct combination.
enzyme (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
41 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
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36. Commonly used host for cloning in human E. The chromatin that is more densely packed
genome project were. and stains dark is called euchromatin.
I. YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosome) (1) A, B and C alone are wrong
II. BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome) (2) D alone is wrong
III. PAC (Plasmic Artificial Chromosome) (3) C and E alone are wrong
IV. GMO ( Genetically Modified Organism) (4) A alone is wrong
Choose the correct combination of given 40. Which of the following is not a salient
options. features of the Double-helix structure of
(1) I and II (2) II and III DNA
(3) III and IV (4) IV and I (1) If the sequence of bases in one strand is
37. Tendem Repeat DNA known then the sequence in other strand can
I. is classified as microsatellites and be predicted
minisatellites. (2) The base pairing confers a very unique
II. normally does not code for any protein. property to the polynucleotide chains
III. shows polymorphism. (3) The proposition of base pairing between
IV. is used in finger printing. the two strands of polynucleotide chains was
Choose the correct pairs of option. based on the observation of Maurice Wilkins
(1) I and III (2) I, II, and III and Rosalind Franklin
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV (4) If each strand from a DNA acts as a template
38. The ‘‘Probes’’ used in DNA finger printing for synthesis of a new strand, the two double
technique are stranded DNA thus, produced would be
(1)Radioactive natural DNA/RNA with identical to the parental DNA molecule.
known sequences 41. The given figure represents the DNA
(2)Radioactive synthetic DNA/RNA with double helix model as proposed by Watson
unknown sequences and Crick (1953). Select the option that
(3)Radioactive natural DNA/RNA with shows correct measurements of A, B and C.
unknown sequences
(4)Radioactive synthetic DNA/RNA with
known sequences

A B
39. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option.
A. Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose
sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage.
B. Phosphate group is linked to 5'-OH of a
nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
C. Two nucleosides are linked through 3' - 5' C
N-glycosidic linkage.
(1) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm
D. Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
(2) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
positively charged histone octamer to form
(3) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å
nucleosome.
(4) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 42
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42. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of (2) Bacteria that were infected with viruses
cytosine, what will be the percentage of that had radioactive proteins were
adenine in it? radioactive.
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) DNA was the material that passed from
(3) 30% (4) 60% the virus to the bacteria
43. Select an incorrect statement (4) Proteins did not enter the bacteria from the
(1) DNA is the predominant genetic material viruses
(2) RNA performs dynamic functions of 46. Select an incorrect statement
messenger and adapter (1) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.
(3) Stability of genetic material was very (2) RNA mutate at a slower rate.
evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming (3) Viruses having RNA genome and having
principle’ itself that heat, which killed the shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
bacteria, at least did not destroy some of (4) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of
the properties of genetic material. proteins, hence can easily express the
(4) RNA is known to be catalytic and characters
unreactive 47. Select the right statements out of the
44. Select an incorrect statement regarding following
experiments of Oswald Avery, Colin (i) Both DNA and RNA are able to
MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty to determine mutate.
the biochemical nature of ‘transforming (ii) RNA being unstable, mutates at a
principle’ in Griffith’s experiment faster rate.
(1) They purified biochemicals (proteins, (iii) RNA shows catalytic properties.
DNA, RNA, etc) from the heat-killed S (iv) Presence of uracil (U) in place of
cells to see which ones could transform thymine (T) confers additional
live R cells into S cells stability to RNA.
(2) They discovered that DNA alone from S (1) (i) & (ii)
bacteria caused R bacteria to become (2) (ii) & (iii)
transformed (3) (i) & (iv)
(3) They discovered that proteases and (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
RNases promoted transformation 48. The process of transformation is not
(4) Digestion with DNase promoted affected by which of the following
transformation, suggesting that the DNA enzymes?
caused the transformation. A. DNase B. RNase
45. Which of the following was not a observation C. Peptidase D. Lipase
in Hershey and Chase experiments (1) A, B (2) A, B, C, D
(1) Bacteria which was infected with viruses that (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C
had radioactive DNA were radioactive

