Paper Code

(0999DPA411222001) )/999DPA400111//0)
FORM NUMBER

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2022-2023)

NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST SERIES

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

REVIEW TEST # 1(A) DATE : 17-07-2022

STATE : JHARKHAND CLASS X
INSTRUCTIONS
PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Duration of Test is 120 Minutes and Questions Paper Contains 100 Questions. Total Marks are 100.
2. Answers are to be given on a separate OMR sheet.
3. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
4. Please follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet for marking the answers.
5. Mark your answers for questions 1–100 on the OMR sheet by darkening the circles.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next one. Time
permitting, you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and attempt them.
7. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not spending too
much time on any one question.
8. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the OMR sheet/loose paper.
9. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.

10. Use of Pencil and whitener is strictly prohibited.

Corporate Office
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91 - 744 - 2757575 [email protected]

Pre-Nurture & Career Foundation Division

“SAMANVAYA”, C-210/2, Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91 - 744 - 2752600 [email protected]

Website: www.allen.ac.in

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 NTSE (STAGE-I) MAT

HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

Direction (Q.1 & Q.2) : In each of the following 7. 1.Sea 2. Rivulet
questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful 3. Ocean 4. River
sequence and then choose the most appropriate 5. Glacier
sequence from amongst the alternatives provided
(1) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
below each questions.
(2) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
1. (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Universe
(3) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(3) Tirupati (4) World
(5) India (4) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(1) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 (2) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 8. In the following question, a series of words is
(3) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 (4) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 given. Select the best arrangement for the
2. (1) Table (2) Tree words.
(3) Wood (4) Seed 1. Salt 2. Waves 3. Shore
(5) Plant 4. Sea 5. Storm 6. Wind
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (2) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (1) (1, 5, 6); (2, 3, 4)
(3) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 (4) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (2) (4, 1, 3); (6, 2, 5)
Directions(Q.3 to Q.7): In each of the following (3) (4, 5, 6); (1, 2, 3)
(4) (3, 4, 6); (1, 2, 5)
questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful
sequence and then choose the most appropriate Directions(Q.9 & Q.10): Which would be the proper
sequence from amongst the alternatives provided order of the following (in ascending order) ?
below each questions. 9. 1. Trillion 2. Thousand
3. 1. Diwali 2. Independence day 3. Billion 4. Hundred
3. Christmas 4. Republic day 5. Million
5. Holi (1) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 (2) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
(1) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (2) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 (3) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (4) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(3) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 (4) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 10. 1. Atomic Age 2. Metallic Age
4. 1. Never 2. Sometimes 3. Stone Age 4. Alloy Age

3.Generally 4. Seldom (1) 1, 3, 4, 2 (2) 2, 3, 1, 4

5. Always (3) 3, 2, 4, 1 (4) 4, 3, 2, 1

(1) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 (2) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 Directions (Q.11 to Q.20) : In each of the following

(3) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 (4) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 questions, there are two term figures to the left of the
sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the
5. 1. Distributor 2. Consumer
same relationship between the term figure to the right
3. Seller 4. Raw material
of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives given
5. Producer
under it.
(1) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 (2) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
11. Rich : Poor : : Enemy : ?
(3) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (4) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
(1) War (2) Weapons
6. 1. Presentation 2. Recommendation
3. Arrival 4. Discussion (3) Friend (4) Hate

5. Introduction 12. Elbow : Wrist : : Knee : ?

(1) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (2) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 (1) Ankle (2) Fingers
(3) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 (4) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 (3) Foot (4) Toes

0999DPA411222001 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 1/9

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
13. BDG : YVT : : DFI : ? Directions (Q.21 to Q.25) : Each question consists
of two sets of figures. Figure (a), (b), (c), (d)
(1) XVS (2) WUR constitutes the Problem sets. While 1, 2, 3, & 4
(3) WTR (4) TQN constitute answer set. There is a definite relationship
between figure (a) & (b). Establish a similar
14. RVLP : CGWA : : ? : EIYC relationship between figure (c) & (d) by selecting
(1) BFZW (2) DHXB figure from Answer set.

(3) DFXZ (4) FHMN 21.

15. 42 : 20 : : 64 : ?
?
(1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 (a) (b) (c) (d)

16. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
(1) (2)
(1) 41 (2) 42 (3) 56 (4) 65
17. 25 : 125 : : 36 : ?
(3) (4)
(1) 180 (2) 206 (3) 216 (4) 316

: :: :?
22.
18. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

19. : :: :? 23.
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

24.
M P
: :: ? :
T

20. K N S ?
N
K

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

2/9 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222001

 NTSE (STAGE-I) MAT
33. (1) BCB (2) DED
25.
? (3) ABA (4) KLL
(a) (b) (c) (d) 34. (1) BCD (2) NPR

(3) KLM (4) PQR

(1) (2)
35. (1) 48 (2) 12 (3) 36 (4) 59

36. (1) 751 (2) 734 (3) 981 (4) 853

(3) (4)

