NWS

Class-9
Science
Question Bank
(2024-2025)

1
 INDEX
Serial Topic Page Weightage
Number Number
1 Syllabus 3

CHEMISTRY
2 Matter in Our Surroundings 4

3 Is Matter Around Us Pure? 7

23 marks
4 Atoms and Molecules 9

5 Structure of the Atom 11

BIOLOGY

6 The Fundamental Unit of Life 14 30 marks

7 Tissues 16

8 Improvement in Food Resources 18

PHYSICS
9 Motion 20 27 marks

10 Force and Laws of Motion 23

11 Gravitation-1 and 2 25 and27

12 Work and Energy 29

13 Sound 31

14 Model Papers 33

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 SYLLABUS
EXAMINATION TOPIC
Chapter 1- Matter in Our Surroundings
Chapter 5- The Fundamental Unit of Life
PERIODIC TEST-1 Chapter 8- Motion
Chapter 2- Is Matter Around Us Pure(till page 20)
PERIODIC TEST –2 Chapter 9- Force and Laws of Motion
Chapter 6- Tissue
Chapter 1- Matter in Our Surroundings
HALF-YEARLY Chapter 2- Is Matter Around Us Pure
Chapter 5- The Fundamental Unit of Life
Chapter 6- Tissue
Chapter 8- Motion
Chapter 9- Force and Laws of Motion
Chapter 10- Gravitation
PERIODIC TEST –3 Chapter 3- Atoms and Molecules
Chapter 10- Gravitation
Chapter 15- Improvement In Food Resources
PERIODIC TEST –4 Chapter 4-Structure of the Atom
Chapter 11- Work and Energy
Chapter 15- Improvement In
Food Resources

ANNUAL EXAMINATION Complete Syllabus

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 CHAPTER 1
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The boiling point of alcohol is 78℃ and its freezing point is – 114℃. At what temperature does
alcohol undergo evaporation?
(a) 124 K (b) 159K (c) 321 K (d) 373 K
2. In which of the following substances do the molecules possess maximum kinetic energy under
normal conditions?
(a) Sugar (b) Sulphur powder (c) Ammonium Chloride (d) Common Salt
3. Which of the following phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
(a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, and expansion of gases
(d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases
4. On converting 25°C, 38°C and 66°C to the Kelvin scale, the correct sequence of temperature will
be
(a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
(b) 298 K, 300 K and 338 K
(c) 273 K, 278 K and 543 K
(d) 298 K, 310 K and 338 K

FILL IN THE BLANKS

5. Matter is _____________ in nature.
6. When temperature increases, rate of diffusion ______________.
7. When temperature _____________, kinetic energy or molecular motion of the particles
increases.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102°C at normal temperature and pressure.
Is the water pure? Will this water freeze at 0°C? Comment.
9. Analyse the temperature versus time graph of water, given below.

Which region contains all liquids?

10. How will you differentiate between a gas and a vapour?
11. Convert the following thermometer readings into Kelvin: (a) - 100C (b)200C

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ASSERTION AND REASON
For questions numbers 13, 14, and 15, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion (A): It is easier to cook food at sea level as compared to higher altitudes.
Reason(R): The boiling point of water increases at high altitudes.
14. Assertion(A): When a solid melts, its temperature remains the same.
Reason(R): The heat gets used up in changing the state by overcoming the forces of attraction
between the particles.
15. Assertion(A): The solids do not diffuse in air.
Reason (R): The particles are loosely packed in solids.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

16. You are provided with a mixture of naphthalene and ammonium chloride by your teacher.
Suggest an activity to separate them with a well-labelled diagram.
17. Give reason:
(a) Gases exert pressure on the walls of the container.
(b) Evaporation causes cooling.
18. Give reason:
(a) Ice floats on water.
(b) We sweat more on humid days.
(c) A balloon kept in sunlight burst after some time.
19. (a)A rubber band can change its shape on stretching. Will you classify it as solid or not? Justify
your answer.
(b)Arrange the three states of matter in the increasing order of (i) rate of diffusion
(ii) Intermolecular force of attraction. (iii) particle motion

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

20. Account for the following:
(a) When sugar crystals dissolve in water, the level of water does not rise appreciably.
(b) Doctors advise putting strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having a high fever.
(c) When a solid melts, its temperature remains constant.
(d) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(e) Dogs generally hang out their tongue in summer.
21. (a) Explain with the help of activity that particles of matter are very small.
(b) Name the states of matter in which the forces between the constituent particles are -
(1) strongest (2) weakest
(c) When sugar and common salt are kept in different jars, they take the shape of the jars. Are
they solid? Justify your answer.
22. Identify and write which characteristic of the particles of matter is explained by each of the
following observations:
(a) When we try to break the stream of water with our fingers, the stream remains together.
(b) The smell of the hot sizzling food reaches several meters away within a few seconds.
(c) When we add salt to water to make the salt solution, the level of water remains the same.

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 (d) On adding a drop of ink to a glass of water, it colours the entire water without stirring.
(e) The driver can cut through water in a swimming pool.

CASE-BASED INTEGRATED QUESTIONS

Answer questions numbers 23 to 25 based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
23. During vacation, Neha got an opportunity to visit a village. She found ladies cooking food in
open pans. She sat with them for some time and advised them to use pressure cookers instead of
open containers to save time as well as fuel.
Answer the following questions based on the above passage –
(a) How does cooking in the pressure cooker help in saving time?
(b) How does cooking in the pressure cooker help in saving fuel?
(c) What is the effect of pressure on boiling point?
(d) Name the fuel used in the home for cooking food.
24. Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass. The matter is classified into solid, liquid,
and gas. In a solid state particles are closely packed and have a very strong force of attraction,
particles can only vibrate and rotate around fixed positions. In the liquid state, particles are less
closely packed and have a strong force of attraction but less than in solids, particles can move
throughout the liquid. In a Gaseous state, particles are far apart with a weak force of attraction and
are in a state of constant random motion. Gases can be easily compressed whereas solids and
liquids are incompressible.
(a) If an inflated balloon is placed in the refrigerator, what will happen?
(b) When a solid changes into vapours, the process is called.
(c) A substance melts at 5°C and boils at 150°C. What will be its physical state at room
temperature?
(d) Why do we feel colder after taking a bath with hot water?
25. 100 ml of water was placed in four vessels A, B, C, and D. Vessels C, A, and D are of the same
size, B is smaller. Vessel C is covered and C and D are placed under the fan as shown

Read the above information and answer the following questions.

(a) In how many beakers, water will escape into the atmosphere as vapours?
(b) What name is given to the process of escaping water from liquid to vapour state?
(c) After one hour from the beginning of the experiment the water level will fall to the maximum
in which beaker? a) C b) A c) D d) Both in A and D
(b) What happens in beaker C?

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 CHAPTER 2
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. An example of a liquid metal and a liquid non-metal is:
(a) gallium and mercury (b) mercury and chlorine
(c) mercury and bromine (d) bromine and sulphur
2. More than one kind of pure form of matter combines forming………..
(a) Texture (b) Solution (c) Mixture (d) Component
3. Non-uniform compositions of solutions called………….. solutions.
(a) Mixture (b) Texture (c) Homogenous (d) Heterogeneous
4. Mixture of two or more metals, or metals and non-metals called as…………
(a) Alloy (b) Solution (c) Mixture (d) Metallic mixture
FILL IN THE BLANKS
5. A mixture contains more than ______ substance mixed in ______ proportion.
6. Properties of a __________ are different from its constituent elements, whereas a _______
shows the properties of its constituting elements.
7. A solution is defined as a mixture that is-----------.
8. We can remove salts from a solution by using the process of ----------
9. A pure substance has a fixed__________ or ______ at constant temperature.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
10. Sucrose (sugar) crystals obtained from sugarcane and beetroot are mixed. Will it be a pure
substance or a mixture? Give reasons for the same.
11. Name the type of change that takes place when calcium carbonate decomposes to give
calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
12. Identify the dispersed phase of fog.
13. Smoke and fog are both aerosols. In what way are they different?

ASSERTION AND REASON

For question numbers 14, 15, and 16, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed in a dark
place the path of the beam becomes visible.
Reason(R): Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.
15. Assertion (A): A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous.
Reason(R): A solution having a different composition throughout is homogeneous.
16. Assertion (A): True solution exhibits Tyndall effect.
Reason(R): Particles are very large.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

17. A solution contains 40 g of common salt in 320 g of water.
(a) Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by the mass percentage of the solution.

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(b) Identify the solute and the solvent in the tincture of iodine.
(c) Why is the Tyndall effect not seen in a true solution?
18. (a)You are provided with soda water, milk, and muddy water. How can you differentiate
between them in terms of (1) Homogeneity (2) Filtration 3i) Tyndall effect
(b)If 4 ml of acetone is present in 60 ml of its aqueous solution, calculate the concentration of this
solution.
19. Identify the dispersed phase and dispersing medium in the following colloids.
(a) Fog (b) Cheese (c) Coloured gemstone
20. (a) Which of the following are physical changes?
Melting of iron metal, rusting of iron, bending of iron rod, drawing a wire of iron metal.
(b) Name two elements that exist in the liquid state at room temperature.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

21. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties:
(a) The composition of a sample of steel is 98% iron, 1.5% carbon, and 0.5% other elements.
(b) Zinc dissolves in hydrochloric acid with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
(c) Metallic sodium is soft enough to be cut with a knife.
(d) Most metal oxides form alkalis on interacting with water. (e) Cutting of trees.
22. Give three points of differences between an element and a compound.
23. (1) What would you observe when (a) a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at
60°C is allowed to cool at room temperature? (b) an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness?
(c) a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly?
(2) Name the process associated with the following:
(a) Dry ice is kept at room temperature and one atmospheric pressure.
(b) A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the beaker with
stirring.

CASE-BASED INTEGRATED QUESTIONS

Answer questions numbers 24 and 25 based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
24. Amit was asked by his teacher to separate a liquid mixture of acetone and ethyl alcohol. He set
up a distilled apparatus and tried to distil the mixture. To his surprise, both the liquids got distilled.
The teacher told Amit to repeat the experiment by using a fractionating column in the distillation
flask. Amit followed the advice of the teacher and he was able to separate the two liquids.
(1) Why was Amit not successful in separating the liquid mixture earlier?
(2) Why did the teacher ask him to use the fractionating column?
(3) Which liquid was distilled first?
(4) Differentiate between simple and fractional distillation.
25. A pure substance consists of a single type of particle. The mixture consists of more than one kind
of pure form of matter. Mixtures can be separated by physical methods but pure substances
especially compounds cannot be separated into chemical constituents by physical methods. A pure
substance has the same composition throughout. Soil and soft drinks are mixtures. Mixtures can be
separated by various methods depending on the nature of the substance present in them. The
solution is a homogeneous mixture.
(1) Name the process by which pure NaCl can be obtained from the salt solution.
(2) What are alloys-compounds or mixtures?
(3) What is the size of particles in the solution?
(4) What are solutes and solvents in cold drinks?

