Ankha: Important Instructions

Test Booklet Code
No. :
ANKHA
E2 This Booklet contains 24 pages.
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For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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E2 2
1. Which of the following amine will give the 3. Match the following and identify the correct
carbylamine test ? option.
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+

Ca(HCO3)2
(1)
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
hardness of deficient hydride
water
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas

(2)
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
2. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of 4. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
the product. Its structure is : benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1)
(1) 0.20 K
(2) 0.80 K
(3) 0.40 K
(2)
(4) 0.60 K
5. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
(3) anode will be :
(1) Hydrogen gas
(2) Oxygen gas
(4) (3) H2S gas
(4) SO2 gas

3 E2
6. Identify compound X in the following sequence of 8. Identify the correct statement from the
reactions : following :
(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with

4% carbon.
(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance due

to evolution of CO2.
(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for

Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of

shapes.
(1) 9. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
the following ?
(1) −I effect of −CH3 groups
(2) +R effect of −CH3 groups
(3) −R effect of −CH3 groups

(2)
(4) Hyperconjugation
10. Urea reacts with water to form A which will

decompose to form B. B when passed through
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?
(3)
(1) CuSO4
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) Cu(OH)2
(4) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(4)
11. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains

7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :
7. Which one of the followings has maximum number
of atoms ? [Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]
(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108] (1) 9 bar
(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24] (2) 12 bar
(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (3) 15 bar
(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (4) 18 bar

E2 4
12. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) 16. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic in the following reaction ?
radius is : CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(1) +4 to +4
3 (2) 0 to +4
(1) × 288 pm
4 (3) −4 to +4
(4) 0 to −4
2
(2) × 288 pm
4 17. Match the following :
4 Oxide Nature
(3) × 288 pm
3 (a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
4
(4) × 288 pm (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
2
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
13. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) 100 s
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 200 s (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 500 s 18. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide ?
(4) 1000 s
(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
14. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium (3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin.
(1) Isopropyl alcohol
(4) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol
19. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol which property of colloidal solution ?
(4) Isobutyl alcohol (1) Viscosity
(2) Solubility
(3) Stability of the colloidal particles
15. Which of the following set of molecules will have
zero dipole moment ? (4) Size of the colloidal particles
(1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 20. Which of the following is the correct order of
1,4-dichlorobenzene increasing field strength of ligands to form
(2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon coordination compounds ?
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (1) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
(3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, (2) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (4) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
5 E2
21. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form 25. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone
pent-2-ene is : in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(a) β-Elimination reaction (1) Aldol condensation
(2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(4) Cross Aldol condensation
(d) Dehydration reaction
26. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
(1) (a), (b), (c)
−O−O− linkage ?
(2) (a), (c), (d) (1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
(3) (b), (c), (d) (2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(4) (a), (b), (d) (3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
22. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
27. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
gas under adiabatic condition is :
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
(1) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0 crystallise(s) ?
(2) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0 (1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0 (2) Only NaCl
(3) Only MgCl2
(4) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
23. Identify the incorrect statement. 28. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
(1) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(2) The transition metals and their compounds
are known for their catalytic activity due to (1)
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and to form complexes.
(3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24− (2)
and Cr2O72− are not the same.
24. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium (3)
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(1) (a), (i)
(2) (b), (ii) (4)
(3) (c), (iii)
(4) (d), (iv)
E2 6
29. Identify the correct statements from the 33. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
following : of a reaction leads to change in :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream (1) activation energy

and frozen food. (2) heat of reaction
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six (3) threshold energy
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(4) collision frequency
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline. 34. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas. of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) 1
(2) (a) and (c) only (2) 2

(3) 3
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) 4
(4) (c) and (d) only
35. The mixture which shows positive deviation from

Raoult’s law is :
30. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
option is : (1) Ethanol+Acetone
(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0 (2) Benzene+Toluene

(3) Acetone+Chloroform
(2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(4) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
(4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0 36. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
reaction.
31. Paper chromatography is an example of : Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
(1) Adsorption chromatography If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at

300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
(2) Partition chromatography will be :
(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)

(3) Thin layer chromatography
(2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(4) Column chromatography
(3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
(4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
32. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
37. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
(1) n-Hexane
(1) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
(3) n-Heptane (3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(4) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose
(4) n-Butane
7 E2
38. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ 44. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,
ion is : participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the
(1) 3.87 BM transmission of nerve signals.
(2) 4.90 BM
(1) Iron
(3) 5.92 BM
(2) Copper
(4) 2.84 BM
(3) Calcium
39. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(4) Potassium
(1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) polybutadiene 45. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
175
(4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) 71 Lu , respectively, are :
(1) 71, 104 and 71

40. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(2) 104, 71 and 71
(1) Serine
(2) Alanine (3) 71, 71 and 104
(3) Tyrosine (4) 175, 104 and 71

(4) Lysine
46. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a

41. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ? non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(2) Sodium stearate
(1) 10×103 J
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (2) 12×103 J
(3) 24×103 J
42. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH) 2 is (4) 48×103 J
2×10−15.
(1) 2×10−13 M
47. For transistor action, which of the following
(2) 2×10−8 M
statements is correct ?
(3) 1×10−13 M
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
(4) 1×108 M have same doping concentrations.

43. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
have same size.
(1) He2
(3) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
(2) Li2 junction are forward biased.
(3) C2
(4) The base region must be very thin and lightly
(4) O2 doped.
E2 8
48. Which of the following graph represents the 50. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for
copper ?
(1) A B Y
(1)
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(2) A B Y
(2) 0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(3) A B Y
0 0 1
(3)
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(4) A B Y
0 0 1
(4)
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
51. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
49. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. (1) 1.7 A
The magnitude of electric field in this region is : (2) 2.05 A
(3) 2.5 A
(1) zero (4) 25.1 A
52. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of

(2) 0.5 N/C 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.5 kg/m3
(3) 1 N/C
(2) 0.2 kg/m3
(3) 0.1 kg/m3
(4) 5 N/C (4) 0.02 kg/m3
9 E2
53. Taking into account of the significant figures, what 58. The solids which have the negative temperature
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? coefficient of resistance are :
(1) 9.9801 m
(1) metals
(2) 9.98 m
(3) 9.980 m (2) insulators only
(4) 9.9 m (3) semiconductors only
54. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular (4) insulators and semiconductors
diameter d and number density n can be expressed
as : 59. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
1 frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
(1) What will be the photoelectric current if the
2 n πd
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
1
(2) (1) doubled
2 n πd2
1 (2) four times
(3)
2 n2 πd2
1 (3) one-fourth
(4)
2 n2 π2 d2 (4) zero
55. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a

magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The 60. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
permeability of the material of the rod is :
source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
phase difference between current and voltage
(1) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 π
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
(2) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1 3
π
(3) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1 the phase difference is again between current
3
(4) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1 and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
56. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of (1) zero

16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the (2) 0.5
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
(3) 1.0
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is : (4) −1.0
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0  61. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(1) 50 V of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
(2) 200 V the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(3) 400 V from the centre of the sphere ?
(4) zero
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
57. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.  4 π0 
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ? (1) 1.28×104 N/C
(1) 48 N (2) 1.28×105 N/C
(2) 32 N
(3) 1.28×106 N/C
(3) 30 N
(4) 24 N (4) 1.28×107 N/C
E2 10
62. Find the torque about the origin when a force of 235
66. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
∧
2k m . and :
144
∧ (1) 56 Ba
(1) 6i N m
91
∧ (2) 40 Zr
(2) 6j Nm
101
(3) 36 Kr
∧
(3) −6 i N m 103
(4) 36 Kr
∧
(4) 6k N m
67. The phase difference between displacement and
63. A charged particle having drift velocity of acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of motion is :
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
(1) π rad
of :
(1) 2.25×1015 3π
(2) rad
2
(2) 2.5×106
π
(3) 2.5×10−6 (3) rad
2
(4) 2.25×10−15 (4) zero
64. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one 68. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
If the refractive index of the material of the prism wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal resistance wire is :
to : (1) 1.0×10−2 m
A (2) 1.0×10−1 m
(1) (3) 1.5×10−1 m
2µ
2A (4) 1.5×10−2 m
(2)
µ
69. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
(3) µA and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
µA the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
(4) tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
2
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 2.5 g
65. The quantities of heat required to raise the
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii (2) 5.0 g
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the (3) 10.0 g
ratio : (4) 20.0 g
27 70. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field

(1)
8 and magnetic field components to the intensity of
9 an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
(2) electromagnetic waves)
4
3 (1) c:1
(3) (2) 1:1
2
5 (3) 1:c
(4)
3 (4) 1 : c2
11 E2
71. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 76. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively
between coherent sources is halved and the are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is 1 m with negligible mass.
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
(1) double
particle is nearly at a distance of :
(2) half
(1) 33 cm
(3) four times
(4) one-fourth (2) 50 cm
(3) 67 cm
72. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at (4) 80 cm
the centre of the solenoid is :
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) 77. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
(1) 6.28×10−4 T material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
(2) 3.14×10−4 T decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
(3) 6.28×10−5 T If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
frequency of B will be :
(4) 3.14×10−5 T
(1) 523 Hz
73. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a (2) 524 Hz
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of (3) 536 Hz
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(4) 537 Hz
(1) 360 m
(2) 340 m
78. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(3) 320 m connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
(4) 300 m an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
74. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
opened. The process is :
valid ?
(1) Hydrogen atom (1) isothermal
(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (2) adiabatic