Directions(Q.26 to Q.28): In the following

37. (1) (2)
questions, there is some relationship between the two
terms to the left of : : & the same relationship holds
between the two terms to its right. Choose the best
(3) (4)
alternative that shows the similar relationship.
26. KNOB : DOOR : : EYE : ?
(1) eyelids (2) spectacles
(3) ratina (4) face 38. (1) (2)
27. ONAM : KERALA : : DURGA PUJA : ?
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Bengal (3) (4)
(4) Uttar Pradesh
28. 17 : 306 : : 8 : ? Direction (Q.39 to Q.43) : In each problem, out of
(1) 64 (2) 66 (3) 72 (4) 89
four figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4) three are
Directions(Q.29 & Q.30) : In each of the following similar in certain manner. However one figure is not
questions three out of four number are alike in one like the others here choose the figure which is
or the other respect. But one is different. Pick up the different from the rest.
different one.
29. (1) 11 (2) 121 + +
(3) 1331 (4) 1724 39. (1) (2)
x x
30. (1) AZBY (2) CXDW
(3) FUGT (4) KFLO
Directions (Q.31 to Q.38) : In the following (3) x (4) +
questions, three out of the four alternatives are same + x

in a certain way and so form a group. Find the odd

one that does not belong to the group.
40. (1) (2)
31. (1) Silk (2) Cotton
(3) Nylon (4) Wool
32. (1) Triangle (2) Tangent (3) (4)
(3) Square (4) Rhombus

0999DPA411222001 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 3/9

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
Direction (Q.51 & Q.52) : In each of the following
questions, a number series is given, After the series,
41. (1) (2) a number is given followed by (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E). You have to complete the series starting with the
number on the pattern of the sequence of the given
series. Then, answer the given questions.
(3) (4) 51. 6, 8, 20, 36, 76
20, (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Which number will come in place of (C)?
(1) 148 (2) 130 (3) 136 (4) 140
42. (1) (2) 52. 3, 4, 10, 33, 136
7, (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Which number will come in place of (E)?
(3) (4) (1) 1160 (2) 920 (3) 1165 (4) 840
Direction (Q.53 to Q.55) : One term in the series is
wrong. Find the wrong term.
43. (1) (2) 53. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4
(1) 25 (2) 46 (3) 109 (4) 221
54. 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42
(3) (4)
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 13 (4) 22
55. 2, 3, 4, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 16
Directions (Q.44 to Q.50) : In each of the following
questions, a number series is given with one term (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will Directions (Q.56 & Q.57) : In each of the following
continue the same pattern and replace the question questions, various terms of an alphabet series are
mark in the given series. given with one or more terms missing as shown by
44. 90, 180, 12, 24, 100, 200,?, 300, 50, 100, 25, (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given
50, 6, 12 alternatives.
(1) 150 (2) 175 (3) 225 (4) 250
56. OMWI, MPSN, KSOS, IVKX,?
45. 27, 31, 41, 63, 109, 203,?
(1) HXFB (2) GYGC (3) FNID (4) FZHD
(1) 406 (2) 367 (3) 383 (4) 393
57. Z, Y, A, W, V, C, T, S, E, Q, P, ? ,?
46. 55, 168, 57, 120, 60, 80, 62, 48, 65, 24,?,?
(1) 69, 11 (2) 67, 8 (3) 8, 71 (4) 6, 72 (1) M,N (2) E,M (3) G,N (4) O,N
47. 3, 5, 6, 10, 9, 15, 12,?,? Directions (Q.58 to Q.60) : In each of the following
(1) 18, 18 (2) 15, 20 letter series, some of the letters are missing which
(3) 15, 18 (4) 20, 15 are given in that order as one of the alternatives below
48. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27,? it. Choose the correct alternative.
(1) 37 (2) 44 (3) 50 (4) 55 58. a_bc_aab_ccaa_bcc_ab
49. 17, 19, 15, 23, 7, 39,?
(1) abcca (2) aacbc (3) bacab (4) bcbba
(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) –25 (4) 25
59. a_bb_bba_bbb_aa_
50. 3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9,?
(1) 69 (2) 72 (3) 71 (4) 62 (1) aabba (2) bbaab (3) abaaa (4) baabb

4/9 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222001

 NTSE (STAGE-I) MAT
60. _aba_cabc_dcba_bab_a 63. Problem Figures
(1) abdca (2) bcadc (3) abcdd (4) bbdac
Directions (Q.61 & Q.62) : Each of the following
questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D A B C D
and E called the Problem Figures followed by four
other figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Answer
(1) (2)
Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer
Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures.
(3) (4)
Problem Figures
61.
Problem Figures
64. × C =
A B C D E
C
A B C D
(1) (2)

(1) (2)
= C = C

(3) (4)
=
(3) (4)
C C
Problem Figures
62.
Direction (Q.65 & Q.66) : In each of the following
questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D
A B C D E and E called the problem figures followed by four
other figure marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the answer
figure. Select a figure from amongst the answer
(1) (2)
figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five problem figures.
Problem Figures
(3) (4)
65.
Directions (Q.63 & Q.64) : In each of the following
questions, there is a set of four figures labelled A, B, A B C D E

C and D called the Problem Set followed by a set of

four other figures labelled 1,2,3 and 4 called the
(1) (2)
Answer Set. Fig. (C) contains a question mark. Select
a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will
substitute this question mark so that a series is formed
by the figures A, B, C and D taken in order. The (3) (4)
number of the selected figure is the answer.