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49. Biochemical nature of the Griffith’s 53. Assuming that 50 heavy (i.e. containing
experiment was firstly determined by N15) DNA molecules replicated twice in a
I. Oswald Avery II. Colin MacLeod medium containing N14, we expect:
III. Maclyn McCarty IV. Griffith’s (1) 100 half and 150 light DNA molecules
V. Alfred Hershey VI. Martha Chase (2) 100 half heavy and half light and 100 light
DNA molecules
Choose the correct option for the given
statements. (3) 50 heavy and 150 light DNA molecules
(1) I, II and III (2) IV, V and IV (4) 50 heavy and 100 light DNA molecules
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, V and VI 54. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses
50. A being more stable is preferred for
storage of genetic information. For the (1) Nucleoside triphosphates as substrate
transmission of genetic information B (2) Nucleotide triphosphates as substrate
is better. (3) Nucleoside monophosphates as substrate
Choose the correct option for A & B. (4) Nucleotide monophosphates as substrate
(1) A-RNA, B-DNA 55. What happens in tailing process of
(2) A-Nucleosome, B-DNA transcriptions?
(3) A-DNA, B-RNA (1) Adenylate residue added at 5’end of RNA
(4) A-DNA, B-Nucleosome (2) Adenylate residue added at 3’end of RNA
51. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve (3) Guanylate residue added at 5’end of RNA
dual purposes. The purposes are (4) Guanylate residue added at 3’end of RNA
I. acting as substrate 56. Select an incorrect statement
II. acting as enzymes (1) Splicing evolved around RNA
III. provide energy for polymerisation (2) Protein synthesis evolved around RNA
IV. increase the rate of reaction. (3) RNA is a unstable
Choose the correct option. (4) DNA resists changes by evolving a process
(1) l and Il (2) II and III of folding
(3) III and IV (4) I and III 57. Select an incorrect statement for a eukaryotic
52. Select an incorrect statement genes
(1) DNA that the two strands being (1) Split-gene arrangement complicates the
complementary if separated by heating come definition of a gene
together, when appropriate conditions are (2) Inheritance of a character is affected by
provided regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
(2) RNA is known to be catalytic (3) Sometime the regulatory sequences do not
(3) thymine at the place of uracil confers code for any RNA or protein.
additional stability to DNA (4) The structural gene in a transcription unit
(4) 3'-OH group present at every nucleotide in could be said as monocistronic mostly in
RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA prokaryotes or polycistronic mostly in
easily degradable eukaryotes