(3) Deuteron atom (3) isochoric
(4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) isobaric
75. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas

is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute 79. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
temperature) dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
1 The permittivity of the medium is :
(1) kBT
2
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
3
(2) kBT (1) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
2
5 (2) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) kBT
2
(3) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
7
(4) kBT (4) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
2
E2 12
80. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 85. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
potential difference is :
(1) 10 V (1) 0.01 mm
(2) 102 V (2) 0.25 mm
(3) 103 V (3) 0.5 mm
(4) 104 V (4) 1.0 mm
81. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging 86. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
from a fixed support. The length of the wire 10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its (1) 6
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is : (2) 0.6
MgL1 (3) 0.06
(1) (4) 0.006
AL
Mg(L1 − L)
(2) 87. The color code of a resistance is given below :
AL
MgL
(3) AL1
MgL
(4) A(L1 − L)
82. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
(1) 08 < ib < 308 are :
(2) 308 < ib < 458
(1) 470 kΩ, 5%
(3) 458 < ib < 908
(2) 47 kΩ, 10%
(4) ib = 908
(3) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
83. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the (4) 470 Ω, 5%
ends of a massless string. The string passes over
88. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
due to gravity (g) is : (1) 3.66×10−7 rad
(2) 1.83×10−7 rad
(3) 7.32×10−7 rad
(4) 6.00×10−7 rad
89. The increase in the width of the depletion region

in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) forward bias only
(1) g
(2) reverse bias only
(2) g/2
(3) g/5 (3) both forward bias and reverse bias
(4) g/10 (4) increase in forward current
84. Dimensions of stress are : 90. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(1) [ M L T−2 ] (1) 4.5×1016 J
(2) [ M L2 T−2 ] (2) 4.5×1013 J
(3) [ M L0T−2 ] (3) 1.5×1013 J
(4) [ M L−1 T−2 ] (4) 0.5×1013 J
13 E2
91. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) 94. Select the correct events that occur during
of organisms which have evolved due to changes inspiration.
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
action ?
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(1) (a) and (b)
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
(2) (c) and (d)
like dogs.
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) only (a) (4) only (d)
(2) (a) and (c) 95. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
(3) (b), (c) and (d) photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(4) only (d) (1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
92. Match the following columns and select the (3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
correct option.
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
Column - I Column - II of 2-C compound
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
96. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
ear and pharynx the human body is :
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the (1) Trophozoites
labyrinth (2) Sporozoites
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the (3) Female gametocytes
oval window (4) Male gametocytes
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the 97. Which of the following statements about inclusion
basilar bodies is incorrect ?
membrane (1) They are not bound by any membrane.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) These represent reserve material in
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) cytoplasm.
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
98. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
93. Identify the wrong statement with reference to during :
immunity. (1) Pachytene
(1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (2) Zygotene
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. (3) Diplotene
It is called “Active immunity”.
(4) Leptotene
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. 99. Ray florets have :
(3) Active immunity is quick and gives full (1) Inferior ovary
response.
(2) Superior ovary
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from
(3) Hypogynous ovary
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. (4) Half inferior ovary
E2 14
100. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments 105. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
can be visualized with the help of : Restriction Enzymes.
(1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light (1) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
sites.
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering.
101. In which of the following techniques, the embryos (4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
are transferred to assist those females who cannot ligases.
conceive ?
(1) ZIFT and IUT 106. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(2) GIFT and ZIFT (1) Starch and cellulose
(3) ICSI and ZIFT (2) Amylopectin and glycogen

(4) GIFT and ICSI (3) Mannitol and algin
(4) Laminarin and cellulose

102. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
diseases.
107. Choose the correct pair from the following :
(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
molecules
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
fragments
103. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
transport of oxygen. of DNA
(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
positions within DNA
(2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin.
108. Embryological support for evolution was
(3) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
disapproved by :
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin. (2) Alfred Wallace
(3) Charles Darwin

104. Identify the incorrect statement.
(4) Oparin
(1) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
109. The first phase of translation is :
(2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf. (1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem (2) Recognition of DNA molecule
and is lighter in colour.
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
heart wood is dark in colour. (4) Recognition of an anti-codon
15 E2
110. The plant parts which consist of two generations - 114. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
one within the other : of :
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther (1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male from one country to another
gametes (2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(c) Seed inside the fruit (3) Release of Green House gases
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (4) Disposal of e-wastes
(1) (a) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 115. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
(3) (c) and (d) (1) Repolarisation of auricles
(4) (a) and (d)
(2) Depolarisation of auricles
111. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(1) Zero (4) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) One
(3) Two 116. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
(4) Three spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
112. Match the following columns and select the crop.
correct option. (1) Cytokinin
Column - I Column - II
(2) Gibberellin
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(3) Ethylene
second and
seventh ribs (4) Abscisic acid
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the

117. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
Humerus Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle in one character with contrasting traits ?
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect (1) 4
with the sternum (2) 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) 14
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) 8
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 118. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
are exemplified by :
113. Match the following diseases with the causative (1) Ctenophora
organism and select the correct option.
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (4) Annelida
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella

119. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus is found in :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) lining of intestine
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) ducts of salivary glands
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) eustachian tube
E2 16
120. Which is the important site of formation of 126. The process of growth is maximum during :
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(1) Log phase
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Lag phase
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Senescence
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Polysomes (4) Dormancy
121. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the 127. Presence of which of the following conditions in
transfer of electrons from : urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) PS-II to Cytb6f complex (1) Uremia and Ketonuria
(2) Cytb6f complex to PS-I (2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(3) PS-I to NADP+ (3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(4) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
122. Match the following concerning essential elements
and their functions in plants : 128. Select the correct match.
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (1) Haemophilia - Y linked
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (2) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll dominant trait
biosynthesis (3) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis recessive trait,
Select the correct option : chromosome-11
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Thalassemia - X linked

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
129. Strobili or cones are found in :
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) Salvinia
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) Pteris

(3) Marchantia
123. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
are : (4) Equisetum
(1) Fibrous roots

130. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
(2) Primary roots the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(3) Prop roots
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(4) Lateral roots
(2) A person will have only two of the three
124. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino alleles.
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : (3) When IA and IB are present together, they
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C express same type of sugar.
(2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C 131. Identify the correct statement with reference to
human digestive system.
125. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (1) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(1) Tyrosine (2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(2) Glutamic Acid alimentary canal.
(3) Lysine (3) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(4) Valine (4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
17 E2
132. Which of the following would help in prevention of 136. Match the following :
diuresis ? (a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
(1) More water reabsorption due to activity
undersecretion of ADH
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone (c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
fungi
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
vasoconstriction
Choose the correct option from the following :
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(a) (b) (c) (d)
133. Match the following with respect to meiosis : (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
137. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
Select the correct option from the following : (1) Selectable marker
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Ori site
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Palindromic sequence
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Recognition site
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
138. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
134. Which of the following is not an inhibitory temperature
substance governing seed dormancy ? (2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
(1) Gibberellic acid UV-B radiation
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(2) Abscisic acid
(4) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(3) Phenolic acid
(4) Para-ascorbic acid 139. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about :
135. Match the following columns and select the (1) 1.5 million
correct option.
(2) 20 million
Column - I Column - II (3) 50 million
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (4) 7 million
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence 140. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
deaminase sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
deficiency rams ?
(1) Out crossing
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(2) Mutational breeding
infection
(3) Cross breeding
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(4) Inbreeding
thuringiensis
141. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
(a) (b) (c) (d)
highest species diversity ?
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Western Ghats of India
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) Madagascar
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Himalayas
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) Amazon forests
E2 18
142. Match the following columns and select the 147. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
correct option. and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
Column - I Column - II (1) Nutritive value
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon (2) Growth response
gill slits (3) Defence action
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes (4) Effect on reproduction
caudal fin 148. Which of the following statements are true for
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes the phylum-Chordata ?
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
(a) (b) (c) (d) head to tail and it is present throughout
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) their life.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) the embryonic period only.
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
143. Which of the following statements is not hollow.
correct ? (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
(1) In man insulin is synthesised as a Hemichordata, Tunicata and
proinsulin. Cephalochordata.
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(1) (d) and (c)
C-peptide.
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains (2) (c) and (a)
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (3) (a) and (b)
(4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced (4) (b) and (c)
in E-Coli.
149. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
144. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector (Bt) is resistant to :
thuringiensis (1) Insect pests
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of (2) Fungal diseases
aquaticus first rDNA (3) Plant nematodes
molecule (4) Insect predators
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
150. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
tumefaciens in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins (1) Ammonia alone
typhimurium (2) Nitrate alone
Select the correct option from the following : (3) Ammonia and oxygen
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 151. Match the following columns and select the
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) correct option.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
145. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
algae ? (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Anabaena and Volvox (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
146. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (a) (b) (c) (d)
completed : (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Prior to ovulation
(2) At the time of copulation (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) After zygote formation (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
19 E2
152. Which one of the following is the most abundant 158. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
protein in the animals ?
(1) They have RNA with protein coat.
(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Collagen (2) They have free RNA without protein coat.
(3) Lectin (3) They have DNA with protein coat.
(4) Insulin
(4) They have free DNA without protein coat.
153. Identify the correct statement with regard to
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. 159. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. place by :
(2) Reorganisation of all cell components takes (1) insects or wind
place.
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does (2) water currents only
not replicate its DNA. (3) wind and water
(4) Nuclear Division takes place.
(4) insects and water
154. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem. 160. The transverse section of a plant shows following
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow anatomical features :
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit surrounded by bundle sheath.
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
Select the correct option : tissue.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Identify the category of plant and its part :
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) Monocotyledonous stem
155. The ovary is half inferior in : (2) Monocotyledonous root

(1) Brinjal (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(2) Mustard
(4) Dicotyledonous root
(3) Sunflower
(4) Plum
161. Which of the following statements is correct ?
156. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
at :
H-bonds.
(1) Hilum
(2) Micropyle (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond.
(3) Nucellus
(4) Chalaza (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds.
157. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is : (4) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5' 162. Select the correct statement.
(2) 5' - GGAACC - 3' (1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5' (3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(4) 5' - GGATCC - 3' adipocytes.
3' - CCTAGG - 5' (4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
E2 20
163. Match the following columns and select the 167. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
correct option. of :
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias (3) Industrial melanism
pest (4) Natural selection
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion 168. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
symmetry and larva release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
with bilateral symmetry follicle ?
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Low concentration of LH
(4) Low concentration of FSH
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 169. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
164. Match the following columns and select the approximately :
correct option. (1) 2.0 meters
(2) 2.5 meters
Column - I Column - II (3) 2.2 meters
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (4) 2.7 meters
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis 170. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release Column - I Column - II
histaminase, (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
destructive (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
enzymes Gonadotropin
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules (hCG)
containing (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
histamine glands
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Penis
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
165. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
few days because :
(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the 171. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen. Column - I Column - II
(2) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(3) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous butylicum
system while the rest is situated along the (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
ventral part of its body.
polysporum
(4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
while the rest is situated along the dorsal (c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
part of its body. purpureus
166. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
helix during transcription. lowering agent
(1) DNA ligase (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) DNA helicase (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) DNA polymerase (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) RNA polymerase (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
21 E2
172. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified 178. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
from : vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
(1) Squamous epithelial cells
(1) M phase
(2) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) G1 phase
(3) Chondrocytes
(3) S phase
(4) Compound epithelial cells
(4) G2 phase
173. Experimental verification of the chromosomal

179. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
theory of inheritance was done by :
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
(1) Mendel of the following statements is correct ?
(2) Sutton (1) Gross primary productivity is always less
than net primary productivity.
(3) Boveri
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more
(4) Morgan than net primary productivity.
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
174. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water productivity are one and same.
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is : (4) There is no relationship between Gross
primary productivity and Net primary
(1) Transpiration productivity.
(2) Root pressure
180. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge
(3) Imbibition digester for further sewage treatment ?
(4) Plasmolysis (1) Primary sludge
(2) Floating debris
175. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : (3) Effluents of primary treatment
(4) Activated sludge
(1) Chitin, cholesterol
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
-o0o-
(3) Cellulose, lecithin
(4) Inulin, insulin
176. Which of the following is not an attribute of a

population ?
(1) Sex ratio
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Species interaction
177. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

