BISST

BOTSWANA INTERNATIONAL UNIVERSIIY

OFSCIENCE & TECHNOL,OGY

Botswana International University of Science and Technology

Faculty of Science

Department of Biological Sciences and Biotechnology

End of Semester 1 Main Examination 2022/2023

Course code: BIOL 101

Course Title: Principles of Biology I

Date: 01/12/2022 Time: 1800 -2100 HRS

Time allowed: 3 hours

The following items are provided:

One examination paper (16 pages in total-including cover page &appendix)
Examination answer book
One multiple choice answer sheet

Candidates are permitted to bring into the examination room:

Non programmable scientific calculators

Candidates must answer;

All questions from sections A (60 marks) and B (40 marks)
Paper consists of 60questions in section A, 19 questions in section B
All answers must be written in the answer book(s) and multiple-choice answer sheet
provided.
All rough work must be written in the answer book(s) provided.
A
single line should be drawn through any rough work to indicate to the examiner that
it is not part of the work to be graded
Black or blue pen must be used for written answers and pencil for all drawing and
sketches.
Ensure that you have the correct number of pages on your exam question paper.

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 SECTION A (60 marks] provided]
[All answers should be in the multiple--choice answer sheet
A1. The element present in all organic molecules is
A) hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) carbon
D) nitrogen

AZ. The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to

A)the chemical versatilityof carbon atoms
B) the variety of rare elements in organic molecules
C) the diverse bonding patterns of nitrogen
D) their interaction with water

0n with six protons, seven neutrons, anda charge of 2+ has an atomic number of

A)four
B)five
C) six
D) seven

A4. Carbon-14 has the same

A)atomic number and atomic mass as carbon-12

B) atomic number and thus number of neutrons as carbon-13
C)atomic mass as both carbon-12 and carbon-13
D) number of protons but more neutrons than carbon-12
A5. Water has an unusually high specific heat. What does this mean?

A) At its boiling point, water changes from liquid tovapor.

B) A large amount of heat is required to raise the temperature of water.
C) Ice floats in liquid water.
D) Saltwater freezes at a lower temperature than pure water.

AB What is the concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution

where pH = 102

A) 1x 10-10 M
B) 1 x10l° M
C) 1x 10 M

2
 D) 1x 104 M

A7. Which of the following is not a polymer?

A) glucose
B) starch
C) RNA
D)DNA
A8. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as
nucleotides?

A)a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group

B)a nitrogenous base and a sugar
C)a nitrogenous base, aphosphate group, and asugar
D)a sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
A9. If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'-ATTGCA-3, the mRNA
synthesized following the template will be
A) 5'-TAACGT-3'
B)5'-TGCAAT-3'
C) 3'-UAACGU-5"
D) 5"-UGCAAU-3'

A10. Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?

A)The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
B) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
C) They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
D) They are less dense than water.
A11. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is
the

A) primary level.
B)secondary level.
C) tertiary level.
D)quaternary level.
A12. What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?

A) the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules

B)the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C) whether glucose is in the a or Bform
D)the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule

A13. The difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar is

3
 A)the number of carbon atoms
B)the position of the hydroxyl groups
C) the position of the carbonyl group
D) the ring form and the linear chain

A14. What makes lipids/fats hydrophobic?

A)their long carbon skeleton
B) the carboxyl group at one end of the molecule
C) the glycerol moiety
D)presence of relatively nonpolar C-H bonds

Al5. What component of aminoacid structure varies among different amino acids?

A)the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule

B) the presence of a central C atom
C) the components of the R group
D)the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid
A16. Homo sapiens have 23 pairs of chromosomes. This implies that
A) 46 double-stranded DNA molecules are present in each somatic cell
B)23 single-stranded DNA molecules are present in each somatic cell
C) 23 double-stranded DNAmolecules are present in each somatic cell
D)several hundreds of genes are present on DNA but not on the chromosomes

A17. Adecrease in entropy is associated with which type of reaction?