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 CHAPTER 3
ATOMS AND MOLECULES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The atomic symbol of silver is —————
(a) Si (b) S (c) Au (d) Ag
2. What is the chemical formula of sodium carbonate?
(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) NaCO3 (d) Na2HCO3
3. Which of the following is the correct pair of atoms and its atomic symbol?
(a) Sulphur – Su (b) Potassium – P (c) Phosphorus –P (d) Sodium- S
4. The atomic mass of Chlorine is ————– (u)
(a) 34 (b) 34.5 (c) 35 (d) 35.5

FILL IN THE BLANKS

5. During a chemical reaction, the sum of the _________ of the reactants and products remain
unchanged.
6. In a pure chemical compound, elements are always present in a ________ proportion by mass.
7. Clusters of atoms that act as an ion are called __________ ions.
8. Those ions which are formed from single atoms are called _________.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

9. Write the ratio by mass of Hydrogen and oxygen in one molecule of water.
10. Give an example of a triatomic molecule of an element.
11. Write the atomicity of the following molecules:
(1) Sulphur (2) Phosphorus
12. Give one word for the following:
(1) A group of atoms carrying a charge (2) Positively charged ion

ASSERTION AND REASON

For question numbers 13, 14, 15, and 16, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion (A): Atoms always combine to form molecules and ions.
Reason(R): Atoms of most elements are not able to exist independently.
14. Assertion (A): The atomicity of ozone is three while that of oxygen is two.
Reason (R): Atomicity is the number of atoms constituting a molecule.
15. Assertion (A): 1 amu equals 1.66 x 10-24 g.
Reason (R): 1.66 x 10-24 g equal to 1/12th mass of a C-12 atom.
16. Assertion (A): On burning magnesium in oxygen, the mass of magnesium oxide formed is
equal to the total mass of magnesium and oxygen
Reason (R): In a chemical substance, the elements are always present in a definite proportion.

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THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
15. Write the chemical formulae for the compounds formed by the calcium ion with phosphate,
sulphate, and hydrogen carbonate ions.
16. Write the name of the compound (NH4)2SO4 and mention the ions present in it.
17. 32g of sulphur burns in 32g of oxygen to form 64g of sulphur dioxide. What will be the
amount of Sulphur dioxide formed if 64g of sulphur is burnt in 32 g oxygen? Name and state the
law that governs your answer.
18. a) Give the chemical formulae of the following compounds:
(1) Potassium Carbonate (2) Calcium chloride
(b) Calculate the formulae unit mass of Al2(SO4)3 (Given the atomic mass of Al –27u, S – 32u, O-
16u)
19. The percentage of three elements calcium, carbon, and oxygen in a sample of calcium
carbonate is given as Calcium =40%; Carbon =12.0%; Oxygen = 48%. If the law of constant
proportion is true, what weights of these elements will be present in 1.5 g of another sample of
Calcium Carbonate? (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u, C= 12 u, O = 16 u)
20. (a) What is the ratio between the mass of nitrogen and hydrogen in NH3 (N=14, H=1)?
(b) Calculate the percentage composition of an 18g sample of water which contains 2 g of
hydrogen and 16g of oxygen.
(c) Define relative atomic mass and molecular mass.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

21. An element “X” forms an oxide with the formula X2O3. (i) State the valency of X.
(1) Write the formula of (a) chloride of X and (b) sulphate of X.
Explain with the help of a labelled diagram an activity for the verification of the law of
conservation of mass.
22. (a) Write the symbols of (1) Sodium (2) Silver (3) Silicon (4) Calcium
(b) Why do we use symbols to represent elements?
(c) Find the relative molecular mass of (i) CaCO3 and (ii) HNO3 (iii)HCl
(Given Ca = 40 u ; Cl = 35.5 u ; H = 1 u ; N = 14 u ; O = 16 u)

CASE-BASED INTEGRATED QUESTIONS

Answer question number 23 based on your understanding of the following paragraph and the
related studied concepts.
23. The table shows common ions with fixed charges Answer the questions based on this table
and related studied concepts.

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(1) What is the formula of magnesium nitride?
(2) Calculate the molar mass of Iron (II) Sulphate. [Fe = 56 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u]
(3) Write the name of (NH4)2SO2.
(4) Give one example of a polyatomic anion.

11
 CHAPTER 4
STRUCTURE OF THE ATOM
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Anode rays are produced when:
(a)The cathode is perforated (b) An anode is perforated
(c) When a low voltage is passed (d) When pressure is high
2. Which of the following statements about the Rutherford model of atoms is correct?
(1) Considered the nucleus as positively charged.
(2) Established that the alpha particles are four times as heavy as a hydrogen atom.
(3) Can be compared to the solar system
(4) Agreed with the Thomson model.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) only (i)
3. An atom with 3 protons and 4 neutrons will have a valency of:
(a)3 (b)7 (c)1 (d)4
4. The atomic number of an element is equal to ————
(a) number of neutrons (b) number of electrons
(c) number of protons (d) number of neutrons + number of protons
5. An alpha particle is also known as ————–
(a) subatomic particle (b) an ionised helium atom
(c) a neutral particle (d) a doubly-charged helium ion

FILL IN THE BLANKS

6. An atom is the smallest unit of an element which takes part in a _________.
7. Mass of an electron is 1/1837 times less than the mass of one atom of__________.
8. The K-shell of any atom cannot have more than _________ electrons.
9. Isotopes are the atoms of ___________ element, having the same atomic number but different
mass numbers.
10. An atom of an element has 11 protons 11 electrons and 12 neutrons. The atomic mass of the
atom is __________.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

11. Write the chemical formula of an oxide of an element whose valency is 3.
12. Is it possible for the atom of an element to have one electron, one proton, and no neutron? If so,
name the element.
13. Write the correct representation of an element ‘X’ which contains 15 electrons and sixteen
neutrons.
14. What will be the valency of an atom if it contains 3 protons and 4 neutrons?

ASSERTION AND REASON

For question numbers 15, 16, 17, and 18, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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15. Assertion (A): Assertion: For noble gases, valency is zero.
Reason(R): Noble gases have 8 valence electrons except helium.
16. Assertion (A): Thomson’s atomic model is known as the ‘raisin pudding’ model.
Reason (R): The atom is visualized as a pudding of positive charge with electrons (raisins)
embedded in it.
17. Assertion (A): The mass of the total number of protons and neutrons is a measure of the
approximate mass of an atom.
Reason(R): The mass of an electron is negligible.
18. Assertion(A): Isotopes are electrically neutral.
Reason(R): Isotopes are species with the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

19. You are given an element 16 8X. Find out-
(a) Number of protons and neutrons in ‘X’.(b) Valency of ‘X’.
(c) Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with (i) hydrogen, (ii) carbon
20. (a) Write two important postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom.
(b) If an atom has one proton and one electron, state the charge on the atom. Justify.
(c) What is the valency of Aluminium whose atomic number is 13?
21. (a) What is the relationship between two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 18 and 20
respectively but whose mass numbers remain the same as 40?
(b) Which has more electrons Na or Na+? Justify your answer.
(c) Name the isotope used (a) to treat cancer and (b) as nuclear fuel.
(d) Why are isotopes of an element chemically similar but differing in their masses?
22. Rutherford’s α- α-particle scattering experiment gives the experimental evidence for deriving
the conclusion that
(a) Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
(b) the nucleus of an atom is positively charged
(c) 24 12Mg and 26 12Mg are symbols of two isotopes of Magnesium.
Compare atoms of these isotopes concerning
(1) Composition of their Nuclei. (2) Electronic configuration and valency.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

23. (a)Give an activity to understand the implications of Rutherford’s α scattering experiment with
a gold foil.
(b)The element Helium has 2 electrons in its valence shell but its valence is not 2. Why?
(c)Two elements X and Y combine in a ratio of 3:8 by mass and the compound ‘Z’ is formed. Z is
one of the essential components of photosynthesis. If Z is also one of the greenhouse gases:
(1)Identify X, Y, and Z.(2)Write the electronic configuration of X and Y.
(3)Write the atomicity of molecule Z.
24. Sulphur dioxide is a colourless pungent-smelling gas and is a major air pollutant.
(a)Write the electronic configuration of its constituent elements ‘sulphur and ‘Oxygen’.
(b)Write the valency of Sulphur and Oxygen.
(c)What is meant by the atomic number and mass number?
25. (a)(1) Who discovered neutrons?
(2)What is the charge and mass of a neutron?
(3)Where is a neutron located in an atom?
(b)An element is a yellow colour solid. It has 16 neutrons and an atomic number is equal to 16.
How many electrons and protons does it have? What will be its mass number? Write its electronic

13
configuration.

CASE-BASED INTEGRATED QUESTIONS

Answer questions numbers 26 to 28 based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
26. The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in particles from A to D is given below:

(i)Which one is a cation? (ii) Which represents a pair of isotopes

(iii) Which one is an anion? (iv)What is the Mass number of A?
27. Observe the bar chart shown for elements with atomic numbers 1 to 10. Answer the
questions based on this graph and related studied concepts.

(1) Name the element whose first shell is complete.

(2) Name the element in which the second shell has twice the electrons as 1st shell.
(3) How do valence electrons vary from Li to Ne?
(4) Name the element which has 7 valence electrons.
28. The structure of an atom consists of subatomic particles, mainly protons, neutrons, and
electrons. Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus, which is the central region of an atom.
Protons carry a positive charge, while neutrons are electrically neutral. Electrons, on the other
hand, are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus in energy levels or shells. The
number of protons in an atom determines its atomic number, which is unique to each element.
The mass number of an atom is the sum of its protons and neutrons. The atomic mass of an
element is the weighted average mass of all its naturally occurring isotopes. Isotopes are atoms
of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons. The arrangement and distribution
of these subatomic particles determine the overall stability and properties of an atom.
(1) Which subatomic particles are mainly located in the nucleus of an atom?
(2) What is the charge of protons?
(3) Where are electrons located in an atom?
(4) What determines the atomic number of an atom?