(1) protein into polypeptides
(2) trypsinogen into trypsin
(3) caseinogen into casein
(4) pepsinogen into pepsin
E2 22
Space For Rough Work
23 E2
E2 24
Test Booklet Code
No. :
ANKHA
F2 This Booklet contains 24 pages.
only.
with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is F2. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the
Answer Sheet.
examination.
Attendance Sheet.
: in words
F2 2
1. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA 7. Match the following columns and select the
helix during transcription. correct option.
(1) DNA polymerase Column - I Column - II
(2) RNA polymerase
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(3) DNA ligase
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(4) DNA helicase
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
2. Which of the following would help in prevention of
histaminase,
diuresis ?
destructive
vasoconstriction enzymes
(2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(3) More water reabsorption due to containing
undersecretion of ADH histamine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
tubules due to aldosterone
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
3. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
completed : (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) After zygote formation (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum 8. Match the following columns and select the
(3) Prior to ovulation correct option.
(4) At the time of copulation Column - I Column - II
4. Match the following concerning essential elements (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
and their functions in plants : (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water Gonadotropin
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (hCG)
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis glands
Select the correct option : (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(a) (b) (c) (d) Penis
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
algae ? 9. The plant parts which consist of two generations -
(1) Anabaena and Volvox one within the other :
(2) Chlorella and Spirulina (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
gametes
6. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in (c) Seed inside the fruit
photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule (1) (c) and (d)
of 2-C compound (2) (a) and (d)
(3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (3) (a) only
(4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound (4) (a), (b) and (c)
3 F2
10. Which of the following statements about inclusion 16. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
bodies is incorrect ? Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They lie free in the cytoplasm. (1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(2) These represent reserve material in (2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
cytoplasm. ligases.
(3) They are not bound by any membrane. (3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(4) These are involved in ingestion of food inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
particles. (4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
sites.
(1) Marchantia 17. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(2) Equisetum
(1) Ammonia and oxygen
(3) Salvinia
(2) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) Pteris
(3) Ammonia alone
12. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control (4) Nitrate alone
of :
(1) Release of Green House gases 18. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
transfer of electrons from :
(2) Disposal of e-wastes
(1) PS-I to NADP+
(3) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
from one country to another (2) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) Emission of ozone depleting substances (3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(4) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through three 19. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
H-bonds. release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
(2) Adenine does not pair with thymine. follicle ?
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through two (1) Low concentration of LH
H-bonds. (2) Low concentration of FSH
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through one (3) High concentration of Estrogen
H-bond.
(4) High concentration of Progesterone
at : 20. The first phase of translation is :
(1) Nucellus (1) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(2) Chalaza (2) Recognition of an anti-codon
(3) Hilum (3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(4) Micropyle (4) Recognition of DNA molecule
15. The sequence that controls the copy number of the 21. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
linked DNA in the vector, is termed : are :
(1) Palindromic sequence (1) Prop roots
(2) Recognition site (2) Lateral roots
(3) Selectable marker (3) Fibrous roots
(4) Ori site (4) Primary roots
F2 4
22. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 27. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
transport of oxygen.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(1) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the thuringiensis
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation aquaticus first rDNA
of oxyhaemoglobin. molecule
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
mainly related to partial pressure of O2. tumefaciens
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
O2 binding with haemoglobin. typhimurium
Select the correct option from the following :
23. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments (a) (b) (c) (d)
can be visualized with the help of :
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
24. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : not replicate its DNA.
(1) caseinogen into casein
(3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin (4) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place.
(3) protein into polypeptides
(4) trypsinogen into trypsin 29. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
(1) They have DNA with protein coat.
(2) They have free DNA without protein coat.
25. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
theory of inheritance was done by : (3) They have RNA with protein coat.
(4) They have free RNA without protein coat.
(1) Boveri
(2) Morgan 30. The transverse section of a plant shows following

anatomical features :
(3) Mendel (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
surrounded by bundle sheath.
(4) Sutton
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
tissue.
26. According to Robert May, the global species (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
diversity is about : (d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
(1) 50 million Identify the category of plant and its part :
(1) Dicotyledonous stem
(2) 7 million
(3) 1.5 million (3) Monocotyledonous stem
(4) 20 million (4) Monocotyledonous root
5 F2
31. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino 36. Identify the incorrect statement.
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :
(1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C heart wood is dark in colour.
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C (3) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf.
32. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

37. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(1) Lysine (1) Mannitol and algin
(2) Valine (2) Laminarin and cellulose

(3) Starch and cellulose
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Glutamic Acid
38. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
population ?
33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to : (1) Mortality
(1) High reflection of light from snow (2) Species interaction
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Natality
temperature 39. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
UV-B radiation (1) Two
(2) Three
34. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter (3) Zero
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent (4) One
40. Identify the correct statement with reference to
(1) S phase
human digestive system.
(2) G2 phase (1) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(3) M phase (2) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.

(3) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(4) G1 phase
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal.
35. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
highest species diversity ? 41. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
are transferred to assist those females who cannot
(1) Himalayas conceive ?
(1) ICSI and ZIFT
(2) Amazon forests
(2) GIFT and ICSI
(3) Western Ghats of India
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) Madagascar (4) GIFT and ZIFT
F2 6
42. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net 47. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of organisms which have evolved due to changes
of the following statements is correct ? in environment brought about by anthropogenic
action ?
productivity are one and same. (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(2) There is no relationship between Gross (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
primary productivity and Net primary
productivity. (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(3) Gross primary productivity is always less (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
than net primary productivity. like dogs.
(4) Gross primary productivity is always more (1) (b), (c) and (d)
than net primary productivity. (2) only (d)
(3) only (a)
43. Name the plant growth regulator which upon (4) (a) and (c)
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane 48. Choose the correct pair from the following :
crop.
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(1) Ethylene
of DNA
(2) Abscisic acid
(2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
(3) Cytokinin positions within DNA
(4) Gibberellin
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA
molecules
44. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
and caffeine are produced by plants for their : (4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
fragments
(1) Defence action
(2) Effect on reproduction 49. Embryological support for evolution was
(3) Nutritive value disapproved by :
(1) Charles Darwin
(4) Growth response
(2) Oparin
45. Select the correct match. (3) Karl Ernst von Baer
(4) Alfred Wallace
(1) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
recessive trait,
50. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
chromosome-11
from :
(2) Thalassemia - X linked (1) Chondrocytes
(3) Haemophilia - Y linked (2) Compound epithelial cells
(4) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal (3) Squamous epithelial cells
dominant trait (4) Columnar epithelial cells
46. Select the correct statement. 51. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and (Bt) is resistant to :
adipocytes.
(1) Plant nematodes
(2) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(2) Insect predators
(3) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. (3) Insect pests
(4) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. (4) Fungal diseases
7 F2
52. Which of the following statements are true for 56. Match the following columns and select the
the phylum-Chordata ? correct option.
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from Column - I Column - II
head to tail and it is present throughout (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
their life. butylicum
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
the embryonic period only.
polysporum
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
hollow.
purpureus
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
Cephalochordata. lowering agent
(1) (a) and (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (d) and (c) (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (c) and (a) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
57. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
53. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
digester for further sewage treatment ? rams ?
(1) Effluents of primary treatment (1) Cross breeding
(2) Inbreeding
(3) Out crossing
(3) Primary sludge (4) Mutational breeding
(4) Floating debris 58. Select the correct events that occur during
inspiration.
54. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and (a) Contraction of diaphragm
peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
(2) Inulin, insulin
(3) Chitin, cholesterol (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Glycerol, trypsin (2) only (d)
(3) (a) and (b)
55. Match the following diseases with the causative (4) (c) and (d)
organism and select the correct option. 59. Match the following columns and select the
Column - I Column - II correct option.
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium pest
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella symmetry and larva
with bilateral symmetry
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
F2 8
60. Which is the important site of formation of 65. Match the following columns and select the
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ? correct option.
(1) Golgi bodies Column - I Column - II
(2) Polysomes (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(4) Peroxisomes deaminase
deficiency
61. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is :
infection
(1) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
3' - GAATTC - 5'
thuringiensis
(2) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3' - CTTAAG - 5' (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) 5' - GGAACC - 3' (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
3' - CCTTGG - 5' 66. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
during :
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(1) Diplotene
gill slits
(2) Leptotene
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(3) Pachytene
caudal fin
(4) Zygotene
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
63. Match the trophic levels with their correct species (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass 67. The process of growth is maximum during :
Select the correct option : (1) Senescence
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Dormancy
(3) Log phase
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Lag phase
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
immunity.
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response.
64. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did (2) Foetus receives some antibodies from
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except mother, it is an example for passive
in one character with contrasting traits ? immunity.
(1) 14 (3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(2) 8 antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
(3) 4
(4) 2 given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
9 F2
69. Match the following columns and select the 74. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
correct option. the human body is :
Column - I Column - II (1) Female gametocytes
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between (2) Male gametocytes
second and (3) Trophozoites
seventh ribs (4) Sporozoites
75. Which of the following statements is not
Humerus
correct ?
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect linked together by hydrogen bonds.
with the sternum (2) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
in E-Coli.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (3) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin.
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) C-peptide.
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
76. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
70. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs place by :
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is (1) wind and water
6.6×109 bp, then the length of the DNA is (2) insects and water
approximately :
(3) insects or wind
(1) 2.2 meters
(4) water currents only
(2) 2.7 meters
(3) 2.0 meters 77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
(4) 2.5 meters is found in :
(1) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
71. Presence of which of the following conditions in
(2) eustachian tube
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria (3) lining of intestine
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (4) ducts of salivary glands

(3) Uremia and Ketonuria
78. Match the following columns and select the
(4) Uremia and Renal Calculi correct option.
72. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals Column - I Column - II

are exemplified by :
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(1) Aschelminthes
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Platyhelminthes (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
73. Ray florets have : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Hypogynous ovary (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) Half inferior ovary (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Inferior ovary (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) Superior ovary (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
F2 10
79. Which one of the following is the most abundant 83. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
protein in the animals ?
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(1) Lectin
(2) Insulin
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(3) Haemoglobin
(4) Collagen
(a) (b) (c) (d)

80. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
few days because : (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
system while the rest is situated along the
ventral part of its body. (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body.
84. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
(3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
abdomen. (2) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (3) Repolarisation of auricles

81. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
of :
diseases.
(1) Industrial melanism
(2) Natural selection
(4) Convergent evolution
82. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water 86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
and in early morning is :
(1) When IA and IB are present together, they
(1) Imbibition express same type of sugar.
(2) Plasmolysis (2) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(3) The gene (I) has three alleles.