0999DPA411222001 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 5/9

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1

1 1 1 1 1
66.

4 4 4 4 4
70. ?
A B C D E

1 1 (1) (2)

(1) (2)
4 4
(3) (4)
1 1
71. Find the wrong number in the given series ?
(3) (4)
113, 130, 164, 215, 293, 368
4 4
(1) 164 (2) 215
Directions (Q.67 to Q.70) : In each of the following,
(3) 130 (4) 293
there are some figure which have some particular
72. In the following question a number series is
series. Find out the next figure ?
given. After the series a number is given
67. followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have
to complete the series starting with the number
given, following the sequence of the given
series, and answer the question given below the
(1) (2)
series.
3 40 176 537 1078 1079
1 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(3) (4)
What will come in place of (e) ?
68. (1) 839 (2) 738
(3) 829 (4) 938
Directions (Q.73 & Q.74) : In a certain code
language, if 'I EAT RICE' is coded as 'CHIK TAT
WIC', 'YOU EAT ICE' is coded as 'PIC WIC NIC',
(1) (2)
'THEY DRINK COFFEE' is coded as 'HOP BOP TOP'
and 'I LIKE YOU' is coded as 'GUP NIC CHIK'.
73. What is the code for I ?
(3) (4)
(1) TAT (2) WIC

(3) CHIK (4) GUP

69. ? 74. What is the code for COFFEE ?

(1) BOP
(1) (2)
(2) TOP

(3) HOP
(3) (4)
(4) Can’t be determined

6/9 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222001

 NTSE (STAGE-I) MAT
75. If 'rain' is called 'water', 'water' is called 'train', Directions(Q.78 to Q.80): The following questions
'train' is called 'sky', 'sky' is called 'sea', 'sea' is are based on the letters written along the figure given
called 'road', where do the aeroplane fly ? below. In each question, the relationship between the
two terms written to the left of (: :) is retained in the
(1) Water (2) Road two terms to the right of it. Out of these four terms,
(3) Sea (4) sky one term is missing. Choose this term out of the given
alternatives.
Directions (Q.76 & Q.77) : In each of the following
A C
questions, a word is represented by only set of
numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The B
K L
sets of numbers given in the alternatives are
J D
represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two O M
given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix I P
I E
H N F
are numbered from 0 to 4 and those of Matrix II from
5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented
first by its row and then the column number. You G
have to identify the correct set for the word given
78. AKJ : GNH : : EMD : ?
in each question.
(1) CLB (2) CLD
76. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 (3) AKB (4) EMF
0 E O D A R 5 R N D T E
79. AFHO : GBDM : : CHFM : ?
1 B S O T P 6 B S O E P
2 A N R P E 7 A G R D A (1) GBLD (2) GBJO
3 T D S E N 8 P N S G O (3) GPLD (4) GBDM
4 R A P B D 9 E T D B R
80. AKJO : IOHN : : ? : CLBK
READ (1) LDME (2) EMGH
(1) 55, 24, 20, 87 (3) GNFM (4) EMDL
(2) 40, 33, 79, 31 81. If 'THRASH' is coded as UGSZTG, how will
(3) 77, 72, 20, 75 HEAD be written in that code ?
(1) IECD (2) GDZC
(4) 22, 33, 97, 57
(3) IDBC (4) GDBC
77. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 82. If PARK is coded as 5394, SHIRT is coded as
0 D P C E A 5 D P E Y A
1 R M Q S O
17698 and PANDIT is coded as 532068, how
6 R C S D O
2 E O S D M 7 A M N T M would you code NISHAR in that code language ?
3 X D A C R 8 O N X S C (1) 266734 (2) 231954
4 M Q E A P 9 R E M D P
(3) 201739 (4) 261739
MADE 83. 'STRING' is written as '% = * –$+' and 'PRAISE'
(1) 24, 23, 13, 42 is written as '?*@–%x'. How is GRAPES
(2) 21, 40, 13, 42 written in that code ?