14
 BIOLOGY
CHAPTER 5
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Organelles other than the nucleus, containing DNA is
(a) mitochondria (b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) lysosome
2 Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosomes
(c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (d) Vacuoles
3 Which of the following is not a function of the vacuole?
(a) Storage (b) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(c) Waste excretion (d) Locomotion

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4 _________is a substance that comes from the bark of a tree.
5 The plant cell wall is mainly composed of _________.
6 ____________ is the packaging and despatching unit of the cell.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7 State the function of the chromosome in a cell.
8 Name the cell organelle that you would associate with the elimination of old and worn-out cells.
9 Identify and name the following cell structures:
(a)The undefined nuclear region of the prokaryotic cell.
(b)The site of energy release inside the cell.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
10. Assertion (A): Plant cells have a single large vacuole.
Reason(R): Vacuole is responsible for the ingestion of food substances.
11. Assertion (A): Passive transport does not involve energy.
Reason(R): It occurs due to the concentration gradient of materials.
12. Assertion (A): The outer membrane of mitochondria is folded into cristae.
Reason (R): Cristae increases surface area.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Write two similarities and one dissimilarity between mitochondria and plastids.
14. The division of labour exists even at the intracellular level. Justify the statement by giving two
examples.

15
15. (a)List any two structural differences and two similarities between a plant cell and an animal
cell.
(b)What would happen if an animal cell is kept in distilled water for 24 hours and why?
16. Why mitosis is known as equation division and meiosis reduction division?

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17(a) Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is the endoplasmic
reticulum, important for membrane biogenesis?
(b) Describe the role played by the lysosomes in a cell. Why are these termed suicidal bags? How do
they perform their function?
18. Who gave the term Golgi apparatus? Name one cell organelle that is formed by the Golgi
apparatus. Write any two functions of the Golgi apparatus. Justify their importance in a cell.
19. Draw a neat and well-labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell. How do single-cell prokaryotes
explain the division of labour?

CASE STUDY
20(A)Answer question number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Bacteria are the second smallest living things on Earth with only viruses being smaller. They are
very small organisms that usually consist of only a single cell. If one million of the tiny bacteria were
laid end-to-end, they would only measure about two inches. The word bacteria is plural, and

bacterium describes a single organism.

(a) What is the nuclear region called?
(b) How many chromosomes are present in the prokaryotic cell?
(c) What is the term given to bacterial-type cells?
(d) What is the general size of the bacterial cell?
(B)Leucoplasts are colourless plastids. They store starch, oil, and proteins. Chromoplasts are
coloured plastids. They contain pigments. e.g. Chloroplasts contain green pigment present in the
plant cell. Chromoplasts provide colour to various flowers and fruits.

(a) Which plastids bring about the process of photosynthesis?

(b) Give three examples of flowers containing coloured pigments.
(c)Name the chemicals stored in amyloplast and leucoplast.
(d)Draw a diagram of a chloroplast.

16
 Chapter-6
TISSUES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 In desert plants, the rate of water loss gets reduced due to the presence of
(a) cuticle (b) stomata (c) lignin (d) suberin
2 Cartilage is not found in
(a) nose (b) ear (c) kidney (d) larynx
3 Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) parenchyma d) chlorenchyma
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4 The lining of the small intestine is made up of _________.
5 Epithelial cells with cilia are found in ________ of our body.
6 _________have tubular cells with perforated walls and live in nature.
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
7 Identify the tissue that is present at the growing tips of the stem and roots.
8 What are the two basic components of connective tissue?
9 Which part of the epidermis conducts photosynthesis?

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): All the plant tissues divide throughout their life.
Reason (R): Meristematic tissues are localised in certain regions.
11. Assertion (A): Striated muscles are attached to the bones in a different body part.
Reason (R): These are independent of voluntary control.
12. Assertion (A): Parenchyma tissues are non-living.
Reason (R): Parenchyma cells have intercellular spaces.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Write one term for the following:-
(a) that joins muscle to bone (b) the fat reservoir of our body
(c) supporting fills the space inside the organs, and helps in the repair of tissues.
14. Identify the simple permanent plant tissue with the following descriptions and also mention
their location in the plant body:
(a) Cells have irregular wall thickenings(b) Tissues with large intercellular spaces and cells having a
large air cavity.
(c) Cells are long narrow and dead.
15. Draw a labelled diagram of a tissue that transmits stimulus in our body. How does this tissue
enable animals to move rapidly in response to stimuli?
16. A horse and a mango tree both are complex living organisms with specialised cells with
different tissue systems to perform the basic life processes. Give two reasons for possessing

17
different tissues to perform similar functions. Name the tissue that allows easy bending in various
parts of a plant.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. (a) Draw a neat diagram of a transverse section of collenchyma tissue and label any two parts.
(b) Write any two differences between parenchyma and collenchyma.
18. (a) Uma started walking fast when she noticed that some unknown faces were following her.
Name the two types of tissues that facilitated the movement of her leg bones in response to the
stimulus.
(b) Draw the diagram of any one of the above-mentioned two tissues and label any two
parts.
19. Name the type of epithelial tissue that lines the following:
(a) Oesophagus (b )Respiratory tract (c)Kidney tubules
(d)The inner lining of the intestine (e)Blood vessels

20(A)CASE-STUDY
Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph,
picture, and the related studied concepts.
The human body contains over 600 muscles. They do everything from pumping blood throughout
the body to helping a person lift something heavy. A person can control some of their muscles,
while others, like the heart muscle, do their jobs without having a person think about them.

(a)Name the protein present in the muscle cells.

(b) Identify the muscles of diagrams ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(c) What is the function of muscles present in diagram ‘c’?
(d) Write one location of muscles given in diagrams ‘a’ and ‘beach.
(B)The growth of plants occurs only in certain specific regions. This is because the dividing tissue,
also known as meristematic tissue, is located only at these points. Depending on the region where
they are present, meristematic tissues are classified as apical, lateral, and intercalary. New cells
produced by meristem are initially like those of meristem itself, but as they grow and mature, their
characteristics slowly change and they become differentiated as components of other tissues.
Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the length of the
stem and the root. The girth of the stem or root increases due to lateral meristem (cambium).
Intercalary meristem seen in some plants is located near the node cells of meristematic tissue and
are very active, they have dense cytoplasm, thin cellulose walls, and prominent nuclei. They lack
vacuoles.
(a) Which meristem helps in increasing the girth of the plant?
(b) What is the characteristic of Meristematic tissue?
(c) What is meant by Differentiation?
(d) In aquatic plants, which type of parenchyma tissue is found?

18
 Chapter-12
IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1 Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes:
(a) Milk production (b) Agricultural work
(c) Meat production (d) Egg production
(1) (a), (b), and(c) (2) (a), (b), and(c) (3 ) (c) and(d) (4) (a) and(b)
2 The major constituents of animal feed apart from water are
(a) antibiotics and (b) grain mixture (c) minerals (d) roughages
3 Which one is an oil-yielding plant among the following?
(a) Lentil (b) Sunflower
(c) Pea (d) Cauliflower

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4 Diseases in plants are caused by ________.
5 Pigeon pea is a good source of _________.
6 Milk production can be increased by increasing________ period.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7 Name two vitamins that should be included in a high amount of poultry feed.
8 What are the two main products obtained from raising domestic fowl?
9 Name one indigenous and one exotic breed of domestic fowl.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
10. Assertion (A): Humidity in the air promotes the growth of moulds like Mucor.
Reason (R): Food grains are stored in silos on a large scale.
11. Assertion (A): Rhizobium fixes atmospheric oxygen and increases soil fertility.
Reason (R): Kharif crops are grown in June.
12. Assertion (A): There is a need for sustainable agriculture practices.
Reason (R): The population of the country is still growing.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

13. Define hybridization. State its types. Write one of its advantages.
14. Define crop rotation. While choosing plants for crop rotation, what factors should be kept in
mind?
15. (a) A farmer wants to harvest more than two varieties at a time from his crop field. He has no
idea about the cropping patterns. Suggest one method to get the desired result. Also, state three
advantages of this cropping pattern.
(b) Name any two fodder crops.

19
16. (a) State two advantages of composite fish culture. What is the application of hormonal
stimulation in fish culture?
(b) Cattle are mainly reared for milk or performing agricultural tasks. What are these two
categories of cattle known as?

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

17. (a) Farmer ‘X’ planted Soybean + Maize + cowpeas in the same field simultaneously in a set row
pattern. Farmer ‘Y’ planted cereal crops in one season and leguminous plants in the next season on
the same piece of land in pre-planned succession. Name the cropping pattern used by farmers ‘X’
and ‘Y’.
(b) State two advantages of different cropping patterns followed by farmers ‘X’ and ‘Y’
respectively.
18. (a) How do the following factors improve crop yield?
(1) Shorten maturity duration
(2) Biotic and abiotic resistance.
(3) Wider adaptability.
(b) Define two methods of improving crop variety.
19.(a) What are the common names of Apis dorsata, Apis florae and Apis Serena indica?
(b) Name one Italian bee variety. Also, justify the use of the Italian bee for honey production giving
two reasons.
(c) State one factor which affects the quality of honey produced.

CASE-STUDY
20(A)Answer question number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Cattle farming is done for two purposes and drought labour for agricultural work such as tilling,
irrigation, and carting. Indian cattle belong to two different species, Bos indicus cows, and Bos
bubalis buffaloes. Milk-producing females are called milch animals while once used for farm labour
are called drought animals.
(a) How can we improve the breeds of cattle?
(b) Name two exotic breeds of the cow.
(c) Name the pathogen which damages the liver.
(d) Write the two symptoms of diseased animals.
(B)Honey is widely used and therefore beekeeping for making honey has become an agricultural
enterprise. Since bee-keeping needs low investments, farmers use it as an additional income-
generating activity. In addition to honey, beehives are a source of wax that is used in various
medicinal preparations. The local varieties of bees used for commercial honey production are
Apisceranaindica, commonly known as the Indian bee, A. dorsata, the rock bee, and A. florae, the
little bee. An Italian bee variety, A. mellifera, has also been brought in to increase the yield of
honey. The Italian bees have a high honey collection capacity. They sting somewhat less. They stay
in a given beehive for long periods and breed very well. For commercial honey production, bee
farms or apiaries are established. The value or quality of honey depends upon the pasturage, or the
flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In addition to an adequate quantity
of pasturage, the kind of flowers available will determine the taste of the honey.
(a)What is apiculture? What are the products obtained?
(b)Name the different varieties of honey bees used for apiculture.
(c)What is pasturage and how it is related to honey production?
(d)What is apiary?

20
 Chapter-7
MOTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to
(a)Mass of the body
(b)The velocity of the body
(c)The net force applied to the body
(d) None of these
2. Does the figure show the displacement-time graph of four children A, B, C, and D?
Which child has the highest velocity?