(3) Transpiration
(4) A person will have only two of the three
(4) Root pressure alleles.
11 F2
87. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 91. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
substance governing seed dormancy ? −O−O− linkage ?
(1) Phenolic acid
(1) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(2) Para-ascorbic acid
(3) Gibberellic acid (2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(4) Abscisic acid (3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
88. Match the following columns and select the (4) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
correct option.
92. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle of a reaction leads to change in :
ear and pharynx
(1) threshold energy
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the (3) activation energy
oval window
(4) heat of reaction
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
basilar
membrane
(a) (b) (c) (d) Name IUPAC Official Name
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
89. The ovary is half inferior in :
(1) Sunflower
(2) Plum (1) (c), (iii)
(3) Brinjal (2) (d), (iv)
(4) Mustard
(3) (a), (i)
90. Match the following :
(4) (b), (ii)
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
activity
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
fungi partial pressure of N2 is :
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 15 bar
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 18 bar
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) 9 bar
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) 12 bar
F2 12
95. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone 98. Which of the following amine will give the
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as : carbylamine test ?
(3) Aldol condensation

(1)

of atoms ?
(1) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]
(2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (2)
(3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]
(4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]
97. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

(3)
(1)
(4)

(2) (1) Interstitial compounds are those that are
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.
(2) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−

(3)
Fe2+(d6) in water.
are known for their catalytic activity due to
100. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(1) Tyrosine
(4) (2) Lysine
(3) Serine
(4) Alanine
13 F2
101. Which of the following is a natural polymer ? 104. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
(1) polybutadiene 4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
(2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(3) cis-1,4-polyisoprene (1) 500 s
(4) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(2) 1000 s
102. Match the following and identify the correct
option. (3) 100 s
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+ (4) 200 s

Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron 105. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using
hardness of deficient hydride Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
water anode will be :
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (1) H2S gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
structure (2) SO2 gas
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Hydrogen gas
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Oxygen gas
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 106. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
103. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
radius is :
the product. Its structure is :
4
(1) × 288 pm
3
4
(2) × 288 pm
(1) 2
3
(3) × 288 pm
4
2
(4) × 288 pm
4
(2)
(1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose
(4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
(3)
108. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide ?
(1) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(4)
F2 14
109. The mixture which shows positive deviation from 111. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
Raoult’s law is : benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
(1) Acetone+Chloroform containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(1) 0.40 K
(3) Ethanol+Acetone
(2) 0.60 K
(4) Benzene+Toluene (3) 0.20 K
(4) 0.80 K
110. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
reactions : 112. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(3) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(4) Sodium stearate
113. Paper chromatography is an example of :

(1) Thin layer chromatography
(2) Column chromatography
(1) (3) Adsorption chromatography

(4) Partition chromatography
114. Identify the correct statement from the

following :
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(2)
(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
shapes.
4% carbon.
(4) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
(3)
115. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
in the following reaction ?
CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(1) −4 to +4
(2) 0 to −4
(4)
(3) +4 to +4
(4) 0 to +4
15 F2
116. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form 121. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
pent-2-ene is : decompose to form B. B when passed through
(a) β-Elimination reaction Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (1) Cu(OH)2
(d) Dehydration reaction (2) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(1) (b), (c), (d) (3) CuSO4
(2) (a), (b), (d) (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (d) 122. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
117. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
(1) Tert. butyl alcohol
reaction.
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013) 123. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
175
(2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013) 71 Lu , respectively, are :
(3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (1) 71, 71 and 104
(4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(2) 175, 104 and 71
118. Match the following : (3) 71, 104 and 71
Oxide Nature (4) 104, 71 and 71
(a) CO (i) Basic
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(1) n-Heptane
Which of the following is correct option ? (2) n-Butane
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) n-Hexane
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 125. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
crystallise(s) ?
119. Identify a molecule which does not exist. (1) Only MgCl2
(1) C2 (2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(2) O2
(3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) He2
(4) Only NaCl
(4) Li2
120. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 126. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass which property of colloidal solution ?
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is : (1) Stability of the colloidal particles
(1) 3
(2) Size of the colloidal particles
(2) 4
(3) Viscosity
(3) 1
(4) 2 (4) Solubility
F2 16
127. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. 132. Which of the following set of molecules will have
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is zero dipole moment ?
2×10−15.
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(1) 1×10−13 M
(2) 1×108 M
(3) 2×10−13 M (2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) 2×10−8 M
(3) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
128. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct 1,4-dichlorobenzene
option is :
(4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
(1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
(3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
gas under adiabatic condition is :
129. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ (1) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
ion is :
(1) 5.92 BM (2) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(2) 2.84 BM
(3) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(3) 3.87 BM
(4) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(4) 4.90 BM
130. Identify the correct statements from the

following : 134. Which of the following is the correct order of
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream increasing field strength of ligands to form
and frozen food. coordination compounds ?
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings. (1) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
alcohols into gasoline. (2) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(3) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
(2) (c) and (d) only (4) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
135. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
131. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce the following ?
transmission of nerve signals. (1) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(1) Calcium (2) Hyperconjugation

(2) Potassium
(3) Iron
(4) Copper (4) +R effect of −CH3 groups
17 F2
136. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same 140. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly the ground after some time with a velocity of
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
frequency of B will be : (1) 320 m
(1) 536 Hz (2) 300 m

(2) 537 Hz
(3) 360 m
(3) 523 Hz
(4) 340 m
(4) 524 Hz
137. The increase in the width of the depletion region 141. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
in a p-n junction diode is due to : between coherent sources is halved and the
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is
(1) both forward bias and reverse bias doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(2) increase in forward current (1) four times
(2) one-fourth
(3) double
138. The quantities of heat required to raise the (4) half

temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio : 142. Which of the following graph represents the
3 copper ?
(1)
2
5
(2)
3
(1)
27
(3)
8
9
(4)
4
(2)
139. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
π
3
π (3)
the phase difference is again between current
3
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
(1) 1.0
(2) −1.0
(4)
(3) zero
(4) 0.5
F2 18
143. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns 147. For transistor action, which of the following
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at statements is correct ?
the centre of the solenoid is : (1) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
junction are forward biased.
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly
(1) 6.28×10−5 T doped.
(2) 3.14×10−5 T (3) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
(3) 6.28×10−4 T
(4) 3.14×10−4 T have same size.
148. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not

144. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold valid ?
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
(1) Deuteron atom
What will be the photoelectric current if the
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? (2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(3) Hydrogen atom
(1) one-fourth
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(2) zero
(3) doubled and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
(4) four times the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
145. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
(1) 10.0 g
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
(2) 20.0 g
The pitch of the screw gauge is : (3) 2.5 g
(1) 0.5 mm (4) 5.0 g
(2) 1.0 mm 150. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
(3) 0.01 mm
an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
(4) 0.25 mm electromagnetic waves)
(1) 1:c
146. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the (2) 1 : c2
ends of a massless string. The string passes over (3) c:1
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The (4) 1:1
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration 151. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
due to gravity (g) is : magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The
permeability of the material of the rod is :
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(1) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
(2) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
(3) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1
(4) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
(1) g/5 152. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :

(1) 458 < ib < 908
(2) g/10
(2) ib = 908
(3) g (3) 08 < ib < 308
(4) g/2 (4) 308 < ib < 458
19 F2
153. The phase difference between displacement and 158. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
motion is : (1) 9.980 m
π (2) 9.9 m
(1) rad
2 (3) 9.9801 m
(2) zero
(4) 9.98 m
(3) π rad
3π 159. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(4) rad
2
(1) 1.5×1013 J
154. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively (2) 0.5×1013 J
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
1 m with negligible mass. (3) 4.5×1016 J
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg (4) 4.5×1013 J

235
(1) 67 cm 160. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
(2) 80 cm a neutron, it generates 89

36 Kr , three neutrons
(3) 33 cm and :
(4) 50 cm 101
(1) 36 Kr
103
155. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge (2) 36 Kr
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is (3) 144
56 Ba
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
91
from the centre of the sphere ? (4) 40 Zr
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2  161. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
 4 π 0 
16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
(1) 6
1.28×10 N/C
(2) 1.28×107 N/C
(3) 1.28×104 N/C
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
(4) 1.28×105 N/C
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
156. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
 4 π0 
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is : (1) 400 V
(1) 7.32×10−7 rad (2) zero
(2) 6.00×10−7 rad (3) 50 V
(3) 3.66×10−7 rad (4) 200 V
(4) 1.83×10−7 rad
162. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
157. A charged particle having drift velocity of
249 kPa and temperature 278C.
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1 Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
of :
(1) 0.1 kg/m3
(1) 2.5×10−6
(2) 2.25×10−15 (2) 0.02 kg/m3
(3) 2.25×1015 (3) 0.5 kg/m3

(4) 2.5×106 (4) 0.2 kg/m3
F2 20
163. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas 166. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
temperature) in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
5 wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
(1) kBT
2 resistance wire is :
7 (1) 1.5×10−1 m
(2) kBT
2 (2) 1.5×10−2 m
1 (3) 1.0×10−2 m
(3) kBT
2
(4) 1.0×10−1 m
3
(4) kBT
2 167. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
∧
164. The color code of a resistance is given below : 3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
∧
2k m .
∧
(1) −6 i N m
∧
(2) 6k N m
∧
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, (3) 6i N m
are : ∧
(4) 6j Nm
(1) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
(2) 470 Ω, 5% 168. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
(3) 470 kΩ, 5%
from a fixed support. The length of the wire
(4) 47 kΩ, 10%
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
165. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is : free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
MgL
(1) AL1
MgL
(2) A(L1 − L)
(1) A B Y MgL1
(3)
0 0 1 AL
0 1 1 Mg(L1 − L)
(4)
1 0 1 AL
1 1 0
(2) A B Y 169. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz
0 0 1
0 1 0
(1) 2.5 A
1 0 0
1 1 0 (2) 25.1 A
(3) A B Y (3) 1.7 A
0 0 0 (4) 2.05 A
0 1 0
1 0 0 170. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
1 1 1
equal to half the radius of the earth ?
(4) A B Y
(1) 30 N
0 0 0
0 1 1 (2) 24 N
1 0 1 (3) 48 N
1 1 1 (4) 32 N
21 F2
171. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 176. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
potential difference is : The permittivity of the medium is :
(1) 103 V (e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(2) 104 V (1) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) 10 V (2) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 102 V (3) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
172. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism 177. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
(1) 0.06
If the refractive index of the material of the prism
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal (2) 0.006
to : (3) 6
(4) 0.6
(1) µA
µA 178. Dimensions of stress are :
(2)
2 (1) [ M L0T−2 ]
A (2) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(3)
2µ (3) [ M L T−2 ]
2A (4) [ M L2 T−2 ]
(4)
µ
179. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
173. The solids which have the negative temperature connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
coefficient of resistance are : an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
(1) semiconductors only B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
(2) insulators and semiconductors opened. The process is :
(3) metals (1) isochoric
(4) insulators only (2) isobaric
(3) isothermal
174. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. (4) adiabatic
The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
180. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
(1) 1 N/C
(2) 5 N/C
as :
(3) zero
1
(4) 0.5 N/C (1)
2 n2 πd2
1
175. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a (2)
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having 2 n2 π2 d2
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the 1
surface during time span of 1 minute is : (3)
2 n πd
(1) 24×103 J 1
(4)
(2) 48×103 J 2 n πd2
(3) 10×103 J
(4) 12×103 J -o0o-
F2 22
23 F2
F2 24
Test Booklet Code
No. :
ANKHA
G2 This Booklet contains 24 pages.
only.
with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is G2. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the
Answer Sheet.
examination.
Attendance Sheet.
: in words
G2 2
1. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) 5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
of organisms which have evolved due to changes theory of inheritance was done by :
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(1) Sutton
action ?
(2) Boveri
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(3) Morgan
(4) Mendel
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals algae ?
like dogs.
(1) (a) and (c) (2) Anabaena and Volvox
(2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(3) only (d) (4) Laminaria and Sargassum
(4) only (a)
and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
2. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
completed : (1) Growth response
(1) At the time of copulation (2) Defence action
(2) After zygote formation (3) Effect on reproduction
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an (4) Nutritive value

ovum
8. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
(4) Prior to ovulation
sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams ?
3. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
(1) Mutational breeding
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat. (2) Cross breeding
(2) They have DNA with protein coat. (3) Inbreeding
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat. (4) Out crossing
(4) They have RNA with protein coat.
9. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
the human body is :
4. The plant parts which consist of two generations -
one within the other : (1) Sporozoites
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther (2) Female gametocytes

