THE MALAWI NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS BOARD

2024 MALAWI SCHOOL CERTIFICATE OF EDUCATION EXAMINATION

CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT

GEOGRAPHY (M073/I & II)

General Comments on

A. Quality of the Paper

The 2024 Geography examinations were fair and comparable to those of previous years.
The questions were clear and language used was to the level of candidates. The papers
assessed all the core elements of the syllabus with adequate sampling of all topics. The
only core element that was under assessed was Map Reading and Interpretation of
Geographical Information System as most questions were based on a map sheet of
Edingeni which was not provided. Questions were distributed across the cognitive domains
making the paper appropriate to both gifted and challenged candidates.

The papers tested several skillsets as required by the Geography syllabus some of which
included numerical skills as in question 4 (b. iv) Paper I, drawing skills as in question 2.aiii
in Paper II, reasoning skills in question 4.b.v Paper I, Numerical i.e. Paper II 2a(iii) and
5b among others.

B. Performance of Candidates

In both Paper I and Paper II popularity of questions is reflected in section B where

candidates are required to answer one of the two questions given in the section.

This year in Paper I the most popular question in Section B was Question 5. It could be
because most of the candidates were running away from Question 4. Question 4 examined
content on cyclones which is challenging to both teachers and students, which made it
unpopular. Though Question 5 had questions on cyclones most candidates found the
questions fair and performed very well than those who chose Question 4.
 In Paper II, Question 4 was unpopular and candidates who chose it performed poorly. The
question had content on the Demographic Transition model and Urban Zonal model which
are challenging to both students and unskilled teachers. On the other hand, Question 5 was
the most popular question as most students chose it and such candidates performed very
well.

Comparing performance across different types of schools, National, Grant Aided and
District schools performed well while performance was poor in Community Day
Secondary Schools, unestablished private schools and Open Distance Learning institutions
(ODL).

Probable reasons for the poor performance of CDSSs and ODL and external candidates
from responses of candidates included the following:
a. poor background for most candidates for CDSS and ODL compounded by lack of
resources
b. lack of knowledge and expertise to tackle the difficult concepts under
Lithosphere, Atmosphere, Statistical methods and Climate change
c. lack of motivation emanating from the level of schools
d. lack of standard papers in the school based examinations

C. Performance of Candidates on Individual Questions

PAPER I

Section A
In this section candidates were required to answer all questions. Question 2 proved to be
more challenging to the candidates as a lot of them left blank spaces an indication that they
lacked content. Performance was good on Question 3 and responses presented by most
candidates showed mastery of content.

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Question 1
The question was based on the core element Map Reading and Interpretation of
Geographical Information Systems. Candidates did not attempt the question due to the
absence of reference map sheet.

Question 2
This question was based on the core element Understanding the Earth and majority of the
questions were generated on the concept Lithosphere.

Question 2 a (i)
The question demanded candidates to mention any two riverine features formed through
erosion. Majority of candidates did well on the question as they mentioned features like
gorges, waterfalls among others. Those that did not do well mentioned general features like
flood plains, deltas some of which are depositional features.

Question 2 a (ii)
The question demanded candidates to state importance of flood plains. Most candidates did
well as they indicated that they provide valuable sites for farming and settlement.

Question 2 b
The question demanded candidates to explain process for formation of Block Mountains by
compression force using an aid of a diagram. The majority failed to properly respond to the
question. For starters most candidates failed to differentiate tension and compression
forces. Also failed to match diagram and explanation i.e. diagram showed compression
explanation given was tension and vice versa.

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The diagram should be able to show how block movement occurred using arrows as
follows;

Poor diagrams were drawn. This challenge was noted to originate from material used either
by teachers or students themselves. Most candidates provided wrong diagrams with no
direction of movement. Teachers need to check and refer to several references including R.
B. Bunnet from which most of these current references were developed from.

Question 2 c
The questions demanded candidates to state weaknesses of Continental drift theory to
which the majority responded positively. Though some failed to differentiate Continental
drift theory from Plate tectonic theory due to failure to what they were taught. Some of the
expected weaknesses were that the fossils would have been moved by tides and no clear
source of energy which caused the drifting process.