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58. Replication and transcription are easy to (4) point mutation is a change of single base
conceptualise on the basis of pair in the gene
(1) complementarity (2) polarity 62. Which of the following is not a salient
(3) stability features of genetic code
(1) three codons do not code for any amino acids
(4) X-ray diffraction
(2) unambiguous and specific
59. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the
(3) code is nondegenerate.
given structure of tRNA and select the
(4) the codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
correct option.
fashion
OH  3 A
|
63. Choose the correct statement pertaining to
A genetic code
C (1) It includes 61 codons for amino acids and
C
D B
3 stop codons
(2) Is universal and has 3 bases per codon
Variable arm (3) Some amino acids are coded by multiple
C codons
(1) A-Anticodon loop, B-TC loop, (4) All of the above
C-AA binding site, D-DHU loop 64. Following are the stages in the cellular
(2) A-AA binding site, B-TC loop, synthesis of a protein.
C-Anticodon loop, D-DHU loop I. Movement of mRNA from the nucleus
(3) A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, to cytoplasm.
C-Anticodon loop, D-TC loop II. Linking of adjacent amino acid
(4) A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, molecules.
C-TC loop, D-Anticodon loop III. Transcription of mRNA from a DNA
60. Which of the following is a false template.
statements? IV. Formation of the polypeptide chain.
(1) DNA is chemically less reactive, as V. Attachment of the mRNA strand to a
compared to RNA ribosome.
(2) RNA mutate at a faster rate, as compared In which order do these stages take place?
to DNA (1) III I V II IV
(3) Guanyltransferase enzyme helps in capping (2) I III II V IV
process during splicing of hn-RNA (3) I V III IV II
(4) Adenylate residue added at 31 end of RNA
(4) III IV I II V
GENETIC CODE
65. Consider the following statements
61. Select correct statement for mutations
I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis
(1) The relationships between genes and DNA
of proteins.
are best understood by mutation studies.
II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the
(2) Effects of large deletions and
genetic code.
rearrangements in a segment of DNA are
III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
not easy to comprehend.
initiates transcription.
(3) mutation may result in loss or gain of a gene
IV. A segment of DNA coding for poly-
and so a function.
peptide is called intron.
45 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
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(1) I and III are correct (f) Release of the complete polypeptide
(2) I and II are correct chain from mRNA and the ribosomes
(3) I, II and III are correct (g) Migration of dipeptide to form a
(4) II and III are correct tripeptide and then a polypeptide
66. Which of the following factor is required for
The correct order of events is:
the protein synthesis?
I. Initiation codon II. GTP and ATP (1) c,b,a,e,f and g
III. Peptidyl transferase IV. tRNA (2) a,b,c,d,e,f and g
V. mRNA (3) c, a, b, e, d, f and g
VI. Amino acid activating enzyme
(4) c, a, b, d, e, g and f
VII. rRNA
Choose the correct combination. Regulation of Gene Expression
(1) I, II and III (2) III, IV and V 69. The given figure shows lac operon and its
(3) V, VI and VII (4) All of these functioning. Select the option which
67. Match the following columns. correctly labels A, B, X, Y and Z.
Column 1 Column II
I p o z y a
A. 5’AUG 3' (1) Segment of DNA Transcription
mRNA
B. RNA with introns (2) Chromatin
and exon A X YZ
B
C. Gene (3) hnRNA
D. Nucleosomes (4) Initiation codon
A B C D A B C D (1) A-Repressor, B-Inducer
(1) 4 3 1 2 (2) 4 2 1 3 X--Galactosidase, Y-Permease,
(3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 2 3 1 4 Z-Transacetylase
68. The following features occur during protein (2) A-Repressor, B-Inducer
synthesis: X-Permease, Y--Galactosidase,
(a) Movement of mRNA from the Z-Transacetylase
nucleus into the cytoplasm, where it (3) A-Inducer, B-Repressor
binds to the ribosomes X--Galactosidase, Y-Permease,
(b) Formation of tRNA-amino acid Z-Transacetylase
complex (4) A-Inducer, B-Repressor
(c) Transcription of specific segments of X--Galactosidase, Y-Transacetylase,
DNA into mRNA molecules in the Z- Permease
nucleus 70. Lactose operon produces enzymes
(d) Binding of N-terminal amino acid, (1)  -galactosidase, permease and glycogen
methionine tRNA to the ‘P’ site of the synthetase
ribosome. The tRNA anticodon ‘pairs (2)  -galactosidase, permease and
with AUG on mRNA’ transacetylase
(e) Formation of peptide bond between (3)Permease, glycogen synthetase and
first and second amino acids at the A transacetylase
site (4)  -galactosidase, phosphoglucose,
isomerase and permease
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 46
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71. Repressor in lac operon model is (1) A-Restriction endonuclease,