3. A vehicle covers half of the total distance at a speed of 40 km/h and the remaining half at a
constant speed of 60 km/h. What is his average speed?
(a) 50 km/h
(b) 48 km/h
(c) 46.3 km/h
(d) 54 km/h

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. A _____________ is used to measure the instantaneous speed of a moving car and _________ is
used to determine the total distance covered by it during a given time.
5. In a uniform circular motion _____________ of moving object is a constant but ________ is
continuously changing.
6. When the v-t graph is parallel to the x-axis, the body has ____________.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin that falls behind him. State the type of motion of the
train.
8. Define one radian.
9. Earth revolves around the sun in a circular orbit with a uniform speed. Is this motion uniform or
accelerated?

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

21
10. Assertion (A): An object can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given
instant of time.
Reason (R): An object thrown vertically upwards is momentarily at rest at the
the highest point of its path.
11. Assertion (A): The displacement of an object may be zero when the distance travelled by
it is not zero.
Reason(R): The displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final
positions of an object.
12. Assertion (A): An object can have constant speed but variable velocity.
Reason (R): In a uniform circular motion, speed remains unchanged.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. An object starting from rest attains a speed of 25m/s after travelling a distance of 50 m.
Calculate the acceleration produced and the total time taken to cover that distance.
14. What conclusion can you draw about the motion, velocity, and acceleration of a body from the
displacement – the time graph is given below. Give a reason for your answer.

15. The following table shows the distance travelled by a car, moving with uniform acceleration, in
time intervals of two seconds. Draw a distance-time graph for the motion of the car. Indicate
whether the motion is uniform or not.
Time in second 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Distance in metres 0 1 4 9 16 25 36
16. A particle starts to move in a straight line from a point with a velocity of 10 m/s and
acceleration of -2 m/s2. Find the position and the velocity of the particle at (i) t = 5 s
(ii) t = 10 s

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. The velocity-time graph for an object is shown in the given figure :
(a) State the kind of motion that the above graph represents.
(b) What does the slope of the graph represent?
(c) What does the area under the graph represent?
(d) Calculate the distance travelled by the object in 4 s.

22
18. (a) Find out the acceleration over each of the intervals OA, AB, and BC.
(b) Calculate the distance covered in the last 3 seconds.

19. Study the given graph and answer the following questions from it.
(a) Which part of the graph shows accelerated motion? Calculate the acceleration.
(b) Which part shows retardation? Calculate the retardation.
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the body in the first 2 hrs. of the journey
graphically.

CASE STUDY
20. (A)Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Raj hired a three-wheeler from the bus stands to his house. Driver A' of the three-wheeler followed
the shortest path of 3 km and reached the destination in half an hour. He charged Rs.50 from Raj.
On the same day, Raj's sister also came to her house after attending a function in another city. She
also hired a three-wheeler. Driver B of the three-wheeler followed another path of 5 km and
reached the house in an hour. He charged Rs.150 for her.
(a) Is the displacement of both the three-wheelers from the bus stand to Raj's house different or
the same?
(b) What is the speed of the three-wheeler hired by Raj?
(c) Differentiate between distance and displacement.
(d) Define speed.
(B)Observe the following velocity-time graph of a body in motion and answer the questions that
follow.

23
(1) Which part of the graph represents the uniform motion of a body? Give one example of such
motion.
(2) Calculate the acceleration of the body from C to D.
(3) What is the displacement of the body in the first 8 seconds of the motion?
(4) In which interval A to B or C to D is an acceleration of the body more and by how
much?

24
 Chapter-8
FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. If two balls of the same masses are dropped on sand, the depths of penetration are the same if:
(a) The heavier ball is dropped faster than the lighter ball
(b) The lighter ball is dropped faster than the heavier ball
(c) The product 'mv' is the same for both bodies
(d) None of these
2.A coin placed on a card(resting at the edges of the glass) remains at rest because of
(a) Inertia of rest
(b) Two forces act on the coin which balances each other
(c) No unbalanced force acts on it
(d) All of these
3. Action and reaction forces
(a) Act on the same body
(b) Act on different bodies
(c) Act in the same direction
(d) Both (a) and (b)

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. In a collision, ______ is always conserved.
5. While rowing a boat a boatman pushes the water___________.
6. Force opposing the motion of an object on a rough surface is called ___________.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. What is the relation between Newton and Dyne?
8. Name the unbalanced force which slows down a moving bicycle when we stop pedalling.
9. List two points of difference between balanced and unbalanced force.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): A gun recoils when it fires a bullet.
Reason(R): In the case of the gun-bullet system the law of conservation of momentum does not
hold well.
11. Assertion (A): A fielder lowers his hands while catching a cricket ball and suffers less
reaction force.
Reason (R): The time of catch increases when the fielder lowers his hands while
catching a ball.
12. Assertion (A): If the net external force acting on an object is zero, its acceleration is
zero.
Reason (R): Acceleration of an object does not depend on its mass.

25
 THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. (a) A passenger in a moving car slips to one side of the seat when the car takes a sharp turn.
Give a reason for it.
(b) Which has the highest inertia: solids made of aluminium, steel, and wood of the same shape and
volume.
14. Given the magnitude and direction of the net force on:
(a) a raindrop falling at a constant speed.
(b) a book placed on the table.
15. (a) State an example, of how force can change the velocity of an object.
(b) An object of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force of 10 N. Starting from rest, how much is the
distance covered by the object in 10 sec.
16. (a) Why does a bullet when fired against a glass window pane make a hole in it, and a stone
thrown at the glass pane will smash it?
(b) Why are the wheels of an automobile made circular?

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. Give reasons for the following:
(a) When a racer suddenly stops after completing the race, he falls in a forward direction.
(b) A naughty boy hits a mango tree with a stone and the mango falls.
(c) An electric fan continues to rotate for some time even after the electric current is switched off.
(d) Glassware is wrapped in straw during their transportation.
(e) A car and a truck have the same momentum. Whose velocity is more and why?
18. Two forces F1=20N and F2=30N are acting on an object as shown in the figure:

(a) Find the net force acting on the object.

(b) State the direction of the net force acting on the object.
(c)If the body still does not move under the application of these forces, what can be the possible
reason for this? Identify the name of this extra force and its direction.
19. (a) Why buffer is provided between the bogies of a train?
(b) A particle of mass 0.3kg is subjected to a force F= -k x, where k=15Nm-1. What will be its initial
acceleration when the particle is released from a point 20cm away from the origin?

CASE-STUDY
20. (A) Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (e) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Sandhya's father came early from the office, while her mother was not at home. She ran to bring a
glass of water for her dad. She filled it up to the brim and spilt a lot of it coming from the kitchen to
the room. She then had to clean up the room as well so that no one slipped on it.
(a) Why did the water spill while Sandhya was bringing it?

26
(b)What should have been done to avoid the spilling of water? (c) What are the different types of
forces? (d)How can we slip on the wet floor easily?
(B)The force acting on a body is capable of bringing changes in its motion. Newton’s three laws of
motion are a consequence of this effect of force. While Newton’s first law of motion is called the
law of inertia, the second law is called the real law of motion.
But it is the third law of motion that enables our movement on Earth. During our movement, the
total momentum of any system of which we are a part, remains constant, as obtained from the
third law of motion. Despite that, action and reaction forces cannot create equilibrium.
(a) Newton’s first law states that no net force acts on a body moving with uniform
velocity. Then why do we have to spend fuel on keeping our cars at constant speed?
(b) Give one example each of inertia of rest and inertia of motion observed in daily life.
(c) If action and reaction forces are equal and opposite, why don’t they cancel each
other?
(d) If two identical balls moving in opposite directions with equal speed collide and stick to each
other, what is the velocity after the collision, and why?

27
 Chapter -9
GRAVITATION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The value of ‘g’
(a) Increases as we go above the earth’s surface
(b) Decreases as we go to the centre of the earth
(c) Remains constant
(d) Is more at the equator and less at the poles
2. The gravitational force causes
(a)Tides (b) Motion of the moon
(c)None of them (d) Both (a) and (b)
3. The Earth attracts the moon with a gravitational force of 1020N. The moon attracts the earth
with a gravitational force of
(a) Less than 1020N (b) 1020N
(c) Greater than 1020N (d) 10-20N

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is about______________ of that on the earth.
5. So that the force of gravitation between two bodies may become noticeable and cause motion,
one of the bodies must have an extremely large_____________.
6. Gravitational force is always ____________ in nature.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. What is the relation between Re and g?
8. State two factors on which the value of ‘g’ depends.
9. When a body is dropped from a height, what is its initial velocity?

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences-Assertions (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
10. Assertion (A): The value of acceleration due to gravity is maximum at the poles and
minimum at the equator.
Reason(R): The radius of the earth is least along the poles and maximum along the
equatorial Plane.
11. Assertion (A): If the masses of two objects are doubled and the distance between them
is also doubled then the magnitude of the gravitational force between them remains unchanged.
Reason (R): Gravitational force between two objects is proportional to the product
of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
12. Assertion (A): Although the mass of an object has a constant value its weight changes
from place to place.
Reason(R): Weight = mass x acceleration due to gravity.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

28
13. Two bodies ‘P’ and ‘Q’ having masses m1 and m2, when separated by a distance of d1 exert a
force ‘F’ on each other. What happens when
(a) the masses of both objects are doubled?
(b) the distance between the two bodies is reduced to half.
(c) the space between the two objects has no air and it is a complete vacuum.

14. Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes one above the equator and the other above
the north pole both at height h. Assuming all conditions are identical, will those packets take the
same time to reach the surface of the earth? Justify your answer.
15. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s and is caught back. Taking g = 10
m/s2, Calculate the maximum height attained by the stone. What are the net displacement and
total distance covered by the stone?
16. A stone is dropped from a height of 10 m on an unknown planet having g = 20 m/s2. Calculate
the speed of the stone when it hits the surface of the planet. Also, calculate the time it takes to fall
through this height.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. (a) An astronaut carried a pot containing soil weighing 60 N from the Earth to the surface of the
moon. He kept it there and just before returning from the moon to earth, he weighed the soil there
on the surface of the moon and found that it was only 10 N. Where did the rest of the soil go and
how much mass of soil was lost?
(b) Assuming that the mass of the earth is 100 times larger than that of the mass of
the moon and the radius of the earth is about 4 times that of the moon. Show that the weight of an
object on the Moon is 1/6th of that on Earth.
18. (a) To estimate the height of a bridge over a river, a stone is dropped freely on the river from
the bridge. The stone takes 2 seconds to touch the water surface in the river. Calculate the height
of the bridge from the water level ( g = 9.8 m/s 2)
(b) How does the force of attraction depend on the masses of objects and the distance between
them?
19. (a) An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10 m. Calculate:
(1) the velocity with which the object was thrown upward.
(2) the time taken by the object to reach the highest point.
(b) Find the weight of the stone on the surface of the earth if its mass is 10 kg.
(c) Astronauts tie heavyweights at their backs before landing on the moon. Why?
(d) Why an athlete can jump higher on the moon’s surface than on Earth’s surface?