Question 2 d
The question demanded candidates to explain the influence of earthquakes on volcanism.
This was poorly performed as candidates gave influence of volcanism on earthquakes.
Some candidates failed to use geographical terms such as magma or molten rock material
instead used terms like porridge or phala or nsima. On the use of local terms, teachers
should avoid using such terms in the process of teaching. Candidates were expected to
explain that occurrence of earthquakes creates deep faults in the Earth’s crust which act as
fissures for magma to erupt causing volcanoes.

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Question 2 e (i)
The question demanded candidates to identify features from a diagram showing intrusive
volcanic features. Most candidates did well on the question as they managed to identify the
features as sill and laccolith. However, some candidates were not using technical terms as
they brought responses catholic for laccolith and on sill wrote silly or seal which changed
the context of the response.

Question 2 e (ii)
The question required candidates to explain the process of formation of an intrusive
volcanic labelled on the given diagram. Performance on the question was poor. Few
candidates identified the feature correctly as a batholith, formed when large masses of
magma solidify within the Earth’s crust. Candidates failed to differentiate the Earth’s crust
and Earth’s surface. Responses that came out gave an understanding that the feature is
formed on the surface instead of within the crust from large masses of magma.

Question 2 f
This question demanded candidates to explain positive effects of volcanic mountains to
which the majority did by showing that they are valuable mining sites due to occurrence of
minerals, they are sources of rivers for H.E.P generation among others. However, some
candidates presented negative effects of volcanism as responses like loss of life and
property, deformation of landscape and such candidates got the question wrong.

Question 3
Questions were generated from two core elements; Understanding the Earth and
Environment and Natural Resources Management.

Question 3 a (i)
The question asked the candidates to give examples of Metamorphic rocks. Few candidates
gave correct responses like marble, gneiss and others. Misuse of terms were noted as
candidates wrote terms such Genesis which were off key. Teachers need to encourage to
write correct spellings as candidates lost marks where the wrong spellings changed
meanings of terms for example Genesis. Some candidates mentioned rocks such as
sandstone, granite which are not Metamorphic rocks.
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Question 3 a (ii)
Candidates were expected to state characteristics of Sedimentary rocks. Most candidates
got it correct as they mentioned that they are stratified, they are fossilised among others.
However some candidates were repeating the same answers i.e. (i) they are stratified (ii)
they contain layers which are the same response.

Question 3 a (iii)
Candidates were expected to give differences between plutonic and volcanic igneous rocks.
Most candidates failed the question because they gave incomplete answers. For example
they would state that plutonic rocks have large crystals while volcanic do not. In this type
of a question, a candidate is expected to comment on both sides and along same line of
comparison. The responses had to be complete by saying plutonic rock have large crystals
while volcanic rocks have small crystals, volcanic rocks are dark in colour while plutonic
rocks are light in colour etc.

Question 3 b (i)
The question required candidates to define the term desertification. A good percentage did
well as they defined it as a process through which hot and dry conditions develop in a
regions without arid conditions. Those that failed created their own questions by giving the
definition of a deserts or deforestation instead of desertification.

Question 3 b (ii)
This question required candidates to describe the effects of desertification. Those that
created their own questions gave wrong answers like death of animals among others. Those
that understood the question got the definition right gave correct effects such as land
degradation, unreliable rainfall among others.

Question 3 c
The question demanded candidates to explain the influence of air pollution on global
warming and acid rainfall. Performance of candidates on this question was so poor.
Candidates failed the question because most of them were giving definitions of air
pollution and global warming instead of showing the link between air pollution and Global
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warming for example. Sample response would have been, during air pollution lead to
increase of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide which trap heat eventually increasing
atmospheric temperature across the earth surface hence global warming. In addition gases
like carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide released during air pollution form condensation
nuclei leading to formation of acid rainfall.

Question 3 d (i) 1
The question demanded candidates to identify wetlands shown on the given map of
Southern Malawi. Most of the candidates got the question correct as they identified the
wetlands as Lake Chilwa and Ndindi marsh respectively.

Question 3 d (i) 2
The question required candidates to name the wild life conservation areas shown on the
given map of Southern Malawi. Some candidates managed to identify the areas correctly as
Liwonde National Park and Majete Game Reserve respectively. Most candidates faced
challenges in identifying the locations of features in questions. It is important that teachers
train their students on how to respond to this nature of question by using maps when
teaching.

Question 3 d (ii)
Candidates were asked to explain the importance of Ndindi Marsh as a wetland which the
majority did correctly indicating that it is a spawning grounds for fish and that it a habitant
for marine animals and birds. Those that failed left blank spaces an indication they were
did prepare for the question.