I. product of structural genes B-Electrophoresis,
II. lactose III. a protein C- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
IV. product of regulatory or i-gene D- Labelled VNTR probe,
Choose the correct combination E-Autoradiography
(1) l and II (2) II and III
(2) A-Electrophoresis,
(3) I and IV (4) III and IV
B-Restriction endonuclease,
72. Human genome project was coordinated by
C- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
(1) Europian Department of Energy
(2) Us Department of Energy D- Labelled VNTR probe,
(3) National institute of health E-Autoradiography
(4) Both (b) and (c) (3) A-Restriction endonuclease,
73. Steps in sequencing Human Genome project B-Electrophoresis,
(HGP) are C- Labelled VNTR probe,
I. isolation of total DNA D- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
II. cloning in suitable vectors.
E-Autoradiography
III. sequence arrangement by computer.
IV. formation of physical and geneticmaps. (4) A-Restriction endonuclease,
V. converting the fragments B-Electrophoresis,
VI. using automated sequencer. C- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
VII. using restriction endonuclease. D- Autoradiography
VIII. completition of human genome E-Labelled VNTR probe
sequencing. 75. Match the following columns.
Arrange the steps.
Column I Column II
(1) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII A. Southern blotting 1. Protein
(2) I, V, II, VI, III, VII, IV, VIII B. Northern blotting 2. DNA
(3) I, II, V, VI, III, IV, VIII, VII C. Western blotting 3. RNA
(4) I, II, V, VI, III, VII, VIII, IV Codes :
74. Steps in DNA fingerprinting are A B C A B C
Isolation of DNA (1) 3 1 2 (2) 2 3 1
 (3) 1 2 3 (4) 1 3 2
Digestion of DNA by A 76. Which of the following sequence of steps is
 correct in DNA fingerprinting?
Separation of DNA by B (1)Southern blotting, Electrophoresis,
 Hybridisation, Autoradiography
Transfering of DNA to C (2)Autoradiography, Electrophoresis,
 Hybridisation, Southern blotting
DNA hybridisation using D
(3)Electrophoresis, Southern blotting,

Hybridisation, Autoradiography
Detecting of hybridised DNA by E
(4)Hybridisation, Southern blotting,
Complete the accompanying flow chart.
Electrophoresis, Autoradiography.
A,B,C,D and E in the flow chart are

47 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

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19. Template stand (5|  3| ) is transcribed.

Hence transcript is formed 5|  3| direction.
CRTQ: 01. (1) 02. (1) 03. (3) 04. (3) 05. (4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase cataly-
06. (3) 07. (3) 08. (4) 09. (1) 10. (1) ses always in 5|  3| direction.
22. Non coding strand of DNA is transcribed.
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (4)
26. Genetic code is unambiguous that means
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3)
codon codes for specific amino acid.
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4) 30. AUG is initiating codon present on mRNA
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (4) as first codon and UAG is placed as last
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4) codon hence complete polypeptide is
synthesised.
36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4)
42. C  G C+G=40%
SPQ: 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4)
20%=20% A+T=60%
44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) A=T  A=30%
49. (1) 50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (2) 43. RNA is known to be catalytic and reactive
54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (2) due to presence of OH| at 2C of ribose
59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (4) sugar.
46. RNA mutate at a faster rate
64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4)
53. In the first generation :
69. (1) 70. (2) 71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (2)
No of molecules =100 all are hybrid
74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (3) (14N15N)
In the second generation :
no. of molecules = 200
100 mol. hybrid (14N15N), 100 mol. light
7. Viruses grown on radio active sulfur con- DNA (14N14N)
tained radio active protein but not radio
62. code is degenerate that means one codon
active DNA.
codes for more than one amino acids.
12. Essential life processes evolved around
65. mRNA provides the template for synthesis
RNA.
of proteins. A segment of DNA coding for
14. In the first generation (20 minutes) both the polypeptide is called cistron.
molecules are hybrid (14N15N) In the
71. A repressor protein which is made up of
second generation 2 molecules are hybrid
regulatory gene (or) i gene.
(14N15N) & 2 molecules are light (14N14N)
15. DNA polymerase catalyses polymeriazation
in 5|  3| direction