(3) Male gametocytes
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
gametes (4) Trophozoites
(c) Seed inside the fruit 10. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule and in early morning is :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (1) Root pressure
(2) (c) and (d) (2) Imbibition
(3) (a) and (d) (3) Plasmolysis
(4) (a) only (4) Transpiration
3 G2
11. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino 16. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : transfer of electrons from :
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (2) PS-I to NADP+
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (3) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C (4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
12. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net 17. Match the following diseases with the causative
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one organism and select the correct option.
of the following statements is correct ?
than net primary productivity. (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net primary (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
productivity are one and same.
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(3) There is no relationship between Gross
primary productivity and Net primary (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
productivity.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less
than net primary productivity. (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
13. The sequence that controls the copy number of the (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Ori site
(2) Palindromic sequence 18. Match the following columns and select the
(3) Recognition site correct option.
(4) Selectable marker Column - I Column - II
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A

14. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli butylicum
is found in :
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(1) ducts of salivary glands
polysporum
(3) eustachian tube
purpureus
(4) lining of intestine
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
lowering agent
at : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Micropyle (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Nucellus (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) Chalaza (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Hilum (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
G2 4
19. Which of the following statements are true for 23. Match the following :
the phylum-Chordata ?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from activity
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life. (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
fungi
the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
hollow. Choose the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Cephalochordata.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) (c) and (a) (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (a) and (b) (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (b) and (c)

24. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
(4) (d) and (c) are exemplified by :
(1) Platyhelminthes
20. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified (2) Aschelminthes
from :
(3) Annelida
(1) Columnar epithelial cells (4) Ctenophora
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Compound epithelial cells urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(4) Squamous epithelial cells (1) Uremia and Renal Calculi

(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
21. Which of the following is not an inhibitory (3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
substance governing seed dormancy ? (4) Uremia and Ketonuria
(1) Abscisic acid
26. Ray florets have :
(2) Phenolic acid
(1) Superior ovary
(3) Para-ascorbic acid
(2) Hypogynous ovary
(4) Gibberellic acid (3) Half inferior ovary
(4) Inferior ovary
22. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription. 27. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
(1) DNA helicase
(1) Glycerol, trypsin
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase (3) Inulin, insulin
(4) DNA ligase (4) Chitin, cholesterol
5 G2
28. Which of the following statements is not 33. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
correct ? highest species diversity ?
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called (1) Madagascar
C-peptide.
(2) Himalayas
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(3) Amazon forests
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(4) Western Ghats of India
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
in E-Coli.
34. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a digester for further sewage treatment ?
proinsulin.
(1) Floating debris
29. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter (2) Effluents of primary treatment
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
(4) Primary sludge
(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase during :
(4) M phase (1) Zygotene

(2) Diplotene
30. Identify the correct statement with regard to (3) Leptotene
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(4) Pachytene
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place.
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does diseases.
not replicate its DNA.
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
31. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents : (4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

37. Select the correct statement.
(1) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(4) Repolarisation of auricles adipocytes.
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
32. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a (4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
6.6×109 bp, then the length of the DNA is 38. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
approximately : in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(1) 2.5 meters (1) Nitrate alone
(2) 2.2 meters (2) Ammonia and oxygen
(3) 2.7 meters (3) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) 2.0 meters (4) Ammonia alone
G2 6
39. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments 44. Match the following concerning essential elements
can be visualized with the help of : and their functions in plants :
(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water

(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
Select the correct option :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40. In which of the following techniques, the embryos
are transferred to assist those females who cannot (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
conceive ? (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) GIFT and ZIFT (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) ICSI and ZIFT
(3) GIFT and ICSI 45. Which is the important site of formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(4) ZIFT and IUT (1) Peroxisomes
(2) Golgi bodies
41. Select the correct match. (3) Polysomes
(1) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
dominant trait
46. Select the correct events that occur during
(2) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal inspiration.
recessive trait,
chromosome-11 (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(3) Thalassemia - X linked (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles

(4) Haemophilia - Y linked
42. Which of the following is not an attribute of a (1) (c) and (d)
population ? (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Natality (3) only (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
(2) Mortality
(3) Species interaction 47. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
are :
(4) Sex ratio (1) Primary roots
(2) Prop roots
43. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in (3) Lateral roots
photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(4) Fibrous roots
48. The ovary is half inferior in :
(1) Mustard
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule (2) Sunflower
of 2-C compound
(3) Plum
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (4) Brinjal
7 G2
49. Match the following columns and select the 54. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
correct option. Restriction Enzymes.
Column - I Column - II (1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between sites.
second and
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
seventh ribs
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases.
Humerus
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum
55. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
(a) (b) (c) (d) of :
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) Convergent evolution
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Industrial melanism
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
50. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
few days because : (4) Adaptive radiation
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous 56. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
system while the rest is situated along the transport of oxygen.
ventral part of its body.
(3) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system (1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
while the rest is situated along the dorsal O2 binding with haemoglobin.
part of its body. (2) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
abdomen. (3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin.
(1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water (4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
and minerals from root to leaf. mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
heart wood is dark in colour.
(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives (1) A person will have only two of the three
mechanical support. alleles.
52. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the (2) When IA and IB are present together, they
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis express same type of sugar.
(Bt) is resistant to :
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(1) Fungal diseases
(2) Plant nematodes (4) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(3) Insect predators
(4) Insect pests
58. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
in one turn of citric acid cycle is : (1) Glutamic Acid
(1) One (2) Lysine
(2) Two
(3) Three (3) Valine
(4) Zero (4) Tyrosine
G2 8
59. Name the plant growth regulator which upon 63. Which of the following would help in prevention of
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length diuresis ?
crop.
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene (2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin (3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
60. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (4) More water reabsorption due to
undersecretion of ADH
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
aquaticus first rDNA (1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
molecule fragments
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase (2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
tumefaciens of DNA
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins (3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
typhimurium positions within DNA
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) molecules
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 65. Identify the correct statement with reference to
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) human digestive system.
(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal.
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond. (2) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three (3) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
H-bonds.
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (4) Ileum opens into small intestine.
H-bonds. 66. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by :
correct option. (1) Alfred Wallace
Column - I Column - II (2) Charles Darwin
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias (3) Oparin
pest
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
with bilateral symmetry 67. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta follicle ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) High concentration of Progesterone
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Low concentration of LH
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) Low concentration of FSH
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (4) High concentration of Estrogen
9 G2
68. The specific palindromic sequence which is 74. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :
recognized by EcoRI is : (1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(1) 5' - GGAACC - 3' (2) caseinogen into casein
3' - CCTTGG - 5' (3) pepsinogen into pepsin
(2) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' (4) protein into polypeptides
3' - GAATTC - 5'
75. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
(3) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(4) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
3' - CTTAAG - 5' (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

69. The first phase of translation is :
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Recognition of an anti-codon (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen 76. Which of the following statements about inclusion
bodies is incorrect ?
(2) Mannitol and algin
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles.
cytoplasm.
(1) Pteris
(4) They are not bound by any membrane.
(2) Marchantia
(3) Equisetum 77. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(4) Salvinia
72. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
in one character with contrasting traits ? (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(1) 2 (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release

(2) 14 histaminase,
destructive
(3) 8
enzymes
(4) 4
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
73. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to : containing
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of histamine
UV-B radiation (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) High reflection of light from snow (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
temperature (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
G2 10
78. The transverse section of a plant shows following 82. According to Robert May, the global species
anatomical features : diversity is about :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (1) 20 million
(2) 50 million
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
tissue. (3) 7 million
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (4) 1.5 million
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part : 83. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(1) Monocotyledonous root
(2) Dicotyledonous stem Column - I Column - II
(3) Dicotyledonous root (a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(4) Monocotyledonous stem gill slits
79. Match the following columns and select the (b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
correct option.
caudal fin
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 84. The process of growth is maximum during :
(1) Lag phase
correct option. (2) Senescence
Column - I Column - II (3) Dormancy
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens (4) Log phase
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic 85. Match the following columns and select the
Gonadotropin correct option.
(hCG) Column - I Column - II
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
glands
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
deaminase
Penis
deficiency
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) infection
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
thuringiensis
81. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes (a) (b) (c) (d)
place by :
(1) water currents only (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) wind and water (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) insects and water (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) insects or wind (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
11 G2
86. Match the following columns and select the 90. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
correct option. examples in grassland ecosystem.
Column - I Column - II (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
ear and pharynx
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
labyrinth (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the Select the correct option :
oval window (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
basilar (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
membrane (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 91. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(1) 0.25 mm
87. Which one of the following is the most abundant
protein in the animals ? (2) 0.5 mm
(1) Collagen (3) 1.0 mm
(2) Lectin (4) 0.01 mm
(3) Insulin
(4) Haemoglobin 92. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
88. Identify the wrong statement with reference to as :
immunity.
1
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly (1)
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. 2 n πd2
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full 1

(2)
response. 2 n2 πd2
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from 1
mother, it is an example for passive (3) 2 2 2
2n π d
immunity.
1
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (4)
2 n πd
antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
93. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
89. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
What will be the photoelectric current if the
of :
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(1) four times
(2) Release of Green House gases
(2) one-fourth
(3) Disposal of e-wastes
(3) zero
(4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
from one country to another (4) doubled
G2 12
94. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, 97. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
The magnitude of electric field in this region is : of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
(1) 0.5 N/C If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
(2) 1 N/C frequency of B will be :
(3) 5 N/C (1) 524 Hz

(4) zero
(2) 536 Hz
95. Which of the following graph represents the (3) 537 Hz

(4) 523 Hz
copper ?
98. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

(1) ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
(1) 2.05 A
(2) 2.5 A
(2)
(3) 25.1 A
(4) 1.7 A
(3)
99. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(4) (1) 340 m
(2) 320 m
(3) 300 m
96. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
(4) 360 m
from a fixed support. The length of the wire
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
100. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
Mg(L1 − L) potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
(1) wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
AL
potential difference is :
MgL
(2) AL1 (1) 102 V
MgL (2) 103 V