A) dehydration
B) catabolic
C) depolymerization
D) bydrolysis
A18. Which of the following terms most precisely describes the
down large molecules into smaller ones? cellular process of breaking

A) catabolism (catabolic pathways)

B) metabolism
C) anabolism (anabolic pathways)
D) dehydration
A19. Which of the following statements describes the first law of
A)Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
thermodynamics?
C) The entropy of the universe is constant.
D) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.
A20. Achemical reaçtion that has a positive AG is best
described as
 A)endergonic
B)enthalpic
C) spontaneous
D) exergonic

A21. Which of the following statements describes a central role that ATP plays in cellular
metabolism?

A) Hydrolysis of ATP provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.

B) ATP provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
C) Hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate group stores free energy that is used for cellular
work.
D) Its terminal phosphate bond is stronger than most covalent bonds in other biological
macromolecules.

A22. Which of the following statements describes a common characteristic of catabolic

pathways?
A)They combine small molecules into larger, more energy-rich molecules.
B) They require energy from ATP hydrolysis to break down polymers into monomers.
C) They are endergonic and release energy that can be used for cellular work.
DThey are exergonic and provide energy that can be used to produce ATP from ADP and

A23. How does RNA differ from DNA?

A) DNA encodes hereditary information; RNAdoes not.

B) DNA forms duplexes; RNA does not.
C) DNA contains thymine; RNA contains uracil.
D) all of the above

A24. Which of the following statements about enzyme function is true?

A) Enzyme function is generally increased if the three-dimensional structure or conformation
of an enzyme is altered.
B) Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as
pH and temperature.
C) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy barriers.
D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by providing activation energy to the
substrate.

A25.Which of the following conditions may be overcome by increasing the substrate

concentration in an enzymatic reaction with a fixed amount of enzyme?
A) the need for a coenzyme
B) allosteric inhibition
C)noncompetitive inhibition
D) competitive inhibition

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 A26. Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
A) they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.
B)high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.
C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
D)their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.
A27. Which of the following frequently imposes a limit on cell size?
A)the absence of a nucleus
B) the number of mitochondria in the cytoplasm
C) ratios of surface area to volume
D)the volume of the endomembrane system
eukaryotic
AZS Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and
cells?

A)Prokaryotic cells have cell wals, while eukaryotic cells do not.

B) Eukaryotic cells have flagella, while prokaryotic cells do not.
C) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryoticcells do not.
D) Prokaryotic cells are generally larger than eukaryotic cells.
A29. In bacteria, DNA Will be found in

A)a membrane-enclosed nucleus

B) mitochondria
C) the nucleoid
D) ribosomes
A30. Which of the following organelles produces and modifies polysaccharides that willbe
secreted?

A) lysosome
B)mitochondrion
C) Golgi apparatus
D) peroxisome
A31. Which incorrectly matches process and location?
space
A) Oxygen gas is producedthe thylakoid
B Activated chlorophyll donates an electron the thylakoid membranes
C) NADPH is oxidized to NADP thestroma
space
D) ATP is produced the intermembrane
A32. Of these events from the light reacions, which occurs frst2

A) Light-induced reduction of the prmary electron acceptor in the reaction center of PS I.

are taken out of water
B) While being split, electrons
o Donation of electrons from reduced Pq to the cytochrome complex
D) Acceptance of electrons by Pc trom the cytochrome Comnla
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A33. When donating its activated electron, the chlorophyll in photosystem II is a very
powerful oxidizing agent. This is best shown by its ability to
A) make use of a proton clectrochemical gradient to drive the formation of ATP.
B) force the oxidation of oxygen in water to oxygen gas.
C) donate an electron to plastoquinone (Pq).
D) absorb light energy to power redox reactions.

A34. One reason for carrying out the production of oxygen gas in the space surrounded by
the thylakoid membranes, and not in the stroma of the chloroplasts, is
A) that this makes it easier for Oz to exit the chloroplast.
B) that the hydrogen ions released can contribute to the H' electrochemical gradient being
generated.
C) to reduce the concentration of Oz in the stroma so that organic matter located there is not
Oxidized.
D) that the concentration of water in this space is high, making it easier to form O, from the
water.