(3) 40, 32, 98, 96 (1) +*@×?% (2) +@*?×%

(4) 42, 40, 13, 30 (3) +*@?×% (4) +*–?×?%

0999DPA411222001 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 7/9

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
Directions (Q.84 to Q.86) : In a certain code, 'bright 91. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful
fresh sunny day' means 'cin bin zin hin', 'scent of sequence.
fresh flower' means 'din zin lin bin', 'bright light of 1. Mother 2. Child 3. Milk
trucks' means 'lin min hin rin', 'trucks loaded with 4. Cry 5. Smile
flowers' means 'fin nin din min'. (1) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (2) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(3) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (4) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
84. What is the code for 'bright' in that language ?
92. Arrange the words given below in a
(1) cin (2) bin (3) lin (4) hin meaningful sequence.
85. What will be the code for 'din' ? 1. College 2. Child 3. Salary
4. School 5. Employment
(1) trucks (2) flowers
(1) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 (2) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(3) of (4) loaded (3) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (4) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
86. What is the code for 'day' ? 93. Arrange the words given below in a
meaningful sequence.
(1) cin
1. Post-box 2. Letter 3. Envelope
(2) bin 4. Delivery 5. Clearance
(3) zin (1) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (2) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(4) Can’t be determined
94. In a certain code, BOAST is coded as 51906
Directions (Q.87 & Q.88) : If 'Men are very busy' and KING is coded as 4837, then what is the
means '1234', 'Busy persons need encouragement' code of the word BANGKOK ?
means '4567', 'encouragement is very important' (1) 5934714 (2) 5934147
means '3589' and 'important persons are rare' means (3) 5937441 (4) 5937414
'2680', 95. In a certain code, CRIME is coded as GMOFM,
87. What is the code for 'encouragement' in that then what is the code of the word PLOT ?
language ? (1) GUOQ (2) TUIP
(3) MULT (4) TGUM
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9
96. In a certain code, TENDULKAR is coded as
88. According to the above code, 'Men need LKARUTEND, then what is the code of the
encouragement' would be : word GANGULY ?
(1) 167 (2) 258 (3) 268 (4) 157 (1) ULYGGAN (2) GNALUGY
(3) NAGUYLU (4) ULYGNAG
Directions(Q.89 & Q.90): In each of the following
97. In a certain code, BAG is coded as A2A1A7,
number series, two terms have been put within
brackets. Mark your answer as. then what is the code of the word POCKET ?
(1) B8C5A3C2A5E4
(1) if both the bracketed terms are right
(2) B8C5A3A11A5E4
(2) if the first bracketed term is right and second
(3) B8C5A3A11A6E4
is wrong;
(4) A8B5A3A11B5E4
(3) if the first bracketed term is wrong and
Directions (Q.98 to Q.100) : Find the wrong terms.
second is right; and
98. 2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41
(4) if both the bracketed terms are wrong. (1) 6 (2) 17 (3) 23 (4) 32
89. 3, 10, 29, (66), (127), 218 99. 2, 5, 9, 11, 14
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 9 (4) 11
90. 4, 7, (9), 10, 13, 15, (16), 19 100. 297, 272, 245, 216, 185, 153, 117
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 117 (2) 153 (3) 185 (4) 216
8/9 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222001
 NTSE (STAGE-I) MAT

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

0999DPA411222001 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 9/9

 Paper Code
(0999DPA411222005) )/999DPA400111//5)
FORM NUMBER

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2022-2023)

NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST SERIES

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

REVIEW TEST # 1(B) DATE : 17-07-2022

STATE : JHARKHAND CLASS X
INSTRUCTIONS
PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Duration of Test is 120 Minutes and Questions Paper Contains 100 Questions. Total Marks are 100.
2. Answers are to be given on a separate OMR sheet.
3. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to Science, 41 to 60
pertain to Mathematics and 61 to 100 are on Social Science subjects. 120 minutes are alloted for Science,
Mathematics and Social Science.
4. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING.
5. Please follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet for marking the answers.
6. Mark your answers for questions 1–100 on the OMR sheet by darkening the circles.
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next one. Time
permitting, you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and attempt them.
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not spending too
much time on any one question.
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the OMR sheet/loose paper.
10. Please return the OMR sheet to the invigilator after the test.

Corporate Office
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91 - 744 - 2757575 [email protected]

Pre-Nurture & Career Foundation Division

“SAMANVAYA”, C-210/2, Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91 - 744 - 2752600 [email protected]

Website: www.allen.ac.in

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 NTSE (STAGE-I) SAT

HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

1. A bullet is fired vertically upwards. After 6. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force
10 seconds it returns to the point of firing. If which varies as shown by the graph. The net
g = 10 ms–2 , the location of the bullet after change in momentum obtained by the body
7 seconds from the time of firing will be the would be
same as that after
(1) 2 s (2) 2.5 s