CASE STUDY
20. Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Rachit was measuring the weight of a box using a spring balance. His friend asked him to take
certain precautions for this activity. Rachit was told to first find out the zero error, range, and least
count of any measuring device before taking the measurement.
(a) Write the steps of finding a zero error in any device.
(b)Why is it important to measure zero error before taking a reading?
(c) Write two differences between weight and mass.
(d) The weight of an object at a given place can be a measure of its mass. Comment.

29
 Chapter -9
GRAVITATION-ll
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A floating object displaces a fluid having a weight equal to the weight of an object as per the
(a) Principle of floatation (b) Einstein's principle
(c) Pascal's principle (d) Newton's principle
2. How can the relatively denser object be made to float on the less dense fluid?
(a) By altering the shape.
(b) By altering the forces acting on the object
(c) By altering the shear forces acting on the object.
(d) None of the mentioned.
3. If the weight of an object is equal to or less than the upthrust acting on it then the object would
(a) balance (b) equal
(c) float (c) sink

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. SI unit of pressure is ______________.
5.____________ is used in designing ships and submarines.
6. A body will float in a liquid when the density of the body is ________ than that of a liquid.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. A camel walks more easily on the sandy surface than a man, Why?
8. State the relationship between the buoyant force of an object and the weight of the liquid
displaced by it.
9. State the principle on which the working of a hydrometer is based.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): An iron nail sinks in water but an iron ship floats.
Reason(R): Relative density is a unitless quantity.
11. Assertion (A): Whenever an object is immersed in a liquid, it experiences a buoyant
force due to that liquid.
Reason (R): The buoyant force acting on an object is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by
the immersed part of the object inside the liquid.
12. Assertion (A): Paper pins are made to have sharp ends.
Reason (R): Concrete sleepers are laid below the railway tracks.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Distinguish between the density and relative density of a substance. The relative density of
Silver is 10.8. If the density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 find the density of silver.

30
14.The density of iron is 7.8 x 103 kg/m3 and that of water is 1000 kg/m3. Find the relative density
of iron.
15. An object of mass 500 gm is immersed into a measuring jar containing water. The initial level of
water in the measuring jar is 50 cc. Due to the immersion of the object, the water level in the
measuring jar reaches 100 cc. Calculate the mass of the water displaced due to the immersion of
the object.
16. A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in a saturated solution. In which case will it
experience a greater buoyant force? If each side of the cube is reduced to 4cm and then immersed
in water, compare the force experienced by the cube, as compared to the first case. Give reasons
for each case.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. A block of wood is kept on a tabletop. The mass of the wooden block is 5 kg and its dimensions
are 40 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden block on the tabletop if it is
made to lie on the tabletop with its sides of dimension:
(a) 20cm x 10cm (b) 40 cm x 20 cm (Take g=9.8m/s2 )
18. (a) A perpendicular force of 50 N acting on a surface generates a pressure of 250 Pa. Calculate
the area of the cross-section of the surface on which pressure is acting.
(b)Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of the water?
19. An object of volume 5 cc is immersed first in water and then in a salt solution. In which case will
it experience a greater buoyant force? What will be the effect on the buoyant force if the volume
of the object is increased to 8cc? What would be the apparent weight of an iron block of size 5 cm x
5 cm x 5 cm when it is completely immersed in water? (density of iron=7.8 g/cm3)

CASE STUDY
20. (A)Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Once Sanya and her brother Satvik went to Chandigarh to spend their holidays with their uncle's
family. One day Sanya, Satvik, and their cousins visited Sukhna Lake. They found that motorboats
are available. They decided to have a boat ride on Sukhna Lake. They were provided special jackets
and were asked to wear the jackets before going on to the boat. Young Satvik could not
understand the purpose of wearing the special jacket over and above his normal clothing. Sanya’s
cousin's brother Abhishek, who was a student of class X, knew the function of the jacket.
He said that the jacket is a life-saving jacket and explained its working principle. Now, Satvik was
assured of his safety and wore the jacket. They had a happy boat ride on Sukhna Lake for one hour.
(a) What is the function of the air-filled life-saving jacket and how does it work?
(b) What is the buoyant force?
(c) State the law of Floatation.
(d) Define density.
(B)The universal law of gravitation, proposed by Sir Isaac Newton, is widely accepted to find the
magnitude of the attractive gravitational force between any two bodies in the universe. The
greater the distance between the bodies, the weaker the gravitational force between them and
vice versa. Two bodies attract each other with equal and opposite force irrespective of their
masses as gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of masses.
(a) How does the gravitational force change if the distance between the objects is halved?
(b) What is the importance of the universal law of gravitation?
(c) If two bodies attract each other with equal and opposite force, then why does an
apple fall towards Earth and not Earth towards the apple?

31
(d) What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a unit mass on
its surface? [Given mass of earth = 6 × 1024 kg; R = 6.4 × 106 m]

32
 CHAPTER -10
WORK AND ENERGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The unit of work is the joule. The other physical quantity that has the same unit is:
(a) power b) velocity
(c) energy (d) force
2. The energy possessed by an oscillating pendulum of a clock is:
(a) kinetic energy (b)potential energy
(c) restoring energy (d) mechanical energy
3. If the velocity of a body is doubled its kinetic energy:
(a) gets doubled (b) becomes half
(c) does not change (d) becomes 4 times

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. Energy can neither be ____________ nor be ___________.
5.1 horse power = ___________ watts.
6. An electric iron of 500 W power is used for 10 hours. The electrical energy consumed is
___________ kWh.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. Why do we say work done against gravity is negative?
8. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 seconds. Calculate its power.
9. A constant force of 10 N displaces a body through 5m. Find the work done by the force.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): A man walking on a horizontal road with a load on his head does not
work.
Reason (R): No work is said to be done if directions of force and displacement of
the load is in mutually perpendicular directions.
11. Assertion (A): The unit of energy is the same as that of work.
Reason (R): Energy can be converted from one form to another.
12. Assertion (A): Kinetic energy (K) of an object of mass (m) is related to its
momentum(p) as per relation K = p2/ 2m
Reason (R): Kinetic energy and momentum have the same units.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13.(a) Explain the following:
(1) An object increases its energy when raised through a height.
(2) Energy is neither created nor destroyed then from where we get energy.
(b) A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of the ball reduces by 40% after striking
the ground, how high can the ball bounce back?

33
14. A child of mass 35 kg is sitting on a trolley of mass 5 kg. The trolley is given a push by applying a
force so that begins to move at a speed of 4 m/s. The trolley comes to rest after covering a
distance of 16 m. Find
(1) the work done on the trolley.
(2) the work done by the trolley before coming to the rest.
15. (a) The heart does 1.5 J of work in every beat. How many times per minute does it beat if its
power is 2 W?
(b) Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.
16. (a)Anil is doing work at a rapid rate but works for only one hour. Ashok does
work at a somewhat slower rate but continues to work for six hours. Who has greater power? Who
has more energy?
(b)Differentiate between kilowatt and kilowatt-hour.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. (a) The power of a motor pump is 5 kW. How much water per minute can the pump raise to a
height of 20 m? ( Take g=10ms-2 )
(b) In a house 3 bulbs of 25 W, each is used for 5 hours a day. Calculate the units of electricity
consumed in a month of 31 days. Also, find the total expenditure if
1 unit of electricity costs Rs 3.50.
18. (a) Derive an expression for the energy of an object of mass m that has been
raised to height h from the ground.
(b) A shot put player throws a shot put off a mass of 3 kg. If it crosses the top of the wall of 2 m
height at a speed of 4 ms-1.Compute the total mechanical energy gained by the shot put when it
crosses the wall. (Take, g=9.8ms-2)
19. (a)State the energy change in the following cases:
(1) Electricity being produced with water.
(2) An electric cell in a circuit.
(b)An engine develops 10 kW power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of
200 kg to a height of 40 m?

CASE-STUDY
20. Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Vishal and Shivam were observing a building having two different staircases. One slanting and the
other vertically spiral. Vishal believed that a person using a slanting staircase would be doing more
work against gravity but Shivam thought otherwise. They started quarrelling. Their friend Aman
explained and gave an entirely different view and specified them. Read the given passage and
answer the following questions :
(a)What according to you was the explanation given by Aman?
(b) Define acceleration due to gravity.
(c) On what factors does the work done depend?
(d) What is the SI unit of work?
Work done in science is much different from the conception of work in our daily lives. We consider
that work is being done by a clerk while sitting in one place from morning to evening. But in terms
of physics, work is done only when an applied force produces a displacement in the body in its
direction. Work is a scalar quantity, but it can be negative, positive as well as zero.
(1) A continuous force of 60 N acting on a box continuously, displaces it by 10 m in the
direction of the force. What is the work done?

34
(2) Give two conditions of zero work done.
(3) Give two examples of situations in which work done is negative.
(4) Name the force which always does negative work on a body. Why does it do only
negative work?

35
 CHAPTER-11
SOUND
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. What do dolphins, bats, and porpoise use
(a) Ultrasound (b) Infrasound
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of them
2. When a motorboat in a sea travels faster than sound, then waves just like shock waves are
produced on the surface of the water. These waves are called:
(a) Shock waves (b) Doppler’s waves
(c) Refracted waves (d) Bow waves
3. Which part of the human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical signals
(a) Hammer (b) Stirrup
(c) Tympanic membrane (d) Cochlea

FILL IN THE BLANKS

4. The speed of sound is maximum in __________.
5. The phenomenon of the persistence of a sound in a big hall due to repeated reflections is
called____________.
6. The mechanical energy of a vibrating object is transformed into ____________.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. We hear the sound of an approaching truck before the truck reaches us. Why?
8. What are the basic factors on which the speed of sound in a medium depends?
9. Write two points of difference between longitudinal waves and transverse waves.

ASSERTION AND REASON

The following questions consist of two sentences -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Two persons can't talk to each other on the surface of the moon.
Reason (R): The Moon has no atmosphere.
11. Assertion (A): The velocity of sound increases with an increase in temperature.
Reason (R): The velocity of sound doesn’t depend on the nature of the medium.
12. Assertion (A): A sound of high pitch is said to be shrill.
Reason (R): The pitch of a sound increases by increasing its frequency.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. (a) Write any 2 applications of ultrasound.
(b) Design an activity to show that sound is a mechanical wave and needs a
material medium for its propagation.
14. (a) What are a crest and trough in a wave?
(b) A person observes the smoke from a gun for 1.4 sec before he hears the bang. If the gun is 476
m away from the person, find the speed of sound.