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 48

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XII CLASS

NEET
2016 - 2022

BIOLOGY

BOTANY
KGN SS  PREVIOUS QUESTIONS
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4 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. Which of the following is required as 8. Which of the following rRNAs acts as
inducer(s) for the expression of Lac structural RNA as well as ribozyme in
operon? [NEET 2016] bacteria? [NEET 2016]
1) glucose 2) galactose 1) 5.8 S rRNA 2) 5 S rRNA
3) lactose 4) lactose and galactose 3) 18 S rRNA 4) 23 S rRNA
2. A complex of ribosomes attached to a 9. A molecules that can act as a genetic
single strand of RNA is known as : material must fulfill the traits given below,
[NEET 2016] except [NEET 2016]
1) Polysome 2) Polymer 1) it should provide the scope for slow changes
that are required for evolution
3) Polypeptide 4) Okazaki fragment
2) it should be able to express itself in the form
3. Which of the following is not required for of ‘Mendelian characters’
any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting 3) it should be able to generate its replica
available at present? [NEET 2016] 4) it should be unstable structurally and
1) Polymerase chain reaction chemically
2) Zinc finger analysis 10. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3) Restriction enzyme catalyzes transcription on one strand of the
DNA which is called the [NEET 2016]
4) DNA - DNA hybridization
1) antistrand 2) template strand
4. Which of the following statements is not true 3) coding strand 4) alpha strand
for cancer cells in relation to mutation? 11. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
[NEET 2016] semiconservative mode of chromo some
1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the replication on (NEET–II 2016)
cell cycle 1) Vinca rosea 2) Vicia faba
2) Mutation destroy telomerase inhibitor 3) Drosophila melanogaster 4) E.coli
12. The final proof of DNA as the genetic
3) Mutations inactivate the cell control
material came from the experiments of
4) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase 1) Hershey and Chase [NEET 2017]
5. Which one of the following is the starter 2) Avery, Mcleod and Mc Carty
codon? [NEET 2016] 3) Hargobind Khorana 4) Griffith
1) AUG 2) UGA 13. DNA fragments are: [NEET 2017]
3) UAA 4) UAG 1) Negatively charged 2) Neutral
3) Either positively or negatively charged
6. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
depending on their size
[NEET 2016] 4) Positively charged
1) deoxyribonuclease 2) lysozyme 14. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that
3) ribozyme 4) ligase codes for a protein with 333 amino acids,
7. The equivalent of a structural gene is and the base at position 901 is deleted such
[NEET 2016] that the length of the RNA becomes 998
bases, How many codons will be altered?
1) recon 2) muton
[NEET 2017]
3) cistron 4) operon 1) 11 2) 33 3) 333 4) 1
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15. During DNA replication, okazaki except [NEET 2018]
fragments are used to elongate 1) an operator 2) structural genes
[NEET 2017] 3) an enhancer 4) a promoter
1) The lagging strand towards replication fork. 23. Many ribosomes may associate with a
2) The leading strand away from replication fork single mRNA to form multiple copies of a
3) The lagging strand away from the replication polypeptide simulataneously. Such strings
fork of ribosomes are termed as [NEET 2018]
4) The leading strand towards replication fork.
1) polysome 2) polyhedral bodies
16. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:
3) plasidome 4) nucleosome
[NEET 2017]
1) Fungi 2) Animals 3) Bacteria 4) Plants 24. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:
17. The association of histone H1 with a [NEET 2019]
nucleosome indicates [NEET 2017] 1) Adenine and thymine
1) DNA replication is occuring 2) Adenine and guanine
2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin 3) Guanine and cytosine
fibre 4) Cytosine and thymine
3) The DNA double helix is exposed 25. Under which of the following conditions will
4) Transcription occuring there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA ? [NEET 2019]
18. The experimental proof for semi
conservative replication of DNA was 5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3'
first shown in a [NEET 2018] 1) Insertion of G at 5th position
1) Fungus 2) Bacterium 2) Deletion of G from G 5th position
3) Plant 4) Virus 3) Insertion of A at G at 4th and 5th positions
respectively
19. Select the correct statement :
4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
[NEET 2018]
positions
1) Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage".
26. Match the following genes of the Lac
2) Punnett square was developed by a British operon with their respective products.
scientist.
[NEET 2019]
3) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(a) i gene (i) b-galactosidase
4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
20. Select the correct match : [NEET 2018] (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
1) Alec Jeffreys — Streptococcus pneumoniae (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
2) Alfred Hershey and — TMV Martha Chase (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
3) Matthew Meselson — Pisum sativum and (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
F. Stahl
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (iii) (iv)(i) (ii)
4) Francois Jacob and — Lac operon Jacques
27. What will be the sequence of mRNA
Monod
produced by the following stretch of DNA?
21. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the
3’ATGCATGCATGCATG5’TEMPLATE
coding strand of a gene. What will be the
STRAND
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
mRNA ? [NEET 2018] 5’TACGTACGTACGTAC3’ CONDING
STRAND (Odisha NEET 2019)
1) AGGUAUCGCAU
2) UGGTUTCGCAT 1) 3’AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG5’
3) ACCUAUGCGAU 2) 5’UACGUACGUACGUAC3’
4) UCCAUAGCGUA 3) 3’ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5’
22. All of the following are part of an operon 4) 5’ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG3’