Question 3 d (iii)
In this question, candidates were supposed to describe the human activities endangering
wild life species in the wildlife conservation area shown on the map. Those that attempted
got it correct by showing correct responses like illegal hunting animals such as elephants
for their tusks, encroachment of the reserves land which cause destruction of wildlife and
their habitant. However, it was noted that some gave factors related to wetlands, a sign of
poor preparation or failure to understand the question.

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Section B
In this section candidates were required to answer one question only. However some
candidates answered both question thereby committing rubric infringement. This question
was unpopular as most candidates avoided questions on cyclones which candidates found
more challenging than those on the same content in Question 5. Those that attempted the
question had challenges and overall performance on the question was not good.

Question 4
The question was based on the core element understanding the earth with focus on the
atmosphere.

Question 4 a (i)
The question asked candidates to name the regions of a Tropical cyclone which were
labelled on the given diagram. Most candidates who attempted the question got it right as
they identified the regions as the front vortex and the eye respectively. Those that failed
lacked content on the concept as they left the question unanswered.

Question 4 a (ii) 1
Candidates were asked to state weather conditions associated with arrival of the vortex.
The expected responses were strong and violent winds, heavy thunderstorms among others.
Few candidates managed to present these responses and got the question correct. Majority
of the candidates just copied ideas from the diagram labelling apart from giving responses
which were correct.

Question 4 a (ii) 2
Candidates were asked to state weather conditions associated with arrival of the eye of a
cyclone. The expected responses were calm atmosphere, high temperatures and absence of
rainfall among others. Performance on the question was not good as most candidates did
not attempt the question. Responses from somehow reflected that the topic is not taught in
school.

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Question 4 a (iii)
Candidates were expected to draw an arrow on the diagram to show the general movement
of air in the region. Most candidates left the question unanswered an indication that they
lacked content.

Question 4 b (i)
This required candidates to identify the type of climate represented by the given table.
Performance on the question was average. Responses given showed that candidates lacked
skills in distinguishing climates as some candidates gave responses like Equatorial or
Mediterranean climate yet latitude given was 12°. The expected response was Tropical
Continental climate and candidates who presented this response got the question right.
Students need to be taught skills of differentiating climate basing on specific characteristics
such as latitude location, temperature ranges, rainfall (seasonal, total amount) among
others.

Question 4 b (ii)
Candidates were asked to mention the hemisphere of the climatic region shown using table
given. Candidates who managed to identify the climate as Tropical continental climate
identified its location as the southern hemisphere. Candidates need to analyse values of
temperature ranges around June and December as they reflect the position of the overhead
sun.

Question 4 b (iii)
In this question, candidates were required to mention countries in the Northern Africa
which experience climate that was represented by the table. Some of the expected correct
responses were Sudan, Ghambia, Nigeria among others. Most candidates failed the
question as they gave countries in Europe, America and Southern Africa. Teachers need to
emphasise on location when teaching the concept of climate.

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Question 4 b (iv)
The question required candidates to calculate annual temperature range for the station
represented by the table. The calculated temperature range was 10°C. Students need to be
reminded statistical skills and formula for calculation of various statistical operations in
Geography.

Question 4 b (v)
Candidates were expected to explain the rainfall pattern for the given station. Majority did
well by indicating that the region receives seasonal rainfall which are more pronounced in
hot wet season following the shift of the ITCZ. Few candidates gave responses such as
nuclear, isolated and linear which are but settlement patterns an indication they lacked
content on the concept.

Question 4 b (vi)
Candidates were asked to describe type of vegetation found in the climate region
represented by the table. Candidates who identified the climate as Tropical Continental
gave the correct vegetation as Savana vegetation characterized with deciduous trees and
tall grass. Few candidates identified vegetation as evergreen and mopane which were not
correct.

Question 4 c
The question demanded candidates to describe characteristics of Prevailing winds.
Performance on the question was good as most candidates gave correct responses.
Expected responses were that the winds are consistent in direction and they originate from
the major pressure belts of the world among others.