36
15. The depth of the sea at a point is 15300 m. Find out after what time the sound signal sent by a
SONAR device fitted in the ship will reach the sea bed from that point. Take the speed of sound in
seawater as 1530 m/s.
16. The given graph shows the displacement versus time relation for a disturbance travelling with a
velocity of 1500 m s-1. Calculate the wavelength, period, and frequency of the disturbance.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. (a) How is SONAR useful in the defence of the country?
(b) How is ultrasound useful in the industry?
(c) We receive heat and light from the sun but cannot hear the sound of explosions occurring on its
surface. Give reason.
(d) On what factors does the speed of sound in a medium depend?
18. (a) Explain which wave property determines pitch. How is a note different from atone?
(b) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 125 m high into a pond of water at the base of the
tower. When is the splash heard at the top? (g =10m/s2and speed ofsound = 340 m/s).
19. A girl is sitting in the middle of a park of dimension 12 m × 12 m. On the left side of it, there is a
building adjoining the park and on the right side of the
park, there is a road adjoining the park. A sound is produced on the road by a cracker. Is it possible
for the girl to hear the echo of this sound? Explain your answer.

CASE STUDY
20. (A)Answer questions number 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph, picture, and the related studied concepts.
Amit and Vivan were waiting to go across a railway crossing. Amit jumped over the barrier and
curiously put his ear on the railway track. Vivan opposed Amit and pulled him away from the railway
track. Read the above passage and answer the following questions
(a) Why did Amit put his ear on the railway track?
(b) Sound travels faster through copper or water.
(c)Define the frequency and wavelength of sound.
(d)What is the speed of sound in air?
(B)The propagation of a wave travelling through a medium at a velocity of 340 m/s is shown in the
graph above.

37
(a) Find the wavelength of the wave.

(b) Find the Amplitude of the wave.

(c) Find the frequency of the wave.
(d) Find the period of the wave.

38
 MODEL PAPER--1
General Instructions:
(1) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C, and D. There are 36 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(2) Section–A - Questions no. 1 to 20 - all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each. These
questions contain multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer questions, and assertion-
reason type questions. Answers to these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(3) Section–B - Questions no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(4) Section–C - Questions no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(5) Section–D – a question no. - 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answers to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(6) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(7) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
___________________________________________________________________________________

Section-A
1. What is a meristematic tissue and where is apical meristem found in plants?
2. Name the two special types of parenchyma tissue. 1
3. Identify the given tissue- (a) and (b)

a b
4. State any two conditions essential for being free of diseases.
OR
Name the target organ for the following diseases-
a. Jaundice b. Japanese encephalitis
5. Name the organism causing the following disease-
a)Kala-azar b)Sleeping sickness
OR
(a)Name a worm that is found in our small intestine.
(b)Name the bacteria which can cause acne.

39
6. The ‘sea water’ can be classified as a homogeneous as well as a heterogeneous mixture.
Comment.
OR
Classify Brass and Diamond as elements, compounds, or mixtures.
7. What is the difference between 2H and H2?
8. Helium atom has 2 electrons in its valence shell but its valency is not 2. Explain.
9. What is the relation between g and G?
OR
Define the universal law of gravitation.
10. What is the difference between Scalar and Vector quantities? ( one point)
11. Define inertia.
OR
Write the factor on which Inertia depends.
12. Define 1 joule of work.
13. What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?
For question numbers 14, 15, and 16, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c), and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): Vaccines prevent diseases.
Reason(R): Vaccines must be given to children.
15. Assertion (A): The covering or protective tissues in the animal body are epithelial tissues.
Reason (R): An epithelial tissue covers most organs and cavities within the body.
OR
Assertion (A): Adipose tissues are present below the skin.
Reason (R): The cells of this tissue are filled with fat globules.
16. Assertion (A): The formula unit mass of CaCl2 is 111u.
Reason (R): The atomic mass of calcium is 40 u and the atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u.
Q. No 17 - 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four sub-parts in these
questions.
17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v).
Osmosis: Osmosis is the movement of solvent particles across a semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a concentrated solution. Diffusion: Diffusion is the movement of particles from
an area of higher concentration to a lower concentration. The overall effect is to equalize
concentration throughout the medium.
Osmosis is responsible for the ability of plant roots to draw water from the soil. Plants concentrate
solutes in their root cells by active transport, and water enters the roots by osmosis. Osmosis is
also responsible for controlling the movement of guard cells.
(i). Passage of water across a selectively permeable membrane is
(a) osmosis (b) active transport (c) facilitated diffusion (d)pinocytosis
(ii). When placed in water, raisins swell up as a result of
(a) Adsorption (b) Plasmolysis (c) Endosmosis (d) Diffusion
(iii). The plasma membrane is made up of
(a) A protein, a lipid, and a cellulose layer
(b) lipid layer and protein layers

40
(c) A protein layer (d) A lipid layer
(iv). The plant cell wall is made up of
(a)Chitin (b)lipid (c)Cellulose (d)Protein
(v). When the cell presents with the same concentration on the inside and outside with no shifting
of fluids this is called—
(a)Hypertonic (b)Hypotonic (c)Isotonic (d)Osmosis
18. Read the given passage and answer any four questions based on the passage and related
studied concepts. The atom consists of electrons, protons, and neutrons. J.J. Thomson proposed
that electrons are embedded in a positive charge uniform sphere. Rutherford's a-scattering
experiment led to the discovery of the nucleus in the centre of the atom which is positively charged
and the whole mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus. Neil Bohr proposed that electrons
are distributed in different shells in M, N... with discrete energy around the nucleus. If the atomic
shell is complete, the atom will be stable and less reactive. Electrons are negatively charged,
protons are positively charged, and neutrons are neutral. Valency is the combined capacity of an
atom. The atomic number is equal to the number of protons in an atom. The mass number of an
atom is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. Isotopes have the
same atomic number but different mass numbers. Isobars have the same mass number but
different atomic numbers. Elements are defined by the number of protons (atomic number) they
possess.
1i). Isotopes differ in which sub-atomic particles?
(a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Electrons (d) Electrons and Protons
(2). Which of the following does not contain neutrons?
(a) Al (b) Na (c) H (d) Mg
(3). What is the atomic number of Al3+, if it has 13 protons, 10 electrons, and 14 neutrons?
(a) 13 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 27
(4). An atom of sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) An atom of sodium has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 11 neutrons.
(b) An atom of sodium has 11 protons, 12 electrons, and 11 neutrons.
(c) An atom of sodium has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons.
(d) An atom of sodium has 11 protons, 12 electrons, and 12 neutrons.
(5). The ‘M’ shell can hold a maximum of how many electrons?
(a) 2 (b) 18 (c) 32 (d) 8
19. Read the given information and answer any four questions based on the web chart and related

studied concepts.
(i). Fog is an example of which type of colloidal system?

41
(a) Gas in liquid (b) Solid in gas (c) Gas in gas (d) Liquid in gas
(ii). A heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve and remain suspended
throughout the solvent and the solute particles can be seen with the naked eye is known as:
(a) Colloidal solution (b) Supersaturated solution(c) Sublimation (d) Suspension
(iii). According to the definition of pure substance, which of the following is a pure substance?
(a) Ice (b) Mercury (c) Iron (d) All of these
(iv). Which of the following properties does not describe a compound?
(a) It is composed of two or more elements
(b) It is a pure substance.
(c) It cannot be separated into constituents by physical means
(d) It is mixed in any proportion by mass
(v). A pure substance that is made up of only one kind of atom and cannot be broken into two or
simpler substances by physical or chemical means is referred to as
(a) a compound (b) an element (c) a molecule (d) a mixture
20. The following table shows the speedometer readings of a car:
TIME SPEEDOMETER READINGS (KM/H)
10:25 p.m. 62
10:35 p.m. 74
10:45 p.m. 90
10:55 p.m. 60
11:05 p.m. 65
11:15 p.m. 38
(i). What is the acceleration of the car from 10:55 pm to 11:05 p.m. if its acceleration is uniform?
(a) 20 km/h2 (b) 30 km/h2 (c) 40 km/h2 (d) 50 km/h2
(ii). Convert the speed of the car at 10:45 p.m. into SI unit of speed.
(a) 15 m/s (b) 25 m/s (c) 35 m/s (d) 45 m/s
(iii). In which time interval does the speed of the car change by maximum value?
(a) 10:25 p.m. to 10:35 p.m. (b) 10:45 p.m. to 10:55 p.m.
(c) 11:05 p.m. to 11:15 p.m. (d) 10:35 p.m. to 10:45 p.m.
(iv). Find the displacement of the car in the last 10 minutes of the journey.
(a) 8.28 km (b) 8.48 km (c) 8.58 km (d) 8.38 km
(v). In which time interval does the speed of the car increase by maximum value?
(a) 10:35 p.m. to 10:45 p.m. (b) 10:25 p.m. to 10:35 p.m.
(c) 10:45 p.m. to 10:55 p.m. (d) 10:55 p.m. to 11:05 p.m.
Section-B
21. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the phloem. (Label any two parts)
OR
22. How are simple tissues different from complex tissues in plants? Write two points of
difference.

42
 (a) (b)
(a) Identify diagrams (a) and (b).
(b) Why does diagram ‘a’ represent reduction division and ‘b’ equational division? 2
23. (a) Identify the dispersed phase and dispersion medium in cheese.
(b) You are given two samples of water labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’ Sample ‘A’boils at 100°C and sample
‘B’ boils at 102°C. Which sample of the water will not freeze at 0°C? Comment.
24. Sudha tested the solubility of four salts X, Y, Z, and T at different temperatures and collected
the following data.
(Solubility refers to the amount in grams dissolved in 100 g of water to give a saturated solution.)

Answers the following questions from the table:

(a) Which salt has the highest and lowest solubility at 323 K?
(b) A student prepared a saturated solution of X at 323 K and then added 25 g of water to it. What
mass of X must be added to again make the solution saturated?
OR
Name the compound Al2(SO4)3 and mention the ions present in it.
25. A body of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 2 m from another body of mass 10 kg. At what
distance from the body of 1 kg, another body of mass 5 kg is placed so that the net force of
gravitation acting on the body of mass 1 Kg is 0?
26. A body of mass 2 kg is kept at rest. A constant force of 6 N starts acting on it. Find the time
taken by the body to move through a distance of 54 m.
Section-C
27. (a) Why are lysosomes known as ‘suicide bags’ of a cell?
(b) Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?
(c) Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?
OR
How are the following related to each other?
(a) Chromatin network and chromosome
(b) Chloroplast and chlorophyll

43
(c) Nucleoid and nucleus
28. Differentiate between striated, unstriated, and cardiac muscles based on their structure and
location.
29. (a) Find the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of an element X which is
represented as 20782X.
(b) Calculate the molar mass of Na2SO4.
(c) Write one difference between a cation and an anion.
30. (a) Calculate the number of oxygen molecules in 8 g O2 molecules.
(b) What do you understand by a polyatomic ion? Give an example.
OR
Enlist the conclusions drawn by Rutherford from his alpha-ray scattering experiment.
31. The weight of a man on the surface of Earth is 588 N. Find his mass, taking
‘g’= 9.8 m/s2. If the man was taken to the moon, his weight would be 98 Newton. What is his mass
on the moon? Also, determine the acceleration due to gravity on the moon.
32. Derive the equation for position-time relation by graphical method.
OR

Study the given graph and answer the following questions from it.
(a) Which part of the graph shows accelerated motion? Calculate the acceleration.
(b) Which part shows retardation? Calculate the retardation.
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the body in the first 2 hrs of the journey graphically.
33.(a) Define kinetic energy?
(b) Two bodies of equal masses move with uniform velocities ‘v’ and ‘3v’ respectively. Find the ratio
of their kinetic energies.
Section-D
34. (a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of a neuron.
(b) Why making antiviral medicine is harder than antibacterial medicine?
OR
(a)Name the type of epithelial tissue that lines the following:
(1) Oesophagus (2)Respiratory tract (3)Kidney tubules
(iv)Inner lining of the intestine
(b)Draw a well-labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
35. (a) A 0.24 g sample of a compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096
g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by
weight.