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28. Match the following RNA polymerase with 33. In a mixture, DNA fragments are
their transcribed products: separated by :- [NEET 2020]
(Odisha NEET 2019) 1) Bioprocess engineering
Column-I Column-II
2) Restriction digestion
1) RNA i) tRNA
3) Electrophoresis
polymerase I
4) Polymerase chain reaction
2) RNA ii) rRNA
polymerase II 34. E. coli has only 4.6 x 106 base pairs and
3) RNA iii) hnRNA completes the process of replication
polymerase III within 18 minutes; then the average rate
Select the correct answer from the options of polymerisation is approximately.
given below : [NEET 2019] 1) 2000 base pairs/second [NEET 2020]
1) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii) 2) 3000 base pairs/second
2) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii) 3) 4000 base pairs/second
3) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i) 4) 1000 base pairs/second
4) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i) 35. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of
29. Which of the following features of genetic human genome as well as DNA finger
code does allow bacteria to produce human printing? [NEET 2020]
insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
[NEET 2019]
2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
1) Genetic code is specific
2) Genetic code is not ambiguous 3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
3) Genetic code is redundant 4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
4) Genetic code is nearly universal. 36. If the distance between two consecutive
30. Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number
1) novel DNA sequences [NEET 2019] of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a
2) genes expressed as RNA typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x 109 bp, then
3) polypeptide expression the length of the DNA is approximately :
4) DNA polymorphism [NEET 2020]
31. Which of the following statements is 1) 2.7 meters 2) 2.0 meters
correct? [NEET 2020] 3) 2.5 meters 4) 2.2 meters
1) Adenine does not pair with thymine 37. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening
2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
of DNA helix during transcription.
H-bonds
[NEET 2020]
3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-
1) RNA polymerase 2) DNA ligase
bond
4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three 3) DNA helicase 4) DNA polymerase
H-bonds 38. The first phase of translation is :
32. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs 1) Recognition of an anti-codon NEET 2020
in: [NEET 2020] 2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
1) Ribosomes 2) Golgi apparatus 3) Recognition of DNA molecule
3) Microbodies 4) Nucleolus 4) Aminoacylation of tRNA