Force (N)
(3) 3 s (4) 3.5 s
2. When a body moves with a constant speed in 20
a circle,
10
(1) its acceleration is zero.
(2) its acceleration is increasing. 0
2 4 6 8 10
(3) its velocity is changing. Time (s)
(4) its velocity is uniform.
3. The graph below represents a particle moving
(1) 10 Ns (2) 100 Ns
along a straight line. What is the total distance
travelled by the particle from t = 0 to t = 10 s? (3) 140 Ns (4) 200 Ns
7. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean
velocity(m/s) density of the earth r are related by which of
20 the following relation? (Where, G is the
10 gravitational constant and R is the radius of
5 10 15 time(s)
0 earth.)
–10
–20 4pgR 2 3g
(1) r = (2) r =
3G 4 pGR
(1) 0 m (2) 50 m
(3) 100 m (4) 200 m 4pgR 3 3g
(3) r = (4) r =
4. A particle experiences constant acceleration for 3G 4 pGR 3
20 seconds after starting from rest. If it travels 8. A boy sitting on the topmost berth in the
a distance S1 in the first 10 seconds and distance compartment of a train which is just going to
S2 in the next 10 second then, stop on a railway station, drops an apple aiming
(1) S2 = S1 at the open hand of his brother sitting vertically
(2) S2 = 2S1 below his hands at a distance of about 2 metre.
(3) S2 = 3S1 The apple will fall
(4) S2 = 4S1
(1) precisely in the hand of his brother
5. The action and reaction forces referred to in the
(2) slightly away from the hand of his brother
third law of motion,
in a direction of motion of the train
(1) must act on the same object.
(2) may act on different object. (3) slightly away from the hand of his brother
(3) must act on different object. in a direction opposite to the direction of
(4) need not be equal in magnitude but must motion of the train
have the same directions. (4) none of these

0999DPA411222005 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 1/10

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
9. A particle is moving with a constant speed 16. Which of the following accounts for the fact
along a straight line path. A force is not that gases generally do not behave ideally
required to : under high pressures?
(1) Increase its speed (1) They begin to undergo rotational motion.
(2) Decrease the momentum (2) Collisions between gas molecules become
(3) Change the direction of motion inelastic.
(4) Keep it moving with uniform velocity
(3) Average molecular speed increase.
10. An object is thrown upward from ground with
(4) Intermolecular forces are greater when
a speed of 45 m/s. Find the distance travelled
molecules are close together.
during 5th second of its motion. (g = 10 m/s2 )
17. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) 0 m (2) 2.5 m
correct answer
(3) 100 m (4) 125 m
11. A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the (P) Clothes are washed more efficiently in hot
earth, than its speed is water than in cold water
(Q) Surface tension increases with increase in
Rg temperature
(1) 2gR (2) Rg (3) Rg (4)
2
(1) P and Q are true and Q explains P.
12. The physical quantity, which is the measure of (2) P and Q are true but Q does not explain P.
inertia, is______ (3) P is true and Q is false.
(1) density (2) weight
(4) P is false and Q is true.
(3) force (4) mass
18. An aqueous solution of sugar is an example of
13. If the diameter of the earth becomes two times
which of the following term?
its present value and its mass remains
(1) Homogeneous mixture
unchanged, then how would the weight of an
object on the surface of the earth be affected? (2) Heterogeneous mixture
(1) Weight would become one-third. (3) Pure compound
(2) Weight would become one-fourth. (4) Pure element
(3) Weight would become one-fifth. 19. Water can exist as a liquid at 100° C. To keep
(4) Weight would become one-sixth. water in its liquid form even beyond 100° C,
14. Two metal spheres of equal radius r and equal we should
densities are touching each other. The force of (1) increase the volume of the container
attraction F between them is
(2) increase the pressure
(1) F µ r4 (2) F µ r6
(3) reduce the pressure
1 (4) reduce the volume of the liquid
(3) F µ r2 (4) F µ 2
r 20. A gas jar filled with bromine gas (denser than
15. Arrange following substances in increasing air) was placed over a gas jar containing air. The
order of kinetic energy. gases were allowed to settle for four hours.
Air, Water, Sand, Butter. What do we observe?
(1) Sand, butter, water, air (1) Bromine remains on the top
(2) Butter, sand, water, air (2) Bromine settles at the bottom
(3) Sand, butter, air, water (3) Bromine gets diffused in the air
(4) Butter, sand, air, water (4) Bromine starts moving towards the bottom

2/10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222005

 NTSE (STAGE-I) SAT
21. Which of the following methods are to be 27. A solution, which at a given temperature
applied to separate oxygen or nitrogen from air dissolves as much solute as it is capable of
(1) Crystallisation dissolving, is said to be a :
(2) Fractional crystallisation (1) Super saturated solution
(3) Fractional distillation (2) Semi saturated solution
(4) Lowering the pressure (3) Unsaturated solution
22. A salt solution is obtained by dissolving 40 g (4) Saturated solution
of salt in 160 g of water. What must be done to 28. A student has four microscope slides of cells
make this salt solution 60%? from four different organisms. He must match
(1) Add 100 g of water to the solution. the slides of cells with the correct organism
(2) Add 200 g of salt to the solution. tissue listed in the table.
(3) Add 50 g of water and 50 g of salt to the Slide Tissue
solution. P Fish Skin
(4) Both (1) and (2) Q Alligator Hide
23. A substance X can be broken down into R Plant Leaf
S Tadpole Skin
simpler substances by chemical means. Select
the correct statement for X. He observes chloroplasts in the cells on one of
(1) It is homogeneous and an element. the slides. Which slide is he observing?
(2) It is homogeneous and a mixture.
(1) Slide P (2) Slide Q (3) Slide R (4) Slide S
(3) It is homogeneous and a compound.
29. Which of the following tissues has only dead
(4) It shows variable composition. cells with thick and lignified cell walls, having
24. Select the correct statement. a few or numerous pits?
(1) All homogeneous substances are pure. (1) Sclerenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(2) All heterogeneous substances are impure.
(3) Xylem (4) Phloem
(3) All pure substances are homogeneous.
30. Which of the following are the indigenous
(4) Both (2) and (3)
breeds of animals ?
25. The given chromatogram was obtained for
I. Gir II. Jersey
proteins extracted from soya milk.
III. Sahiwal IV. Brown Swiss
V. Mehsana VI. Murrah
(1) I, II, III only (2) IV,V, VI only
(3) I, III, V, VI only (4) All of the above
31. Assertion : Cells vary greatly in their shape.
The components present in protein extract are Reason : The shape of cell does not depend on
(1) W and X (2) X and Y the function they perform.
(3) W and Y (4) Y and Z (1) Both assertion and reason are true and
26. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This reason is the correct explanation of
solution is made by dissolving : assertion.
(1) Iodine in vaseline (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(2) Iodine in water is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Iodine in potassium chloride (3) The assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Iodine in alcohol (4) Both assertion and reason are false.