44
(b) Show diagrammatically the electron distributions in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also
give their atomic number.
(c) Rutherford's model of the atom could not provide stability to the nucleus. Explain.
36. (a)A 1000 kg vehicle moving with a speed of 20 ms-1 is brought to rest at a distance of 50
meters by applying brakes :
(1) Find the acceleration.
(2) Calculate the unbalanced force acting on the vehicle.
(3) The actual force applied by the brakes will be slightly less than that calculated in. Give reasons.
(b) Define the second law of motion.
OR
State and derive a mathematical form of conservation of momentum.

45
 MODEL PAPER -2

General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A
student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each. In MCQs and A&R,
questions write the correct option with the answer.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions
should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-
parts.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

Section A
Select and write one more appropriate answer out of the four options given for each of the
questions 1-20.
1. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of
10 ms-1. It implies that the boy is
(a)at rest (b)moving with no acceleration
(c)in accelerated motion (d)moving with uniform velocity
2. The value of acceleration due to gravity
(a) are the same on the equator and poles (b) is least on poles
(c) is least on the equator (d) increases from pole to equator
3. An object weighs 10 N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the
liquid displaced by the object will be
(a) 2 N (b) 8 N (c) 10 N (d) 12 N
4. A girl stands on a box 60 cm in length, 40 cm in breadth, and 20 cm in width in three ways. In
which of the following cases, the pressure exerted by the box will be
(a) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(b) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(c) maximum when width and length form the base
(d) the same in all the above three cases
5. Which one of the following is not the unit of energy?
(a) joule (b) newton metre (c) kilowatt (d) kilowatt hour
6. Sound travels in the air if
(a) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another. 1
7. Liquids diffuse slowly as compared to gases because
(a) the molecules of liquids are too heavy

46
(b) the molecules of liquids move fast
(c) liquids do not have a definite shape
(d) in liquid state molecules held together by strong intermolecular forces
8. The property of flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids
(b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(d) Only liquids are fluids
9. Which of the following statements is true for pure substances?
(1) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(2) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
(3) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(4) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3) (c) (3) and (4) (d) (2) and (3)
10. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is
(a) Ni (b) N2 (c) N+ (d) N
11. Which of the following is true for an element?
(1) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(2) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(3) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(4) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3) (c) (2) and (3) (d) (2) and (4)
12. Which of these is not related to the endoplasmic reticulum?
(a)It behaves as a transport channel for proteins between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
(b)It transports materials between various regions in the cytoplasm.
(c)It can be the site of energy generation.
(d)It can be the site of some biochemical activities of the cell.
13. Find out the correct sentence
(a)Enzymes packed in Lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).
(b)Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein
respectively.
(c )Endoplasmic reticulum is related to the destruction of the plasma membrane.
(d)Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of the eukaryotic nucleus.
14. Cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?
(a)Bacteria (b)Hydrilla (c)Mango tree (d)Cactus
15. Cartilage is not found in
(a)nose (b)ear (c)Kidney (d)larynx
16. Which one is not a source of carbohydrates?
(a)Rice (b)Millets (c)Sorghum (d)Gram
For question number 17 to 20, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c), and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is false.
17. Assertion (A): An iron nail sinks in water but an iron ship floats.
Reason (R): Relative density is a unit less quantity.

47
18. Assertion (A): Two persons can't talk to each other on the surface of the moon.
Reason(R): The Moon has no atmosphere.
19. Assertion (A): The arrangement of particles is most ordered in the case of solids.
Reason (R): The kinetic energy of particles is the least in gases.
20. Assertion (A): Humidity in the air promotes the growth of moulds like Mucor.
Reason (R): Food grains are stored in silos on a large scale.
Section B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 ms-2 for 5 minutes. Find (a)
the speed acquired. (b) the distance travelled.
22. (a)An electric heater is rated 1500 W. It is used for 10 hours. Calculate the energy used by the
electric heater in the SI unit.
(b)A lamp consumes 1000 J energy in 10s. What is its power?
23. To make a saturated solution, 36g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K.
Find its mass by mass concentration at this temperature.
24. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobar.
OR
(a) Identify the dispersed phase and dispersing medium in cheese.
(b) What would you observe when a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 600C is
allowed to cool at room temperature?
25. Draw a labelled diagram of a tissue that transmits stimulus in our body.
OR
Write four features of cardiac muscles.
26. Write any two differences between parenchyma and collenchyma.
Section C
Q. no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27. (a) State an example, of how force can change the velocity of an object.
(b) An object of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force of 10 N. Starting from rest, how much is the
distance covered by the object in 10 sec.
28. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s and is caught back. Taking g = 10
m/s2, Calculate the maximum height attained by the stone. What are the net displacement and
total distance covered by the stone?
OR
An object of mass 500 gm is immersed into a measuring jar containing water. The initial level of
water in the measuring jar is 50 cc. Due to the immersion of the object, the water level in the
measuring jar reaches 100 cc. Calculate the mass of the water displaced due to the immersion of
the object. (Density of water 1 g/cm3).
29.(a) Find the relative molecular mass of (i) CaCO3 and (ii) HNO3
(Given Ca = 40 u ; H = 1 u ; N = 14 u ; O = 16 u)
(b) Calculate the percentage composition of an 18g sample of water which contains 2 g of
hydrogen and 16g of oxygen.
30. (a) Write down the formulae of
(i) Sodium oxide (ii) Aluminium chloride
(b)Classify the following into elements, compounds, and mixtures.
(i) Sodium (ii) Soil
31. (a)Name the two dyes to stain the nucleus of the cell.
(b)What does the nucleus contain?
(c)What do chromosomes contain?

48
 OR
Who gave the term Golgi apparatus? Name one cell organelle that is formed by the Golgi
apparatus. Write any two functions of the Golgi apparatus.
32. Identify a, b, c, d, e, and f in the given figures of different types of blood cells.

33. Name the following.

(a)A tissue that forms the inner lining of the mouth.
(b)Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.
(c)Tissue that transports food in plants.
(d)Tissue that stores fat in our body.
(e )Connective tissue with the fluid matrix.
(f)Tissue present in the brain.
Section D
Q. no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34. (a) Explain which wave property determines pitch. How is a note different from a tone?
(b) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the
tower. When is the splash heard at the top? (g =10m/s2and speed of sound = 340 m/s).
OR
(a)The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in 1 hour?
(b)A sound wave travels at a speed of 340 m/s. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm. What is the frequency of
the wave? Will it be audible?
35. (a) Account for the following:
(i) When sugar crystals dissolve in water, the level of water does not rise appreciably.
(ii) Doctors advise putting strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having a high fever.
(iii) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
(b) Arrange the three states of matter in the increasing order of
(i) Rate of diffusion (ii) Intermolecular force of attraction.
(c) Find out the valency of the atoms represented by Fig. (a) and (b).

49
 OR
(a) What is the ratio between the mass of nitrogen and hydrogen in NH3 (N=14, H=1)?
(b) In what way is Rutherford’s atomic model different from Thomson’s atomic model?
(c) A 0.24 g sample of the compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g
of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.
36. (a)Differentiate between bone and cartilage. (Two points)
(b)What is the main function of each of the following cell components?
(i)Chloroplast (ii)Leucoplast (iii)Ribosomes
(iv)Mitochondria (v)Lysosome (vi)Plasma membrane 5
Section E
Q. no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with four short sub-parts. Internal choice is
provided in one of these sub-parts.
37. Answer question number 37 (a) to 37(d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts. Read the given passage and answer the following
questions :
Vishal and Shivam were observing a building having two different staircases. One slanting and the
other vertically spiral. Vishal believed that a person using a slanting staircase would be doing more
work against gravity but Shivam thought otherwise. They started quarrelling. Their friend Aman
explained and gave an entirely different view and specified them.
(a)What according to you was the explanation given by Aman?
(b) Define acceleration due to gravity.
(c) On what factors does the work done depend?
(d) What is the SI unit of work?
OR
(d)Define SI unit of work.
38. Answer questions number 38 (a) to 38(d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts. Read the given passage and answer the following
questions :
Atoms start electrically neutral because they have the same number of negatively charged
electrons and positively charged protons. An ion is an atom that has gained or lost one or more
electrons and therefore has a negative or positive charge. A cation is an atom that has lost a
valence electron and therefore has more positive protons than negative electrons, so it is positively
charged. An anion is an atom that has gained a valence electron and is negatively charged. An
example of the formation of an ion is given below:

(a) Give an example of a polyatomic cation and an anion.

(b) The electronic configuration of the phosphorus atom is 2, 8, 5. Calculate the number of protons
and electrons in the P3- ion.

50
(c) An element X has a mass number of 4 and an atomic number of 2.
Write the valency of this element.
(d) Find out the charge of an element with atomic number 16.
OR
(d) An element ‘X’ contains 6 electrons in ‘M’ shell as valence electrons:
(i) What is the atomic number of ‘X’?
(ii) Identify whether ‘X’ is metal or non-metal.
39. Answer questions number 39 (a) to 39(d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts. Read the given passage and answer the following
question: Based on a study of a given topic and related concepts, answer questions a, b, c, and d.
Beekeeping is an important enterprise of agriculture. It is concerned with the commercial
production of honey and wax. The practice of beekeeping is called apiculture. Beekeeping is a low
investment, less problematic, and highly profitable enterprise. Therefore farmers practice it as an
additional source of extra income. Some farmers have undertaken it on a commercial basis as a
business.

(a)What is the scientific name of the little bee?