A35. The enzyme rubisco catalyzes the fixation of carbon. Considering all the carbons
involved, is the production of 3-PGA a net oxidation, reduction, or neither? Why?
A) Oxidation. Adding a carbon dioxide makes the products more oxidized.
B) Reduction. Adding the hydrogens from the water results in a more reduced condition.
C) Reduction. The carbon in the carbon dioxide has been slightly reduced.
D) Neither. There is no change in the totalC-Oand C-H bonds between the products and
reactants.

A36. One way in which photosynthesis in a typical C4 plant differs from that in a C3 plant is
that the CA plant
A) does not produce any oxygen gas.
B) actively pumps oxygen gas away from the cells that contain rubisco.
C) avoids the use of rubisco entirely; instead, it uses PEP carboxylase to
fixation.
catalyze all carbon
D) carries out the Calvin cycle only in the chloroplasts of bundle-sheath cells.

A37. Which of the following is not a reason that peas were well suited for Mendel's
experiments? breeding

A) Peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea

flower color.
shape and
B) It is possible to control matings between different pea plants.
C) It is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
D) Peas have an unusually long generation time.

A38. A pea plant is heterozygous at the independent loci for flower color (Pp) and seed color
(Yy). What types of gametes can it produce?
1

7
A) two gamete types: pp and PP
B) two gamete types: pY and Py
C) four gamete types: pY, py, PY, and Py
D) four gamete types: pP, Yy, pY, and Py
A39.A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea
plants results in ofspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the blending model of genetics.
B) true breeding.
C) dominance.
D) a dihybrid cross.

A40. Agenetic counselor is working with a couple who have just had a child who has Tay
Sachs disease. Neither parent has Tay-Sachs, nor does anyone in their families. What should
the counselor say to this couple?

A) Because no one in either of your families has Tay-Sachs, you are not likely to have
another baby with Tay-Sachs. Youcan safely have another child."
B) "Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must each carry the allele. Any
child you have has a 50% chance of having the disease."
C) "Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must each carry the allele. Any
child you have has a 25% chance of having the disease."
D) "Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must both carry the allele.
However, since the chance of having an affected child is 25%, you may safely have three
more children without worrying about having another child with Tay-Sachs."
A41. Imagine a locus with four different alleles for fur color in an animal, D, D', D, and D.
If you crossed two heterozygotes, DD and D'D",what genotype proportions would you
expect in the offspring?
A) 25% D'D, 259% D'D,25% DD, 25% D'Dd
B) 50% D'D', 50% DFD
C) 25% D'D, 25% D'D, 25% D'DE, 25% D'D
D) 50% D'D, 50% D
A42. John, age 47, has just been diagnosed with Huntington's disease, which is caused by a
rare dominant allele. His daughter, age 25, has a 2-year-old son. No one else in the family has
the disease. What is the probability that the daughter will develop the disease?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
A43. In evolutionary terms, an organism's fitness is measured by its i
A) stability in the face of environmentat change
B) contribution to the gene pool of the next generation
C) genetic variability
D) mutation rate
A44. Red short-horned cattle are homozygous for the red allele, white cattle are homozygous
for the white allele, and roan cattle are heterozygotes. Population A consists of 36% red, 16%
white, and 48% roan cattle. What are the allele frequencies?

A) red = 0.36, white = 0.16

B) red =0.6, white = 0.4
C) red =0.5, white =0.5
D) Allele frequencies cannot be determined unless the population is in equilibrium.
A45. Indicate which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is being violated in this example:
Some moths on a tree are easier tosee due to their lighter color and therefore are eaten by
predators more often.