0999DPA411222005 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 3/10

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
32. Which of the following is incorrect for the given 37. The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane
figure? postulated that a lipid bilayer
(1) is coated by a layer of protein on each face.
(2) is coated by a layer of protein on the outer
face only.
(3) has protein embedded in itself and none on
the surface.
(4) has some embedded protein and some
(1) It is a type of cropping pattern called protein on the surface.
intercropping. 38. Artificial breeding of cattle is brought about by
(2) The given cropping pattern decreases the (1) Homozygotic twinning
productivity of crops per unit area. (2) Artificial insemination
(3) The given cropping pattern helps in (3) Superovulation and embryo transplantation
maintaining soil fertility and makes better
(4) All of these
use of resources.
39. Which of the following tissues in mammals
(4) None of these.
show the least capacity for regeneration?
33. Apical meristem is responsible for increasing
(1) Endothelium of blood vessels
length of stem but in _________ length is
(2) Skeletal tissue of long bones
mainly controlled by__________.
(1) Equisetum, lateral meristem (3) Nervous tissue of brain

(2) Grasses, protoderm (4) Epithelial tissue

(3) Grasses, Intercalary meristem 40. What is a tonoplast?

(4) Grasses, procambium (1) Outer membrane of mitochondria.

34. Which of the following are not membrane (2) Inner membrane of chloroplast.
bound? (3) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant
(1) Vacuoles (2) Ribosomes cells.

(3) Lysosomes (4) Mesosomes (4) Cell membrane of a plant cell.

35. Chiasmata are first seen in 1 1 1

(1) Prophase I of mitosis æ x q ö qr æ x r ö rp æ x p ö pq

41. The value of ç r ÷ ´ ç p ÷ ´ ç q ÷ is
(2) Metaphase I of meiosis èx ø èx ø èx ø
(3) Prophase I of meiosis
1 1 1
+ +
(4) Anaphase I of mitosis p q r
(1) x (2) 0
36. Intestine absorbs digested food materials. What
(3) xpq + qr + rp (4) 1
type of epithelial are responsible for that ?
(1) Stratified squamous epithelium 7 3 2 5 3 2
42. - - is equal
(2) Columnar epithelium ( 10 + 3) ( 6 + 5) ( 15 + 3 2 )
(3) Pseudo stratified epithelium to
(4) Cuboidal epithelium (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1/2 (4) 3

4/10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222005

 NTSE (STAGE-I) SAT
50. If px + 3y = 25 and y = 1, then the value of x is
p
43. Write the form of 0.38 .
q æ 22 ö
ç Use p = 7 ÷
è ø
5 7 11 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) –3
18 18 18 18
51. If x = k2 and y = k is a solution of the equation
44. Which of the following is a factor of x – 5y + 6 = 0, then the values of k are
(x + y)3 – (x3 + y3) ? (1) 2, 3 (2) 3, 4 (3) 1, 2 (4) 3, 5
(1) x2 + y2 + 2xy (2) x2 + y2 – xy 52. Which could be the graph of y = x?
(3) xy2 (4) 3xy
45. If x + 1 is a factor of the polynomial 2x2 + kx,
then the value of k is (1) (2)
(1) –3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) –2

46. 2 is a polynomial of degree

1
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4)
2
(3) (4)
47. The point at which the two coordinate axes
meet is called the
(1) abscissa (2) ordinate
53. If AOB is a straight line, then y is
(3) origin (4) quadrant
48. Points (1, –1), (2, –2), (4, –5) and (–3, –4)
0°
+2
(1) lie in II quadrant
3y