Question 4 d (i)
The question demanded candidates to give examples of high clouds. A good number of
candidates got it right by mentioning clouds such as Cirrus, Alto-cumulus and others. Few
candidates mentioned stratus and cumulus which are not high clouds. Spelling errors were
evident and led to poor performance as they changed the context of the responses i.e cirrus
was written as Silasi and even Cyrus which are different concepts and changed the context
of the response.
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 Question 4 d (ii)
This question demanded candidates to explain the role of dust particles in cloud formation.
This was poorly performed as candidates failed to show how the dust particles lead to
formation of clouds. Focus was that dust particles act as condensation nuclei which attract
and provide surface upon which water vapour change into liquid water. Most candidates
did not attempt the question.

Question 5
The question was based on the core element understanding the earth with focus on the
concept of the atmosphere. This was the most popular question in this section and
performance was above average.

Question 5 a (i)
Candidates were asked to complete air circulation on a diagram. Most candidates failed to
correctly draw arrows because they could not apply content on air pressure to the diagram
given. The expected completed diagram was as follows;

Question 5 a (ii)
The question demanded candidates to identify pressure systems along latitudes 0º and 90ºS
as shown on the diagram. Most of the candidates who attempted the question got it right as
they presented responses like 0º was Equatorial Low / Doldrums / Equatorial Trough and
90ºS was Polar High Pressure belt.

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Question 5 a (iii)
Candidates were asked to label Prevailing winds on the completed diagram. The question
was averagely performed. Those that failed missed the direction of flow of prevailing
winds from high pressure belts to low pressure belts unlike from low pressure belt to high
pressure belts as shown below.

Question 5 b (i)
Candidates were asked to name Tropical cyclones which occur in the regions given.
Performance on the question was good as candidates named the cyclones correctly. The
expected responses were, Caribbean - Hurricane and South East Africa – Cyclone.

Question 5 b (ii)
Candidates were asked to name the ocean from which cyclones that affect Southern Africa
originate. Most of the candidates got it right by giving correct response which was Indian
Ocean. Few candidates showed they lacked content as they named the Atlantic ocean to be
the source of the cyclones.

Question 5 b (iii)
This question demanded candidates to state effects of Tropical cyclones. Majority gave
correct responses such as loss of life, destruction to infrastructure among others. This
would be attributed to recent experiences of cyclones the country had as common answers
were flooding, death of people and injuries.

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Question 5 c (i)
Candidates were asked to name slopes basing on the diagram given. Most candidates
reversed in naming the slopes hence poorly performed. Most students seemed not to be
familiar with use of the term slope. Expected responses were A as the Wind ward slope and
B as Leeward slope and candidates who presented these responses got the question right.

Question 5 c (ii)
Candidates were required to identify type of rainfall shown by given diagram. Majority got
it right as they identified it as Relief or Orographic rainfall. Those that failed name the
rainfall as cyclonic or Convectional which were not correct.

Question 5 c (iii)
On this question, candidates were asked to state the characteristics of relief rainfall as
shown in the given diagram. Most candidates did well as they presented correct responses
like that the rains are localized in mountainous regions, they are widespread etc. on the
question and those that failed were those that failed to grasp the question.

Question 5 d (i)
Candidates were demanded to identify the climatic region represented by the graph given.
Most of those that attempted it gave the correct response by naming it Equatorial Climate.

Question 5 d (ii)
Candidates were asked to describe unique rainfall characteristics of the climate shown
using the graph. Heavy rainfall throughout the year and double rainfall peaks which are
experienced after the equinoxes were the expected correct responses. Most of the
candidates failed the question because they could not comprehend the terms unique and
attributes as used in the question. Hence teachers need to vary vocabulary to enable
learners get used to them.

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Question 5 d (iii)
Candidates were asked to describe the relationship between temperature and rainfall as
shown by the graph. Most candidates did well on the question as they narrated that both
temperature and rainfall are high throughout the year. Candidates who failed lacked
content on the climate in question evidenced by their inability to attempt the question.

PAPER II

Question 1
The question was based on the core elements Interdependence between Malawi and the
World and Spatial organisation.

Question 1 a (i)
The question required candidates to mention examples of goods which are transported
using pipelines. It was the most popular question and candidates gave correct responses
such as petroleum and water and natural gas.

Question 1 a (ii)
The question demanded candidates to state disadvantages of pipeline as a mode of
transport. The expected correct responses were that the pipeline routes are fixed, they
expensive to construct. Most candidates got the question right.

Question 1 a (iii)
The question asked candidates to explain advantages of road transport. Some of the
expected correct responses were that road transport provides door to door services, it is
cheap to use over short distances among others. The question was popular but most
candidates were failing to explain as they were giving general answers like; ‘it is fast’ or ‘it
is cheap’ without explanations. Performance on the question was fairly good.