(3) A(L1 − L)
(3) 104 V
MgL1
(4)
AL (4) 10 V
13 G2
101. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is : 104. The increase in the width of the depletion region
in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(2) both forward bias and reverse bias
(3) increase in forward current
(1) A B Y
0 0 0
and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
0 1 1 the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
1 0 1 tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
1 1 1 of water that will rise in this tube is :
(2) A B Y (1) 5.0 g
0 0 1 (2) 10.0 g
0 1 1 (3) 20.0 g
1 0 1 (4) 2.5 g
1 1 0 106. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(3) A B Y (1) 4.5×1013 J
0 0 1 (2) 1.5×1013 J
0 1 0 (3) 0.5×1013 J
1 0 0 (4) 4.5×1016 J
1 1 0
(4) A B Y 107. The solids which have the negative temperature
coefficient of resistance are :
0 0 0
(1) insulators only
0 1 0
(2) semiconductors only
1 0 0
(3) insulators and semiconductors
1 1 1
(4) metals
102. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
108. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
If the refractive index of the material of the prism
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
 1  to :
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0  2A
(1) 200 V (1)
µ
(2) 400 V (2) µA
(3) zero µA
(4) 50 V (3)
2
A
103. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a (4)
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The 2µ
permeability of the material of the rod is : 109. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) valid ?
(1) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1 (1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(2) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1 (2) Deuteron atom
(3) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1 (3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 (4) Hydrogen atom
G2 14
110. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming 115. Taking into account of the significant figures, what
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is : (1) 9.98 m
(1) 1.83×10−7 rad (2) 9.980 m
(2) 7.32×10−7 rad (3) 9.9 m
(4) 9.9801 m
(3) 6.00×10−7 rad
(4) 3.66×10−7 rad 116. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the
ends of a massless string. The string passes over
111. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration
equal to half the radius of the earth ?
due to gravity (g) is :
(1) 32 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 48 N

(1) g/2
of : (2) g/5
(1) 2.5×106 (3) g/10

(4) g
(2) 2.5×10−6
(3) 2.25×10−15 117. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
249 kPa and temperature 278C.
(4) 2.25×1015
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
113. For transistor action, which of the following (1) 0.2 kg/m3
statements is correct ? (2) 0.1 kg/m3
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should (3) 0.02 kg/m3
have same size. (4) 0.5 kg/m3
(2) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
118. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
(3) The base region must be very thin and lightly an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
doped. electromagnetic waves)
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should (1) 1:1
have same doping concentrations. (2) 1:c
(3) 1 : c2
114. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with (4) c:1
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. 119. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
The permittivity of the medium is : carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
the centre of the solenoid is :
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(1) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(1) 3.14×10−4 T
(2) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2 (2) 6.28×10−5 T
(3) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2 (3) 3.14×10−5 T
(4) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2 (4) 6.28×10−4 T
15 G2
120. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 125. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
between coherent sources is halved and the non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
doubled, then the fringe width becomes : surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) half (1) 12×103 J
(2) four times (2) 24×103 J
(3) one-fourth (3) 48×103 J
(4) double (4) 10×103 J
121. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a 126. The quantities of heat required to raise the
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the ratio :
resistance wire is :
9
(1) 1.0×10−1 m (1)
4
(2) 1.5×10−1 m 3
(2)
(3) 1.5×10−2 m 2
(4) 1.0×10−2 m 5
(3)
3
122. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 27
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly : (4)
8
(1) 0.6
127. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
(2) 0.06
is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
(3) 0.006
temperature)
(4) 6
3
(1) kBT
235 2
123. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
5
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons (2) kBT
2
and :
7
91 (3) kBT
(1) 40 Zr 2
(2) 101 1
36 Kr (4) kBT
2
103
(3) 36 Kr
144
(4) 56 Ba 128. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
124. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are phase difference between current and voltage
connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains π
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is π
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly the phase difference is again between current
3
opened. The process is : and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
(1) adiabatic (1) 0.5
(2) isochoric (2) 1.0
(3) isobaric (3) −1.0
(4) isothermal (4) zero
G2 16
129. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively 135. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length ∧
1 m with negligible mass. 3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
∧
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg 2k m .
∧
particle is nearly at a distance of : (1) 6j Nm
(1) 50 cm ∧
(2) 67 cm (2) −6 i N m
(3) 80 cm ∧
(3) 6k N m
(4) 33 cm
∧
130. The phase difference between displacement and (4) 6i N m
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic 136. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
motion is : Raoult’s law is :
3π (1) Benzene+Toluene
(1) rad
2 (2) Acetone+Chloroform
π (3) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(2) rad
2 (4) Ethanol+Acetone
(3) zero
(4) π rad 137. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
131. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : monoxide ?
(1) 308 < ib < 458 (1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(2) 458 < ib < 908 (2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
(3) ib = 908 bound to CO) is less stable than
(4) 08 < ib < 308 oxyhaemoglobin.
132. Dimensions of stress are : (3) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(1) [ M L2 T−2 ] (4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(2) [ M L0T−2 ]
(3) [ M L−1 T−2 ] 138. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
(4) [ M L T−2 ] 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
133. The color code of a resistance is given below : (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, reaction.
are :
(1) 47 kΩ, 10% Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
(2) 4.7 kΩ, 5% If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(3) 470 Ω, 5% 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
(4) 470 kΩ, 5% will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
134. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
(3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
from the centre of the sphere ?
 1  140. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2  option is :
 4 π0 
(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(1) 1.28×105 N/C
(2) 1.28×106 N/C (2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
(3) 1.28×107 N/C (3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
(4) 1.28×104 N/C (4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
17 G2
141. Paper chromatography is an example of : 148. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
(1) Partition chromatography and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
(2) Thin layer chromatography crystallise(s) ?
(3) Column chromatography (1) Only NaCl
(4) Adsorption chromatography (2) Only MgCl2
(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
142. The rate constant for a first order reaction is (4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : 149. Match the following and identify the correct
option.
(1) 200 s
(2) 500 s (a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
(3) 1000 s Ca(HCO3)2
(4) 100 s (b) Temporary (ii) An electron
143. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has water
−O−O− linkage ? (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid (d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
(2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid structure
(3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
144. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as : (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction 150. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form
pent-2-ene is :
(a) β-Elimination reaction
145. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic (d) Dehydration reaction
(1) (a), (c), (d)
radius is :
(2) (b), (c), (d)
2 (3) (a), (b), (d)
(1) × 288 pm
4 (4) (a), (b), (c)
4 151. Which of the following is the correct order of
(2) × 288 pm
3 increasing field strength of ligands to form
4 coordination compounds ?
(3) × 288 pm
2 (1) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
3 (2) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(4) × 288 pm
4
(3) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
146. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(4) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
(1) Sodium stearate
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 152. Identify the correct statement from the
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate following :
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate (1) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
147. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ (2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
ion is : Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(1) 4.90 BM (3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
(2) 5.92 BM shapes.
(3) 2.84 BM (4) Wrought iron is impure iron with
(4) 3.87 BM 4% carbon.
G2 18
153. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives : 159. Which of the following amine will give the
(1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose carbylamine test ?
(2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose
(1)
154. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(1) 0 to +4
(2) −4 to +4
(3) 0 to −4 (2)
(4) +4 to +4
155. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,

participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
transmission of nerve signals.
(1) Copper (3)
(2) Calcium
(3) Potassium
(4) Iron

(4)
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(2) n-Heptane
(3) n-Butane
(4) n-Hexane (1) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(2) polybutadiene
157. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining (3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
which property of colloidal solution ?
(4) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(1) Solubility
(2) Stability of the colloidal particles
(3) Size of the colloidal particles are known for their catalytic activity due to
(4) Viscosity their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
158. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of (2) Interstitial compounds are those that are
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point formed when small atoms like H, C or N
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is metals.
(1) 0.80 K
(2) 0.40 K
(3) 0.60 K (4) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(4) 0.20 K
19 G2
162. Which of the following set of molecules will have 165. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
zero dipole moment ? 175
71 Lu , respectively, are :
(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (1) 104, 71 and 71
(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(2) 71, 71 and 104
(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, (3) 175, 104 and 71
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) 71, 104 and 71
(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
1,4-dichlorobenzene
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at Oxide Nature
anode will be :
(a) CO (i) Basic
(1) Oxygen gas
(2) H2S gas (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(3) SO2 gas (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(4) Hydrogen gas
164. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives : Which of the following is correct option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
(2) the following ?
(2) −R effect of −CH3 groups
(3) Hyperconjugation

(3)

of atoms ?
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]

(4)
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]

G2 20
169. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ? 173. Identify the correct statements from the
following :
(1) Alanine
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
and frozen food.
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Lysine carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(4) Serine (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert

alcohols into gasoline.

gas under adiabatic condition is : (1) (a) and (c) only

(1) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(2) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(3) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
174. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of
(4) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
the product. Its structure is :

(1)
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(2)
(1) (b), (ii)
(2) (c), (iii)
(3) (d), (iv)
(4) (a), (i)

(3)
(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) O2 (4)
(4) He2
21 G2
175. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium 179. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : reactions :
(2) Tert. butyl alcohol

7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the (1)
(1) 12 bar
(2)
(2) 15 bar
(3) 18 bar
(4) 9 bar
(3)
177. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
of a reaction leads to change in :
(2) threshold energy

(4)
(4) activation energy

180. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
decompose to form B. B when passed through
178. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. What is the formula of C from the following ?
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH) 2 is (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
2×10−15.
(2) Cu(OH)2
(1) 2×10−8 M (3) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(4) CuSO4
(2) 1×10−13 M
(3) 1×108 M
-o0o-
(4) 2×10−13 M
G2 22
23 G2
G2 24
Test Booklet Code
No. :
ANKHA
H2 This Booklet contains 24 pages.
only.
with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is H2. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the
Answer Sheet.
examination.
Attendance Sheet.
: in words
H2 2
1. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 7. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
175 Raoult’s law is :
71 Lu , respectively, are :
(1) 175, 104 and 71
(2) Ethanol+Acetone
(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71 (3) Benzene+Toluene
(4) 71, 71 and 104 (4) Acetone+Chloroform
2. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, 8. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ion is :
transmission of nerve signals. (1) 2.84 BM
(1) Potassium (2) 3.87 BM
(2) Iron (3) 4.90 BM
(3) Copper (4) 5.92 BM
(4) Calcium
3. Which of the following is not correct about carbon secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
monoxide ? the following ?
(1) It is produced due to incomplete combustion. (1) Hyperconjugation
(4) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than (4) −R effect of −CH3 groups
oxyhaemoglobin.
4. Which one of the followings has maximum number gas under adiabatic condition is :
of atoms ?
(1) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(1) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]
(2) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(3) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24] (3) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
(4) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (4) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
5. Paper chromatography is an example of : 11. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form