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39. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. 1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
P DNA 
Q
 mRNA  R
 S (NEET 2021) prokaryotes.
1) (P) Transduction ; (Q) Translation; 2) In capping methyl guanosine triphosphate
(R) Replication ; (S) Protein is added to the 3’ end of hnRNA
2) (P) Replication ; (Q) Transcription; 3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
(R) Transduction; (S) Protein terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria.
3) (P) Translation; (Q) Replication
4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
(R) Transcription; (S) Transduction
copied to an mRNA.
4) (P) Replication; (Q) Transcription
45. Which is the “only enzyme” that has
(R) Translation; (S) Protein
“capability” to catalyse initiation,
40. If adenine makes 30% of DNA molecule, elongation and termination in the process
what will be the percentage of thymine, of transcription in prokaryotes?
guanine and cytosine in it? (NEET 2021) 1) DNase (NEET 2021)
1) T:20, G:25, C:25 2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
2) T:20, G:30, C:20 3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3) T:20, G:20, C:30 4) DNA Ligase
4) T:30, G:20, C:20 46. Which of the following RNAs should be
41. Which one of the following statement about most abundant in animal cell?(NEET 2021)
histones is wrong? (NEET 2021) 1) tRNA 2) mRNA
1) Histones carry positive charge in the side 3) miRNA 4) rRNA
chain. 47. Statement–I : The codon ‘AUG’ codes for
2) Histones are organized to form a unit of a methionine and phenylalanine.
molecules. Statement–II : ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both
3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic codons code for the amino acid lysine.
4) Histones are rich in amino acids – Lysine In the light of the above statement, choose
and Arginine. the correct answer (NEET 2021)
42. Select the correct match (NEET 2021) 1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
1) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid true.
2) F2 x Recessive parent – Dihybird cross 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) T.H. Morgan – Transduction 3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
4) G. Mendel – Transformation
false.
43. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in
48. Which of the following RNA is not required
the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
for the synthesis of protein?(NEET 2021)
(NEET 2021)
1) siRNA 2) mRNA
1) Transcribes only snRNAs
3) tRNA 4) rRNA
2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
49. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying
3) Transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
differences is some specific regions in DNA
4) Transcribes percursor of mRNA sequence, called as (NEET 2021)
44. Identify the correct statement 1) polymorphic DNA 2) satellite DNA
(NEET 2021) 3) repetitive DNA 4) single nucleotides
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50. In lac operon, z gene codes for : 53. Match List-I with List-II (NEET 2022)
(NEET 2022) List-I List-II
1)  -galactosidase 2) Permease a) Bacteriophage  x174 i) 48502 base pairs
3) Repressor 4) Transacetylase b) Bacteriophage lambda ii) 5386 nucleotides
c) Escherichia coli iii) 3.3 x 109 base pairs
51. Match List - I with List - II
d) Haploid content of iv) 4.6 x 106 base pairs
(NEET 2022)
human DNA
List - I List - II
Choose the correct answer from the options
a) In lac operon i) transacetylase given below :
i gene codes for 1) a - (i), b) - (ii), c) - (iii), d) - (iv)
b) In lac operon ii) Permease 2) a - (ii), b) - (iv), c) - (i), d) - (iii)
z gene codes for 3) a - (ii), b) - (i), c) - (iv), d) - (iii)
c) In lac operon iii)  -galacto sidase 4) a - (i), b) - (ii), c) - (iv), d) - (ii)
y gene codes for 54. If DNA contained sulphur instead of hos-
d) IN lac operon iv) Repressor phorus and proteins contained phospho-
a gene codes for rus instead of sulfur, what would have
Choose the correct answer from the options been the outcome of Hershey and Chase
experiment? (NEET 2022)
given below:
1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
1) a - (iii), b) - (ii), c) - (i), d) - (iv)
2) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus
2) a - (iv), b) - (iii), c) - (ii), d) - (i)
in bacterial cells
3) a - (iv), b) - (i), c) - (iii), d) - (ii) 3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
4) a - (iii), b) - (i), c) - (iv), d) - (ii) 4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells
52. Given below are two statements: 55. Against the codon 5’ UAC 3’, what
Statement I: would be the sequence of anticodon on
DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisa- tRNA ? (NEET 2022)
tion only in one direction, that is 5'  3' 1) 5’ AUG 3’ 2) 5’ ATG 3’
Statement II: 3) 5’ GTA 3’ 4) 5’ GUA 3’
During replication of DNA, on one strand 56. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA
the replication is continuous while on other respectively. What will be the percentage
strand it is discontinuous. composition of T and G ? (NEET 2022)
In the light of the above statements, 1) T : 20%, G : 30% 2) T : 30%, G : 20%
choose the correct answer from the KEY
options given below: (NEET 2022) 1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4 5) 1 6) 3
1) Both Statemnt I and Statemnt II are 7) 3 8) 4 9) 4 10) 2 11)2 12) 1
correct 13) 1 14) 2 15) 3 16) 3 17) 2 18) 2
2) Both Statemnt I and Statemnt II are 19) 2 20) 4 21) 1 22) 3 23)1 24) 2
incorrect 25) 4 26) 3 27)2 28)3 29)4 30)2
31) 2 32) 4 33) 3 34) 1 35) 1 36) 4
3) Both Statemnt I and Statemnt II are 37) 1 38) 4 39)4 40)4 41)3 42)1
incorrect 43)3 44)3 45)3 46)4 47)1 48)1
4) Both Statemnt I is incorrect but 49)3 50) 1 51) 2 52) 1 53) 3 54) 3
Statemnt II is correct 55) 4 56) 4