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Question 1 b (i)
The question asked candidates to explain any two challenges which Malawi faces in trade
due to its membership to SADC. Performance on the question was poor. Some of the
expected correct responses were proliferation of foreign cheap goods on her market due to
removal of trade restrictions and underdevelopment of her industries due to unfair trade
conditions were some of the expected responses and those candidates who presented these
responses got the question correct.

Question 1 c (i)
The asked candidates to mention any two dairy breeds of cattle which are raised on Danish
dairy farms. Friesian, Guernsey were among the excepted correct responses. Performance
on the question was good.

Question 1 c (ii)
The question required candidates to describe any two environmental factors which
influence dairy farming in Denmark. Cool wet conditions which enhance growth of pasture
and availability of abundant high grade natural pasture were among the expected
responses. Candidates who provided these response got the question right.

Question 1 c (iii)
The question demanded candidates to explain ways in which cooperatives influence dairy
farming in Denmark. Candidates provided the expected responses such as assisting in
marketing of dairy products on behalf of the farmers, financing the production of dairy
products by lobbying for loans and grants for the farmers and processing farmers milk into
dairy products. Most candidates did well on the question.

Question 2 a (i)
Based on a table showing annual farm activities on an intensive rice farm in South East
Asia, the question asked candidates a reason for transplanting the first rice crop in July.
Most candidates explained that this is a period with abundant supply of water as it is the
month when the highest rainfall are received in the region. Performance on the question
was good.

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Question 2 a (ii)
The question demanded candidates to explain the importance of draining of rice fields
before harvesting. Most candidates gave correct answers like to control pests and diseases
and to ripen the rice. The overall performance on the question was good.

Question 2 a (iii)
The question required candidates to draw a pie chart showing the annual farm activities
based on the table. Even though the information in the table was already classified in
seasons and months, candidates had challenges constructing pie charts with the stipulated
radius. What was even more challenging was constructing the accurate sectors and
transferring information that was already given into the pie charts. It appeared that
candidates were not prepared on the concept of presenting geographical information using
graphs.

Question 2 b (i)
The question asked candidates to describe climatic conditions which encourage irrigation
farming. Overall performance on the question was poor as most candidates responded by
outlining general factors like fertile soils, clay soils to retain water e.t.c. The expected
correct responses include absence of rainfall, inadequate precipitation to sustain farming
and occurrence of prolonged dry spells during the growing season were some of the
expected correct responses. Candidates who presented these as answers got the question
correct. The overall performance on the question was poor.

Question 2 b (ii)
The question required candidates to explain challenges which are associated with the use of
sprinkler method of irrigation. The question was very popular however performance was
average. Candidates failed to bring out the expected responses which included the fact that
sprinkler equipments are expensive to install and maintain irrigation is prone to water
wastage of water in an event of strong winds. Most candidates lost marks because they just
stated mentioned the challenge but failed to expound the challenges.

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Question 2 c (i)
Candidates were explain ways in which the firing stage is important in tea processing is
important. The expected correct response was that firing is stop fermentation process or
that it helps to reduce moisture content. Most candidates did well on the question.

Question 2 b (ii)
Candidates were explain ways in which the fermentation stage is important in tea
processing. Most candidates had challenges in showing that the process is done to reduce
tannic acid and to improve flavor. Therefore performance on the question was poor.

Question 3
The question was based on the core element Environmental and Natural Resources
Management.

Question 3 a (i)
In this question candidates were expected to describe the incineration method of managing
waste. Most candidates gave the correct response showing that it is a process whereby solid
wastes are burned at very high temperatures. Performance on the question was good.

Question 3 a (ii)
In this question candidates were required to describe the landfill as method of managing
waste. Candidates managed to describe that these are huge pits are dug wherein wastes are
buried. Performance on the question was good.

Question 3 b (i)
The question asked candidates to describe the main aim of the Kyoto protocol. Few
candidates managed to indicate that it was aimed finding strategies to reduce the global
emission of greenhouse gases. Most candidates failed the question because they lacked
content on the subject matter as they gave wild responses like it is where motor vehicle
engineering is done in Japan.