(2) lie in III quadrant 2y 3y

(3) lie in IV quadrant A B
(1) 25° (2) 40° (3) 20° (4) 50°
(4) do not lie in the same quadrant
54. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio
49. In following figure, the point identified by the
13 : 5, then the angles are
coordinates (–5, 3) is
(1) 50°, 130° (2) 40°, 140°
Y (3) 70°, 110° (4) None of these
R
5 55. In the given figure, ABCD is a square and
4 DDEC is an equilateral triangle.
3 E
L
2
1
X' X
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4 5 D C
–1
–2
S
–3
–4
–5 T A B
Then,
Y'
(1) AE = BE (2) ÐBCE = 120°
(1) T (2) R (3) L (4) S
(3) ÐADE = 125° (4) None of these

0999DPA411222005 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 5/10

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1
56. In the given figure, AB = BC and AC = CD. 62. Why were some forests classified as
Then, ÐBAD : ÐADB is equal to "protected"?
A (1) In these the customary grazing rights of
4 2 pastorals were granted but their movements
were severely restricted.
3 1 (2) The colonial officials believed that grazing
B D
C destroyed the saplings and young shoots
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 of trees that germinated on the forest floor.
57. A conical tent is made by stitching 12 triangular (3) Both (1) and (2)
pieces of cloth of two different colours red and (4) None of the above
white alternatively, each piece measuring 63. Who led the 'Nyaya Yudh'?
10 cm, 20 cm and 20 cm, then how much cloth (1) Chaudhary Charan Singh
of red colour is required to make a conical tent? (2) Chaudhary Devi Lal
A (3) Ajit Singh
(4) None of these
20 cm 64. Which one of the following is a directly elected
house?
20 cm (1) Parliament
B C (2) Rajya Sabha
10 cm (3) Lok Sabha
(4) Vidhan Parishad
(1) 125 15 cm 2 (2) 150 15 cm 2
65. In India, elections for which of these bodies
(3) 140 15 cm 2
(4) 170 15 cm 2 are held after every five years?
(1) Rajya Sabha
58. An isosceles right triangle has area 8 cm2. The
(2) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
length of its hypotenuse is
(3) Vidhan Parishad
(1) 32 cm (2) 16 cm (4) Only Lok Sabha
66. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed
(3) 48 cm (4) 24 cm from his office on the grounds of
59. In Indus Valley Civilisation (about 300 BC) the (1) political views
bricks used for construction work were having (2) religious views
dimensions in the ratio (3) wrong judgement
(1) 4 : 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 2 : 1 (4) his proved misbehaviour or incapicity
(3) 4 : 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 4 : 1 67. What is an election held for only one
60. Euclid divided his book 'Elements' into how constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to
many chapters? the death or resignation of a member called?
(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13 (1) By-election (2) Mid-term election
(3) General election (4) None of these
61. Which of the following is called the heart and
68. Constituencies called 'wards' are made for the
soul of our Constitution?
election to
(1) Fundamental right of Freedom
(1) Parliament
(2) Fundamental right of Equality
(2) State Legislative Assembly
(3) Fundamental right of Constitutional
(3) State Legislative Council
Remedies
(4) Panchayats and municipal bodies
(4) Fundamental right against Exploitation

6/10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222005

 NTSE (STAGE-I) SAT
69. Which right of the Indian Constitution negates 74. When on election duty, under whose control
Child Labour and bonded labour? does the government officers work?
(1) Right to Equality (1) Central Government
(2) Right to Liberty (2) Election Commission
(3) Right to religious freedom (3) District Magistrate
(4) District Court
(4) Right against exploitation
75. What was 'Duma'?
70. Which of the following is not true about
(1) Russian Parliament
“Fundamental Rights”?
(2) Russian Farmland
(1) These are absolute
(3) Revolutionary Party in Russia
(2) These are given in the third part of the (4) None of these
Constitution 76. The Election Commission is:
(3) At present they are six in number (1) An elected body
(4) They were taken from the USA (2) An appointed body
71. Match the following (3) An independent body
(4) both (2) and (3)
Column -I Column - II 77. Given below are statements regarding the
(A) Maasai (i) Herders of South course of development of socialism in Europe.
West Africa
Arrange in chronological sequence-
(B) Raika (ii) Shepherd of (a) A lockout took place at a factory on the
Rajasthan
right bank. In many factories, women led
(C) Dhangar (iii) Nomadic community the strikes which is called as the
of East Africa
International Women’s Day.
(D) Kaoko Land (iv) Herders of Maharashtra (b) Lenin declared ‘April Theses’ and Bolshevik
party renamed as the communist party.
A B C D
(c) The procession of workers led by father
(1) iii ii iv i Gapon reached the winter palace, it was
(2) iv iii ii i attacked by the police.
(3) i iii ii iv (d) Stalin’s collectivisation programme forced
(4) iii i ii iv all peasants to cultivate in collective farms.
72. Name the body which conducts the elections (1) a, b, c, d (2) c, a, b, d
in India (3) b, a, d, c (4) a, c, d, b
(1) Supreme Court 78. In the context of assessing democracy which
(2) Parliament among the following is odd one out.
(3) Cabinet Democracies need to ensure:
a. majority always needs to work with the
(4) Election Commission
minority.
73. What were 'forest villages'?
b. rule by majority community in terms of
(1) 'Reserved forests' where some villagers
religion or race or linguistic group.
were allowed to stay
c. every citizen has a chance of being in
(2) Forests which were cut down to make new majority at some point of time..
villages d. dignity and freedom of the individual.
(3) Villages where forests were to be grown (1) Only b (2) a and c
(4) None of the above (3) b and d (4) a, b and c