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42. Ribozymes (ribonucleic acid enzymes) are
HINTS & EXPLANATIONS RNA molecules that are capable for catalysing
specific biochemical reactions similar to the
11. Taylor et al. (1957) conducted experiment on
action of protein enzymes.
Vicia faba (broad bean) to prove semi-
conservative replication of DNA. He fed 43. RNA polymerase III is responsible for
dividing cells of root tips of Vicia faba with transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and
radioactive 3H containing thymine instead of snRNA’s (small nuclear RNAs)
normal thymine and found that all the 44. Split gene arangement is a characteristic of
chromosomes became radioactive. Labelled eukaryotes. In capping, an unusual nucleotide
thymine was then replaced with normal one. (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to
Next generation came to have radioactivity the 5'-end ofhnRNA. RNA polymerase binds
in one of the two chromatids of each with termination factor Rho (  ) to terminate
chromosome while in subsequent generation the process of transcription in bacteria. The
radioactivity was present in 50% of the coding strand does not code for anything. "
chromosomes. This is possible only if out of 45. In bacteria, there is a single DNA dependent
the two strands of a chromosome, one is RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription
formed afresh while the other is conserved at of all types of RNA. It associates transiently
each replication. with initiation factor (  ) and termination
14. If length mRNA having 999 bases it codes for factor (  ) to carryout initiation and
333 amino acids if there is chang in 901 base termination of transcription respectively. It
postion it alters sequence of 33 amino acids catalyses the elongation as its uses nucleoside
triphosphates as substrates and polymerises
23. The association of many ribosomes with single in a template dependent fashion as rule of
mRNA leads to formation of polyribosomes complementarity.
or polysomes. It occurs during translation
process of protein synthesis. 46. rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is the most abundant
of all types of RNA(70–88%).Hence it will
29. AS genetic code is nearly universal means be presenet in highest amount. Percentage of
almost all organisms (from a virus, bacteria tRNA and mRNA is 15% and 2–5%
to a tree or human being) will have amino respectively. miRNA (micro RNA) are 21–
acids coded by same kind of codons as given 22 bp long RNA that bring degeneration of
in checkerboard. So, this property is utilised mRNA.
to produce human insulin using bacteria.
47. The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine only
30. Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs) are genes and it act as an initator codon. The code
that are expressed as RNA. It is used in ‘UUU’ and ‘UUC’ code for phenylalanine.
sequencing of humna genome. ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the
amino acid lysine.
40. According to the Chargaff’s rule
48. siRNA is not required for protein synthesis.
A = T and G = C Instead there are highly speicific and interfere
A +T = G+C with the expression of specific genes with
complementary nucleotide sequences by
 If A=30% then T= 30%
degrading mRNA after transcription, thus
 G+C = 100–60 = 40% preventing translation.
G = C =20% 49. DNA fingerprinting involves indentifying
differences in some specific regions in DNA
T = 30%, G=20%, C=20%
sequence called as repetitive DNA, as in these
41. Histones are positively charged basic proteins, sequences a small strech of DNA is repeated
thus, pH is alkaline many times.

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