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Question 3 b (ii)
The question required candidates to explain climatic change mitigation measures which are
practiced at community level in Malawi. The expected correct response included using
clean forms of energy such solar power, planting drought resistant crops or early maturing
crop varieties and others. Few candidates brought out such answers and performance on
the question was not good. Most candidates failed because their responses were climate
change adaptation measures such as afforestation and not mitigation measures as the
question demanded.

Question 3 c
The question was based on a map of Africa showing distribution of minerals. Performance
on the question was poor because most candidates lacked content regarding global location
and distribution of minerals.

Question 3 c (i)
The question asked candidates to mention the minerals which are found in regions labelled
on the given map. Most candidates failed the question because they were giving wild
responses rather than localising the minerals to the regions given. The correct response
were; A. Petroleum, B. Copper C. Gold. Candidates who
presented these responses got the question correct.

Question 3 c (ii)
Candidates were required to state uses of copper as shown on the map. Performance on the
question was poor because the candidates failed to identify the mineral in question as
copper hence gave incorrect uses unrelated to copper. Some of the expected correct
responses were for manufacturing of electric cables, for making roofing materials etc.
Candidates who brought these responses got the question right.

Question 3 c (iii)
Candidates were expected to name world’s leading producers of gold as shown on the map.
The expected correct responses were Australia, South Africa, USA among others.
Candidates gave wild responses by just naming any country and districts of Malawi an
indicator that the concept of location is not emphasised when teaching minerals in classes.

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Question 3 c (iv)
The question demanded candidates to explain environmental challenges associated with the
use of petroleum as shown on the map. Most candidates had challenges as they could not
identify the mineral in question as petroleum. Some of the expected correct responses
included burning of petroleum fuels emits smoke and gases which result in air pollution,
oil leaks/spills from machines cause land degradation among others. Few candidates
brought correct responses leading to poor performance on the question.

Question 3 d
The question asked candidates to explain any effects of the production of thermal energy
on the environment. Some of the candidate’s responses were that burning of coal releases
carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide which enhance global warming, it causes air
pollution through emission of sulphur dioxide during burning of fuels to produce energy.
Few candidates produced such correct responses making performance on the question to be
poor.

Section B
Candidates were expected to answer either Question 4 or Question 5. All the questions
were based on the core element Spatial Organisation.

Question 4 a (i)
Candidates were asked to describe how accessibility to markets the influence the location
of industries. The expected answers were access to markets allows quick dispatch of goods.
Most candidates did well on the question.

Question 4 a (ii)
Candidates were asked to describe how efficient transport networks the influence the
location of industries. The expected answers were that transport networks allow access to
markets for goods and raw materials there by boosting production. Most candidates did
well on the question.

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Question 4 b
The question required candidates to explain environmental hazards which are influenced
by industrialisation. Candidates brought responses such that it causes land degradation
which is caused by dumping of improper disposal of industrial wastes, acid rainfall which
occurs due to industrial emissions of C02 and sulphur gases generated from burning fossil
fuels. It was clear and most candidates got it right making performance was good.

Question 4 c
The figure was based on an illustration of the functional zones of an urban area using the
concentric zonal model.

Question 4 c (i)
The question required candidates to identify the urban zones labelled A, B and C on the
diagram. It was clear and performance was fair. Those who failed could not be able to just
recall information.

Question 4 c (ii)
In this question candidates were asked to mention any two characteristics of zone labelled
A on the diagram. Performance on the question was poor. High population during the day
and moderate land values were some of the expected characteristics but few candidates
brought such responses.

Question 4 c (iii)
The question required candidates to state challenges experienced in a zone labelled C on
the diagram. Low quality/ old buildings, narrow streets are some of the challenges faced in
the zone. Few candidates pointed out the issues and got the question right. Most candidates
left the question unanswered and indication that they lacked content.

Question 4 c (iv)
Candidates were asked to explain solutions to the problem that are experienced in the
Central Business District. Candidates had challenges in answering this question. Most of
their responses showed lack of content as they presented responses were off key. The
expected correct responses constructing high rise buildings /sky scrapers to fully maximize
land and constructing freeways to control traffic congestion.
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Question 4 d (i) 1
In this question candidates were asked to define the Early stationery stage of the
Demographic Transitional model. Most candidates gave the correct response showing that
it’s a stage in population development where population is constant. The question was fair
to the candidates and most candidates got it right.

Question 4 d (i) 2
The question required candidates were asked to define the Early expanding stage of the
Demographic transitional model. Most candidates defined it is a population growth stage
which manifests slight growth. The question was fair to the candidates and most candidates
got it right.