0999DPA411222005 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 7/10

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1

79. Which of the following statements is/are true? 83. Which Article gave the President the powers
a. Syria is a small west European country. The to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and
ruling Ba'ath Party and some of its small rule by decree, in Germany.
allies are the only parties allowed in that (1) Article 48
country. (2) Article 200
(3) Article 52
b. During General Musharraf regime people
(4) Article 148
have elected their representatives to the
84. Statement-1 : Hjalmar Schact had advised
national and provincial assemblies but those
Hitler against investing hugely
elected representatives are not really the in rearmament.
rulers. Statement-2 : Germany at that time still ran
c. The PRI was known to use many dirty on deficit financing.
tricks to win elections in Mexico. (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
d. Popular governments can be undemocratic. (2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(3) Both statements are true.
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(4) Both statements are false
(3) a, b and d (4) b, c and d
85. A revolutionary woman journalist executed
80. Assertion (A):There should be clear definition during the “Reign of Terror” was
of democracy. (1) Chaumette
Reason (R): Different kinds of governments (2) Marie Antoinette
call themselves democracy. (3) Bourdeaux
(1) A is true, R is false (4) Camille Desmoulins
86. Autocracy in Russia signified that Tsar was
(2) A is false, R is true.
(1) bound to the Constitution
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(2) not subjected to Cheka
correct explanation of A. (3) not subjected to the Parliament
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) subjected to Bourgeoise
explanation of A. 87. The peasants of Russia were different from
81. What is a referendum? European peasants because
(1) A vote of all the people on an important (1) they were hard and sturdy workers
(2) they had large land holdings
national issue
(3) of mir practice
(2) A vote of educated population
(4) they had great respect for nobles
(3) A vote of men only 88. In Russia, monarchy was finally overthrown in
(4) None of the above (1) February, 1917
82. Which of the followimg is not an objective of (2) July, 1917
the Indian democratic system? (3) August, 1917
(1) Parliamentary Government (4) October, 1917
89. The anxiety of being reduced to the ranks of
(2) President being directly elected by the
the working class is called
people
(1) Proletarianisation
(3) Separation of powers (2) Plebeinasim
(4) Separation of three organs of the (3) Ethnicity
government (4) Proliferation

8/10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222005

 NTSE (STAGE-I) SAT
90. The youth in Nazi Germany were trained to 97. Nelson Mandela remained in the jail for
follow Nazi ideology which was
(1) 28 years
(1) Popularising the British ideals through
Maths class (2) 29 years
(2) Children taught to be loyal and submissive (3) 30 years
to Hitler
(4) 31 years
(3) Youth organisations which glorified non
violence 98. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the 'Right to
(4) Youth organisations were controlled by Constitutional Remedies' as?
Europeans (1) The brain of our Constitution
91. To get advice in the Forest management, the
colonial government invited a German expert (2) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(1) Aimo Gajander (3) The heart of our Constitution
(2) Carl Von Carlwitz
(4) the soul of our Constitution
(3) Diethrich Brandis
(4) George Ludwig Hartig 99. Match the following political institutions to the
92. Who has given the slogan 'Garibi Hatao'? revelant role played in the case of reservations
(1) Indira Gandhi (2) Rajiv Gandhi for Socially and Educationally Backward
(3) Sonia Gandhi (4) Pt. Nehru Classes in India.
93. Why can the Chinese government not be called
I Supreme a Implemented the
a democratic government even though Court decision by issuing
elections are held there? an order
(1) Army participates in election
II Cabinet b Upheld reservations
(2) Government is not accountable to the
as valid
people
III President c Made formal
(3) Some parts of China are not represented announcement about
at all this decision
(4) Government is always formed by the
Communist Party IV Government d Took the decision to
Officials give 27% job
94. How many Fundamental Rights do we have?
reservations
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
95. What is meant by 'rights'? Answer code:
(1) One's demand to get everything without
(1) I-c II-d III-a IV-b
sharing with others
(2) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, (2) I-b II-d III-c IV-a
society and the government (3) I-b II-c III-a IV-d
(3) Not possessing any freedoms
(4) I-c II-d III-b IV-a
(4) none of the above
96. Under which Fundamental Right has the 100. The famous German superhighways and the
Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to people’s car Volkswagen were created by
Information to the citizens? (1) State-funded work-creation programme
(1) Right to freedom of religion
(2) German trade union programme
(2) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(3) Right to freedom of equality (3) Berlin United Workers Programme
(4) Right to constitutional remedies (4) Home rule funded programme

0999DPA411222005 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 9/10

 NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST # 1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

10/10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 0999DPA411222005