(b)On what factor value or quality of honey depends?
(c )What is the common name of a bee variety used for the commercial production of honey?
(d)What are the uses of apiaries?
OR
(d)What is pasturage?

51
 MODEL PAPER -3
General Instructions:
(1) This question paper consists of 37 questions in 6 sections.
(2) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions.
A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
(3) Section A consists of 16 objective-type questions (MCQ) carrying 1 mark each.
(4) Section B consists of 3 Assertion-Reason questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(5) Section C consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with
sub-parts.
(6) Section D consists of 5 Very Short Answer type questions carrying 02 marks each.
(7) Section E consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
(8) Section F consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.
(9) In MCQ write the correct option along with the answer.
(10) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
______________________________________________________________________________________
Section A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each
of the questions 1 - 16. There is no negative mark for an incorrect response.
1. Which of the following pairs will not exhibit diffusion?
(a)Hydrogen, oxygen (b)oxygen, water (c) salt, sugar (d) sugar, water
2. Scattering of light occurs when a beam of light is passed through
(a) Blood (b) Water (c) Copper sulphate solution (d) Brine
3. Which of the following are physical changes?
(1) Melting of iron metal (2) Rusting of iron
(3) Bending of an iron rod (4) Drawing a wire of iron metal
(a) (1), (ii) and (3) (b) (1), (2) and (4) (c) (1), (3) and (4) (d) (2), (3) and (4)
4. If the components of the substance can be separated by a chemical change only then it is a/an
(a) element (b) compound (c) mixture (d) none of these5.
5. Which of the following upon shaking with water will not form a true solution?
(a) Alum (b) Common salt (c) Albumin (d) Sucrose
6. An emulsion is a colloidal solution formed by mixing
(a) two miscible liquids (b) any two liquids (c) any two gases (d) two immiscible 7. liquids
during summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
(a) diffusion (b) transpiration (c) osmosis (d) evaporation
8. A body falls freely towards the earth with ...
(a) Uniform speed (b) Uniform velocity (c) Uniform acceleration (d) None of the above
9. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on a planet having three times the mass of the
Earth and a radius twice that of the Earth:
(a) g/4 (b) 3g/4 (c) g/3 (d) g/5
10. What force will change the speed of a body of mass 1 kg from 20 m/s to 30 m/s in 2 seconds?
(a) 2N (b) 10 N (c) 25 N (d) 5 N 1
11. Organelle other than the nucleus, containing DNA is
(a) mitochondria (b) endoplasmic reticulum (c) Golgi apparatus (d) lysosome
12. Which of the following is covered by a double membrane?
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosomes (c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (d) Plastid

52
13. Silver nitrate solution is used to study
(a)endoplasmic reticulum (b)Golgi apparatus (c )nucleus (d)mitochondria
14. Kitchen of the cell is
(a) mitochondria (b) endoplasmic reticulum (c)chloroplast (d) Golgi apparatus
15. Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) parenchyma (d) chlorenchyma
16. Meristematic tissues in plants are
(a)Localised and permanent (b)Not limited to certain regions
(c)Localised and dividing cells (d)Growing in volume

Section-B
For question numbers 17 to 19, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion(A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C)
and (D) as given below:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
17. (a)Assertion (A): Camphor burns with a lot of residue.
Reason (R): Camphor undergoes sublimation.
(b)Assertion (A): A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous.
Reason (R): A solution having a different composition throughout is homogeneous.
18. (a)Assertion (A): Force of action and reaction do not cancel each other.
Reason (R): The force of action and reaction are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
(b)Assertion (A): In a uniform circular motion, the particle moves with constant speed but not with
constant velocity.
Reason (R): In circular motion direction of motion of the particle changes with time.
19. (a)Assertion (A): Living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.
Reason (R): All cells arise from pre-existing cells. 2
(b)Assertion (A): Plant cells contain two types of plastids, chromoplasts and leucoplasts. Reason
(R): Animal cell contains only one type of plastid i.e., leucoplast.
Section-C
Questions No. 20 to 22 are case-based/data-based questions with 3 to 4 short sub-parts.
20. Tina found a syringe in her science lab. The mouth of the syringe was closed with a rubber
cork.

(i)Tina found that it was difficult to press the piston as it moved deeper. Explain the reason for
the change in space between the particles.

53
Tina found three more syringes of the same size closed with rubber cork. She took the piston out
of each syringe and filled them with coconut oil, sawdust, and cotton. Tina closed the end of each
syringe with the piston. She then tried to press the piston of each syringe as much as possible.

(ii)Arrange the syringes in increasing order of difficulty of pressing the piston.

Key: less dificult → more dificult
Syringe 1 → Syringe 2 → Syringe 3
Syringe 3 → Syringe 2 → Syringe 1
Syringe 1 → Syringe 3 → Syringe 2
Syringe 2 → Syringe 3 → Syringe 1
(iii)Compare solids, liquids, and gases based on: (i) force of attraction between particles and (ii)
Density
21. The universal law of gravitation, proposed by Sir Isaac Newton, is widely accepted to find the
magnitude of attractive gravitational force between any two bodies in the universe. The greater
the distance between the bodies, the weaker the gravitational force between them and vice
versa. Two bodies attract each other with equal and opposite force irrespective of their masses as
gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of masses.
(i) Write the unit of Gravitational constant ‘ G’.
(ii) What is the importance of the universal law of gravitation?
(iii) How does the gravitational force change if the distance between the objects is halved?
OR
(iii) What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a unit mass on its
surface? [Given mass of earth = 6 × 1024 kg; R = 6.4 × 106 m]
22. The growth of plants occurs only in certain specific regions. This is because the dividing tissue,
also known as meristematic tissue, is located only at these points. Depending on the region where
they are present, meristematic tissues are classified as apical, lateral, and intercalary. New cells
produced by meristem are initially like those of meristem itself, but as they grow and mature,
their characteristics slowly change and they become differentiated as components of other
tissues.

54
(a)Which meristem helps in increasing the girth of the plant?
(b)The meristem present at the base of the internode is_____________.
(c)Write the two characteristics of meristematic tissues.
(d)Apical meristem is responsible for_______________.
OR
(d)Intercalary meristem responsible for ______________.
Section-D
Questions No. 23 to 27 are very short answer questions
23. It is desired to prepare 500 g of 10 % mass by mass percentage of urea in water. How much
urea should be dissolved in how much volume of water? The density of water is 1g ml-1.
OR
It is desired to prepare 500 g of 10 % mass by mass percentage of urea in water. How much urea
should be dissolved in how much volume of water? The density of water is 1g ml-1.
24. (i) Why do the gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the solids?
(ii) It is a hot summer day, and Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively.
Who do you think would be more comfortable and why? 2
25. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h-1. Brakes are applied to produce a uniform
acceleration of – 0.5 m s-1. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.
OR
A body of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 2 m from another body of mass 10 kg. At what
distance from the body of 1 kg, another body of mass 5 kg is placed so that the net force of
gravitation acting on the body of mass 1 Kg is zero?
26.A force of 5 N gives a mass m1, an acceleration of 10 ms-2 and a mass m2, an acceleration of 20
ms-2. What acceleration would it give if both the masses were tied together?
27. (a)Name the tissue that is present around the vascular bundle in the stem.
(b)Write two characteristics of this tissue.
OR
(a)Name the tissue that is present in aquatic plants and helps plants in flotation.
(b)Write the two characteristics of this tissue.
Section-E
Questions No. 28 to 34 are short answer questions
28. Give reasons for the following:
(a) A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by using carbon disulphide.
(b) Carbon dioxide is a compound and not a mixture.
(c) Burning of LPG is a chemical change but burning of candles involves both physical and chemical
changes.
OR

55
(a) Ice is rubbed on a burnt part of the skin. Explain.
(b) After a hot shower, your bathroom mirror is covered with water. Give reason.
(c) Sea water can be classified as a homogeneous as well as heterogeneous mixture. Comment.
29. (a) Establish a relation between ‘g’ and ‘G’.
(b) Give two differences between mass and weight.
30. (a) Use Newton’s second law to explain Newton’s first law.
(b) Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall
backwards when it accelerates from rest?
31. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time another
stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate when
and where the two stones will meet.
OR
A ball thrown vertically returns to the thrower after 6 seconds. Find
(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,
(b) the maximum height it reaches, and
(c) its position after 4 s.
32. (a)Name the organelle which is known as the powerhouse of the cell.
(b)Write the features of the outer and inner membrane of this organelle.
(c)What does ATP stand for? Also, write its one function.
33. (a)List various components of the nucleus.
(b)What are chromosomes? What type of information do these contain?
(c)When we can observe chromosomes in the cell?
34. Draw the diagrams of the following and label them:
(a)Xylem tracheid (b)Xylem vessel (c)xylem parenchyma
OR
Draw the diagrams of the following and label it: (a)Parenchyma (b)Collenchyma
(c)Sclerenchyma-longitudinal section
Section-F
Questions No. 35 to 37 are long answer questions.
35. (1)Explain the interconversion of three states of matter with the help of a flow chart. Name
the process of each interconversion.
(2) Non-metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-
sonorous, non-malleable, and coloured.
(a) Name a lustrous non-metal.
(b) Name a non-metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature.
(c) Name a non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity.
(d) Name a non-metal which is required for combustion.
OR
(a) Three students A, B, and C prepared mixtures using chalk powder, common salt, and milk
respectively in water. Whose mixture:
(1) Would not leave residue on filter paper after filtration?
(2) would give a transparent/clear solution?
(3) would settle down at the bottom when left undisturbed?
(b) An inflated air balloon collapsed when pricked with a pin. Which state and property is shown
by this observation?
(c) Solids have only vibratory motion. Why?
36. (1) A car and a truck are moving at the same speed. If the brakes are applied on both provide
the same retarding force then which one will stop early. Give a brief explanation.

56
(2) A constant force acts on an object of mass 5 kg for a duration of 2 s. It increases the object’s
velocity from 3 m s-1 to 7 m s-1. Find the magnitude of the applied force. Now, if the force was
applied for the duration of 5 s, what would be the final velocity of the object?
OR
(1)Which has a higher value of momentum: A bullet of mass 10 g moving with a velocity of 400 ms-
1 or a cricket ball of mass 400 g thrown with a speed of 90 km-1?
(2)The value of ‘g’ on earth’s surface is 9.8 ms-2. Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks to one-third
of its present size without losing any mass. What is the value of ‘g’ on the surface of shrunk earth?

37. (a)Draw the figure of the surface view of guard cells and epidermal cells.
(b)What are stomata? Write their structure and function.
(c)What is the significance of suberin in cork cells?
OR
(a)Draw the diagram of the section view of the phloem and label it.
(b)Write the two features of sieve tubes.
(c)Write any one dead component of phloem.

57