(1) Column chromatography pent-2-ene is :
(2) Adsorption chromatography (a) β-Elimination reaction

(3) Partition chromatography (b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(4) Thin layer chromatography (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
(1) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) (1) (a), (b), (d)
(2) cis-1,4-polyisoprene (2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) poly (Butadiene-styrene) (3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) polybutadiene (4) (b), (c), (d)
3 H2
12. Identify the correct statements from the 16. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
following :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
and frozen food.
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings. (1)
alcohols into gasoline.
(3) (a) and (c) only
(2)
13. Which of the following is the correct order of

increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds ?
(1) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−

(3)
(2) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
(3) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(4) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−

reaction. (4)
Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
will be : 17. Identify the correct statement from the
following :
(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
(2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013) (1) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
shapes.
(3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
4% carbon.
15. Identify the incorrect match. (3) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium 18. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
option is :
(1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
(1) (d), (iv)
(2) (a), (i) (2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(3) (b), (ii) (3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(4) (c), (iii) (4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
H2 4
19. Identify compound X in the following sequence of 21. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
reactions : decompose to form B. B when passed through
(1) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(2) CuSO4
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(4) Cu(OH)2

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
(1) anode will be :
(1) SO2 gas
(2) Hydrogen gas
(3) Oxygen gas
(4) H2S gas
(2)
23. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
radius is :
4
(1) × 288 pm
2
(3)
3
(2) × 288 pm
4
2
(3) × 288 pm
4
4
(4) (4) × 288 pm
3

20. Match the following : (1) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose
Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Basic
(3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic (4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose
Which of the following is correct option ? 25. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Lysine
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Serine
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) Alanine
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) Tyrosine
5 H2
26. Which of the following set of molecules will have 31. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
zero dipole moment ? 4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (1) 1000 s
(2) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, (2) 100 s

1,4-dichlorobenzene (3) 200 s
(3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon (4) 500 s
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, 32. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
(1) n-Butane
27. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of (2) n-Hexane
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point (3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (4) n-Heptane
33. Match the following and identify the correct
(1) 0.60 K
option.
(2) 0.20 K
(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+
(3) 0.80 K Ca(HCO3)2
(4) 0.40 K (b) Temporary (ii) An electron
water
28. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
−O−O− linkage ? (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(1) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid (d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar

structure
(2) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
29. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
crystallise(s) ?
34. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
(1) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
(2) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2 2×10−15.
(1) 1×108 M
(3) Only NaCl
(2) 2×10−13 M
(4) Only MgCl2
(3) 2×10−8 M
(4) 1×10−13 M
30. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
which property of colloidal solution ?
(1) Size of the colloidal particles
(1) O2
(2) Viscosity
(2) He2
(3) Solubility (3) Li2
(4) Stability of the colloidal particles (4) C2
H2 6
36. Which of the following amine will give the 38. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
carbylamine test ? of a reaction leads to change in :
(2) activation energy
(1) (4) threshold energy


(2)
(1) 18 bar
(2) 9 bar
(3) 12 bar
(4) 15 bar
(3) 40. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) (4) 3
41. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone

in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
37. Identify the incorrect statement. (1) Cross Aldol condensation
Fe2+(d6) in water. 42. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
are known for their catalytic activity due to CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
states and to form complexes. (1) 0 to −4
(4) Interstitial compounds are those that are (2) +4 to +4

are trapped inside the crystal lattices of (3) 0 to +4
metals. (4) −4 to +4
7 H2
43. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of 47. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
the product. Its structure is : vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
(1) G2 phase
(2) M phase
(3) G1 phase
(1)
(4) S phase

activity
(2) (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate

(c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
fungi
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4)
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Mannitol and algin
44. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
(1) Effect on reproduction
(4) Tert. butyl alcohol (2) Nutritive value
(3) Growth response
45. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(4) Defence action
(1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
51. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
(3) Sodium stearate is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
46. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples approximately :
of :
(1) 2.7 meters
(2) 2.0 meters
(3) Convergent evolution (3) 2.5 meters
(4) Industrial melanism (4) 2.2 meters
H2 8
52. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water 57. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night diseases.
and in early morning is :
(1) Plasmolysis
(2) Transpiration
(3) Root pressure
(4) Imbibition
53. Identify the wrong statement with reference to 58. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. is found in :
(1) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (1) eustachian tube
(2) The gene (I) has three alleles. (2) lining of intestine
(3) A person will have only two of the three (3) ducts of salivary glands
alleles.
(4) When IA and IB are present together, they
express same type of sugar.
59. The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features :
during : (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
tissue.
(3) Zygotene
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(4) Diplotene
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
55. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge Identify the category of plant and its part :
digester for further sewage treatment ?
(2) Monocotyledonous stem
(2) Primary sludge
(3) Monocotyledonous root
(3) Floating debris
(4) Effluents of primary treatment (4) Dicotyledonous stem
56. Which of the following statements are true for 60. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
the phylum-Chordata ? sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams ?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
head to tail and it is present throughout (1) Inbreeding
their life.
(2) Out crossing
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
the embryonic period only. (3) Mutational breeding
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and (4) Cross breeding

hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : 61. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
Hemichordata, Tunicata and of :
Cephalochordata. (1) Disposal of e-wastes
(1) (b) and (c) (2) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
(2) (d) and (c) from one country to another
(3) (c) and (a) (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(4) (a) and (b) (4) Release of Green House gases
9 H2
62. Match the following columns and select the 66. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
correct option. (a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
Column - I Column - II thuringiensis
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
aquaticus first rDNA
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
molecule
deaminase
deficiency (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
infection
typhimurium
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus Select the correct option from the following :
thuringiensis (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
correct option.
63. According to Robert May, the global species Column - I Column - II
diversity is about : (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(1) 7 million ear and pharynx
(2) 1.5 million (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(3) 20 million labyrinth
(4) 50 million (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
oval window
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
(1) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific basilar
positions within DNA membrane
(2) Ligases - Join the two DNA (a) (b) (c) (d)
molecules (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
fragments
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
68. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
of DNA
(1) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Repolarisation of auricles
65. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
Restriction Enzymes. (3) Depolarisation of auricles
(1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases. 69. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
(2) Each restriction enzyme functions by peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (1) Inulin, insulin
(3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic (2) Chitin, cholesterol
sites. (3) Glycerol, trypsin
(4) They are useful in genetic engineering. (4) Cellulose, lecithin
H2 10
70. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits 74. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for
highest species diversity ? few days because :
(1) Amazon forests (1) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
(2) Western Ghats of India while the rest is situated along the dorsal
part of its body.
(3) Madagascar
(2) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
(4) Himalayas cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen.
correct option. (3) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(4) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous
system while the rest is situated along the
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens ventral part of its body.
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(hCG)
(1) Three
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum (2) Zero
glands (3) One
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the (4) Two
Penis
(a) (b) (c) (d) 76. The process of growth is maximum during :
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) Dormancy
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Log phase
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (3) Lag phase
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (4) Senescence
72. Match the following columns and select the 77. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
correct option. Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (4) 14
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
78. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(a) (b) (c) (d) can be visualized with the help of :
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
73. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
substance governing seed dormancy ? 79. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(1) Para-ascorbic acid (1) Valine

(2) Gibberellic acid (2) Tyrosine
(3) Abscisic acid (3) Glutamic Acid
(4) Phenolic acid (4) Lysine
11 H2
80. Match the following with respect to meiosis : 83. Which of the following would help in prevention of
diuresis ?
(1) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(2) More water reabsorption due to
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over undersecretion of ADH
(a) (b) (c) (d) vasoconstriction
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
84. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) temperature
(3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
81. Match the following diseases with the causative UV-B radiation
organism and select the correct option.
(4) High reflection of light from snow
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria 85. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (Bt) is resistant to :
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella (1) Insect predators

(2) Insect pests
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(3) Fungal diseases
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Plant nematodes
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 86. Select the correct events that occur during
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) inspiration.
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) Contraction of diaphragm

82. Match the following concerning essential elements
and their functions in plants : (c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (1) only (d)
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll (2) (a) and (b)
biosynthesis
(3) (c) and (d)
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 87. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) They have free DNA without protein coat.
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) They have RNA with protein coat.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) They have free RNA without protein coat.
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) They have DNA with protein coat.
H2 12
88. Match the following columns and select the 92. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. correct option.
Column - I Column - II Column - I Column - II
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
butylicum
second and
seventh ribs (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
polysporum
Humerus
purpureus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect lowering agent
with the sternum (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
93. The plant parts which consist of two generations -
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) one within the other :
89. Match the following columns and select the (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
correct option. (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
Column - I Column - II gametes
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias (c) Seed inside the fruit
pest (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion (1) (a) and (d)
symmetry and larva (2) (a) only
with bilateral symmetry (3) (a), (b) and (c)
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (4) (c) and (d)
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta 94. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
(a) (b) (c) (d) population ?
(1) Species interaction
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) Sex ratio
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (3) Natality
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) Mortality
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 95. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
90. Ray florets have : (1) Recognition site
(1) Half inferior ovary (2) Selectable marker
(2) Inferior ovary (3) Ori site
(4) Palindromic sequence
(3) Superior ovary
(4) Hypogynous ovary 96. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is :
91. In which of the following techniques, the embryos (1) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
are transferred to assist those females who cannot 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
conceive ? (2) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
(1) GIFT and ICSI 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(3) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
(2) ZIFT and IUT
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(3) GIFT and ZIFT (4) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(4) ICSI and ZIFT 3' - GAATTC - 5'
13 H2
97. Experimental verification of the chromosomal 101. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
theory of inheritance was done by : primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Morgan
(1) There is no relationship between Gross
(2) Mendel primary productivity and Net primary
(3) Sutton productivity.
(2) Gross primary productivity is always less
(4) Boveri
98. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(1) Ammonia and hydrogen productivity are one and same.
(2) Ammonia alone
(3) Nitrate alone 102. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
of organisms which have evolved due to changes
(4) Ammonia and oxygen in environment brought about by anthropogenic
action ?
99. Match the following columns and select the (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
correct option.
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon
gill slits (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
like dogs.
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(1) only (d)
caudal fin
(2) only (a)
(3) (a) and (c)
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 103. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) follicle ?
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Low concentration of FSH
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) High concentration of Estrogen