Question 4 d (ii)
The question demanded candidates to explain the causes of declining death rates in the
Low stationary stage of the Demographic Transitional model. Performance on the question
was poor as candidates presented wild responses. Advanced medical care which leads to
long life expectancy among people, improved nutrition which leads to healthy life were
some of the expected responses and candidates who brought these did well on the question.

Question 5
The question was based on the core element Spatial organisations with focus on tourism,
population and settlement.

Question 5 (a) i
The question asked candidates to name eco-tourism centres in Malawi. Candidates brought
out the expected responses such as Lengwe national park Nyika national park among
others. Performance on the question was good.

Question 5 (a) ii
Candidates were asked to describe ways in which eco-tourism is important. Candidates
brought responses such as that it improves livelihoods of community members through job
creation, it encourages biodiversity conservation which were correct. Performance on the
question was good.
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Question 5 b
The question was based on table showing population statistics.

Question 5 b (i) 1
Candidates were required to calculate the population density for a country labelled N on
the table. The expected correct response was 700 people/Km2. Most candidates gave the
correct response and performance on the question was good.

Question 5 b (i) 2
Candidates were expected to calculate the total population of country Q as shown on the
table. The expected correct response was 800,000 people. Candidates performed well on
the question.

Question 5 b (ii)
The question demanded candidates to compare population densities of two countries as
shown on the table. Candidates performed poorly on the question because they failed to
compare population densities. Most of their responses compared total populations which
was out of the question.

Question 5 c (i)
Candidates were required to mention strategies which China uses to control rapid
population growth. Enforcing the one child policy and providing incentives to families
with one child were the expected responses. Most candidates brought these responses and
got the question right.

Question 5 c (ii)
The question required candidates to mention strategies which Great Britain is using to
control rapid population growth. The common correct answers were like restricting on the
number of children to be born and promoting family planning. Overall performance on the
question was good.

Question 5 d (i)
Candidates were asked to define the term settlement. Most candidates gave the correct
definition and got the question right.
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 Question 5 d (ii)
The question asked candidates to describe settlement patterns. It was a clear question and
most candidates gave correct responses by describing settlement patterns like linear
dispersed and nucleated patterns. However some candidates responded by describing
drainage patterns such as radial and trellis among others. Such candidates failed the
question.

Question 5 (e)
The question demanded candidates to explain factors which have influenced the rapid
growth of Lilongwe city. The expected responses were that presence of industries which
offer employment to urban dwellers and availability of improved social services such
schools attract more settlers leading to rapid growth of the city. Most candidates brought
these responses and got the question correct.

D. Recommendations to
(i) Schools
Schools should
 organise more CPDs on content, methodologies, item writing and marking
 provide adequate textbooks to teachers and students
 ensure that there is adequate and through coverage of the syllabus to make
students ready for examinations
 make sure that teachers use teaching aids containing correct geographical
information e.g. maps and diagrams
 make sure that teachers frequently give exercises to the students to improve
their performance
 ensure that teachers should expose the syllabus content to students so as they
understand the demands expected of them
 ensure that teachers formulate questions that are at a level similar to the
national examinations to allow students learn how to respond to questions
 ensure that teachers should teach students to present their answers in a more
direct way

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(ii) Ministry of Education
The Ministry should:
 provide more Geography books
 allocate Geography as one of the core subjects in the curriculum as it relates to
issues for all people and a key in several courses done at tertiary education
 support continuous professional development (CPD) trainings for Geography
teachers.
 ensure equitable distribution of qualified teachers between urban and rural
schools to ensure improved performance in all schools

(iii) Malawi Institute of Education

MIE should:
 harmonise content in books to avoid confusing candidates.
 statistics be removed as a stand-alone topic but rather its elements be
distributed in topics where the elements are applied.
 ensure that books are reviewed correctly so that students get correct
information. Some books contain ideas which begin with ‘avoid’ or ‘do not’ as
solutions to problems. Such responses fail to give the how part of the response
hence need to review. In addition, some books have geographical errors which
needs to be checked.

(iv) Teacher Training Colleges

Colleges should:
 ensure that college courses that align with the secondary school curriculum are
made compulsory to all Education students. Such courses include Hydrology,
Geomorphology, Climatology, Spatial studies among others.
 emphasise on assessment during teacher training

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