A) large population size

B) no mutation
C) no gene flow
D) no selection

A46. Indicate which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is being violated in this example:
Male elephant seals show aggression toward other males, resulting in dominant males mating
with several females and other males mating with few or no females.
A) large population size
B) no mutation
C) no gene flow
D) random mating occurring

A47. Indicate which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is being violated in this example: Due
to global warming, a river has dried up, allowing two different rabbit populations that were
previously isolated to mate with one another.

A) large population size

B) no mutation
C) no gene flow
D) random mating occurring
A48. Indicate what type of selection is occurring in this example: Due to less snowfall in an
area, white mice are predated on more than are intermediate- or dark-colored mice.
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) allof the above

A49. Cellular respiration can best be described as

9
 molecules to
A) using energy relcased from brcaking high-cncrgycovalent bonds in organic
force ATP formation from ADP and phosphate.
B) taking electrons from food and giving them to phosphate to make ATP.
c) taking electrons from food and giving them to oxygen to make water, using the energY
relcased to drive ATP formation.
D) converting higher-energy organic molecules to lower-energy organic molecules and using
the energy relcascd to drive ATP formation.

AS0. Which statement about glycolysis is true?

A) It splits water.
B) It produces FADH2.
C) It occurs in the cytosol.
D) It makes the most ATP compared to the other steps in the breakdown of glucose.

AS1. Which statemnent about the citric acid cycle is true?

A) Itoccurs during the movement from the cytosol through the mitochondrial membranes.
B) It makes ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) It makes the most ATP compared to the other steps in the breakdown of glucose.
D) It occurs in the eukaryotic cytoplasm.
A52. What do cels require to sustain high rates of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions?
A) functioning mitochondria
B) Oxygen
C) oxidative phosphorylation of ATP
D) NAD*
A53. Drugs known as uncouplers facilitate diffusion of protons across the membrane. With
an uncoupler, what will happen to ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption if the rates of
glycolysis and the citric acid cycle stay the same?

A) Both ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption will decrease.

B) ATP synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption willgreatly increase.
C) ATP synthesis will increase; oxygen consumption will decrease.
D) ATP synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption will stay roughly the same.
A54. The hydrogens taken from glucose or a breakdown product of glucose are added to
Oxygen, releasing energy to

A) actively transport H" into the intermembrane space.

B) actively transport NAD into the intermembrane space.
C) actively transport Na into the matrix. matrix.
D) power facilitated diffusion of H+ into the
A55. In animals, fertilization is to zygote as meiosis is to which of the following?

A) mitosis
B) diploid
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 C) chromosome
D) gamnete

A56.Privet shrubs and humans each have a diploid number of 46 chromosomes per cell.
Why are the two species so dissimilar?
A) Privet chromosomes undergo only mitosis.
B) Privet chromosomes are shaped differently.
C) Human chromosomes have genes grouped together differently.
D) The two species have appreciably different genes.
A57. Why is it more practical to prepare karyotypes by viewing somatic diploidcells rather
than haploid gametes?

A) Somatic diploid cells do not contain organelles to interfere with karyotyping.

B) Both sets of chromosomes, which are present in somatic diploid cells, need to be
examined.
C) DNA in haploid gametes will not stain.
D) The chromosomes are larger in a somatic diploid cell.
AS8. In diploid species, diploid cells may undergo either mitosis or meiosis. Haploid cells
may undergo mitosis (for certain species) but not meiosis because
A) the sister chromatids cannot separate.
B) the synaptonemal complex is too strong.
C) crossing over has occurred.
D) homologous chromosomes cannot pair.
A59. How and at what stage is independent assortment accomplished?
A) pairing of homologs during meiosis I
B) separation of homologs during anaphase II
C) separation of homologs during meiosis II
D) metaphase alignment during meiosis I
A60. What allows sister chromatids to finally separate, and in which phase of meiosis does
this occur?