(3) High concentration of Progesterone
100. Identify the incorrect statement. (4) Low concentration of LH
heart wood is dark in colour. 104. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
(2) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives transfer of electrons from :
mechanical support. (1) PS-I to ATP synthase
(3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water (2) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
and minerals from root to leaf.
(3) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
and is lighter in colour. (4) PS-I to NADP+
H2 14
105. Which of the following statements is not 111. Strobili or cones are found in :
correct ?
(1) Equisetum
(1) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
(2) Salvinia
in E-Coli.
(3) Pteris
(2) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin. (4) Marchantia
C-peptide. 112. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
completed :
(4) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum
106. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino (2) Prior to ovulation
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :
(3) At the time of copulation
(4) After zygote formation
(3) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C 113. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle
at :
(1) Chalaza
107. Select the correct match. (2) Hilum
(1) Thalassemia - X linked (3) Micropyle
(2) Haemophilia - Y linked (4) Nucellus
(3) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait 114. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
(4) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal from :
recessive trait, (1) Compound epithelial cells
chromosome-11
(2) Squamous epithelial cells
108. Embryological support for evolution was (3) Columnar epithelial cells
disapproved by : (4) Chondrocytes
(1) Oparin
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer 115. Which of the following statements about inclusion
bodies is incorrect ?
(3) Alfred Wallace
(4) Charles Darwin cytoplasm.
(2) They are not bound by any membrane.
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ? (3) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles.
(1) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(2) Uremia and Ketonuria
(3) Uremia and Renal Calculi 116. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
(4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
110. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : crop.
(1) pepsinogen into pepsin (1) Abscisic acid
(2) protein into polypeptides (2) Cytokinin
(3) trypsinogen into trypsin (3) Gibberellin
(4) caseinogen into casein (4) Ethylene
15 H2
117. Identify the correct statement with reference to 122. Which is the important site of formation of
human digestive system. glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(1) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. (1) Polysomes
(2) Ileum opens into small intestine. (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (3) Peroxisomes
alimentary canal.
(4) Golgi bodies
(4) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
118. The ovary is half inferior in : G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Plum (1) Nuclear Division takes place.
(2) Brinjal (2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(3) Mustard
(3) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
(4) Sunflower place.
(4) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
119. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters not replicate its DNA.
the human body is :
(1) Male gametocytes 124. The first phase of translation is :
(2) Trophozoites (1) Recognition of an anti-codon
(3) Sporozoites (2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(4) Female gametocytes (3) Recognition of DNA molecule
120. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (4) Aminoacylation of tRNA
immunity.
125. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
(1) Foetus receives some antibodies from
helix during transcription.
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. (1) RNA polymerase
(2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (2) DNA ligase
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. (3) DNA helicase
(4) DNA polymerase
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
126. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
(4) Active immunity is quick and gives full are :
response.
(1) Lateral roots
121. Match the trophic levels with their correct species (2) Fibrous roots
examples in grassland ecosystem. (3) Primary roots
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (4) Prop roots
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit transport of oxygen.
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass (1) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) O2 binding with haemoglobin.
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
H2 16
128. Select the correct statement. 134. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia. (1) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
(2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
H-bonds.
(3) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
(4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and H-bond.
adipocytes. (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds.
129. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
are exemplified by : 135. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(1) Annelida
(2) Ctenophora
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(3) Platyhelminthes
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(4) Aschelminthes
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
130. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in histaminase,
photorespiration leads to the formation of : destructive
enzymes
(1) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
of 2-C compound (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(2) 2 molecules of 3-C compound containing
(3) 1 molecule of 3-C compound histamine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
131. Which one of the following is the most abundant (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
protein in the animals ? (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Insulin (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Haemoglobin 136. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same

(3) Collagen material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
(4) Lectin decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
132. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular frequency of B will be :
algae ? (1) 537 Hz
(1) Chlorella and Spirulina (2) 523 Hz
(2) Laminaria and Sargassum (3) 524 Hz

(4) 536 Hz
(4) Anabaena and Volvox 137. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
133. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
The permittivity of the medium is :
place by :
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
(1) insects and water
(1) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
(2) insects or wind
(2) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) water currents only (3) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) wind and water (4) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
17 H2
138. The phase difference between displacement and 142. For transistor action, which of the following
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic statements is correct ?
motion is : (1) The base region must be very thin and lightly
doped.
(1) zero
(2) π rad (2) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
3π
(3) rad (3) Base, emitter and collector regions should
2
π have same size.
(4) rad
2 (4) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
139. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
What will be the photoelectric current if the 143. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ? is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
(1) zero temperature)
(2) doubled
7
(3) four times (1) kBT
(4) one-fourth 2
1
140. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge (2) kBT
2
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is 3
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm (3) kBT
2
from the centre of the sphere ? 5
(4) kBT
 1  2
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0  144. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
(1) 1.28×107 N/C the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
(2) 1.28×104 N/C The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
(3) 1.28×105 N/C
(1) 5 N/C
(4) 1.28×106 N/C
(2) zero
141. Which of the following graph represents the (3) 0.5 N/C
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for (4) 1 N/C
copper ?
and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
(1) the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
(1) 20.0 g
(2) 2.5 g
(2) (3) 5.0 g
(4) 10.0 g
146. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively

are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
(3) 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
(1) 80 cm
(4) (2) 33 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 67 cm
H2 18
147. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are 153. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. the centre of the solenoid is :
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
opened. The process is : (1) 3.14×10−5 T
(1) isobaric (2) 6.28×10−4 T
(2) isothermal (3) 3.14×10−4 T
(3) adiabatic (4) 6.28×10−5 T
(4) isochoric
154. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
148. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is and magnetic field components to the intensity of
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly : an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
electromagnetic waves)
(1) 0.006
(1) 1 : c2
(2) 6
(2) c:1
(3) 0.6
(3) 1:1
(4) 0.06
(4) 1:c
149. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits 155. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
the ground after some time with a velocity of 16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2) dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
(1) 300 m centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
(2) 360 m angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
(3) 340 m  1 
(4) 320 m  = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0 
150. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is : (1) zero
(1) 0.5×1013 J (2) 50 V
(2) 4.5×1016 J (3) 200 V
(3) 4.5×1013 J (4) 400 V
(4) 1.5×1013 J
156. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The
151. The solids which have the negative temperature permeability of the material of the rod is :
coefficient of resistance are :
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(1) insulators and semiconductors
(2) metals (1) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
(3) insulators only (2) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1
(4) semiconductors only (3) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1

(4) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
152. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie 157. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
potential difference is : equal to half the radius of the earth ?
(1) 104 V (1) 24 N
(2) 10 V (2) 48 N
(3) 102 V (3) 32 N
(4) 103 V (4) 30 N
19 H2
158. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and 162. The increase in the width of the depletion region
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. in a p-n junction diode is due to :
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(1) increase in forward current
(1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.25 mm (3) reverse bias only
(4) 0.5 mm
(4) both forward bias and reverse bias
159. The quantities of heat required to raise the

temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
163. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
ratio : surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
5
(1)
3 (1) 48×103 J
27
(2) (2) 10×103 J
8
9 (3) 12×103 J
(3)
4
3 (4) 24×103 J
(4)
2
160. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the 164. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
ends of a massless string. The string passes over diameter d and number density n can be expressed
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The as :
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration
due to gravity (g) is : 1
(1) 2 2 2
2n π d
1
(2)
2 n πd
1
(3)
2 n πd2
(1) g/10 1
(4)
(2) g 2 n2 πd2
(3) g/2
(4) g/5 165. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz
161. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming circuit is, nearly :
whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is : (1) 25.1 A
(1) 6.00×10−7 rad
(2) 1.7 A
(2) 3.66×10−7 rad
(3) 1.83×10−7 rad (3) 2.05 A
(4) 7.32×10−7 rad (4) 2.5 A

H2 20
166. The color code of a resistance is given below : 169. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
π
3
π
the phase difference is again between current
3
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
are :
(1) 470 Ω, 5% (1) −1.0
(2) 470 kΩ, 5% (2) zero
(3) 47 kΩ, 10%
(3) 0.5
(4) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
(4) 1.0
167. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging
from a fixed support. The length of the wire 170. Dimensions of stress are :
(1) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
MgL (2) [ M L T−2 ]
(1) A(L1 − L) (3) [ M L2 T−2 ]
MgL1 (4) [ M L0T−2 ]
(2)
AL
Mg(L1 − L) 171. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of
(3)
AL 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
MgL
(4) AL1 Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.02 kg/m3
168. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
(2) 0.5 kg/m3
(3) 0.2 kg/m3
(4) 0.1 kg/m3
(1) A B Y 172. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
0 0 1 ∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is
0 1 0 ∧
1 0 0 2k m .
1 1 0 ∧
(2) A B Y (1) 6k N m
0 0 0 ∧
(2) 6i N m
0 1 0
1 0 0 ∧
(3) 6j Nm
1 1 1
(3) A B Y ∧
(4) −6 i N m
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1 173. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
valid ?
1 1 1
(4) A B Y (1) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
0 0 1 (2) Hydrogen atom
0 1 1
1 0 1 (3) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
1 1 0 (4) Deuteron atom
21 H2
174. When a uranium isotope 235 179. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
92 U is bombarded with
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
and : in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
103
(1) 36 Kr resistance wire is :
144
(1) 1.5×10−2 m
(2) 56 Ba (2) 1.0×10−2 m
91 (3) 1.0×10−1 m
(3) 40 Zr
(4) 1.5×10−1 m
101
(4) 36 Kr 180. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
175. Taking into account of the significant figures, what A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface.
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? If the refractive index of the material of the prism
(1) 9.9 m is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal
to :
(2) 9.9801 m
µA
(3) 9.98 m (1)
2
A
(4) 9.980 m (2)
2µ
2A
176. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : (3)
µ
(1) ib = 908 (4) µA
(2) 08 < ib < 308 -o0o-

(3) 308 < ib < 458
(4) 458 < ib < 908

of :
(1) 2.25×10−15
(2) 2.25×1015
(3) 2.5×106
(4) 2.5×10−6
178. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation

between coherent sources is halved and the
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(1) one-fourth
(2) double
(3) half
(4) four times

H2 22
23 H2
H2 24

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Test Booklet Code

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Roll Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Facsimile signature stamp of

(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+

(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

5. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

(1) Hydrogen gas

(2) Oxygen gas

(4) (3) H2S gas

(4) SO2 gas

(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with

(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance due

(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for

(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of

(1) 9. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a

(1) −I effect of −CH3 groups

(2) +R effect of −CH3 groups

(3) −R effect of −CH3 groups

10. Urea reacts with water to form A which will

11. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains

(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108] (1) 9 bar

(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24] (2) 12 bar

(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (3) 15 bar

(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (4) 18 bar

(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24− (2)

and Cr2O72− are not the same.

24. Identify the incorrect match.

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium (3)

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream (1) activation energy

(2) (a) and (c) only (2) 2

35. The mixture which shows positive deviation from

(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0 (2) Benzene+Toluene

31. Paper chromatography is an example of : Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose

(1) Adsorption chromatography If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at

(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)

(3) n-Heptane (3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(1) 71, 104 and 71

(3) Tyrosine (4) 175, 104 and 71

46. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a

(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should

51. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

(1) zero (4) 25.1 A

52. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of

55. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a

56. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of (1) zero

27 70. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field

(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (2) adiabatic

75. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas

89. The increase in the width of the depletion region

(1) only (a) (4) only (d)