A) release of cohesin along sister chromatid arms in anaphase I

B) crossing over of chromatids in prophase I
C) release of cohesin at centromeres in anaphase I
D) release of cohesin at centromeres in anaphase II

ENDOF SECTION A

11
 SECTION B -Short Answer Questions

40 marks in total [All answers should be in your answer booklet]

B1. Namne any two weak bonds that are important in the chemistry of life
[2 marks]

B2. Describe one way in which isotopes can be used in biological research
[2marks]
B3. State any two factors that can affect enzyme activity [2 marks]

B4. Describe each of thefollowing types of chemical bonds [2 marks]

Polar covalent bonds:
Non-polar covalent bonds:

BS. What are isomers? [2 marks]

B6.Why is the plasma membrane described as afluid mosaic"? [2 marks]

B7. Explain why cholesterol is an important component of animal cell membranes?
[2 marks]

B8. State the functions of the following cell organelles [2 marks]

Mitochondria:
Rough endoplasmicreticulum:
B9. Describe the two kinds of enzymne inhibition. [ 4 marks]
B10. What would be the source of genetic diversity in the gametes if chromosomes were not
assorted independently? [1 mark]
B11. Using shoes as an analogy for chromosomes, how would you describe the collection of
"shoes" in human diploid and haploid cells? [1 mark]
B12. During the redox reaction in glycolysis, which one of the molecules acts as the
Oxidizing agent, and which one is the reducing agent? (2marks]

B13. What processes in your cells produce the COz that you exhale? (2 marks]
a
B14. The Calvin cycle requires ATP and NADPH, products of the light reactions, If
classmate asserted that the light reactions don't depend on the Calvin cycle and, with
continual light, could just keep on producing ATP and NADPH, how would you respond? [2
marks]
BI5.What color of light is least effective in driving photosynthesis? Explain. (2 marks]

12
B16. A horticulturalist breeds orchids, trying to obtain a plant with a unique combination of
desirable traits. After many years, she finally succeeds, and wants to produce more plants like
this one. Discuss whether she should crossbreed it with another plant or cause it to undergo
asexual reproduction (forming aclone), and why. [2 marks]
B17. In some pea plant crosses, the plants are self-pollinated. Is self-pollination considered
asexual or sexual reproduction? Explain. [2 marks]
BI8. If two organisms, both with the genotype AaBb, are mated, what is the probability of
obtaining the genotypes AABB and AaBb in the F2 generation? [2 marks]
B19. The frequency of alleleais 0.45 for a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What
are the expected frequencies of genotypes A4, Aa, and aa? (4 marks]

END OF SECTION B

End of Examination

D30

0.67

13
 14
GCG]GHGSlu GGG GUG
Gly GGA Ala GCA GUA
C GGC Asp GCC GUC
GGU! GCUT GUU
AgAGG s AAG ACG Mt AUG
ASAAThACAACG AJA
set AGUAGA l e AJC
ACU7
leter
Third leuer
First
HscGC
Arg Pro CCA
Leu CäA
CCC CUC
OGU1 CCUT CUUT
Stop|WGG
G
Trp UAG
Stap
SopUGA UACJTy UAA UCA UUwpne UUA
Ser UCC UUC
C
UGU UCUT
Better Second
Table Codon
Appendix
 Amino Acids

H
ÇH,
..H HO
H,N
Glycine
co
H,co Alunine Valine
cO
Gly, G Ala, A H H
Val, V
HNco co H,NcO
Phenylalaine Tyrosinc Tryptopban
Phe, F Tyr. Y Trp, w

H
H
H,NcoÆ H3N cO HNco
Leucine Methioninc Isoleucine
Leu, L Met, M Jle, 1 NH
H
NH
H
HRco co co
Lysinc Histidine Asparagine
OH HO CH3 SH Lys, K His, ! Asn, N
H
H H
H,R H, co
cO H,Nco
Serine Threonine Cysteine
Ser. S Thr. T Cys. C

HNo

Co, H.
H, co HG co co co
Proline Aspartate Glutamine Glutamate Aspartate
Pro, P Asp. D Gin. Q Glu, E Asp. D

15
"lanthanoids

*"actinoids

16